1686.

 A person whose license, certificate, or permit has been revoked or suspended, who has been placed on probation, or whose license, certificate, or permit was surrendered pursuant to a stipulated settlement as a condition to avoid a disciplinary administrative hearing, may petition the board for reinstatement or modification of penalty, including modification or termination of probation, after a period of not less than the following minimum periods have elapsed from the effective date of the decision ordering disciplinary action:

(a) At least three years for reinstatement of a license revoked for unprofessional conduct or surrendered pursuant to a stipulated settlement as a condition to avoid an administrative disciplinary hearing.

(b) At least two years for early termination, or modification of a condition, of a probation of three years or more.

(c) At least one year for modification of a condition, or reinstatement of a license revoked for mental or physical illness, or termination, or modification of a condition, of a probation of less than three years.

The petition shall state any fact required by the board.

The petition may be heard by the board, or the board may assign the petition to an administrative law judge designated in Section 11371 of the Government Code.

In considering reinstatement or modification of penalty, the board or the administrative law judge hearing the petition may consider (1) all activities of the petitioner since the disciplinary action was taken, (2) the offense for which the petitioner was disciplined, (3) the petitioner’s activities during the time the license, certificate, or permit was in good standing, and (4) the petitioner’s rehabilitative efforts, general reputation for truth, and professional ability. The hearing may be continued from time to time as the board or the administrative law judge as designated in Section 11371 of the Government Code finds necessary.

The board or the administrative law judge may impose necessary terms and conditions on the licentiate in reinstating a license, certificate, or permit or modifying a penalty.

A petition under this section shall not be considered while the petitioner is under sentence for any criminal offense, including any period during which the petitioner is on court-imposed probation or parole. A petition shall not be considered while there is an accusation or petition to revoke probation pending against the person. The board may deny without a hearing or argument any petition filed pursuant to this section within a period of two years from the effective date of the prior decision following a hearing under this section.

This section shall not be deemed to alter Sections 822 and 823.

1957.

 (a) A person whose license has been revoked or suspended, who has been placed on probation, or whose license was surrendered pursuant to a stipulated settlement as a condition to avoid a disciplinary administrative hearing, may petition the hygiene board for reinstatement or modification of the penalty, including modification or termination of probation, after a period of not less than the following minimum periods have elapsed from the effective date of the decision ordering disciplinary action:

(1) At least three years for reinstatement of a license revoked for unprofessional conduct or surrendered pursuant to a stipulated settlement as a condition to avoid an administrative disciplinary hearing.

(2) At least two years for early termination, or modification of a condition, of a probation of three years or more.

(3) At least one year for modification of a condition, or reinstatement of a license revoked for mental or physical illness, or termination, or modification of a condition, of a probation of less than three years.

(b) The petition shall state any fact required by the hygiene board.

(c) The petition may be heard by the hygiene board, or the hygiene board may assign the petition to an administrative law judge designated in Section 11371 of the Government Code.

(d) In considering reinstatement or modification of penalty, the hygiene board or the administrative law judge hearing the petition may consider the following:

(1) All activities of the petitioner since the disciplinary action was taken.

(2) The offense for which the petitioner was disciplined.

(3) The petitioner’s activities during the time the license or permit was in good standing.

(4) The petitioner’s rehabilitative efforts, general reputation for truth, and professional ability.

(e) The hearing may be continued from time to time as the hygiene board or the administrative law judge as designated in Section 11371 of the Government Code finds necessary.

(f) The hygiene board or the administrative law judge may impose necessary terms and conditions on the licentiate in reinstating a license or permit or modifying a penalty.

(g) A petition shall not be considered while the petitioner is under sentence for any criminal offense, including any period during which the petitioner is on court-imposed probation or parole.

(h) A petition shall not be considered while there is an accusation or petition to revoke probation pending against the person.

(i) The hygiene board may deny without a hearing or argument any petition filed pursuant to this section within a period of two years from the effective date of the prior decision following a hearing under this section. This section shall not be deemed to alter Sections 822 and 823.

1966.1.

 (a) The hygiene board shall establish criteria for the acceptance, denial, or termination of licensees in a diversion program. Unless ordered by the hygiene board as a condition of a licensee’s disciplinary probation, only those licensees who have voluntarily requested diversion treatment and supervision by a diversion evaluation committee shall participate in a diversion program.

(b) A licensee who is not the subject of a current investigation may self-refer to the diversion program on a confidential basis, except as provided in subdivision (f).

(c) A licensee under current investigation by the hygiene board may also request entry into a diversion program by contacting the hygiene board. The hygiene board may refer the licensee requesting participation in the program to a diversion evaluation committee for evaluation of eligibility. Prior to authorizing a licensee to enter into the diversion program, the hygiene board may require the licensee, while under current investigation for any violations of this article or other violations, to execute a statement of understanding that states that the licensee understands that the licensee’s violations of this article or other statutes that would otherwise be the basis for discipline may still be investigated and be the subject of disciplinary action.

(d) If the reasons for a current investigation of a licensee are based primarily on the self-administration of any controlled substance or dangerous drugs or alcohol under Section 1951, or the illegal possession, prescription, or nonviolent procurement of any controlled substance or dangerous drugs for self-administration that does not involve actual, direct harm to the public, the hygiene board shall close the investigation without further action if the licensee is accepted into the hygiene board’s diversion program and successfully completes the requirements of the program. If the licensee withdraws or is terminated from the program by a diversion evaluation committee, the investigation shall be reopened and disciplinary action imposed, if warranted, as determined by the hygiene board.

(e) Acceptance or participation in the diversion program does not preclude the hygiene board from investigating or continuing to investigate, or taking disciplinary action or continuing to take disciplinary action against, any licensee for any unprofessional conduct committed before, during, or after participation in the diversion program.

(f) All licensees shall sign an agreement of understanding that the withdrawal or termination from the diversion program at a time when a diversion evaluation committee determines the licensee presents a threat to the public’s health and safety shall result in the utilization by the hygiene board of diversion treatment records in disciplinary or criminal proceedings.

(g) Any licensee terminated from the diversion program for failure to comply with program requirements is subject to disciplinary action by the hygiene board for acts committed before, during, and after participation in the diversion program. A licensee who has been under investigation by the hygiene board and has been terminated from the diversion program by a diversion evaluation committee shall be reported by the diversion evaluation committee to the hygiene board.

2190.6.

 (a) As an alternative to Section 2190.5, a physician and surgeon may complete a one-time continuing education course of 12 credit hours in the subject of treatment and management of opiate-dependent patients, including eight hours of training in buprenorphine treatment, or other similar medicinal treatment, for opioid use disorders.

(b) A physician and surgeon who meets the requirements, as determined by the board, of a “qualifying physician” under clause (ii) of subparagraph (G) of paragraph (2) of subsection (g) of Section 823 of Title 21 of the United States Code, the Comprehensive Addiction Recovery Act of 2016 (Public Law 114-198), as that clause read on January 1, 2018, shall be deemed to have met the requirements of subdivision (a).

(c) A physician and surgeon who chooses to comply with this section as an alternative to Section 2190.5 shall complete the requirements of this section by the physician and surgeon’s next license renewal date.

(d) The board shall determine whether a physician and surgeon has met the requirements of this section.

4052.2.

 (a) Notwithstanding any other law, a pharmacist may perform the following procedures or functions as part of the care provided by a health care facility, a licensed home health agency, licensed correctional clinic, a licensed clinic in which there is physician oversight, a provider who contracts with a licensed health care service plan with regard to the care or services provided to the enrollees of that health care service plan, or a physician, in accordance with the policies, procedures, or protocols of that facility, home health agency, licensed correctional clinic, licensed clinic, health care service plan, or physician, and in accordance with subdivision (c):

(1) Ordering or performing routine drug therapy-related patient assessment procedures including temperature, pulse, and respiration.

(2) Ordering drug therapy-related laboratory tests.

(3) Administering drugs and biologicals by injection pursuant to a prescriber’s order.

(4) Initiating or adjusting the drug regimen of a patient pursuant to a specific written order or authorization made by the individual patient’s treating prescriber, and in accordance with the policies, procedures, or protocols of the health care facility, home health agency, licensed correctional clinic, licensed clinic, health care service plan, or physician. Adjusting the drug regimen does not include substituting or selecting a different drug, except as authorized by the protocol. The pharmacist shall provide written notification to the patient’s treating prescriber, or enter the appropriate information in an electronic patient record system shared by the prescriber, of any drug regimen initiated pursuant to this paragraph within 24 hours.

(b) A patient’s treating prescriber may prohibit, by written instruction, any adjustment or change in the patient’s drug regimen by the pharmacist.

(c) The policies, procedures, or protocols referred to in this subdivision shall be developed by health care professionals, including physicians, pharmacists, and registered nurses, and shall, at a minimum, do all of the following:

(1) Require that the pharmacist function as part of a multidisciplinary group that includes physicians and direct care registered nurses. The multidisciplinary group shall determine the appropriate participation of the pharmacist and the direct care registered nurse.

(2) Require that the medical records of the patient be available to both the patient’s treating prescriber and the pharmacist.

(3) Require that the procedures to be performed by the pharmacist relate to a condition for which the patient has first been seen by a physician.

(4) Except for procedures or functions provided by a health care facility, a licensed correctional clinic, as defined in Section 4187, a licensed clinic in which there is physician oversight, or a provider who contracts with a licensed health care plan with regard to the care or services provided to the enrollees of that health care service plan, require the procedures to be performed in accordance with a written, patient-specific protocol approved by the treating or supervising physician. Any change, adjustment, or modification of an approved preexisting treatment or drug therapy shall be provided in writing to the treating or supervising physician within 24 hours.

(d) Prior to performing any procedure authorized by this section, a pharmacist shall have done either of the following:

(1) Successfully completed clinical residency training.

(2) Demonstrated clinical experience in direct patient care delivery.

4187.1.

 (a) Notwithstanding any other provision of this chapter, a correctional clinic licensed by the board under this article may obtain drugs from a licensed correctional pharmacy, the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation’s Central Fill Pharmacy, or from another correctional clinic licensed by the board under this article within the same institution for the administration or dispensing of drugs or devices to patients eligible for care at the correctional facility if under either:

(1) The direction of a physician and surgeon, dentist, or other person lawfully authorized to prescribe.

(2) An approved protocol as identified within the statewide Inmate Medical Services Policies and Procedures.

(b) The dispensing or administering of drugs in a correctional clinic may be performed pursuant to a chart order, as defined in Section 4019, a valid prescription consistent with this chapter, or pursuant to an approved protocol as identified within the statewide Inmate Medical Services Policies and Procedures. The dispensing of drugs in a correctional clinic shall only be performed by a physician and surgeon, a dentist, a pharmacist, or other person lawfully authorized to dispense drugs. Medications dispensed to patients that are to be kept on the patient’s person for use shall meet the labeling requirements of Section 4076 and all recordkeeping requirements of this chapter.

(c) A correctional clinic shall keep records of the kind and amounts of drugs acquired, administered, transferred, and dispensed. The records shall be available and maintained for a minimum of three years for inspection by all properly authorized personnel.

(d) (1) A correctional clinic shall not be entitled to the benefits of this section until it has obtained a license from the board.

(2) A separate license shall be required for each correctional clinic location and shall not be transferrable.

(3) A correctional clinic’s location and address shall be identified by correctional institution and building within that correctional institution.

(4) A clinic shall notify the board in advance of any change in the clinic’s address on a form furnished by the board.

4187.2.

 (a) The policies and procedures to implement the laws and regulations of this article within a correctional clinic shall be developed and approved by the statewide Correctional Pharmacy and Therapeutics Committee referenced in Section 5024.2 of the Penal Code. Prior to the issuance of a correctional clinic license by the board, an acknowledgment shall be signed by the correctional facility pharmacist-in-charge servicing that institution, the pharmacist-in-charge for the California Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation’s Central Fill Pharmacy, and the correctional clinic’s chief medical executive, supervising dentist, chief nurse executive, and chief executive officer.

(b) (1) The chief executive officer shall be responsible for the safe, orderly, and lawful provision of pharmacy services. The pharmacist-in-charge of the correctional facility shall implement the policies and procedures developed and approved by the statewide Correctional Pharmacy and Therapeutics Committee referenced in Section 5024.2 of the Penal Code and the statewide Inmate Medical Services Policies and Procedures in conjunction with the chief executive officer, the chief medical executive, the supervising dentist, and the chief nurse executive.

(2) A licensed correctional clinic shall notify the board within 30 days of any change in the chief executive officer on a form furnished by the board.

(c) A correctional facility pharmacist shall be required to inspect the clinic at least quarterly.

4982.

 The board may deny a license or registration or may suspend or revoke the license or registration of a licensee or registrant if the licensee or registrant has been guilty of unprofessional conduct. Unprofessional conduct includes, but is not limited to, the following:

(a) The conviction of a crime substantially related to the qualifications, functions, or duties of a licensee or registrant under this chapter. The record of conviction shall be conclusive evidence only of the fact that the conviction occurred. The board may inquire into the circumstances surrounding the commission of the crime in order to fix the degree of discipline or to determine if the conviction is substantially related to the qualifications, functions, or duties of a licensee or registrant under this chapter. A plea or verdict of guilty or a conviction following a plea of nolo contendere made to a charge substantially related to the qualifications, functions, or duties of a licensee or registrant under this chapter shall be deemed to be a conviction within the meaning of this section. The board may order any license or registration suspended or revoked, or may decline to issue a license or registration when the time for appeal has elapsed, or the judgment of conviction has been affirmed on appeal, or, when an order granting probation is made suspending the imposition of sentence, irrespective of a subsequent order under Section 1203.4 of the Penal Code allowing the person to withdraw a plea of guilty and enter a plea of not guilty, or setting aside the verdict of guilty, or dismissing the accusation, information, or indictment.

(b) Securing a license or registration by fraud, deceit, or misrepresentation on any application for licensure or registration submitted to the board, whether engaged in by an applicant for a license or registration, or by a licensee in support of any application for licensure or registration.

(c) Administering to themself any controlled substance or using of any of the dangerous drugs specified in Section 4022, or of any alcoholic beverage to the extent, or in a manner, as to be dangerous or injurious to the person applying for a registration or license or holding a registration or license under this chapter, or to any other person, or to the public, or, to the extent that the use impairs the ability of the person applying for or holding a registration or license to conduct with safety to the public the practice authorized by the registration or license. The board shall deny an application for a registration or license or revoke the license or registration of any person, other than one who is licensed as a physician and surgeon, who uses or offers to use drugs in the course of performing marriage and family therapy services.

(d) Gross negligence or incompetence in the performance of marriage and family therapy.

(e) Violating, attempting to violate, or conspiring to violate any of the provisions of this chapter or any regulation adopted by the board.

(f) Misrepresentation as to the type or status of a license or registration held by the licensee or registrant or otherwise misrepresenting or permitting misrepresentation of the licensee’s or registrant’s education, professional qualifications, or professional affiliations to any person or entity.

(g) Impersonation of another by any licensee, registrant, or applicant for a license or registration, or, in the case of a licensee or registrant, allowing any other person to use the licensee’s or registrant’s license or registration.

(h) Aiding or abetting, or employing, directly or indirectly, any unlicensed or unregistered person to engage in conduct for which a license or registration is required under this chapter.

(i) Intentionally or recklessly causing physical or emotional harm to any client.

(j) The commission of any dishonest, corrupt, or fraudulent act substantially related to the qualifications, functions, or duties of a licensee or registrant.

(k) Engaging in sexual relations with a client, or a former client within two years following termination of therapy, soliciting sexual relations with a client, or committing an act of sexual abuse, or sexual misconduct with a client, or committing an act punishable as a sexually related crime, if that act or solicitation is substantially related to the qualifications, functions, or duties of a marriage and family therapist.

(l) Performing, or holding oneself out as being able to perform, or offering to perform, or permitting any trainee, registered associate, or applicant for licensure under supervision to perform, any professional services beyond the scope of the license authorized by this chapter.

(m) Failure to maintain confidentiality, except as otherwise required or permitted by law, of all information that has been received from a client in confidence during the course of treatment and all information about the client that is obtained from tests or other means.

(n) Prior to the commencement of treatment, failing to disclose to the client or prospective client the fee to be charged for the professional services, or the basis upon which that fee will be computed.

(o) Paying, accepting, or soliciting any consideration, compensation, or remuneration, whether monetary or otherwise, for the referral of professional clients. All consideration, compensation, or remuneration shall be in relation to professional counseling services actually provided by the licensee. This subdivision does not prevent collaboration among two or more licensees in a case or cases. However, a fee shall not be charged for that collaboration, except when disclosure of the fee has been made in compliance with subdivision (n).

(p) Advertising in a manner that is false, fraudulent, misleading, or deceptive, as defined in Section 651.

(q) Reproduction or description in public, or in any publication subject to general public distribution, of any psychological test or other assessment device, the value of which depends in whole or in part on the naivete of the subject, in ways that might invalidate the test or device.

(r) Any conduct in the supervision of any registered associate, trainee, or applicant for licensure by any licensee that violates this chapter or any rules or regulations adopted by the board.

(s) Performing or holding oneself out as being able to perform mental health services beyond the scope of one’s competence, as established by one’s education, training, or experience. This subdivision shall not be construed to expand the scope of the license authorized by this chapter.

(t) Permitting a trainee, registered associate, or applicant for licensure under one’s supervision or control to perform, or permitting the trainee, registered associate, or applicant for licensure to hold themself out as competent to perform, mental health services beyond the trainee’s, registered associate’s, or applicant for licensure’s level of education, training, or experience.

(u) The violation of any statute or regulation governing the gaining and supervision of experience required by this chapter.

(v) Failure to keep records consistent with sound clinical judgment, the standards of the profession, and the nature of the services being rendered.

(w) Failure to comply with the child abuse reporting requirements of Section 11166 of the Penal Code.

(x) Failure to comply with the elder and dependent adult abuse reporting requirements of Section 15630 of the Welfare and Institutions Code.

(y) Willful violation of Chapter 1 (commencing with Section 123100) of Part 1 of Division 106 of the Health and Safety Code.

(z) Failure to comply with Section 2290.5.

(aa) (1) Engaging in an act described in Section 261, 286, 287, or 289 of, or former Section 288a of, the Penal Code with a minor or an act described in Section 288 or 288.5 of the Penal Code regardless of whether the act occurred prior to or after the time the registration or license was issued by the board. An act described in this subdivision occurring prior to the effective date of this subdivision shall constitute unprofessional conduct and shall subject the licensee to refusal, suspension, or revocation of a license under this section.

(2) The Legislature hereby finds and declares that protection of the public, and in particular minors, from sexual misconduct by a licensee is a compelling governmental interest, and that the ability to suspend or revoke a license for sexual conduct with a minor occurring prior to the effective date of this section is equally important to protecting the public as is the ability to refuse a license for sexual conduct with a minor occurring prior to the effective date of this section.

(ab) Engaging in any conduct that subverts or attempts to subvert any licensing examination or the administration of an examination as described in Section 123.

4992.3.

 The board may deny a license or a registration, or may suspend or revoke the license or registration of a licensee or registrant if the licensee or registrant has been guilty of unprofessional conduct. Unprofessional conduct includes, but is not limited to, the following:

(a) The conviction of a crime substantially related to the qualifications, functions, or duties of a licensee or registrant under this chapter. The record of conviction shall be conclusive evidence only of the fact that the conviction occurred. The board may inquire into the circumstances surrounding the commission of the crime in order to fix the degree of discipline or to determine if the conviction is substantially related to the qualifications, functions, or duties of a licensee or registrant under this chapter. A plea or verdict of guilty or a conviction following a plea of nolo contendere made to a charge substantially related to the qualifications, functions, or duties of a licensee or registrant under this chapter is a conviction within the meaning of this section. The board may order any license or registration suspended or revoked, or may decline to issue a license or registration when the time for appeal has elapsed, or the judgment of conviction has been affirmed on appeal, or, when an order granting probation is made suspending the imposition of sentence, irrespective of a subsequent order under Section 1203.4 of the Penal Code allowing the person to withdraw a plea of guilty and enter a plea of not guilty, or setting aside the verdict of guilty, or dismissing the accusation, information, or indictment.

(b) Securing a license or registration by fraud, deceit, or misrepresentation on any application for licensure or registration submitted to the board, whether engaged in by an applicant for a license or registration, or by a licensee in support of any application for licensure or registration.

(c) Administering to themself any controlled substance or using any of the dangerous drugs specified in Section 4022 or any alcoholic beverage to the extent, or in a manner, as to be dangerous or injurious to the person applying for a registration or license or holding a registration or license under this chapter, or to any other person, or to the public, or, to the extent that the use impairs the ability of the person applying for or holding a registration or license to conduct with safety to the public the practice authorized by the registration or license. The board shall deny an application for a registration or license or revoke the license or registration of any person who uses or offers to use drugs in the course of performing clinical social work. This provision does not apply to any person also licensed as a physician and surgeon under Chapter 5 (commencing with Section 2000) or the Osteopathic Act who lawfully prescribes drugs to a patient under the person’s care.

(d) Incompetence in the performance of clinical social work.

(e) An act or omission that falls sufficiently below the standard of conduct of the profession as to constitute an act of gross negligence.

(f) Violating, attempting to violate, or conspiring to violate this chapter or any regulation adopted by the board.

(g) Misrepresentation as to the type or status of a license or registration held by the licensee or registrant or otherwise misrepresenting or permitting misrepresentation of the licensee’s or registrant’s education, professional qualifications, or professional affiliations to any person or entity. For purposes of this subdivision, this misrepresentation includes, but is not limited to, misrepresentation of the person’s qualifications as an adoption service provider pursuant to Section 8502 of the Family Code.

(h) Impersonation of another by any licensee, registrant, or applicant for a license or registration, or, in the case of a licensee or registrant, allowing any other person to use the licensee’s or registrant’s license or registration.

(i) Aiding or abetting, or employing, directly or indirectly, any unlicensed or unregistered person to engage in conduct for which a license or registration is required under this chapter.

(j) Intentionally or recklessly causing physical or emotional harm to any client.

(k) The commission of any dishonest, corrupt, or fraudulent act substantially related to the qualifications, functions, or duties of a licensee or registrant.

(l) Engaging in sexual relations with a client or with a former client within two years from the termination date of therapy with the client, soliciting sexual relations with a client, or committing an act of sexual abuse, or sexual misconduct with a client, or committing an act punishable as a sexually related crime, if that act or solicitation is substantially related to the qualifications, functions, or duties of a clinical social worker.

(m) Performing, or holding oneself out as being able to perform, or offering to perform or permitting, any registered associate, trainee, or applicant for licensure under supervision to perform any professional services beyond the scope of the license authorized by this chapter.

(n) Failure to maintain confidentiality, except as otherwise required or permitted by law, of all information that has been received from a client in confidence during the course of treatment and all information about the client that is obtained from tests or other means.

(o) Prior to the commencement of treatment, failing to disclose to the client or prospective client the fee to be charged for the professional services, or the basis upon which that fee will be computed.

(p) Paying, accepting, or soliciting any consideration, compensation, or remuneration, whether monetary or otherwise, for the referral of professional clients. All consideration, compensation, or remuneration shall be in relation to professional counseling services actually provided by the licensee. This subdivision does not prevent collaboration among two or more licensees in a case or cases. However, no fee shall be charged for that collaboration, except when disclosure of the fee has been made in compliance with subdivision (o).

(q) Advertising in a manner that is false, fraudulent, misleading, or deceptive, as defined in Section 651.

(r) Reproduction or description in public, or in any publication subject to general public distribution, of any psychological test or other assessment device, the value of which depends in whole or in part on the naivete of the subject, in ways that might invalidate the test or device. A licensee shall limit access to that test or device to persons with professional interest who are expected to safeguard its use.

(s) Any conduct in the supervision of any registered associate, trainee, or applicant for licensure by any licensee that violates this chapter or any rules or regulations adopted by the board.

(t) Performing or holding oneself out as being able to perform mental health services beyond the scope of one’s competence, as established by one’s education, training, or experience. This subdivision shall not be construed to expand the scope of the license authorized by this chapter.

(u) Permitting an applicant for licensure, trainee, or registrant under one’s supervision or control to perform, or permitting the supervisee to hold themself out as competent to perform, mental health services beyond the supervisee’s level of education, training, or experience.

(v) The violation of any law governing the gaining or supervision of experience required by this chapter.

(w) Failure to keep records consistent with sound clinical judgment, the standards of the profession, and the nature of the services being rendered.

(x) Failure to comply with the child abuse reporting requirements of Section 11166 of the Penal Code.

(y) Failure to comply with the elder and dependent adult abuse reporting requirements of Section 15630 of the Welfare and Institutions Code.

(z) Willful violation of Chapter 1 (commencing with Section 123100) of Part 1 of Division 106 of the Health and Safety Code.

(aa) Failure to comply with Section 2290.5.

(ab) (1) Engaging in an act described in Section 261, 286, 287, or 289 of, or former Section 288a of, the Penal Code with a minor or an act described in Section 288 or 288.5 of the Penal Code regardless of whether the act occurred prior to or after the time the registration or license was issued by the board. An act described in this subdivision occurring prior to the effective date of this subdivision shall constitute unprofessional conduct and shall subject the licensee to refusal, suspension, or revocation of a license under this section.

(2) The Legislature hereby finds and declares that protection of the public, and in particular minors, from sexual misconduct by a licensee is a compelling governmental interest, and that the ability to suspend or revoke a license for sexual conduct with a minor occurring prior to the effective date of this section is equally important to protecting the public as is the ability to refuse a license for sexual conduct with a minor occurring prior to the effective date of this section.

(ac) Engaging in any conduct that subverts or attempts to subvert any licensing examination or the administration of the examination as described in Section 123.

4999.90.

 The board may refuse to issue any registration or license, or may suspend or revoke the registration or license of any associate or licensed professional clinical counselor, if the applicant, licensee, or registrant has been guilty of unprofessional conduct. Unprofessional conduct includes, but is not limited to, the following:

(a) The conviction of a crime substantially related to the qualifications, functions, or duties of a licensee or registrant under this chapter. The record of conviction shall be conclusive evidence only of the fact that the conviction occurred. The board may inquire into the circumstances surrounding the commission of the crime in order to fix the degree of discipline or to determine if the conviction is substantially related to the qualifications, functions, or duties of a licensee or registrant under this chapter. A plea or verdict of guilty or a conviction following a plea of nolo contendere made to a charge substantially related to the qualifications, functions, or duties of a licensee or registrant under this chapter shall be deemed to be a conviction within the meaning of this section. The board may order any license or registration suspended or revoked, or may decline to issue a license or registration when the time for appeal has elapsed, or the judgment of conviction has been affirmed on appeal, or, when an order granting probation is made suspending the imposition of sentence, irrespective of a subsequent order under Section 1203.4 of the Penal Code allowing the person to withdraw a plea of guilty and enter a plea of not guilty, or setting aside the verdict of guilty, or dismissing the accusation, information, or indictment.

(b) Securing a license or registration by fraud, deceit, or misrepresentation on any application for licensure or registration submitted to the board, whether engaged in by an applicant for a license or registration, or by a licensee in support of any application for licensure or registration.

(c) Administering to themself any controlled substance or using any of the dangerous drugs specified in Section 4022, or any alcoholic beverage to the extent, or in a manner, as to be dangerous or injurious to the person applying for a registration or license or holding a registration or license under this chapter, or to any other person, or to the public, or, to the extent that the use impairs the ability of the person applying for or holding a registration or license to conduct with safety to the public the practice authorized by the registration or license. The board shall deny an application for a registration or license or revoke the license or registration of any person, other than one who is licensed as a physician and surgeon, who uses or offers to use drugs in the course of performing licensed professional clinical counseling services.

(d) Gross negligence or incompetence in the performance of licensed professional clinical counseling services.

(e) Violating, attempting to violate, or conspiring to violate any of the provisions of this chapter or any regulation adopted by the board.

(f) Misrepresentation as to the type or status of a license or registration held by the person, or otherwise misrepresenting or permitting misrepresentation of the licensee’s or registrant’s education, professional qualifications, or professional affiliations to any person or entity.

(g) Impersonation of another by any licensee, registrant, or applicant for a license or registration, or, in the case of a licensee or registrant, allowing any other person to use the licensee’s or registrant’s license or registration.

(h) Aiding or abetting, or employing, directly or indirectly, any unlicensed or unregistered person to engage in conduct for which a license or registration is required under this chapter.

(i) Intentionally or recklessly causing physical or emotional harm to any client.

(j) The commission of any dishonest, corrupt, or fraudulent act substantially related to the qualifications, functions, or duties of a licensee or registrant.

(k) Engaging in sexual relations with a client, or a former client within two years following termination of therapy, soliciting sexual relations with a client, or committing an act of sexual abuse, or sexual misconduct with a client, or committing an act punishable as a sexually related crime, if that act or solicitation is substantially related to the qualifications, functions, or duties of a licensed professional clinical counselor.

(l) Performing, or holding oneself out as being able to perform, or offering to perform, or permitting any trainee, applicant, or registrant under supervision to perform, any professional services beyond the scope of the license authorized by this chapter.

(m) Failure to maintain confidentiality, except as otherwise required or permitted by law, of all information that has been received from a client in confidence during the course of treatment and all information about the client which is obtained from tests or other means.

(n) Prior to the commencement of treatment, failing to disclose to the client or prospective client the fee to be charged for the professional services, or the basis upon which that fee will be computed.

(o) Paying, accepting, or soliciting any consideration, compensation, or remuneration, whether monetary or otherwise, for the referral of professional clients. All consideration, compensation, or remuneration shall be in relation to professional clinical counseling services actually provided by the licensee. This subdivision does not prevent collaboration among two or more licensees in a case or cases. However, no fee shall be charged for that collaboration, except when disclosure of the fee has been made in compliance with subdivision (n).

(p) Advertising in a manner that is false, fraudulent, misleading, or deceptive, as defined in Section 651.

(q) Reproduction or description in public, or in any publication subject to general public distribution, of any psychological test or other assessment device, the value of which depends in whole or in part on the naivete of the subject, in ways that might invalidate the test or device.

(r) Any conduct in the supervision of a registered associate, trainee, or applicant by any licensee that violates this chapter or any rules or regulations adopted by the board.

(s) Performing or holding oneself out as being able to perform mental health services beyond the scope of one’s competence, as established by one’s education, training, or experience. This subdivision shall not be construed to expand the scope of the license authorized by this chapter.

(t) Permitting a trainee, associate, or applicant under one’s supervision or control to perform, or permitting the trainee, associate, or applicant to hold themself out as competent to perform, mental health services beyond the trainee’s, associate’s, or applicant’s level of education, training, or experience.

(u) The violation of any statute or regulation governing the gaining and supervision of experience required by this chapter.

(v) Failure to keep records consistent with sound clinical judgment, the standards of the profession, and the nature of the services being rendered.

(w) Failure to comply with the child abuse reporting requirements of Section 11166 of the Penal Code.

(x) Failing to comply with the elder and dependent adult abuse reporting requirements of Section 15630 of the Welfare and Institutions Code.

(y) Repeated acts of negligence.

(z) (1) Engaging in an act described in Section 261, 286, 287, or 289 of, or former Section 288a of, the Penal Code with a minor or an act described in Section 288 or 288.5 of the Penal Code regardless of whether the act occurred prior to or after the time the registration or license was issued by the board. An act described in this subdivision occurring prior to the effective date of this subdivision shall constitute unprofessional conduct and shall subject the licensee to refusal, suspension, or revocation of a license under this section.

(2) The Legislature hereby finds and declares that protection of the public, and in particular minors, from sexual misconduct by a licensee is a compelling governmental interest, and that the ability to suspend or revoke a license for sexual conduct with a minor occurring prior to the effective date of this section is equally important to protecting the public as is the ability to refuse a license for sexual conduct with a minor occurring prior to the effective date of this section.

(aa) Engaging in any conduct that subverts or attempts to subvert any licensing examination or the administration of an examination as described in Section 123.

(ab) Revocation, suspension, or restriction by the board of a license, certificate, or registration to practice as a professional clinical counselor, clinical social worker, educational psychologist, or marriage and family therapist.

(ac) Failing to comply with the procedures set forth in Section 2290.5 when delivering health care via telehealth.

(ad) Willful violation of Chapter 1 (commencing with Section 123100) of Part 1 of Division 106 of the Health and Safety Code.

5100.1.

 Notwithstanding any other law, in causes for discipline against a licensee under subdivision (d), (h), or (l) of Section 5100, the board shall rely on the findings or events stated in a certified or true and correct copy of the disciplinary or other action as conclusive evidence for the purpose of determining discipline.

7099.8.

 (a) Notwithstanding any other law, if a person cited pursuant to Section 7028.7 or 7099 wishes to contest the citation, that person shall, within 15 days after service of the citation, file in writing a request for an administrative hearing as provided pursuant to Section 7028.12 or 7099.5.

(b) (1) In addition to, or instead of, requesting an administrative hearing pursuant to subdivision (a), the person cited pursuant to Section 7028.7 or 7099 may, within 15 days after service of the citation, contest the citation by submitting a written request for an informal citation conference to the chief of the enforcement division or a designee.

(2) Upon receipt of a written request for an informal citation conference, the chief of the enforcement division or a designee shall, within 60 days of the request, hold an informal citation conference with the person requesting the conference. The cited person may be accompanied and represented by an attorney or other authorized representative.

(3) If an informal citation conference is held, the request for an administrative hearing shall be deemed withdrawn and the chief of the enforcement division, or a designee, may affirm, modify, or dismiss the citation at the conclusion of the informal citation conference. If so affirmed or modified, the citation originally issued shall be considered withdrawn and an affirmed or modified citation, including reasons for the decision, shall be issued. The affirmed or modified citation shall be mailed to the cited person and that person’s counsel, if any, within 10 days of the date of the informal citation conference.

(4) If a cited person wishes to contest a citation affirmed or modified pursuant to paragraph (3), the person shall, within 30 days after service of the modified or affirmed citation, contest the affirmed or modified citation by submitting a written request for an administrative hearing to the chief of the enforcement division or a designee. An informal citation conference shall not be held for affirmed or modified citations.

(c) The citation conference is informal and shall not be subject to the Administrative Procedure Act (Chapter 4.5 (commencing with Section 11400) of, or Chapter 5 (commencing with Section 11500) of Part 1 of, Division 3 of Title 2 of the Government Code).

7542.2.

 The bureau shall issue a firearms permit when all of the following conditions are satisfied:

(a) The applicant is a licensee or a qualified manager of a licensee.

(b) The firearms permit is associated with one of the following:

(1) An individual licensed as a private investigator pursuant to Section 7525.1.

(2) A partner of a partnership licensed as a private investigator pursuant to Section 7525.1.

(3) A qualified manager of a licensed private investigator pursuant to Section 7536.

(c) A certified firearms training instructor, as specified in Section 7585.5, has certified that the applicant has successfully completed a written examination prepared by the bureau and a training course in the carrying and use of firearms approved by the bureau.

(d) The applicant has filed with the bureau a classifiable fingerprint card, a completed application for a firearms permit on a form prescribed by the director, dated and signed by the applicant, certifying under penalty of perjury that the information in the application is true and correct. In lieu of a classifiable fingerprint card, the applicant may submit fingerprints into an electronic fingerprinting system administered by the Department of Justice. An applicant who submits the applicant’s fingerprints by electronic means shall have the applicant’s fingerprints entered into the system through a terminal operated by a law enforcement agency or other facility authorized by the Department of Justice to conduct electronic fingerprinting. The terminal operator may charge a fee sufficient to reimburse it for the costs incurred in providing this service.

(e) The bureau has determined, after investigation, that the carrying and use of a firearm by the applicant, in the course of the applicant’s duties, presents no apparent threat to the public safety, or that the carrying and use of a firearm by the applicant is not in violation of the Penal Code.

(f) The applicant has produced evidence to the firearms training facility that the applicant is a citizen of the United States or has permanent legal alien status in the United States. Evidence of citizenship or permanent legal alien status shall be that deemed sufficient by the bureau to ensure compliance with federal laws prohibiting possession of firearms by persons unlawfully in the United States and may include, but not be limited to, United States Department of Justice, Immigration and Naturalization Service Form I-151 or I-551, Alien Registration Receipt Card, naturalization documents, or birth certificates evidencing lawful residence or status in the United States.

(g) The application is accompanied by the application fees prescribed in this chapter.

9889.4.

 A plea or verdict of guilty or a conviction following a plea of nolo contendere is deemed to be a conviction within the meaning of this article. The director may order the license suspended or revoked, or may decline to issue a license, when the time for appeal has elapsed, or the judgment of conviction has been affirmed on appeal, or when an order granting probation is made suspending the imposition of sentence, irrespective of a subsequent order under the provisions of Section 1203.4 of the Penal Code allowing such person to withdraw the person’s plea of guilty and to enter a plea of not guilty, or setting aside the verdict of guilty, or dismissing the accusation, information, or indictment.

9889.16.

 Whenever a licensed adjuster in a licensed station upon an inspection or after an adjustment, made in conformity with the instructions of the bureau, determines that the lamps or the brakes upon any vehicle conform with the requirements of the Vehicle Code, the adjuster shall, when requested by the owner or driver of the vehicle, issue a certificate of adjustment on a form prescribed by the director, which certificate shall contain the date of issuance, the make and registration number of the vehicle, the name of the owner of the vehicle, and the official license of the station.

12240.

 (a) Except as otherwise provided in this section, the county board of supervisors, by ordinance, may charge an annual registration fee, not to exceed the county’s total cost of actually inspecting or testing the devices as required by law, to recover the costs of inspecting or testing weighing and measuring devices required of the county sealer pursuant to Section 12210, and to recover the cost of carrying out Section 12211.

(b) Except as otherwise provided in this section, the annual registration fee shall not exceed the amount set forth in subdivisions (f) to (r), inclusive.

(c) The county may collect the fees biennially, in which case they shall not exceed twice the amount of an annual registration fee. The ordinance shall be adopted pursuant to Article 7 (commencing with Section 25120) of Chapter 1 of Part 2 of Division 2 of Title 3 of the Government Code.

(d) Retail gasoline pump meters, for which the above fees are assessed, shall be inspected as frequently as required by regulation, but not less than once every two years.

(e) Livestock scales, animal scales, and scales used primarily for weighing feed and seed, for which the above fees are assessed, shall be inspected as frequently as required by regulation.

(f) For purposes of this section, the annual registration fee for a business that uses a commercial weighing or measuring device or devices shall consist of a business location fee, a department administrative fee, as specified in Section 12241, and a device fee, as specified in subdivisions (g) to (r), inclusive. The business location fee and device fee shall not exceed one hundred dollars ($100) per business location, plus 100 percent of the maximum applicable device fee listed in subdivisions (g) to (r), inclusive.

(g) (1) For marinas, mobilehome parks, recreational vehicle parks, and apartment complexes, where the owner of the marina, park, or complex owns and is responsible for the utility meters, the device fee shall not exceed the following:

(A) For water submeters, two dollars ($2) per device per space or apartment.

(B) For electric submeters, three dollars ($3) per device per space or apartment.

(C) For vapor submeters, four dollars ($4) per device per space or apartment.

(2) Marinas, mobilehome parks, recreational vehicle parks, and apartment complexes for which the above fees are assessed shall be inspected and tested as frequently as required by regulation.

(h) For weighing devices, other than livestock, with capacities of 10,000 pounds or greater, the device fee shall not exceed two hundred fifty dollars ($250) per device; for weighing devices, other than livestock scales, with capacities of at least 2,000 pounds but less than 10,000 pounds, the device fee shall not exceed one hundred fifty dollars ($150) per device.

(i) This section does not apply to farm milk tanks.

(j) A scale or device used in a certified farmers’ market, as defined by Section 113742 of the Health and Safety Code, is not required to be registered in the county where the market is conducted, if the scale or device has an unexpired seal for the current year, issued by a licensed California county sealer.

(k) For livestock scales with capacities of 10,000 pounds or greater, the device fee shall not exceed one hundred fifty dollars ($150) per device; for livestock scales with capacities of at least 2,000 pounds but less than 10,000 pounds, the device fee shall not exceed one hundred dollars ($100) per device.

(l) (1) For liquefied petroleum gas (LPG) meters, truck mounted or stationary, the device fee shall not exceed one hundred eighty-five dollars ($185) per device.

(2) For compressed natural gas (CNG) and liquified natural gas (LNG) meters, truck mounted or stationary, the device fee shall not exceed seventy-five dollars ($75) per device in 2019, one hundred twenty-five dollars ($125) per device in 2020, and one hundred eighty-five dollars ($185) per device beginning in 2021.

(m) For wholesale and vehicle meters, the device fee shall not exceed seventy-five dollars ($75) per device.

(n) For computing scales, the device fee shall not exceed twenty-three dollars ($23) per device. For purposes of this subdivision, a computing scale shall be a weighing device with a capacity of less than 100 pounds that indicates the money value of any commodity weighed, at predetermined unit prices, throughout all or part of the weighing range of the scale. For purposes of this subdivision, the portion of the annual registration fee consisting of the business location fee and the device fees authorized by this subdivision shall not exceed the sum of one thousand dollars ($1,000) for each business location.

(o) For jewelry and prescription scales and scales marked as, or meeting the design and performance requirements of, a Class II weighing device, the device fee shall not exceed eighty dollars ($80) per device. For purposes of this subdivision, a jewelry or prescription scale or a scale marked as, or meeting the design and performance requirements of, a Class II weighing device shall be a scale that meets the specifications, tolerances, and sensitivity requirements established or adopted by the secretary applicable to those devices in accordance with Section 12107.

(p) For weighing devices, other than computing, jewelry, and prescription scales and scales marked as, or meeting the design and performance requirements of, a Class II weighing device, as defined in subdivisions (n) and (o), with capacities of at least 100 pounds but less than 2,000 pounds, the device fee shall not exceed fifty dollars ($50) per device.

(q) For vehicle odometers utilized to charge mileage usage fees in vehicle rental transactions or in computing other charges for service, including, but not limited to, ambulance, towing, or limousine services, the device fee shall not exceed sixty dollars ($60) per device.

(r) This section does not apply to odometers in rental passenger vehicles, as defined in Section 465 of the Vehicle Code, that are subject to Chapter 1.5 (commencing with Section 1939.01) of Title 5 of Part 4 of Division 3 of the Civil Code. If a person files a complaint with the county sealer regarding the accuracy of a rental passenger vehicle odometer, the county sealer may charge a fee to the operator of the vehicle rental business sufficient to recover, but not to exceed, the reasonable cost of testing the device in investigation of the complaint.

(s) For vehicle odometers utilized to charge mileage usage fees in vehicle rental transactions involving nonpassenger vehicles that are not subject to Chapter 1.5 (commencing with Section 1939.01) of Title 5 of Part 4 of Division 3 of the Civil Code, the portion of the annual registration fee consisting of the business location fee and the device fee authorized pursuant to subdivision (q) shall not exceed the sum of three hundred forty dollars ($340) for each business location.

(t) For all other commercial weighing or measuring devices not listed in subdivisions (g) to (r), inclusive, the device fee shall not exceed twenty dollars ($20) per device. For purposes of this subdivision, the total portion of the annual registration fee consisting of the business location fee and the device fees authorized by this subdivision shall not exceed the sum of one thousand dollars ($1,000), for each business location.

(u) For purposes of this section, a single business location is defined as:

(1) Each business location that uses one or more categories or types of commercial devices as set forth in subdivisions (g) to (p), inclusive, and in subdivision (t), that require the use of specialized testing equipment and that necessitates not more than one inspection trip by a weights and measures official.

(2) Each vehicle, except for those vehicles that are employed in vehicle rental transactions, in which one or more commercial devices is installed and used.

(3) (A) For vehicles that are employed in vehicle rental transactions and that are not subject to Chapter 1.5 (commencing with Section 1939.01) of Title 5 of Part 4 of Division 3 of the Civil Code, each business location at which vehicles are stored or maintained by a vehicle rental company for the purposes of renting vehicles to customers.

(B) A facility that meets all of the following criteria shall not be considered a business location for the purposes of this paragraph:

(i) The facility is not wholly, or in any part, owned, leased, or operated by the vehicle rental company.

(ii) The facility is not operated or staffed by an employee of the vehicle rental company.

(iii) The facility stores or maintains, on a temporary basis, vehicles at the location for customer convenience.

(C) If a person files a complaint with the county sealer regarding the accuracy of an odometer in a vehicle found or located at a facility described in subparagraph (B), the county sealer may charge a fee to the operator of the vehicle rental company sufficient to recover, but not to exceed, the reasonable cost of testing the device in investigation of the complaint.

22250.1.

 (a) A tax preparer shall maintain a bond issued by a surety company admitted to do business in this state for each individual preparing tax returns for another person. The principal sum of the bond shall be five thousand dollars ($5,000). A tax preparer subject to this section shall provide to the surety company proof that the individual is at least 18 years of age before a surety bond may be issued.

(b) The bond required by this section shall be in favor of, and payable to, the people of the State of California and shall be for the benefit of any person or persons damaged by any fraud, dishonesty, misstatement, misrepresentation, deceit, or any unlawful acts or omissions by the tax preparer, or the tax preparers employed or associated with it to provide tax preparation services.

(c) The tax preparer filing the bond shall identify all tax preparers employed or associated with the tax preparer and shall provide for each employee or associate the evidence required by subdivision (a) to the surety company. A tax preparer employed or associated with a tax preparer shall be covered by the bond of the tax preparer with which the tax preparer is employed or associated. However, in no event shall the total bond required for any single tax preparer and the tax preparers employed or associated with it be required to exceed one hundred twenty-five thousand dollars ($125,000). The aggregate liability of the surety to any and all persons regardless of the number of claims against the bond or the number of years the bond remains in force shall not exceed five thousand dollars ($5,000) for any one tax preparer. Any revision of the bond amount shall not be cumulative. The liability of the surety on the bond shall not include payment of any civil penalties, fines, attorney’s fees, or any other cost provided by statute or regulation.

(d) The tax preparer shall file an amendment to the bond within 30 days of a change in information contained in the bond, including a change in the tax preparers employed or associated with the tax preparer.

(e) (1) A tax preparer shall not conduct business without having a current surety bond in the amount prescribed by this section.

(2) Thirty days prior to the cancellation or termination of any surety bond required by this section, the surety shall send a written notice of that cancellation or termination to the tax preparer and the California Tax Education Council, identifying the bond and the date of cancellation or termination.

(3) If a tax preparer fails to obtain a new bond by the effective date of the cancellation or termination of the former bond, the tax preparer shall cease to conduct business until that time as a new surety bond is obtained.

(f) Notwithstanding Section 995.710 of the Code of Civil Procedure, a tax preparer shall not make a deposit in lieu of bond.

(g) A tax preparer shall furnish evidence of the bond required by this section upon the request of any state or federal agency or any law enforcement agency or the California Tax Education Council.

(h) On and after July 1, 2019, a tax preparer shall report a paid claim against its surety bond to the council, and the council shall post a notice of the claim on its internet website.

22980.1.

 (a) A manufacturer or importer shall not sell cigarettes or tobacco products to a distributor, wholesaler, retailer, or any other person who is not licensed pursuant to this division or whose license has been suspended or revoked.

(b) (1) Except as provided in paragraph (2), a distributor or wholesaler shall not sell cigarettes or tobacco products to a retailer, wholesaler, distributor, or any other person who is not licensed pursuant to this division or whose license has been suspended or revoked.

(2) This subdivision does not apply to any sale of cigarettes or tobacco products by a distributor, wholesaler, or any other person to a retailer, wholesaler, distributor, or any other person that the state, pursuant to the United States Constitution, the laws of the United States, or the California Constitution, is prohibited from regulating.

(c) A retailer, distributor, or wholesaler shall not purchase packages of cigarettes or tobacco products from a manufacturer or importer who is not licensed pursuant to this division or whose license has been suspended or revoked.

(d) (1) A retailer or wholesaler shall not purchase cigarettes or tobacco products from any person who is not licensed pursuant to this division or whose license has been suspended or revoked.

(2) Notwithstanding subdivision (c), a distributor shall not purchase cigarettes or tobacco products from any person who is required to be licensed pursuant to this division but who is not licensed or whose license has been suspended or revoked.

(e) Each separate sale to, or by, a retailer, wholesaler, distributor, importer, manufacturer, or any other person who is not licensed pursuant to this division shall constitute a separate violation.

(f) A manufacturer, distributor, wholesaler, or importer shall not sell cigarette or tobacco products to any retailer or wholesaler whose license has been suspended or revoked unless all outstanding debts of that retailer or wholesaler that are owed to a wholesaler or distributor for cigarette or tobacco products are paid and the license of that retailer or wholesaler has been reinstated by the board. Any payment received from a retailer or wholesaler shall be credited first to the outstanding debt for cigarettes or tobacco products and must be immediately reported to the board. The board shall determine the debt status of a suspended retailer or wholesaler licensee 25 days prior to the reinstatement of the license.

(g) An importer, distributor, or wholesaler, or distributor functioning as a wholesaler, or retailer, shall not purchase, obtain, or otherwise acquire any package of cigarettes to which a stamp or meter impression may not be affixed in accordance with subdivision (b) of Section 30163 or subdivision (e) of Section 30165.1 of the Revenue and Taxation Code, or any cigarettes obtained from a manufacturer or importer that cannot demonstrate full compliance with all requirements of the federal Cigarette Labeling and Advertising Act (15 U.S.C. Sec. 1335a et seq.) for the reporting of ingredients added to cigarettes.

(h) (1) Failure to comply with the provisions of this section is a misdemeanor subject to penalties pursuant to Section 22981.

(2) Notwithstanding paragraph (1), a manufacturer or importer who uses the most up-to-date licensing information provided by the board on the board’s website to determine a person’s licensing status is presumed to be in compliance with this section.

(i) The amendments that are made to this section by the act adding this subdivision shall become operative May 1, 2007.

26001.

 For purposes of this division, the following definitions apply:

(a) “A-license” means a state license issued under this division for cannabis or cannabis products that are intended for adults who are 21 years of age and older and who do not possess a physician’s recommendation.

(b) “A-licensee” means any person holding a license under this division for cannabis or cannabis products that are intended for adults who are 21 years of age and older and who do not possess a physician’s recommendation.

(c) “Applicant” means an owner applying for a state license pursuant to this division.

(d) “Batch” means a specific quantity of homogeneous cannabis or cannabis product that is one of the following types:

(1) Harvest batch. “Harvest batch” means a specifically identified quantity of dried flower or trim, leaves, and other cannabis plant matter that is uniform in strain, harvested at the same time, and, if applicable, cultivated using the same pesticides and other agricultural chemicals, and harvested at the same time.

(2) Manufactured cannabis batch. “Manufactured cannabis batch” means either of the following:

(A) An amount of cannabis concentrate or extract that is produced in one production cycle using the same extraction methods and standard operating procedures.

(B) An amount of a type of manufactured cannabis produced in one production cycle using the same formulation and standard operating procedures.

(e) “Bureau” means the Bureau of Cannabis Control within the Department of Consumer Affairs, formerly named the Bureau of Marijuana Control, the Bureau of Medical Cannabis Regulation, and the Bureau of Medical Marijuana Regulation.

(f) “Cannabis” means all parts of the plant Cannabis sativa Linnaeus, Cannabis indica, or Cannabis ruderalis, whether growing or not; the seeds thereof; the resin, whether crude or purified, extracted from any part of the plant; and every compound, manufacture, salt, derivative, mixture, or preparation of the plant, its seeds, or resin. “Cannabis” also means the separated resin, whether crude or purified, obtained from cannabis. “Cannabis” does not include the mature stalks of the plant, fiber produced from the stalks, oil or cake made from the seeds of the plant, any other compound, manufacture, salt, derivative, mixture, or preparation of the mature stalks (except the resin extracted therefrom), fiber, oil, or cake, or the sterilized seed of the plant which is incapable of germination. For the purpose of this division, “cannabis” does not mean “industrial hemp” as defined by Section 11018.5 of the Health and Safety Code.

(g) “Cannabis accessories” has the same meaning as in Section 11018.2 of the Health and Safety Code.

(h) “Cannabis concentrate” means cannabis that has undergone a process to concentrate one or more active cannabinoids, thereby increasing the product’s potency. Resin from granular trichomes from a cannabis plant is a concentrate for purposes of this division. A cannabis concentrate is not considered food, as defined by Section 109935 of the Health and Safety Code, or a drug, as defined by Section 109925 of the Health and Safety Code.

(i) “Cannabis products” has the same meaning as in Section 11018.1 of the Health and Safety Code.

(j) “Child resistant” means designed or constructed to be significantly difficult for children under five years of age to open, and not difficult for normal adults to use properly.

(k) “Commercial cannabis activity” includes the cultivation, possession, manufacture, distribution, processing, storing, laboratory testing, packaging, labeling, transportation, delivery, or sale of cannabis and cannabis products as provided for in this division.

(l) “Cultivation” means any activity involving the planting, growing, harvesting, drying, curing, grading, or trimming of cannabis.

(m) “Cultivation site” means a location where cannabis is planted, grown, harvested, dried, cured, graded, or trimmed, or a location where any combination of those activities occurs.

(n) “Customer” means a natural person 21 years of age or older or a natural person 18 years of age or older who possesses a physician’s recommendation, or a primary caregiver.

(o) “Day care center” has the same meaning as in Section 1596.76 of the Health and Safety Code.

(p) “Delivery” means the commercial transfer of cannabis or cannabis products to a customer. “Delivery” also includes the use by a retailer of any technology platform.

(q) “Director” means the Director of Consumer Affairs.

(r) “Distribution” means the procurement, sale, and transport of cannabis and cannabis products between licensees.

(s) “Dried flower” means all dead cannabis that has been harvested, dried, cured, or otherwise processed, excluding leaves and stems.

(t) “Edible cannabis product” means cannabis product that is intended to be used, in whole or in part, for human consumption, including, but not limited to, chewing gum, but excluding products set forth in Division 15 (commencing with Section 32501) of the Food and Agricultural Code. An edible cannabis product is not considered food, as defined by Section 109935 of the Health and Safety Code, or a drug, as defined by Section 109925 of the Health and Safety Code.

(u) “Fund” means the Cannabis Control Fund established pursuant to Section 26210.

(v) “Kind” means applicable type or designation regarding a particular cannabis variant or cannabis product type, including, but not limited to, strain name or other grower trademark, or growing area designation.

(w) “Labeling” means any label or other written, printed, or graphic matter upon a cannabis product, upon its container or wrapper, or that accompanies any cannabis product.

(x) “Labor peace agreement” means an agreement between a licensee and any bona fide labor organization that, at a minimum, protects the state’s proprietary interests by prohibiting labor organizations and members from engaging in picketing, work stoppages, boycotts, and any other economic interference with the applicant’s business. This agreement means that the applicant has agreed not to disrupt efforts by the bona fide labor organization to communicate with, and attempt to organize and represent, the applicant’s employees. The agreement shall provide a bona fide labor organization access at reasonable times to areas in which the applicant’s employees work, for the purpose of meeting with employees to discuss their right to representation, employment rights under state law, and terms and conditions of employment. This type of agreement shall not mandate a particular method of election or certification of the bona fide labor organization.

(y) “License” means a state license issued under this division, and includes both an A-license and an M-license, as well as a testing laboratory license.

(z) “Licensee” means any person holding a license under this division, regardless of whether the license held is an A-license or an M-license, and includes the holder of a testing laboratory license.

(aa) “Licensing authority” means the state agency responsible for the issuance, renewal, or reinstatement of the license, or the state agency authorized to take disciplinary action against the licensee.

(ab) “Live plants” means living cannabis flowers and plants, including seeds, immature plants, and vegetative stage plants.

(ac) “Local jurisdiction” means a city, county, or city and county.

(ad) “Lot” means a batch or a specifically identified portion of a batch.

(ae) “M-license” means a state license issued under this division for commercial cannabis activity involving medicinal cannabis.

(af) “M-licensee” means any person holding a license under this division for commercial cannabis activity involving medicinal cannabis.

(ag) “Manufacture” means to compound, blend, extract, infuse, or otherwise make or prepare a cannabis product.

(ah) “Manufacturer” means a licensee that conducts the production, preparation, propagation, or compounding of cannabis or cannabis products either directly or indirectly or by extraction methods, or independently by means of chemical synthesis, or by a combination of extraction and chemical synthesis at a fixed location that packages or repackages cannabis or cannabis products or labels or relabels its container.

(ai) “Medicinal cannabis” or “medicinal cannabis product” means cannabis or a cannabis product, respectively, intended to be sold for use pursuant to the Compassionate Use Act of 1996 (Proposition 215), found in Section 11362.5 of the Health and Safety Code, by a medicinal cannabis patient in California who possesses a physician’s recommendation.

(aj) “Nursery” means a licensee that produces only clones, immature plants, seeds, and other agricultural products used specifically for the propagation and cultivation of cannabis.

(ak) “Operation” means any act for which licensure is required under this division, or any commercial transfer of cannabis or cannabis products.

(al) “Owner” means any of the following:

(1) A person with an aggregate ownership interest of 20 percent or more in the person applying for a license or a licensee, unless the interest is solely a security, lien, or encumbrance.

(2) The chief executive officer of a nonprofit or other entity.

(3) A member of the board of directors of a nonprofit.

(4) An individual who will be participating in the direction, control, or management of the person applying for a license.

(am) “Package” means any container or receptacle used for holding cannabis or cannabis products.

(an) “Person” includes any individual, firm, partnership, joint venture, association, corporation, limited liability company, estate, trust, business trust, receiver, syndicate, or any other group or combination acting as a unit, and the plural as well as the singular.

(ao) “Physician’s recommendation” means a recommendation by a physician and surgeon that a patient use cannabis provided in accordance with the Compassionate Use Act of 1996 (Proposition 215), found in Section 11362.5 of the Health and Safety Code.

(ap) “Premises” means the designated structure or structures and land specified in the application that is owned, leased, or otherwise held under the control of the applicant or licensee where the commercial cannabis activity will be or is conducted. The premises shall be a contiguous area and shall only be occupied by one licensee.

(aq) “Primary caregiver” has the same meaning as in Section 11362.7 of the Health and Safety Code.

(ar) “Purchaser” means the customer who is engaged in a transaction with a licensee for purposes of obtaining cannabis or cannabis products.

(as) “Sell,” “sale,” and “to sell” include any transaction whereby, for any consideration, title to cannabis or cannabis products is transferred from one person to another, and includes the delivery of cannabis or cannabis products pursuant to an order placed for the purchase of the same and soliciting or receiving an order for the same, but does not include the return of cannabis or cannabis products by a licensee to the licensee from whom the cannabis or cannabis product was purchased.

(at) “Testing laboratory” means a laboratory, facility, or entity in the state that offers or performs tests of cannabis or cannabis products and that is both of the following:

(1) Accredited by an accrediting body that is independent from all other persons involved in commercial cannabis activity in the state.

(2) Licensed by the bureau.

(au) “Unique identifier” means an alphanumeric code or designation used for reference to a specific plant on a licensed premises and any cannabis or cannabis product derived or manufactured from that plant.

(av) “Youth center” has the same meaning as in Section 11353.1 of the Health and Safety Code.

1102.2.

 This article does not apply to the following:

(a) Sales or transfers that are required to be preceded by the furnishing to a prospective buyer of a copy of a public report pursuant to Section 11018.1 of the Business and Professions Code and transfers that can be made without a public report pursuant to Section 11010.4 of the Business and Professions Code.

(b) Sales or transfers pursuant to court order, including, but not limited to, sales ordered by a probate court in the administration of an estate, sales pursuant to a writ of execution, sales by any foreclosure sale, transfers by a trustee in bankruptcy, sales by eminent domain, and sales resulting from a decree for specific performance.

(c) Sales or transfers to a mortgagee by a mortgagor or successor in interest who is in default, sales to a beneficiary of a deed of trust by a trustor or successor in interest who is in default, any foreclosure sale after default, any foreclosure sale after default in an obligation secured by a mortgage, a sale under a power of sale or any foreclosure sale under a decree of foreclosure after default in an obligation secured by a deed of trust or secured by any other instrument containing a power of sale, sales by a mortgagee or a beneficiary under a deed of trust who has acquired the real property at a sale conducted pursuant to a power of sale under a mortgage or deed of trust or a sale pursuant to a decree of foreclosure or has acquired the real property by a deed in lieu of foreclosure, sales to the legal owner or lienholder of a manufactured home or mobilehome by a registered owner or successor in interest who is in default, or sales by reason of any foreclosure of a security interest in a manufactured home or mobilehome.

(d) Sales or transfers by a fiduciary in the course of the administration of a trust, guardianship, conservatorship, or decedent’s estate. This exemption does not apply to a sale if the trustee is a natural person who is a trustee of a revocable trust and the trustee is a former owner of the property or was an occupant in possession of the property within the preceding year.

(e) Sales or transfers from one coowner to one or more other coowners.

(f) Sales or transfers made to a spouse, or to a person or persons in the lineal line of consanguinity of one or more of the transferors.

(g) Sales or transfers between spouses resulting from a judgment of dissolution of marriage or of legal separation or from a property settlement agreement incidental to that judgment.

(h) Sales or transfers by the Controller in the course of administering Chapter 7 (commencing with Section 1500) of Title 10 of Part 3 of the Code of Civil Procedure.

(i) Sales or transfers under Chapter 7 (commencing with Section 3691) or Chapter 8 (commencing with Section 3771) of Part 6 of Division 1 of the Revenue and Taxation Code.

(j) Sales or transfers or exchanges to or from any governmental entity.

(k) Sales or transfers of any portion of a property not constituting single-family residential property.

(l) Notwithstanding the definition of sale in Section 10018.10 of the Business and Professions Code and Section 2079.13, the terms “sale” and “transfer,” as they are used in this section, shall have their commonly understood meanings. The changes made to this section by Chapter 907 of the Statutes of 2018 shall not be interpreted to change the application of the law as it read prior to January 1, 2019.

1102.3.

 The seller of any single-family real property subject to this article shall deliver to the prospective buyer the completed written statement required by this article, as follows:

(a) In the case of a sale, as soon as practicable before transfer of title.

(b) In the case of a sale by a real property sales contract, as defined in Section 2985, or by a lease together with an option to purchase, or a ground lease coupled with improvements, as soon as practicable before execution of the contract. For the purpose of this subdivision, “execution” means the making or acceptance of an offer.

(c) With respect to any sale subject to subdivision (a) or (b), the seller shall indicate compliance with this article on the real property sales contract, the lease, or any addendum attached thereto or on a separate document.

If any disclosure, or any material amendment of any disclosure, required to be made by this article, is delivered after the execution of an offer to purchase, the prospective buyer shall have three days after delivery in person, five days after delivery by deposit in the mail, or five days after delivery of an electronic record in transactions where the parties have agreed to conduct the transaction by electronic means, pursuant to provisions of the Uniform Electronic Transactions Act (Title 2.5 (commencing with Section 1633.1) of Part 2 of Division 3), to terminate the prospective buyer’s offer by delivery of a written notice of termination to the seller or the seller’s agent. The period of time the prospective buyer has in which to terminate the prospective buyer’s offer commences when Sections I, II, and III in the form described in Section 1102.6 are completed and delivered to the buyer or buyer’s agent. A real estate agent may complete the agent’s portion of the required disclosure by providing all of the information on the agent’s inspection disclosure set forth in Section 1102.6.

1103.1.

 (a) This article does not apply to the following sales:

(1) Sales or transfers pursuant to court order, including, but not limited to, sales ordered by a probate court in administration of an estate, sales pursuant to a writ of execution, sales by any foreclosure sale, sales by a trustee in bankruptcy, sales by eminent domain, and sales resulting from a decree for specific performance.

(2) Sales or transfers to a mortgagee by a mortgagor or successor in interest who is in default, sales to a beneficiary of a deed of trust by a trustor or successor in interest who is in default, transfers by any foreclosure sale after default, any foreclosure sale after default in an obligation secured by a mortgage, sale under a power of sale or any foreclosure sale under a decree of foreclosure after default in an obligation secured by a deed of trust or secured by any other instrument containing a power of sale, or sales by a mortgagee or a beneficiary under a deed of trust who has acquired the real property at a sale conducted pursuant to a power of sale under a mortgage or deed of trust or a sale pursuant to a decree of foreclosure or has acquired the real property by a deed in lieu of foreclosure.

(3) Sales or transfers by a fiduciary in the course of the administration of a trust, guardianship, conservatorship, or decedent’s estate. This exemption does not apply to a sale if the trustee is a natural person who is a trustee of a revocable trust and the seller is a former owner of the property or an occupant in possession of the property within the preceding year.

(4) Sales or transfers from one coowner to one or more other coowners.

(5) Sales or transfers made to a spouse, or to a person or persons in the lineal line of consanguinity of one or more of the sellers.

(6) Sales or transfers between spouses resulting from a judgment of dissolution of marriage or of legal separation of the parties or from a property settlement agreement incidental to that judgment.

(7) Sales or transfers by the Controller in the course of administering Chapter 7 (commencing with Section 1500) of Title 10 of Part 3 of the Code of Civil Procedure.

(8) Sales or transfers under Chapter 7 (commencing with Section 3691) or Chapter 8 (commencing with Section 3771) of Part 6 of Division 1 of the Revenue and Taxation Code.

(9) Sales, transfers, or exchanges to or from any governmental entity.

(b) Sales and transfers not subject to this article may be subject to other disclosure requirements, including those under Sections 8589.3, 8589.4, and 51183.5 of the Government Code and Sections 2621.9, 2694, and 4136 of the Public Resources Code. In sales not subject to this article, agents may make required disclosures in a separate writing.

(c) Notwithstanding the definition of sale in Section 10018.10 of the Business and Professions Code and Section 2079.13, the terms “sale” and “transfer,” as they are used in this section, shall have their commonly understood meanings. The changes made to this section by Chapter 907 of the Statutes of 2018 shall not be interpreted to change the application of the law as it read prior to January 1, 2019.

1103.2.

 (a) The disclosures required by this article are set forth in, and shall be made on a copy of, the following Natural Hazard Disclosure Statement:

(b) If an earthquake fault zone, seismic hazard zone, very high fire hazard severity zone, or wildland fire area map or accompanying information is not of sufficient accuracy or scale that a reasonable person can determine if the subject real property is included in a natural hazard area, the seller or seller’s agent shall mark “Yes” on the Natural Hazard Disclosure Statement. The seller’s agent may mark “No” on the Natural Hazard Disclosure Statement if the seller attaches a report prepared pursuant to subdivision (c) of Section 1103.4 that verifies the property is not in the hazard zone. This subdivision is not intended to limit or abridge any existing duty of the seller or the seller’s agent to exercise reasonable care in making a determination under this subdivision.

(c) If the Federal Emergency Management Agency has issued a Letter of Map Revision confirming that a property is no longer within a special flood hazard area, then the seller or seller’s agent may mark “No” on the Natural Hazard Disclosure Statement, even if the map has not yet been updated. The seller or seller’s agent shall attach a copy of the Letter of Map Revision to the disclosure statement.

(d) If the Federal Emergency Management Agency has issued a Letter of Map Revision confirming that a property is within a special flood hazard area and the location of the letter has been posted pursuant to subdivision (g) of Section 8589.3 of the Government Code, then the seller or seller’s agent shall mark “Yes” on the Natural Hazard Disclosure Statement, even if the map has not yet been updated. The seller or seller’s agent shall attach a copy of the Letter of Map Revision to the disclosure statement.

(e) The disclosure required pursuant to this article may be provided by the seller and the seller’s agent in the Local Option Real Estate Disclosure Statement described in Section 1102.6a, provided that the Local Option Real Estate Disclosure Statement includes substantially the same information and substantially the same warnings that are required by this section.

(f) (1) The legal effect of a consultant’s report delivered to satisfy the exemption provided by Section 1103.4 is not changed when it is accompanied by a Natural Hazard Disclosure Statement.

(2) A consultant’s report shall always be accompanied by a completed and signed Natural Hazard Disclosure Statement.

(3) In a disclosure statement required by this section, an agent and third-party provider may cause the agent and third-party provider’s name to be preprinted in lieu of an original signature in the portions of the form reserved for signatures. The use of a preprinted name shall not change the legal effect of the acknowledgment.

(g) The disclosure required by this article is only a disclosure between the seller, the seller’s agent, and the prospective buyer, and shall not be used by any other party, including, but not limited to, insurance companies, lenders, or governmental agencies, for any purpose.

(h) In any transaction in which a seller has accepted, prior to June 1, 1998, an offer to purchase, the seller, or the seller’s agent shall be deemed to have complied with the requirement of subdivision (a) if the seller or agent delivers to the prospective buyer a statement that includes substantially the same information and warning as the Natural Hazard Disclosure Statement.

1632.5.

 (a) (1) A supervised financial organization that negotiates primarily in Spanish, Chinese, Tagalog, Vietnamese, or Korean, whether orally or in writing, in the course of entering into a contract or agreement for a loan or extension of credit secured by residential real property, shall deliver to the other party to that contract or agreement prior to the execution of the contract or agreement the applicable form or forms described in subdivision (i) for that language.

(2) A supervised financial organization that negotiates the modification of any of the terms of a loan or extension of credit secured by residential real property primarily in Spanish, Chinese, Tagalog, Vietnamese, or Korean, and that offers a borrower a final loan modification in writing, shall deliver to that borrower, at the time the final loan modification offer is made, one of the forms described in paragraph (4) of subdivision (i) summarizing the modified terms of the loan in the same language as the negotiation.

(b) For purposes of this section:

(1) “Contract” or “agreement” has the same meaning as defined in subdivision (g) of Section 1632.

(2) “Supervised financial organization” means a bank, savings association, as defined in Section 5102 of the Financial Code, credit union, or holding company, affiliate, or subsidiary thereof, or any person subject to Division 7 (commencing with Section 18000), Division 9 (commencing with Section 22000), or Division 20 (commencing with Section 50000) of the Financial Code.

(c) (1) With respect to a contract or agreement for a loan or extension of credit secured by residential real property as described in subdivision (a), a supervised financial organization that complies with this section shall be deemed in compliance with Section 1632.

(2) Except with respect to a loan or extension of credit described in paragraph (2) of subdivision (a), a supervised financial organization that complies with Section 1632, with respect to a contract or agreement for a loan or extension of credit secured by residential real property as described in subdivision (a), shall be deemed in compliance with this section.

(d) (1) Except as provided in paragraphs (2) and (3), the supervised financial organization shall provide the Good Faith Estimate disclosure form described in paragraph (1) of subdivision (i) to the borrower no later than three business days after receipt of the written application, and if any of the loan terms summarized materially change after provision of the translated form but prior to consummation of the loan, the supervised financial organization shall provide an updated version of the translated form prior to consummation of the loan.

(2) For a transaction subject to subsection (e) of Section 1026.19 of Title 12 of the Code of Federal Regulations, the supervised financial organization shall provide the Loan Estimate form described in paragraph (2) of subdivision (i) translated in the applicable language no later than three business days after receipt of the written application. If any of the summarized loan terms materially change after provision of the Loan Estimate form but prior to consummation of the loan, the supervised financial organization shall provide an updated version of the translated form prior to consummation of the loan.

(3) For a transaction subject to subsection (f) of Section 1026.19 of Title 12 of the Code of Federal Regulations, the supervised financial organization shall provide the Closing Disclosure form described in paragraph (3) of subdivision (i) translated in the applicable language at least three business days prior to consummation of the loan.

(e) (1) This section does not apply to a supervised financial organization that negotiates primarily in a language other than English, as described by subdivision (a), if the party with whom the supervised financial organization is negotiating, negotiates the terms of the contract through the party’s own interpreter.

(2) For purposes of this subdivision, “the party’s own interpreter” means a person, not a minor, who is able to speak fluently and read with full understanding both the English language and one of the languages specified in subdivision (a) that is the language in which the contract was negotiated, who is not employed by, and whose services are not made available through, the person engaged in the trade or business.

(f) Notwithstanding subdivision (a), a translated form may retain any of the following elements of the executed English language contract or agreement without translation:

(1) Names and titles of individuals and other persons.

(2) Addresses, brand names, trade names, trademarks, or registered service marks.

(3) Full or abbreviated designations of the make and model of goods or services.

(4) Alphanumeric codes.

(5) Individual words or expressions having no generally accepted non-English translation.

(g) The terms of the contract or agreement that is executed in the English language shall determine the rights and obligations of the parties. However, the translation of the forms described in subdivision (i) and required by subdivision (a) shall be admissible in evidence only to show that no contract or agreement was entered into because of a substantial difference in the material terms and conditions of the contract or agreement and the prior translated forms provided to the borrower.

(h) (1) A licensing agency may, by order, after appropriate notice and opportunity for hearing, levy administrative penalties against a supervised financial organization that violates any provision of this section, and the supervised financial organization may be liable for administrative penalties, up to the amounts of two thousand five hundred dollars ($2,500) for the first violation, five thousand dollars ($5,000) for the second violation, and ten thousand dollars ($10,000) for each subsequent violation. Except for licensing agencies exempt from the provisions of the Administrative Procedure Act, any hearing shall be held in accordance with the Administrative Procedure Act (Chapter 5 (commencing with Section 11500) of Part 1 of Division 3 of Title 2 of the Government Code), and the licensing agency shall have all the powers granted under that act.

(2) A licensing agency may exercise any and all authority and powers available to it under any other provisions of law to administer and enforce this section, including, but not limited to, investigating and examining the licensed person’s books and records, and charging and collecting the reasonable costs for these activities. The licensing agency shall not charge a licensed person twice for the same service. Any civil, criminal, and administrative authority and remedies available to the licensing agency pursuant to its licensing law may be sought and employed in any combination deemed advisable by the licensing agency to enforce the provisions of this section.

(3) Any supervised financial organization that violates this section shall be deemed to have violated its licensing law.

(4) This section shall not be construed to impair or impede the Attorney General from bringing an action to enforce this division.

(i) The Department of Business Oversight shall make available each of the following forms based on existing forms in each of the languages set forth in subdivision (a) for use by a supervised financial organization to summarize the terms of a mortgage loan pursuant to subdivision (a). In making available the forms, the Department of Business Oversight may use as guidance the following existing forms:

(1) The Good Faith Estimate disclosure form from the United States Department of Housing and Urban Development.

(2) The Loan Estimate form from the Consumer Financial Protection Bureau.

(3) The Closing Disclosure form from the Consumer Financial Protection Bureau.

(4) The Agreement for Modification, Re-Amortization, or Extension of a Mortgage (Form 181), the Loan Modification Agreement (Providing for Fixed Interest Rate) (Form 3179), and the Loan Modification Agreement (Providing for Adjustable Interest Rate) (Form 3161) from the Federal National Mortgage Association.

(j) This section does not apply to federally chartered banks, credit unions, savings banks, or thrifts.

(k) Except as otherwise provided in subdivision (h), this section shall not be construed to create or enhance any claim, right of action, or civil liability that did not previously exist under state law, or limit any claim, right of action, or civil liability that otherwise exists under state law.

(l) An action against a supervised financial organization for a violation of this section may only be brought by a licensing agency or by the Attorney General.

1670.11.

 Notwithstanding any other law, a provision in a contract or settlement agreement entered into on or after January 1, 2019, that waives a party’s right to testify in an administrative, legislative, or judicial proceeding concerning alleged criminal conduct or alleged sexual harassment on the part of the other party to the contract or settlement agreement, or on the part of the agents or employees of the other party, when the party has been required or requested to attend the proceeding pursuant to a court order, subpoena, or written request from an administrative agency or the Legislature, is void and unenforceable.

1946.7.

 (a) A tenant may notify the landlord that the tenant or a household member was a victim of an act that constitutes an act of domestic violence as defined in Section 6211 of the Family Code, sexual assault as defined in Section 261, 261.5, 262, 286, 287, or 289 of the Penal Code, stalking as defined in Section 1708.7, human trafficking as defined in Section 236.1 of the Penal Code, or abuse of an elder or a dependent adult as defined in Section 15610.07 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, and that the tenant intends to terminate the tenancy.

(b) A notice to terminate a tenancy under this section shall be in writing, with one of the following attached to the notice:

(1) A copy of a temporary restraining order, emergency protective order, or protective order lawfully issued pursuant to Part 3 (commencing with Section 6240) or Part 4 (commencing with Section 6300) of Division 10 of the Family Code, Section 136.2 of the Penal Code, Section 527.6 of the Code of Civil Procedure, or Section 213.5 or 15657.03 of the Welfare and Institutions Code that protects the tenant or household member from further domestic violence, sexual assault, stalking, human trafficking, or abuse of an elder or a dependent adult.

(2) A copy of a written report by a peace officer employed by a state or local law enforcement agency acting in the peace officer’s official capacity stating that the tenant or household member has filed a report alleging that the tenant or the household member is a victim of domestic violence, sexual assault, stalking, human trafficking, or abuse of an elder or a dependent adult.

(3) (A) Documentation from a qualified third party based on information received by that third party while acting in the third party’s professional capacity to indicate that the tenant or household member is seeking assistance for physical or mental injuries or abuse resulting from an act of domestic violence, sexual assault, stalking, human trafficking, elder abuse, or dependent adult abuse.

(B) The documentation shall contain, in substantially the same form, the following:

(C) The documentation may be signed by a person who meets the requirements for a sexual assault counselor, domestic violence counselor, or a human trafficking caseworker only if the documentation displays the letterhead of the office, hospital, institution, center, or organization, as appropriate, that engages or employs, whether financially compensated or not, this counselor or caseworker.

(c) The notice to terminate the tenancy shall be given within 180 days of the date that any order described in paragraph (1) of subdivision (b) was issued, within 180 days of the date that any written report described in paragraph (2) of subdivision (b) was made, or within the time period described in Section 1946.

(d) If notice to terminate the tenancy is provided to the landlord under this section, the tenant shall be responsible for payment of rent for no more than 14 calendar days following the giving of the notice, or for any shorter appropriate period as described in Section 1946 or the lease or rental agreement. The tenant shall be released from any rent payment obligation under the lease or rental agreement without penalty. If the premises are relet to another party prior to the end of the obligation to pay rent, the rent owed under this subdivision shall be prorated. Existing law governing the security deposit shall apply.

(e) This section does not relieve a tenant, other than the tenant who is, or who has a household member who is, a victim of domestic violence, sexual assault, stalking, human trafficking, or abuse of an elder or a dependent adult and members of that tenant’s household, from their obligations under the lease or rental agreement.

(f) (1) “Household member,” as used in this section, means a member of the tenant’s family who lives in the same household as the tenant.

(2) “Qualified third party,” as used in this section, means a health practitioner, domestic violence counselor, as defined in Section 1037.1 of the Evidence Code, a sexual assault counselor, as defined in Section 1035.2 of the Evidence Code, or a human trafficking caseworker, as defined in Section 1038.2 of the Evidence Code.

(3) “Health practitioner,” as used in this section, means a physician and surgeon, osteopathic physician and surgeon, psychiatrist, psychologist, registered nurse, licensed clinical social worker, licensed marriage and family therapist, or licensed professional clinical counselor.

(g) (1) A landlord shall not disclose any information provided by a tenant under this section to a third party unless the disclosure satisfies any one of the following:

(A) The tenant consents in writing to the disclosure.

(B) The disclosure is required by law or order of the court.

(2) A landlord’s communication to a qualified third party who provides documentation under paragraph (3) of subdivision (b) to verify the contents of that documentation is not disclosure for purposes of this subdivision.

2920.7.

 (a) Upon notification by someone claiming to be a successor in interest that a borrower has died, and where that claimant is not a party to the loan or promissory note, a mortgage servicer shall not record a notice of default pursuant to Section 2924 until the mortgage servicer does both of the following:

(1) Requests reasonable documentation of the death of the borrower from the claimant, including, but not limited to, a death certificate or other written evidence of the death of the borrower. A reasonable period of time shall be provided for the claimant to present this documentation, but no less than 30 days from the date of a written request by the mortgage servicer.

(2) Requests reasonable documentation from the claimant demonstrating the ownership interest of that claimant in the real property. A reasonable period of time shall be provided for the claimant to present this documentation, but no less than 90 days from the date of a written request by the mortgage servicer.

(b) (1) Upon receipt by the mortgage servicer of the reasonable documentation of the status of a claimant as successor in interest and that claimant’s ownership interest in the real property, that claimant shall be deemed a “successor in interest.”

(2) There may be more than one successor in interest. A mortgage servicer shall apply the provisions of this section to multiple successors in interest in accordance with the terms of the loan and federal and state laws and regulations. When there are multiple successors in interest who do not wish to proceed as coborrowers or coapplicants, a mortgage servicer may require any nonapplicant successor in interest to consent in writing to the application for loan assumption.

(3) Being a successor in interest under this section does not impose an affirmative duty on a mortgage servicer or alter any obligation the mortgage servicer has to provide a loan modification to the successor in interest. If a successor in interest assumes the loan, the successor may be required to otherwise qualify for available foreclosure prevention alternatives offered by the mortgage servicer.

(c) Within 10 days of a claimant being deemed a successor in interest pursuant to subdivision (b), a mortgage servicer shall provide the successor in interest with information in writing about the loan. This information shall include, at a minimum, loan balance, interest rate and interest reset dates and amounts, balloon payments if any, prepayment penalties if any, default or delinquency status, the monthly payment amount, and payoff amounts.

(d) A mortgage servicer shall allow a successor in interest to either:

(1) Apply to assume the deceased borrower’s loan. The mortgage servicer may evaluate the creditworthiness of the successor in interest, subject to applicable investor requirements and guidelines.

(2) If a successor in interest of an assumable loan also seeks a foreclosure prevention alternative, simultaneously apply to assume the loan and for a foreclosure prevention alternative that may be offered by, or available through, the mortgage loan servicer. If the successor in interest qualifies for the foreclosure prevention alternative, assume the loan. The mortgage servicer may evaluate the creditworthiness of the successor in interest subject to applicable investor requirements and guidelines.

(e) (1) A successor in interest shall have all the same rights and remedies as a borrower under subdivision (a) of Section 2923.4 and under Sections 2923.6, 2923.7, 2924, 2924.11, 2924.12, 2924.15, and 2924.17. For the purposes of Section 2924.15, “owner-occupied” means that the property was the principal residence of the deceased borrower and is security for a loan made for personal, family, or household purposes.

(2) If a trustee’s deed upon sale has not been recorded, a successor in interest may bring an action for injunctive relief to enjoin a material violation of subdivision (a), (b), (c), or (d). Any injunction shall remain in place and any trustee’s sale shall be enjoined until the court determines that the mortgage servicer has corrected and remedied the violation or violations giving rise to the action for injunctive relief. An enjoined entity may move to dissolve an injunction based on a showing that the material violation has been corrected and remedied.

(3) After a trustee’s deed upon sale has been recorded, a mortgage servicer shall be liable to a successor in interest for actual economic damages pursuant to Section 3281 resulting from a material violation of subdivision (a), (b), (c), or (d) by that mortgage servicer if the violation was not corrected and remedied prior to the recordation of the trustee’s deed upon sale. If the court finds that the material violation was intentional or reckless, or resulted from willful misconduct by a mortgage servicer, the court may award the successor in interest the greater of treble actual damages or statutory damages of fifty thousand dollars ($50,000).

(4) A court may award a prevailing successor in interest reasonable attorney’s fees and costs in an action brought pursuant to this section. A successor in interest shall be deemed to have prevailed for purposes of this subdivision if the successor in interest obtained injunctive relief or damages pursuant to this section.

(5) A mortgage servicer shall not be liable for any violation that it has corrected and remedied prior to the recordation of the trustee’s deed upon sale or that has been corrected and remedied by third parties working on its behalf prior to the recordation of the trustee’s deed upon sale.

(f) Consistent with their general regulatory authority, the Department of Business Oversight and the Bureau of Real Estate may adopt regulations applicable to any entity or person under their respective jurisdictions that are necessary to carry out the purposes of this section.

(g) The rights and remedies provided by this section are in addition to and independent of any other rights, remedies, or procedures under any other law. This section shall not be construed to alter, limit, or negate any other rights, remedies, or procedures provided by law.

(h) Except as otherwise provided, this act does not affect the obligations arising from a mortgage or deed of trust.

(i) For purposes of this section, all of the following definitions apply:

(1) “Notification of the death of the mortgagor or trustor” means provision to the mortgage servicer of a death certificate or, if a death certificate is not available, of other written evidence of the death of the mortgagor or trustor deemed sufficient by the mortgage servicer.

(2) “Mortgage servicer” has the same meaning as provided in Section 2920.5.

(3) “Reasonable documentation” means copies of the following documents, as may be applicable, or, if the relevant documentation listed is not available, other written evidence of the person’s status as successor in interest to the real property that secures the mortgage or deed of trust deemed sufficient by the mortgage servicer:

(A) In the case of a personal representative, letters as defined in Section 52 of the Probate Code.

(B) In the case of devisee or an heir, a copy of the relevant will or trust document.

(C) In the case of a beneficiary of a revocable transfer on death deed, a copy of that deed.

(D) In the case of a surviving joint tenant, an affidavit of death of the joint tenant or a grant deed showing joint tenancy.

(E) In the case of a surviving spouse where the real property was held as community property with right of survivorship, an affidavit of death of the spouse or a deed showing community property with right of survivorship.

(F) In the case of a trustee of a trust, a certification of trust pursuant to Section 18100.5 of the Probate Code.

(G) In the case of a beneficiary of a trust, relevant trust documents related to the beneficiary’s interest.

(4) “Successor in interest” means a natural person who provides the mortgage servicer with notification of the death of the mortgagor or trustor and reasonable documentation showing that the person is the spouse, domestic partner, joint tenant as evidenced by grant deed, parent, grandparent, adult child, adult grandchild, or adult sibling of the deceased borrower, who occupied the property as the person’s principal residence within the last six continuous months prior to the deceased borrower’s death and who currently resides in the property.

(j) This section applies to first lien mortgages or deeds of trust that are secured by owner-occupied residential real property containing no more than four dwelling units. “Owner-occupied” means that the property was the principal residence of the deceased borrower.

(k) This section does not apply to a reverse mortgage, as defined in Section 1923.

(l) (1) Any mortgage servicer, mortgagee, or beneficiary of the deed of trust, or an authorized agent thereof, who, with respect to the successor in interest or person claiming to be a successor in interest, complies with the relevant provisions regarding successors in interest of Part 1024 of Chapter X of Title 12 of the Code of Federal Regulations, known as Regulation X, and Part 1026 of Chapter X of Title 12 of the Code of Federal Regulations, known as Regulation Z, including any revisions to those regulations, shall be deemed to be in compliance with this section.

(2) The provisions of paragraph (1) shall only become operative on the effective date of any revisions to the relevant provisions regarding successors in interest of Part 1024 of Chapter X of Title 12 of the Code of Federal Regulations, known as Regulation X, and Part 1026 of Chapter X of Title 12 of the Code of Federal Regulations, known as Regulation Z, issued by the federal Consumer Financial Protection Bureau that revise the Final Servicing Rules in 78 Federal Register 10696, of February 14, 2013.

(m) This section does not apply to a successor in interest who is engaged in a legal dispute over the property that is security for the borrower’s outstanding mortgage loan and has filed a claim raising this dispute in a legal proceeding.

(n) This section does not apply to a depository institution chartered under state or federal law, a person licensed pursuant to Division 9 (commencing with Section 22000) or Division 20 (commencing with Section 50000) of the Financial Code, or a person licensed pursuant to Part 1 (commencing with Section 10000) of Division 4 of the Business and Professions Code, that, during its immediately preceding annual reporting period, as established with its primary regulator, foreclosed on 175 or fewer residential real properties, containing no more than four dwelling units, that are located in California.

(o) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2020, and as of that date is repealed, unless a later enacted statute, that is enacted before January 1, 2020, deletes or extends that date.

2983.2.

 (a) Except where the motor vehicle has been seized as described in paragraph (6) of subdivision (b) of Section 2983.3, any provision in any conditional sale contract for the sale of a motor vehicle to the contrary notwithstanding, at least 15 days’ written notice of intent to dispose of a repossessed or surrendered motor vehicle shall be given to all persons liable on the contract. The notice shall be personally served or shall be sent by certified mail, return receipt requested, or first-class mail, postage prepaid, directed to the last known address of the persons liable on the contract. If those persons are married to each other, and, according to the most recent records of the seller or holder of the contract, reside at the same address, one notice addressed to both persons at that address is sufficient. Except as otherwise provided in Section 2983.8, those persons shall be liable for any deficiency after disposition of the repossessed or surrendered motor vehicle only if the notice prescribed by this section is given within 60 days of repossession or surrender and does all of the following:

(1) Sets forth that those persons shall have a right to redeem the motor vehicle by paying in full the indebtedness evidenced by the contract until the expiration of 15 days from the date of giving or mailing the notice and provides an itemization of the contract balance and of any delinquency, collection or repossession costs and fees and sets forth the computation or estimate of the amount of any credit for unearned finance charges or canceled insurance as of the date of the notice.

(2) States either that there is a conditional right to reinstate the contract until the expiration of 15 days from the date of giving or mailing the notice and all the conditions precedent thereto or that there is no right of reinstatement and provides a statement of reasons therefor.

(3) States that, upon written request, the seller or holder shall extend for an additional 10 days the redemption period or, if entitled to the conditional right of reinstatement, both the redemption and reinstatement periods. The seller or holder shall provide the proper form for applying for the extensions with the substance of the form being limited to the extension request, spaces for the requesting party to sign and date the form, and instructions that it must be personally served or sent by certified or registered mail, return receipt requested, to a person or office and address designated by the seller or holder and received before the expiration of the initial redemption and reinstatement periods.

(4) Discloses the place at which the motor vehicle will be returned to those persons upon redemption or reinstatement.

(5) Designates the name and address of the person or office to whom payment shall be made.

(6) States the seller’s or holder’s intent to dispose of the motor vehicle upon the expiration of 15 days from the date of giving or mailing the notice, or if by mail and either the place of deposit in the mail or the place of address is outside of this state, the period shall be 20 days instead of 15 days, and further, that upon written request to extend the redemption period and any applicable reinstatement period for 10 days, the seller or holder shall without further notice extend the period accordingly.

(7) Informs those persons that upon written request, the seller or holder will furnish a written accounting regarding the disposition of the motor vehicle as provided for in subdivision (b). The seller or holder shall advise them that this request must be personally served or sent first-class mail, postage prepaid, or certified mail, return receipt requested, to a person or office and address designated by the seller or holder.

(8) Includes notice, in at least 10-point bold type if the notice is printed, reading as follows: “NOTICE. YOU MAY BE SUBJECT TO SUIT AND LIABILITY IF THE AMOUNT OBTAINED UPON DISPOSITION OF THE VEHICLE IS INSUFFICIENT TO PAY THE CONTRACT BALANCE AND ANY OTHER AMOUNTS DUE.”

(9) Informs those persons that upon the disposition of the motor vehicle, they will be liable for the deficiency balance plus interest at the contract rate, or at the legal rate of interest pursuant to Section 3289 if there is no contract rate of interest, from the date of disposition of the motor vehicle to the date of entry of judgment.

The notice prescribed by this section shall not affect the discretion of the court to strike out an unconscionable interest rate in the contract for which the notice is required, nor affect the court in its determination of whether the rate is unconscionable.

(b) Unless automatically provided to the buyer within 45 days after the disposition of the motor vehicle, the seller or holder shall provide to any person liable on the contract within 45 days after their written request, if the request is made within one year after the disposition, a written accounting regarding the disposition. The accounting shall itemize:

(1) The gross proceeds of the disposition.

(2) The reasonable and necessary expenses incurred for retaking, holding, preparing for and conducting the sale and to the extent provided for in the agreement and not prohibited by law, reasonable attorney fees and legal expenses incurred by the seller or holder in retaking the motor vehicle from any person not a party to the contract.

(3) The satisfaction of indebtedness secured by any subordinate lien or encumbrance on the motor vehicle if written notification of demand therefor is received before distribution of the proceeds is completed. If requested by the seller or holder, the holder of a subordinate lien or encumbrance must seasonably furnish reasonable proof of its interest, and unless it does so, the seller or holder need not comply with its demand.

(c) In all sales which result in a surplus, the seller or holder shall furnish an accounting as provided in subdivision (b) whether or not requested by the buyer. Any surplus shall be returned to the buyer within 45 days after the sale is conducted.

(d) This section does not apply to a loan made by a lender licensed under Division 9 (commencing with Section 22000) of the Financial Code.

2983.3.

 (a) In the absence of default in the performance of any of the buyer’s obligations under the contract, the seller or holder may not accelerate the maturity of any part or all of the amount due thereunder or repossess the motor vehicle.

(b) If after default by the buyer, the seller or holder repossesses or voluntarily accepts surrender of the motor vehicle, any person liable on the contract shall have a right to reinstate the contract and the seller or holder shall not accelerate the maturity of any part or all of the contract prior to expiration of the right to reinstate, unless the seller or holder reasonably and in good faith determines that any of the following has occurred:

(1) The buyer or any other person liable on the contract by omission or commission intentionally provided false or misleading information of material importance on the buyer’s or other person’s credit application.

(2) The buyer, any other person liable on the contract, or any permissive user in possession of the motor vehicle, in order to avoid repossession has concealed the motor vehicle or removed it from the state.

(3) The buyer, any other person liable on the contract, or any permissive user in possession of the motor vehicle, has committed or threatens to commit acts of destruction, or has failed to take care of the motor vehicle in a reasonable manner, so that the motor vehicle has become substantially impaired in value, or the buyer, any other person liable on the contract, or any nonoccasional permissive user in possession of the motor vehicle has failed to take care of the motor vehicle in a reasonable manner, so that the motor vehicle may become substantially impaired in value.

(4) The buyer or any other person liable on the contract has committed, attempted to commit, or threatened to commit criminal acts of violence or bodily harm against an agent, employee, or officer of the seller or holder in connection with the seller’s or holder’s repossession of or attempt to repossess the motor vehicle.

(5) The buyer has knowingly used the motor vehicle, or has knowingly permitted it to be used, in connection with the commission of a criminal offense, other than an infraction, as a consequence of which the motor vehicle has been seized by a federal, state, or local agency or authority pursuant to federal, state, or local law.

(6) The motor vehicle has been seized by a federal, state, or local public agency or authority pursuant to (A) Section 1324 of Title 8 of the United States Code or Part 274 of Title 8 of the Code of Federal Regulations, (B) Section 881 of Title 21 of the United States Code or Part 9 of Title 28 of the Code of Federal Regulations, or (C) other federal, state, or local law, including regulations, and, pursuant to that other law, the seizing authority, as a precondition to the return of the motor vehicle to the seller or holder, prohibits the return of the motor vehicle to the buyer or other person liable on the contract or any third person claiming the motor vehicle by or through them or otherwise effects or requires the termination of the property rights in the motor vehicle of the buyer or other person liable on the contract or claimants by or through them.

(c) Exercise of the right to reinstate the contract shall be limited to once in any 12-month period and twice during the term of the contract.

(d) The provisions of this subdivision cover the method by which a contract shall be reinstated with respect to curing events of default which were a ground for repossession or occurred subsequent to repossession:

(1) Where the default is the result of the buyer’s failure to make any payment due under the contract, the buyer or any other person liable on the contract shall make the defaulted payments and pay any applicable delinquency charges.

(2) Where the default is the result of the buyer’s failure to keep and maintain the motor vehicle free from all encumbrances and liens of every kind, the buyer or any other person liable on the contract shall either satisfy all encumbrances and liens or, in the event the seller or holder satisfies the encumbrances and liens, the buyer or any other person liable on the contract shall reimburse the seller or holder for all reasonable costs and expenses incurred therefor.

(3) Where the default is the result of the buyer’s failure to keep and maintain insurance on the motor vehicle, the buyer or any other person liable on the contract shall either obtain the insurance or, in the event the seller or holder has obtained the insurance, the buyer or any other person liable on the contract shall reimburse the seller or holder for premiums paid and all reasonable costs and expenses, including, but not limited to, any finance charge in connection with the premiums permitted by Section 2982.8, incurred therefor.

(4) Where the default is the result of the buyer’s failure to perform any other obligation under the contract, unless the seller or holder has made a good faith determination that the default is so substantial as to be incurable, the buyer or any other person liable on the contract shall either cure the default or, if the seller or holder has performed the obligation, reimburse the seller or holder for all reasonable costs and expenses incurred in connection therewith.

(5) Additionally, the buyer or any other person liable on the contract shall, in all cases, reimburse the seller or holder for all reasonable and necessary collection and repossession costs and fees incurred, including attorney’s fees and legal expenses expended in retaking and holding the vehicle.

(e) If the seller or holder denies the right to reinstatement under subdivision (b) or paragraph (4) of subdivision (d), the seller or holder shall have the burden of proof that the denial was justified in that it was reasonable and made in good faith. If the seller or holder fails to sustain the burden of proof, the seller or holder shall not be entitled to a deficiency, but it shall not be presumed that the buyer is entitled to damages by reason of the failure of the seller or holder to sustain the burden of proof.

(f) This section does not apply to a loan made by a lender licensed under Division 9 (commencing with Section 22000) of the Financial Code.

3054.

 (a) A banker, or a savings and loan association, has a general lien, dependent on possession, upon all property in their hands belonging to a customer, for the balance due to the banker or savings and loan association from the customer in the course of the business.

(b) The exercise of this lien with respect to deposit accounts shall be subject to the limitations and procedures set forth in Section 1411 or 6660 of the Financial Code.

5502.

 Notwithstanding any other law, transfers of greater than ten thousand dollars ($10,000) or 5 percent of an association’s total combined reserve and operating account deposits, whichever is lower, shall not be authorized from the association’s reserve or operating accounts without prior written board approval. This section applies in addition to any other applicable requirements of this part.

5211.

 (a) Unless otherwise provided in the articles or in the bylaws, all of the following apply:

(1) Meetings of the board may be called by the chair of the board or the president or any vice president or the secretary or any two directors.

(2) Regular meetings of the board may be held without notice if the time and place of the meetings are fixed by the bylaws or the board. Special meetings of the board shall be held upon four days’ notice by first-class mail or 48 hours’ notice delivered personally or by telephone, including a voice messaging system or by electronic transmission by the corporation (Section 20). The articles or bylaws may not dispense with notice of a special meeting. A notice, or waiver of notice, need not specify the purpose of any regular or special meeting of the board.

(3) Notice of a meeting need not be given to a director who provides a waiver of notice or consent to holding the meeting or an approval of the minutes thereof in writing, whether before or after the meeting, or who attends the meeting without protesting, prior thereto or at its commencement, the lack of notice to that director. These waivers, consents, and approvals shall be filed with the corporate records or made a part of the minutes of the meetings.

(4) A majority of the directors present, whether or not a quorum is present, may adjourn any meeting to another time and place. If the meeting is adjourned for more than 24 hours, notice of an adjournment to another time or place shall be given prior to the time of the adjourned meeting to the directors who were not present at the time of the adjournment.

(5) Meetings of the board may be held at a place within or without the state that has been designated in the notice of the meeting or, if not stated in the notice or there is no notice, designated in the bylaws or by resolution of the board.

(6) Directors may participate in a meeting through use of conference telephone, electronic video screen communication, or electronic transmission by and to the corporation (Sections 20 and 21). Participation in a meeting through use of conference telephone or electronic video screen communication pursuant to this subdivision constitutes presence in person at that meeting as long as all directors participating in the meeting are able to hear one another. Participation in a meeting through use of electronic transmission by and to the corporation, other than conference telephone and electronic video screen communication, pursuant to this subdivision constitutes presence in person at that meeting if both of the following apply:

(A) Each director participating in the meeting can communicate with all of the other directors concurrently.

(B) Each director is provided the means of participating in all matters before the board, including, without limitation, the capacity to propose, or to interpose an objection to, a specific action to be taken by the corporation.

(7) A majority of the number of directors authorized in or pursuant to the articles or bylaws constitutes a quorum of the board for the transaction of business. The articles or bylaws may require the presence of one or more specified directors in order to constitute a quorum of the board to transact business, as long as the death or nonexistence of a specified director or the death or nonexistence of the person or persons otherwise authorized to appoint or designate that director does not prevent the corporation from transacting business in the normal course of events. The articles or bylaws may not provide that a quorum shall be less than one-fifth the number of directors authorized in or pursuant to the articles or bylaws, or less than two, whichever is larger, unless the number of directors authorized in or pursuant to the articles or bylaws is one, in which case one director constitutes a quorum.

(8) Subject to the provisions of Sections 5212, 5233, 5234, 5235, and subdivision (e) of Section 5238, an act or decision done or made by a majority of the directors present at a meeting duly held at which a quorum is present is the act of the board. The articles or bylaws may not provide that a lesser vote than a majority of the directors present at a meeting is the act of the board. A meeting at which a quorum is initially present may continue to transact business notwithstanding the withdrawal of directors, if any action taken is approved by at least a majority of the required quorum for that meeting, or a greater number required by this division, the articles, or the bylaws.

(b) An action required or permitted to be taken by the board may be taken without a meeting if all directors individually or collectively consent in writing to that action and if, subject to subdivision (a) of Section 5224, the number of directors then in office constitutes a quorum. The written consent or consents shall be filed with the minutes of the proceedings of the board. The action by written consent shall have the same force and effect as a unanimous vote of the directors. For purposes of this subdivision only, “all directors” does not include an “interested director” as defined in subdivision (a) of Section 5233 or a “common director” as described in Section 5234 who abstains in writing from providing consent, if (1) the facts described in paragraph (2) or (3) of subdivision (d) of Section 5233 are established or the provisions of paragraph (1) or (2) of subdivision (a) of Section 5234 are satisfied, as appropriate, at or prior to execution of the written consent or consents; (2) the establishment of those facts or satisfaction of those provisions, as applicable, is included in the written consent or consents executed by the noninterested or noncommon directors or in other records of the corporation; and (3) the noninterested or noncommon directors, as applicable, approve the action by a vote that is sufficient without counting the votes of the interested directors or common directors.

(c) Each director shall have one vote on each matter presented to the board of directors for action. A director shall not vote by proxy.

(d) The provisions of this section apply also to incorporators, to committees of the board, and to action by those incorporators or committees mutatis mutandis.

16101.

 (a) As used in this chapter, the following terms and phrases have the following meanings:

(1) “Business” includes every trade, occupation, and profession.

(2) “Debtor in bankruptcy” means a person who is the subject of either of the following:

(A) An order for relief under Title 11 of the United States Code or a comparable order under a successor statute of general application.

(B) A comparable order under federal, state, or foreign law governing insolvency.

(3) “Distribution” means a transfer of money or other property from a partnership to a partner in the partner’s capacity as a partner or to the partner’s transferee.

(4) “Electronic transmission by the partnership” means a communication (a) delivered by (1) facsimile telecommunication or electronic mail when directed to the facsimile number or electronic mail address, respectively, for that recipient on record with the partnership, (2) posting on an electronic message board or network that the partnership has designated for those communications, together with a separate notice to the recipient of the posting, which transmission shall be validly delivered upon the later of the posting or delivery of the separate notice thereof, or (3) other means of electronic communication, (b) to a recipient who has provided an unrevoked consent to the use of those means of transmission, and (c) that creates a record that is capable of retention, retrieval, and review, and that may thereafter be rendered into clearly legible tangible form. However, an electronic transmission by a partnership to an individual partner is not authorized unless, in addition to satisfying the requirements of this section, the transmission satisfies the requirements applicable to consumer consent to electronic records as set forth in the Electronic Signatures in Global and National Commerce Act (15 U.S.C. Sec. 7001(c)(1)).

(5) “Electronic transmission to the partnership” means a communication (a) delivered by (1) facsimile telecommunication or electronic mail when directed to the facsimile number or electronic mail address, respectively, which the partnership has provided from time to time to partners for sending communications to the partnership, (2) posting on an electronic message board or network that the partnership has designated for those communications, and which transmission shall be validly delivered upon the posting, or (3) other means of electronic communication, (b) as to which the partnership has placed in effect reasonable measures to verify that the sender is the partner, in person or by proxy, purporting to send the transmission, and (c) that creates a record that is capable of retention, retrieval, and review, and that may thereafter be rendered into clearly legible tangible form.

(6) (A) “Foreign limited liability partnership” means a partnership, other than a limited partnership, formed pursuant to an agreement governed by the laws of another jurisdiction and denominated or registered as a limited liability partnership or registered limited liability partnership under the laws of that jurisdiction (i) in which each partner is a licensed person or a person licensed or authorized to provide professional limited liability partnership services in a jurisdiction or jurisdictions other than this state, (ii) which is licensed under the laws of the state to engage in the practice of architecture, the practice of public accountancy, the practice of engineering, the practice of land surveying, or the practice of law, or (iii) which (I) is related to a registered limited liability partnership that practices public accountancy or, to the extent permitted by the State Bar of California, practices law or is related to a foreign limited liability partnership and (II) provides services related or complementary to the professional limited liability partnership services provided by, or provides services or facilities to, that registered limited liability partnership or foreign limited liability partnership.

(B) For the purposes of clause (iii) of subparagraph (A), a partnership is related to a registered limited liability partnership or foreign limited liability partnership if (i) at least a majority of the partners in one partnership are also partners in the other partnership, or (ii) at least a majority in interest in each partnership hold interests in or are members of another person, except an individual, and each partnership renders services pursuant to an agreement with that other person, or (iii) one partnership, directly or indirectly through one or more intermediaries, controls, is controlled by, or is under common control with, the other partnership.

(7) “Licensed person” means any person who is duly licensed, authorized, or registered under the provisions of the Business and Professions Code to provide professional limited liability partnership services or who is lawfully able to render professional limited liability partnership services in this state.

(8) (A) “Registered limited liability partnership” means a partnership, other than a limited partnership, formed pursuant to an agreement governed by Article 10 (commencing with Section 16951), that is registered under Section 16953 and (i) each of the partners of which is a licensed person or a person licensed or authorized to provide professional limited liability partnership services in a jurisdiction or jurisdictions other than this state, (ii) is licensed under the laws of the state to engage in the practice of architecture, the practice of public accountancy, the practice of engineering, the practice of land surveying, or the practice of law, or (iii)(I) is related to a registered limited liability partnership that practices public accountancy or, to the extent permitted by the State Bar of California, practices law or is related to a foreign limited liability partnership and (II) provides services related or complementary to the professional limited liability partnership services provided by, or provides services or facilities to, that registered limited liability partnership or foreign limited liability partnership.

(B) For the purposes of clause (iii) of subparagraph (A), a partnership is related to a registered limited liability partnership or foreign limited liability partnership if (i) at least a majority of the partners in one partnership are also partners in the other partnership, or (ii) at least a majority in interest in each partnership hold interests in or are members of another person, other than an individual, and each partnership renders services pursuant to an agreement with that other person, or (iii) one partnership, directly or indirectly through one or more intermediaries, controls, is controlled by, or is under common control with, the other partnership.

(9) “Partnership” means an association of two or more persons to carry on as coowners a business for profit formed under Section 16202, predecessor law, or comparable law of another jurisdiction, and includes, for all purposes of the laws of this state, a registered limited liability partnership, and excludes any partnership formed under Chapter 4.5 (commencing with Section 15900).

(10) “Partnership agreement” means the agreement, whether written, oral, or implied, among the partners concerning the partnership, including amendments to the partnership agreement.

(11) “Partnership at will” means a partnership in which the partners have not agreed to remain partners until the expiration of a definite term or the completion of a particular undertaking.

(12) “Partnership interest” or “partner’s interest in the partnership” means all of a partner’s interests in the partnership, including the partner’s transferable interest and all management and other rights.

(13) “Person” means an individual, corporation, business trust, estate, trust, partnership, limited partnership, limited liability partnership, limited liability company, association, joint venture, government, governmental subdivision, agency, or instrumentality, or any other legal or commercial entity.

(14) “Professional limited liability partnership services” means the practice of architecture, the practice of public accountancy, the practice of engineering, the practice of land surveying, or the practice of law.

(15) “Property” means all property, real, personal, or mixed, tangible or intangible, or any interest therein.

(16) “State” means a state of the United States, the District of Columbia, the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, or any territory or insular possession subject to the jurisdiction of the United States.

(17) “Statement” means a statement of partnership authority under Section 16303, a statement of denial under Section 16304, a statement of dissociation under Section 16704, a statement of dissolution under Section 16805, a statement of conversion or a certificate of conversion under Section 16906, a statement of merger under Section 16915, or an amendment or cancellation of any of the foregoing.

(18) “Transfer” includes an assignment, conveyance, lease, mortgage, deed, and encumbrance.

(b) The inclusion of the practice of architecture as a professional limited liability partnership service permitted by this section shall extend only until January 1, 2026.

(c) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2026, and as of that date is repealed.

16101.

 (a) As used in this chapter, the following terms and phrases have the following meanings:

(1) “Business” includes every trade, occupation, and profession.

(2) “Debtor in bankruptcy” means a person who is the subject of either of the following:

(A) An order for relief under Title 11 of the United States Code or a comparable order under a successor statute of general application.

(B) A comparable order under federal, state, or foreign law governing insolvency.

(3) “Distribution” means a transfer of money or other property from a partnership to a partner in the partner’s capacity as a partner or to the partner’s transferee.

(4) “Electronic transmission by the partnership” means a communication (a) delivered by (1) facsimile telecommunication or electronic mail when directed to the facsimile number or electronic mail address, respectively, for that recipient on record with the partnership, (2) posting on an electronic message board or network that the partnership has designated for those communications, together with a separate notice to the recipient of the posting, which transmission shall be validly delivered upon the later of the posting or delivery of the separate notice thereof, or (3) other means of electronic communication, (b) to a recipient who has provided an unrevoked consent to the use of those means of transmission, and (c) that creates a record that is capable of retention, retrieval, and review, and that may thereafter be rendered into clearly legible tangible form. However, an electronic transmission by a partnership to an individual partner is not authorized unless, in addition to satisfying the requirements of this section, the transmission satisfies the requirements applicable to consumer consent to electronic records as set forth in the Electronic Signatures in Global and National Commerce Act (15 U.S.C. Sec. 7001(c)(1)).

(5) “Electronic transmission to the partnership” means a communication (a) delivered by (1) facsimile telecommunication or electronic mail when directed to the facsimile number or electronic mail address, respectively, which the partnership has provided from time to time to partners for sending communications to the partnership, (2) posting on an electronic message board or network that the partnership has designated for those communications, and which transmission shall be validly delivered upon the posting, or (3) other means of electronic communication, (b) as to which the partnership has placed in effect reasonable measures to verify that the sender is the partner, in person or by proxy, purporting to send the transmission, and (c) that creates a record that is capable of retention, retrieval, and review, and that may thereafter be rendered into clearly legible tangible form.

(6) (A) “Foreign limited liability partnership” means a partnership, other than a limited partnership, formed pursuant to an agreement governed by the laws of another jurisdiction and denominated or registered as a limited liability partnership or registered limited liability partnership under the laws of that jurisdiction (i) in which each partner is a licensed person or a person licensed or authorized to provide professional limited liability partnership services in a jurisdiction or jurisdictions other than this state, (ii) which is licensed under the laws of the state to engage in the practice of public accountancy or the practice of law, or (iii) which (I) is related to a registered limited liability partnership that practices public accountancy or, to the extent permitted by the State Bar of California, practices law or is related to a foreign limited liability partnership and (II) provides services related or complementary to the professional limited liability partnership services provided by, or provides services or facilities to, that registered limited liability partnership or foreign limited liability partnership.

(B) For the purposes of clause (iii) of subparagraph (A), a partnership is related to a registered limited liability partnership or foreign limited liability partnership if (i) at least a majority of the partners in one partnership are also partners in the other partnership, or (ii) at least a majority in interest in each partnership hold interests in or are members of another person, except an individual, and each partnership renders services pursuant to an agreement with that other person, or (iii) one partnership, directly or indirectly through one or more intermediaries, controls, is controlled by, or is under common control with, the other partnership.

(7) “Licensed person” means any person who is duly licensed, authorized, or registered under the provisions of the Business and Professions Code to provide professional limited liability partnership services or who is lawfully able to render professional limited liability partnership services in this state.

(8) (A) “Registered limited liability partnership” means a partnership, other than a limited partnership, formed pursuant to an agreement governed by Article 10 (commencing with Section 16951), that is registered under Section 16953 and (i) each of the partners of which is a licensed person or a person licensed or authorized to provide professional limited liability partnership services in a jurisdiction or jurisdictions other than this state, (ii) is licensed under the laws of the state to engage in the practice of public accountancy or the practice of law, or (iii)(I) is related to a registered limited liability partnership that practices public accountancy or, to the extent permitted by the State Bar of California, practices law or is related to a foreign limited liability partnership and (II) provides services related or complementary to the professional limited liability partnership services provided by, or provides services or facilities to, that registered limited liability partnership or foreign limited liability partnership.

(B) For the purposes of clause (iii) of subparagraph (A), a partnership is related to a registered limited liability partnership or foreign limited liability partnership if (i) at least a majority of the partners in one partnership are also partners in the other partnership, or (ii) at least a majority in interest in each partnership hold interests in or are members of another person, other than an individual, and each partnership renders services pursuant to an agreement with that other person, or (iii) one partnership, directly or indirectly through one or more intermediaries, controls, is controlled by, or is under common control with, the other partnership.

(9) “Partnership” means an association of two or more persons to carry on as coowners a business for profit formed under Section 16202, predecessor law, or comparable law of another jurisdiction, and includes, for all purposes of the laws of this state, a registered limited liability partnership, and excludes any partnership formed under Chapter 4.5 (commencing with Section 15900).

(10) “Partnership agreement” means the agreement, whether written, oral, or implied, among the partners concerning the partnership, including amendments to the partnership agreement.

(11) “Partnership at will” means a partnership in which the partners have not agreed to remain partners until the expiration of a definite term or the completion of a particular undertaking.

(12) “Partnership interest” or “partner’s interest in the partnership” means all of a partner’s interests in the partnership, including the partner’s transferable interest and all management and other rights.

(13) “Person” means an individual, corporation, business trust, estate, trust, partnership, limited partnership, limited liability partnership, limited liability company, association, joint venture, government, governmental subdivision, agency, or instrumentality, or any other legal or commercial entity.

(14) “Professional limited liability partnership services” means the practice of public accountancy or the practice of law.

(15) “Property” means all property, real, personal, or mixed, tangible or intangible, or any interest therein.

(16) “State” means a state of the United States, the District of Columbia, the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, or any territory or insular possession subject to the jurisdiction of the United States.

(17) “Statement” means a statement of partnership authority under Section 16303, a statement of denial under Section 16304, a statement of dissociation under Section 16704, a statement of dissolution under Section 16805, a statement of conversion or a certificate of conversion under Section 16906, a statement of merger under Section 16915, or an amendment or cancellation of any of the foregoing.

(18) “Transfer” includes an assignment, conveyance, lease, mortgage, deed, and encumbrance.

(b) This section shall become operative on January 1, 2026.

8220.1.

 (a) It is the intent of the Legislature that:

(1) Working families be supported with maximum access to child care and development programs that focus on stabilizing families and helping children realize greater education outcomes.

(2) Working families have access to the supportive services needed to ensure the healthy physical, cognitive, social, and emotional growth and development of children.

(3) The Superintendent, in providing funding to child care and development agencies, promote a contracting term for services that will allow parents the opportunity to choose the type of care most suited to their needs.

(4) Working families achieve and maintain their personal, social, economic, and emotional stability through an opportunity to attain financial stability through employment and parental development while maximizing the growth and development of their children, and through enhancing their parenting skills through participation in child care and development programs.

(b) The department shall contract with local contracting agencies for alternative payment programs so that services will be provided throughout the state. The department shall expand existing alternative payment programs and fund new alternative payment programs to the extent that funds are provided by the Legislature.

(c) Funding for the new programs pursuant to this section shall be allocated to programs that meet all of the following requirements:

(1) Applicants shall conform to the requirements of this article.

(2) Applicants shall demonstrate that an alternative payment child development program is an appropriate method of delivering child care services within the county or service area at the level requested in the application by doing either of the following:

(A) Demonstrating the availability of sufficient licensed or exempt child care providers.

(B) Providing a plan for the development of sufficient licensed child care providers working in cooperation with the local resource and referral agency.

(3) Applicants shall demonstrate the administrative viability of the alternative payment agency and its capacity to meet performance requirements.

(4) Existing alternative payment child development programs receiving funds for expansion into a new service area shall be funded at a documented rate appropriate to that community and may contract separately as appropriate.

(d) (1) Except as provided in paragraph (3), an alternative payment program shall have no less than 12 months, and no more than 24 months, to expend funds allocated to that program in any fiscal year.

(2) The Superintendent shall develop a process that provides alternative payment programs no less than 12 months, and no more than 24 months, to expend funds allocated to that program in any fiscal year.

(3) Paragraphs (1) and (2) do not apply to contracts relating to the administration of childcare services described in Sections 8353 and 8354.

8332.8.

 Notwithstanding the rulemaking provisions of the Administrative Procedure Act (Chapter 3.5 (commencing with Section 11340) of Part 1 of Division 3 of Title 2 of the Government Code), the department and the State Department of Social Services may implement and administer this article through the issuance of guidance or other written directives, which may include, but is not limited to, establishing timelines for submittal of plans and any modifications, plan templates, and processes for requesting additional participating contractors.

8492.

 (a) The Legislature finds and declares all of the following:

(1) Early childhood inclusion embodies the values, policies, and practices that support the right of every infant and young child and their family, regardless of ability, to participate in a broad range of activities and contexts as full members of families, communities, and society. The desired results of inclusive experiences for children with and without disabilities and their families include a sense of belonging and membership, positive social relationships and friendships, and development and learning to reach their full potential. The defining features of inclusion that can be used to identify high-quality early childhood programs and services are access, participation, and supports.

(2) In accordance with the Individuals with Disabilities Education Act (20 U.S.C. Sec. 1400 et seq.), all young children with exceptional needs should have access to inclusive high-quality early care and education programs where they are able to learn alongside children who do not have exceptional needs and are provided with individualized and appropriate supports to enable them to meet high expectations.

(3) Inclusive early care and education programs can improve a child’s developmental progress and educational outcomes, especially for children with exceptional needs.

(4) Interventions provided to children with exceptional needs, including children who are at risk of requiring services for pupils with exceptional needs, can be more effective when a child is younger.

(5) Access to inclusive early care and education programs benefits communities and families, especially when programs are coordinated with public elementary and secondary education systems to create a developmental and educational continuum of support.

(b) The Inclusive Early Education Expansion Program is hereby established for the purpose of increasing access to inclusive early care and education programs.

(c) The sum of one hundred sixty-seven million two hundred forty-two thousand dollars ($167,242,000) is hereby appropriated from the General Fund to the Superintendent for allocation to local educational agencies for the Inclusive Early Education Expansion Program pursuant to this section. These funds shall be available for encumbrance until June 30, 2023.

(d) The department’s Special Education Division and Early Education and Support Division shall work collaboratively to administer the program, including developing criteria for the selection of grantees.

(e) At a minimum, an applicant shall be a local educational agency and shall include all of the following information in its grant application:

(1) A proposal to increase access to subsidized inclusive early care and education programs for children up to five years of age, including those defined as “children with exceptional needs” pursuant to Section 8208, in low-income and high-need communities. “High-need” shall be defined pursuant to the county childcare needs assessment specified in Section 8499.5. The proposal shall quantify the number of additional subsidized children proposed to be served, including children with exceptional needs.

(2) A plan to fiscally sustain subsidized spaces or programs created by grant funds beyond the grant period. Subsidies may be funded with private, local, state, or federal funds, but shall be able to demonstrate a reasonable expectation of sustainability.

(3) The identification of local resources to contribute 33 percent of the total award amount. The total award amount shall include state and local resources. Local resources may include in-kind contributions.

(4) The identification of resources necessary to support lead agency professional development to allow staff to develop the knowledge and skills required to implement effective inclusive practices and fiscal sustainability.

(5) A description of the special education expertise that will be used to ensure the funds are used in a high-quality, inclusive manner.

(f) This section does not prohibit a local educational agency from applying on behalf of a consortium of providers within the local educational agency’s program area, including public and private agencies that will provide inclusive early care and education programs on behalf of the applicant.

(g) Grants shall be awarded on a competitive basis. Priority shall be given to all of the following:

(1) Applicants with a demonstrated need for expanded access to inclusive early care and education.

(2) Applicants in low-income communities and applicants that represent a consortium of local partners, including local special education partners and those with expertise in inclusive early learning and care environments.

(3) Applicants who demonstrate the ability to serve a broad range of disabilities.

(4) Applicants who do or plan to serve children with disabilities in proportion to their rate of identification similar to local educational agencies in their region.

(h) Grants may be used for one-time infrastructure costs only, including, but not limited to, adaptive and universal design facility renovations, adaptive equipment, and professional development. Funds shall not be used for ongoing expenditures.

(i) A grant recipient shall commit to provide program data and participate in overall program evaluation to ensure expanded access to inclusive environments, as specified by the department, as a condition of the receipt of grant funding.

(j) The department may reserve up to 1 percent of the program funds to support an evaluation to address improved access, participation, and supports to inclusive early learning and care programs and program and child outcomes.

(k) Commencing in the 2018–19 fiscal year, the department shall convene a stakeholder workgroup that includes, but is not limited to, representatives from the relevant divisions in the department, the State Department of Developmental Services, the State Interagency Coordinating Council on Early Intervention, local educational agencies, appropriate county agencies, regional centers, and resource and referral agencies. The workgroup shall be maintained through June 30, 2023, with the goal of providing continuous improvement in the inclusion of children with exceptional needs in early care and education settings. The department shall include representatives of local educational agencies participating in the Inclusive Early Education Expansion Program established in this section and county offices of education participating in the Inclusive Early Care Pilot Program, established pursuant to Section 136 of the act adding this section, in this workgroup, when appropriate, to share challenges, barriers, and best practices.

(l) For purposes of making the computations required by Section 8 of Article XVI of the California Constitution, the amount appropriated in subdivision (c) shall be deemed to be “General Fund revenues appropriated for school districts,” as defined in subdivision (c) of Section 41202, for the 2017–18 fiscal year, and included within the “total allocations to school districts and community college districts from General Fund proceeds of taxes appropriated pursuant to Article XIII B,” as defined in subdivision (e) of Section 41202, for the 2017–18 fiscal year.

14002.

 (a)  Notwithstanding any other law, upon certification of the Superintendent pursuant to Sections 41330, 41332, and 41335, any amount necessary to meet the requirements of programs specified in subdivision (b) during each fiscal year are hereby continuously appropriated from the General Fund to Section A of the State School Fund for allocation by the Controller.

(b) Programs included for purposes of this section are all of the following:

(1) Chapter 12.5 (commencing with Section 2574) of Part 2.

(2) Section 41544.

(3) Article 2 (commencing with Section 42238) of Chapter 7 of Part 24 of Division 3 of Title 2.

(4) Section 47663.

(5) Article 7 (commencing with Section 48300) of Chapter 2 of Part 27 of Division 4 of Title 2.

(6) Article 10 (commencing with Section 48350) of Chapter 2 of Part 27 of Division 4 of Title 2.

17583.

 (a) (1) If a governing board of a school district applies for state funding pursuant to Chapter 12.5 (commencing with Section 17070.10) of Part 10 for a school modernization project for a school facility constructed before January 1, 2012, the governing board of the school district shall include, as part of the modernization project, locks that allow doors to classrooms, and any room with an occupancy of five or more persons, to be locked from the inside of the room, except as provided in paragraph (2).

(2) The requirement in paragraph (1) does not apply to doors that are locked from the outside at all times, doors with locks that lock from inside, and pupil restrooms.

(b) The locks required by subdivision (a) shall conform to the specifications and requirements set forth in Title 24 of the California Code of Regulations.

(c) (1) The requirements of this section apply only to those projects seeking funding, as described in paragraph (1) of subdivision (a), on or after January 1, 2019, and that were submitted to the Division of the State Architect for approval on or after January 1, 2019.

(2) The requirements of this section shall apply only to those projects that propose to renovate, repair, or modernize the interior of a school building and do not apply to projects that only propose to renovate, repair, or modernize the exterior of a school building, the school grounds, or the playing fields of a school.

25011.1.

 (a) A member may elect to receive the retirement benefit as an annuity payable in monthly installments, provided the balance of credits in the member’s Defined Benefit Supplement account on the date the retirement benefit becomes payable equals at least three thousand five hundred dollars ($3,500) after any lump-sum payments have been made from the account. If the member elects to receive the retirement benefit as an annuity, the member shall elect one of the following forms of payments:

(1) Member only annuity. This is a single life annuity with a cash refund feature that is the actuarial equivalent of the amount that would be payable to the retired member if the member elected to receive the retirement benefit in a lump-sum payment. Upon the death of the member, an amount equal to the remaining balance of credits, if any, transferred from the member’s Defined Benefit Supplement account to the Annuitant Reserve shall be returned in a lump-sum payment to the beneficiary of the member.

(2) One hundred percent beneficiary annuity. This is a joint and survivor annuity that is the actuarial equivalent of the lump-sum payment modified to be payable over the combined lives of the member and the member’s annuity beneficiary or beneficiaries. Upon the death of the member, 100 percent of the monthly amount that was payable to the member shall be paid monthly to the surviving annuity beneficiary or beneficiaries of the member.

(3) Seventy-five percent beneficiary annuity. This is a joint and survivor annuity that is the actuarial equivalent of the lump-sum payment modified to be payable over the combined lives of the member and the member’s annuity beneficiary. Pursuant to Section 401(a)(9) of the Internal Revenue Code, the member shall not elect this annuity if a beneficiary is more than exactly 19 years younger than the member, unless the beneficiary is the member’s spouse or former spouse and the election is pursuant to a determination of community property rights. Upon the death of the member, 75 percent of the monthly amount that was payable to the member shall be paid monthly to the surviving annuity beneficiary or beneficiaries of the member.

(4) Fifty percent beneficiary annuity. This is a joint and survivor annuity that is the actuarial equivalent of the lump-sum payment modified to be payable over the combined lives of the member and the member’s annuity beneficiary or beneficiaries. Upon the death of the member, 50 percent of the monthly amount that was payable to the member shall be paid monthly to the surviving annuity beneficiary or beneficiaries of the member.

(5) A period certain annuity. This form of payment is an annuity equal to the actuarial equivalent of the balance of credits in the member’s Defined Benefit Supplement account on the date the retirement benefit becomes payable. The annuity shall be payable in whole year increments over a period of years specified by the member, from a minimum of three years to a maximum of 10 years subject to life expectancy tables promulgated pursuant to Section 401(a)(9) of the Internal Revenue Code. If the member’s death occurs prior to the end of the period certain, the remaining balance of payments shall be paid to the member’s beneficiary pursuant to Section 25022.

(b) If an annuity beneficiary designated pursuant to paragraph (2), (3), or (4) of subdivision (a) predeceases the member, the annuity shall be paid to the member as the member only annuity that would have been payable had the member elected that form of payment at the commencement of the benefit. That member only annuity shall be payable as of the day following the date of the annuity beneficiary’s death upon receipt by the system of proof of the annuity beneficiary’s death. If the annuity beneficiary predeceases the member and the member designates a new option beneficiary pursuant to Section 24323, the new option beneficiary shall be the new annuity beneficiary. The effective date shall be six months following the date notification is received by the board, provided both the member and the new annuity beneficiary are then living. Notice to the board of the death of the annuity beneficiary shall be on a properly executed form provided by the system. The new annuity beneficiary under this paragraph is subject to an actuarial modification of the member only annuity and shall not result in any additional liability to the fund. The new annuity beneficiary shall not be an existing annuity beneficiary.

(c) If a nonmember spouse elects to receive the retirement benefit as an annuity, the nonmember spouse shall elect the form of payment specified in paragraph (1) or (5) of subdivision (a) and, in those paragraphs, references to a “member” shall apply to the nonmember spouse.

(d) Notwithstanding Section 297 or 299.2 of the Family Code, a spouse as described in paragraph (3) or (5) of subdivision (a) does not include the domestic partner of the member, pursuant to Section 7 of Title 1 of the United States Code.

(e) If there is a determination of community property rights as described in Chapter 12 (commencing with Section 22650) of this part on or before December 31, 2006, the member may elect the annuity that is required by the judgment or court order. This part does not permit the member to change the annuity to the detriment of the community property interest of the nonmember spouse.

25015.

 (a) If a member elects to receive a benefit payable under the Defined Benefit Supplement Program as a joint and survivor annuity, the designation of the beneficiary made pursuant to Section 24300 or 24300.1 shall apply to the benefit payable under this chapter. The annuity beneficiary designation shall not be changed after the date the benefit becomes payable to the member, except as provided in Section 24320, 24321, 24322, 24323, 24324, 25011, 25011.1, 25018, or 25018.1, or Chapter 12 (commencing with Section 22650).

(b) If the member designates one or multiple option beneficiaries within Option 8 pursuant to Section 24300 or the compound option pursuant to Section 24300.1, the percentage of the unmodified allowance attributable to each option beneficiary specified in that designation shall apply to the joint and survivor annuity payable under this chapter. The member shall elect one joint and survivor annuity type and this annuity type shall be applied the same for each beneficiary and each designated percentage of the member only annuity. If any percentage of the allowance was designated to remain unmodified, the member only annuity shall apply for the corresponding percentage of the annuity provided under this chapter. The annuity amount payable to the member during the member’s lifetime shall be modified to be payable over the combined lives of the member and the annuity beneficiary or beneficiaries.

(1) Pursuant to Section 401(a)(9) of the Internal Revenue Code, the member shall not designate the 100-percent beneficiary annuity type under this subdivision if any annuity beneficiary is more than exactly 10 years younger than the member, unless that annuity beneficiary is the member’s spouse or former spouse who has been awarded a community property interest in the member’s benefits under this part.

(2) Pursuant to Section 401(a)(9) of the Internal Revenue Code, the member shall not designate the 75-percent beneficiary annuity type under this subdivision if any annuity beneficiary is more than exactly 19 years younger than the member, unless that annuity beneficiary is the member’s spouse or former spouse who has been awarded a community property interest in the member’s benefits under this part.

(c) (1) If the member predeceases an annuity beneficiary, the annuity beneficiary may designate, on a properly executed form provided by the system, a payee to receive an amount that may be payable in a lump sum pursuant to Section 25023 upon the death of the annuity beneficiary.

(2) Unless otherwise specified in the trust instrument, the trustee or beneficiary of the trust that is an annuity beneficiary is entitled to name a subsequent beneficiary if the trust is valid. If the trust is determined to be invalid or terminates, any election by the trustee pursuant to this paragraph shall be void and the beneficiary shall be entitled to exercise all rights provided to annuity beneficiaries under this part.

25018.1.

 (a) A member may elect to receive the disability benefit as an annuity, payable in monthly installments, provided the balance of credits in the member’s Defined Benefit Supplement account on the date the disability benefit becomes payable equals at least three thousand five hundred dollars ($3,500) after any lump-sum payment has been made from this account. If the member elects to receive the disability benefit as an annuity, the member shall elect one of the following forms of payment:

(1) Member only annuity. This is a single life annuity with a cash refund feature that is the actuarial equivalent of the amount that would be payable to the member if the member elected to receive the disability benefit in a lump-sum payment. Upon the death of the member, an amount equal to the remaining balance of credits, if any, transferred from the member’s Defined Benefit Supplement account to the Annuitant Reserve shall be returned in a lump-sum payment to the member’s beneficiary.

(2) One hundred percent beneficiary annuity. This form of payment is the actuarial equivalent of the lump-sum payment modified to be payable over the combined lives of the member and the member’s annuity beneficiary or beneficiaries. Upon the death of the member, 100 percent of the monthly amount that was payable to the member shall be paid monthly to the member’s surviving annuity beneficiary or beneficiaries.

(3) Seventy-five percent beneficiary annuity. This form of payment is the actuarial equivalent of the lump-sum payment modified to be payable over the combined lives of the member and the member’s annuity beneficiary or beneficiaries. Pursuant to Section 401(a)(9) of the Internal Revenue Code, the member shall not elect this annuity if a beneficiary is more than exactly 19 years younger than the member unless the beneficiary is the member’s spouse or former spouse and the election is pursuant to a determination of community property rights. Upon the death of the member, 75 percent of the monthly amount that was payable to the member shall be paid monthly to the surviving annuity beneficiary or beneficiaries of the member.

(4) Fifty percent beneficiary annuity. This form of payment is the actuarial equivalent of the lump-sum payment modified to be payable over the combined lives of the member and the member’s annuity beneficiary or beneficiaries. Upon the death of the member, one-half of the monthly amount that was payable to the member shall be paid monthly to the member’s surviving annuity beneficiary or beneficiaries.

(5) A period certain annuity. This form of payment is an annuity equal to the actuarial equivalent of the balance of credits in the member’s Defined Benefit Supplement account on the date the disability benefit becomes payable. The annuity shall be payable in whole year increments over a period of years specified by the member, from a minimum of three years to a maximum of 10 years subject to life expectancy tables promulgated pursuant to Section 401(a)(9) of the Internal Revenue Code. If the member’s death occurs prior to the end of the period certain, the remaining balance of payments shall be paid to the member’s beneficiary pursuant to Section 25022.

(b) If an annuity beneficiary designated pursuant to paragraph (2), (3), or (4) of subdivision (a) predeceases the member, the annuity shall be paid to the member as the member only annuity that would have been payable had the member elected that form of payment at the commencement of the benefit. That member only annuity shall be payable as of the day following the date of the annuity beneficiary’s death upon receipt by the system of proof of the annuity beneficiary’s death. If the annuity beneficiary predeceases the member and the member designates a new option beneficiary pursuant to Section 24323, the new option beneficiary shall be a new annuity beneficiary. The effective date shall be six months following the date notification is received by the board, provided both the member and the new annuity beneficiary are then living. Notice to the board of the death of the annuity beneficiary shall be on a properly executed form provided by the system. The new annuity beneficiary under this paragraph is subject to an actuarial modification of the member only annuity and shall not result in any additional liability to the fund. The new annuity beneficiary shall not be an existing annuity beneficiary.

(c) Notwithstanding Section 297 or 299.2 of the Family Code, a spouse as described in paragraph (3) or (5) of subdivision (a) does not include the domestic partner of the member, pursuant to Section 7 of Title 1 of the United States Code.

(d) If there is a determination of community property rights as described in Chapter 12 (commencing with Section 22650) of this part on or before December 31, 2006, the member may elect the annuity that is required by the judgment or court order. This part does not permit the member to change the annuity to the detriment of the community property interest of the nonmember spouse.

32283.5.

 (a) The department shall develop and post on its internet website an online training module to assist all school staff, school administrators, parents, pupils, and community members in increasing their knowledge of the dynamics of bullying and cyberbullying. The online training module shall include, but is not limited to, identifying an act of bullying or cyberbullying and implementing strategies to address bullying and cyberbullying.

(b) The department shall post on its internet website and annually update a list of available online training modules relating to bullying or bullying prevention.

(c) A school operated by a school district or a county office of education and a charter school shall annually make available the online training module developed by the department pursuant to subdivision (a) to certificated schoolsite employees and all other schoolsite employees who have regular interaction with pupils.

33127.

 (a) The Superintendent, the Controller, and the Director of Finance shall develop, on or before March 1, 1989, standards and criteria to be reviewed and adopted by the state board, and to be used by local educational agencies in the development of annual budgets and the management of subsequent expenditures from that budget. During the development of the standards and criteria, the Superintendent shall convene a committee composed of representatives from school districts, county offices of education, state agencies, the Legislature, and appropriate labor and professional organizations. The committee may review and comment on the proposal standards and criteria before their adoption. In addition, the standards and criteria shall be used to monitor the fiscal stability of local educational agencies as provided for in Sections 1240.1, 1240.2, 1621, 1623, 33131, 42127, and 42127.1.

(b) The Superintendent, the Controller, and the Director of Finance shall update the standards and criteria developed pursuant to subdivision (a) on or before September 1, 2005. The updated standards and criteria shall be reviewed and adopted pursuant to the procedure established by subdivision (a) and are applicable to local educational agency budgets commencing with the 2006–07 fiscal year and each fiscal year thereafter.

(c) The Superintendent, the Controller, and the Director of Finance shall update the standards and criteria developed pursuant to subdivision (a) on or before January 1, 2014, to address the requirements of Article 4.5 (commencing with Section 52059.5) of Chapter 6.1 of Part 28. The updated standards and criteria shall be reviewed and adopted pursuant to the procedure established by subdivision (a) and are applicable to local educational agency budgets commencing with the 2014–15 fiscal year and each fiscal year thereafter.

(d) After January 1, 2014, to the extent necessary, any revisions or updates to the standards and criteria shall be developed by the Superintendent, the Controller, and the Director of Finance pursuant to the procedure established by subdivision (a). The revisions or updates shall specify the fiscal year in which the revisions or updates are applicable.

33352.

 (a) The department shall exercise general supervision over the courses of physical education in the elementary and secondary schools of the state; advise school officials, school boards, and teachers in the development and improvement of their physical education and activity programs; and investigate the work in physical education in the public schools.

(b) The department shall ensure that the data collected through the categorical program monitoring indicates the extent to which each school within the jurisdiction of a school district or county office of education does all of the following that are applicable to the school:

(1) Provides instruction in physical education for a total period of time of not less than 200 minutes each 10 schooldays to pupils in grades 1 to 6, inclusive, as required pursuant to paragraph (7) of subdivision (a) of Section 51210.

(2) Provides instruction in physical education for a total period of time of not less than 400 minutes each 10 schooldays to pupils in grades 7 to 12, inclusive, as required pursuant to subdivision (a) of Section 51222.

(3) Provides instruction in physical education for a total period of time of not less than 200 minutes each 10 schooldays to pupils in an elementary school maintaining grades 1 to 8, inclusive, as required pursuant to Section 51223.

(4) Conducts physical fitness testing of pupils as required pursuant to Chapter 6 (commencing with Section 60800) of Part 33 of Division 4.

(5) Includes the results of physical fitness testing of pupils in the school accountability report card as required pursuant to subparagraph (B) of paragraph (1) of subdivision (b) of Section 33126.

(6) Offers pupils exempted from required attendance in physical education courses pursuant to paragraph (1) of either subdivision (b) or (c) of Section 51241 a variety of elective physical education courses of not less than 400 minutes every 10 schooldays.

(7) Provides a course of study in physical education to pupils in any of grades 9 to 12, inclusive, that includes a developmentally appropriate sequence of instruction, including the effects of physical activity upon dynamic health, the mechanics of body movement, aquatics, gymnastics and tumbling, individual and dual sports, rhythms and dance, team sports, and combatives.

(8) Provides instruction in physical education to pupils that provides equal opportunities for participation regardless of gender.

(9) Provides instruction in physical education to pupils in any of grades 1 to 12, inclusive, by physical education teachers who hold appropriate teaching credentials issued by the Commission on Teacher Credentialing.

(c) The department annually shall do both of the following:

(1) Submit a report to the Governor and the Legislature that summarizes the data collected through categorical program monitoring regarding the items described in paragraphs (1) to (9), inclusive, of subdivision (b).

(2) Post a summary of the data collected through categorical program monitoring regarding the items described in paragraphs (1) to (9), inclusive, of subdivision (b) on the internet website of the department.

35179.6.

 (a)  For purposes of this section, an “AED” is an automated external defibrillator.

(b) Commencing July 1, 2019, if a school district or charter school elects to offer any interscholastic athletic program, the school district or the charter school shall acquire at least one AED for each school within the school district or the charter school. The school district or the charter school is encouraged to ensure that the AED or AEDs are available for the purpose of rendering emergency care or treatment within a recommended three to five minutes of sudden cardiac arrest to pupils, spectators, and any other individuals in attendance at the athletic program’s on-campus activities or events and shall ensure that the AED or AEDs are available to athletic trainers and coaches and authorized persons at these activities or events.

(c) Subdivision (b) of Section 49417 shall apply for the purposes of determining whether an employee of a school district is liable for any civil damages resulting from the employee’s use, attempted use, or nonuse of an AED in the rendering of emergency care or treatment pursuant to this section.

(d) Subdivision (c) of Section 49417 applies for the purposes of determining whether a public school or school district is liable for any civil damages resulting from any act or omission in the rendering of emergency care or treatment pursuant to this section.

(e) Except as provided in subdivision (g), if an employee of a charter school complies with Section 1714.21 of the Civil Code in rendering emergency care or treatment through the use, attempted use, or nonuse of an AED at the scene of an emergency, the employee is not liable for any civil damages resulting from any act or omission in the rendering of the emergency care or treatment.

(f) Except as provided in subdivision (g), if a charter school complies with the requirements of Section 1797.196 of the Health and Safety Code, the charter school is covered by Section 1714.21 of the Civil Code and is not liable for any civil damages resulting from any act or omission in the rendering of the emergency care or treatment.

(g) Subdivisions (e) and (f) do not apply in the case of personal injury or wrongful death that results from gross negligence or willful or wanton misconduct on the part of the person who uses, attempts to use, or fails to use an AED to render emergency care or treatment.

(h) In order to ensure public safety, each school district or charter school that elects to offer any interscholastic athletic program shall ensure that its AED or AEDs are maintained and regularly tested according to the operation and maintenance guidelines set forth by the manufacturer, the American Heart Association, or the American Red Cross, and according to any applicable rules and regulations set forth by the governmental authority under the federal Food and Drug Administration and any other applicable state and federal authority.

(i) This section does not alter the requirements of Section 1797.196 of the Health and Safety Code.

41206.

 The Legislature finds and declares all of the following:

(a) Proposition 98 was enacted by the voters in 1988 to provide a minimum funding level for schools. The Legislature can exceed the minimum funding level required by Proposition 98 but it cannot provide less funding than the California Constitution requires, unless the Legislature suspends the minimum funding level pursuant to a separately enacted statute, adopted with a two-thirds vote of the Legislature.

(b) The local control funding formula is the primary means of allocating Proposition 98 funds and was enacted to increase local control, to simplify the allocation of school funding to school districts, and to increase school funding across the state, providing the largest increases to school districts serving our neediest pupils.

(c) Now that the transition to the local control funding formula is complete, it is time to enhance the certainty of Proposition 98 by ensuring local control funding formula funds flow to school districts without delay.

(d) Chapter 39 of the Statutes of 2018 furthers the purposes of Proposition 98 through enactment of a continuous appropriation for local control funding formula funding that is automatically adjusted for increases in the cost of living and changes in enrollment to provide the funding guaranteed to school districts under the California Constitution.

(e) With enactment of a continuous appropriation comes a heightened need to know with certainty the amount of funding that is required to be provided to school districts under the California Constitution.

(f) While prior law created a mechanism to certify the Proposition 98 minimum guarantee to provide certainty and to allocate owed funds to schools in a timely manner, the mechanism was unenforceable and rarely implemented.

(g) The Proposition 98 minimum guarantee was last certified in the 2008–09 fiscal year by statute. Outstanding issues, including when a maintenance factor is created, how the maintenance factor is repaid, the impact on the constitutional minimum guarantee of funding and revenue changes, as well as which programs can be funded with Proposition 98 funds, have delayed certification of the Proposition 98 minimum funding guarantee. These delays in certification create uncertainty, lead to questions regarding the level of funding required for certain years, and can lead to delays in payment of settle-up funds. Notwithstanding the significance of outstanding issues, school districts and the state need to know with certainty the total amount of funding to which they are entitled and the state’s plan for providing all of that funding.

(h) Section 41207.31 certifies the Proposition 98 minimum guarantee for the 2009–10 to 2015–16, inclusive, fiscal years based on final school enrollment, personal income, and revenue data. Section 41206.01 replaces the existing certification process with a new transparent, mandatory process to certify the Proposition 98 minimum guarantee and provide settle-up funds on a timely basis commencing with the 2016–17 fiscal year minimum guarantee.

(i) Section 41206.01 is in addition to existing law that provides for calculation and recalculation of the minimum funding obligation to school districts under Section 8 of Article XVI of the California Constitution, as well as provisions in current law that account for necessary revenues being set aside for these obligations.

41207.45.

 (a) (1) The sum of one hundred million dollars ($100,000,000) is hereby appropriated in the 2018–19 fiscal year from the General Fund to the Controller for allocation to school districts and community college districts for the purpose of reducing the 2009–10 fiscal year outstanding balance of the minimum funding obligation to school districts and community college districts pursuant to Section 8 of Article XVI of the California Constitution.

(2) The amount appropriated pursuant to paragraph (1) shall be allocated to school districts and community college districts, as described in subdivision (a) of Section 41203.1, in accordance with the following:

(A) Eighty-nine million seventy thousand dollars ($89,070,000) for transfer by the Controller to Section A of the State School Fund for allocation by the Superintendent pursuant to this section.

(B) Ten million nine hundred thirty thousand dollars ($10,930,000) for transfer by the Controller to Section B of the State School Fund for allocation by the Chancellor of the California Community Colleges to community college districts for deferred maintenance, instructional materials, and other activities, as specified in Provision 22 of Item 6870-101-0001 of Section 2.0 of the Budget Act of 2018.

(3) The amount allocated to school districts pursuant to subparagraph (A) of paragraph (2) shall be distributed on the basis of an equal amount per unit of average daily attendance, as those average daily attendance numbers are reported at the time of the second principal apportionment of the 2017–18 fiscal year.

(4) The amount allocated to community college districts pursuant to subparagraph (B) of paragraph (2) shall be distributed on the basis of an equal amount per enrolled full-time equivalent student, as those numbers of students are reported at the time of the second principal apportionment for the 2017–18 fiscal year.

(5) For purposes of this section, a school district includes a county office of education and a charter school.

(b) (1) If a school district is required to repay claims disallowed under the School-Based Medi-Cal Administrative Activities or Local Educational Agency Medi-Cal Billing Option programs for the 2009–10 to 2015–16 fiscal years, inclusive, the Controller shall, upon notification from the Department of Finance, withhold up to the specified amounts owed by the applicable school districts from the allocations made to those school districts pursuant to subparagraph (A) of paragraph (2) of subdivision (a).

(2) The Controller shall transfer the amounts withheld pursuant to paragraph (1) to the General Fund as reimbursement of the payments made by the state in the 2017–18 and the 2018–19 fiscal years to the federal Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services on behalf of those school districts.

(c) Funding received by school districts pursuant to subparagraph (A) of paragraph (2) of subdivision (a), less any amount withheld pursuant to subdivision (b), shall first be deemed to be paid in satisfaction of any outstanding claims pursuant to Section 6 of Article XIII   B of the California Constitution for reimbursement of state-mandated local program costs for any fiscal year. Notwithstanding Section 12419.5 of the Government Code and any amounts that are deemed, pursuant to this subdivision, to be paid in satisfaction of outstanding claims for reimbursement of state-mandated local program costs, the Controller may audit any claim as allowed by law and may recover any amount owed by school districts pursuant to an audit only by reducing amounts owed for any other mandate claims. Under no circumstances shall a school district be required to remit funding back to the state to pay for disallowed costs identified by a Controller audit of claimed reimbursable state-mandated local program costs. The Controller shall not recover any amount owed by a school district pursuant to an audit of claimed reimbursable state-mandated local program costs by reducing any amount owed to a school district or community college district for any purpose other than amounts owed for any other mandate claims. The Controller shall apply amounts received by each school district against any balances of unpaid claims for reimbursement of state-mandated local program costs and interest in chronological order beginning with the earliest claim. The Controller shall report to each school district the amounts of any claims and interest that are offset from funds provided pursuant to this section and shall report a summary of the amounts offset for each mandate for each fiscal year to the Department of Finance and the fiscal committees of each house of the Legislature.

(d) (1) The governing board of a school district may expend the one-time funds received pursuant to subparagraph (A) of paragraph (2) of subdivision (a) for any purpose, as determined by the governing board.

(2) It is the intent of the Legislature that school districts prioritize the use of these one-time funds for professional development, induction for beginning teachers with a focus on relevant mentoring, instructional materials, technology infrastructure, employee benefits, and any other investments necessary to support implementation of the common core academic content standards in English language arts and mathematics, the implementation of English language development standards, and the implementation of the Next Generation Science standards.

(e) For purposes of Section 8 of Article XVI of the California Constitution, the amounts appropriated pursuant to subdivision (a) shall be applied to the outstanding balance of the minimum funding obligation to school districts and community college districts, pursuant to Section 8 of Article XVI of the California Constitution, for the 2009–10 fiscal year, and shall be deemed to be appropriations made and allocated in that fiscal year in which the deficiencies resulting in the outstanding balance were incurred.

41344.1.

 (a) The Education Audit Appeals Panel is hereby established as a separate state agency. Its membership shall consist of the Superintendent, the Director of Finance, and the Chief Executive Officer of the Fiscal Crisis and Management Assistance Team established pursuant to Section 42127.8 or their designees. The panel shall have the authority to expend funds, hire staff, make contracts, sue and be sued, and issue regulations in furtherance of its duties.

(b) The panel shall hear appeals filed pursuant to subdivision (d) of Section 41344. The Controller and the Department of Finance shall be a party to all appeals. The department may, at its election, timely intervene as a party in any appeal. The panel shall consider audit appeals pursuant to the administrative adjudication provisions of the Administrative Procedure Act (Chapter 4.5 (commencing with Section 11400) and Chapter 5 (commencing with Section 11500) of Part 1 of Division 3 of Title 2 of the Government Code), except that it may adopt regulations specifying special pleadings that shall govern audit appeals. The panel may approve settlements and make findings of fact and interpretations of law.

(c) Compliance with all legal requirements is a condition to the state’s obligation to make apportionments. A condition may be deemed satisfied if the panel finds there has been compliance or substantial compliance with all legal requirements. “Substantial compliance” means nearly complete satisfaction of all material requirements of a funding program that provide an educational benefit substantially consistent with the program’s purpose. A minor or inadvertent noncompliance may be grounds for a finding of substantial compliance provided that the local educational agency can demonstrate it acted in good faith to comply with the conditions established in law or regulation necessary for apportionment of funding. The panel may further define “substantial compliance” by issuing regulations or through adjudicative opinions, or both. If the panel finds there has been substantial compliance, the panel may waive or reduce the reimbursement or penalty amount and may also order other remedial measures sufficient to induce full compliance in the future. Other remedial measures may include restoration of a reduction or penalty amount if full compliance is not rendered in the future, ordering special audits, and requiring special training.

(d) In addition to the normal appeal process specified above, there is hereby created a voluntary, informal, summary appeals process for noncompliant audit exceptions that clearly constitute substantial compliance as that term is defined in subdivision (c). Requests for summary review shall be made to the executive officer of the panel who may seek comment from the Department of Finance or Superintendent. Summary review shall be sought within 30 days of the date on which a local educational agency receives a final audit report resulting from an audit or review.

(1) If the executive officer concludes the conditions for finding substantial compliance are not clearly met or involve substantial questions of fact, the executive officer may deny the request for summary review and the appellant may pursue its claim through the normal appeal process.

(2) For appeals in which the total audit exceptions for full repayment or penalty constitute less than 150 units of average daily attendance or seven hundred fifty thousand dollars ($750,000), whichever is less, the executive officer may waive or reduce the reimbursement or penalty upon a finding of substantial compliance and that other remedial measures are sufficient to induce full compliance in the future.

(3) For appeals in which the total audit exceptions for full repayment or penalty meet or exceed 150 units of average daily attendance or seven hundred fifty thousand dollars ($750,000), whichever is greater, the executive officer may waive or reduce the reimbursement or penalty upon a finding of substantial compliance and order other remedial measures that are sufficient to induce full compliance in the future, if the executive officer has the written approval of the Department of Finance and the Superintendent. The executive officer shall provide the details of the proposed settlement and the rationale in writing to the Department of Finance and Superintendent and allow at least 30 days for their review.

(4) The right to appeal pursuant to subdivision (d) of Section 41344 is independent of this subdivision and an appellant may pursue the appellant’s appeal under subdivision (b) regardless of the result under this subdivision. A local educational agency that has unresolved audit appeals pursuant to subdivision (d) of Section 41344 pending on January 1, 2003, may file a request for summary review under this subdivision for a period of 60 days after January 1, 2003.

42127.6.

 (a) (1) A school district shall provide the county superintendent of schools with a copy of a study, report, evaluation, or audit that was commissioned by the school district, the county superintendent, the Superintendent, and state control agencies and that contains evidence that the school district is showing fiscal distress under the standards and criteria adopted in Section 33127, or a report on the school district by the County Office Fiscal Crisis and Management Assistance Team or any regional team created pursuant to subdivision (i) of Section 42127.8. The county superintendent shall review and consider studies, reports, evaluations, or audits of the school district that contain evidence that the school district is demonstrating fiscal distress under the standards and criteria adopted in Section 33127 or that contain a finding by an external reviewer that more than three of the 15 most common predictors of a school district needing intervention, as determined by the County Office Fiscal Crisis and Management Assistance Team, are present. If these findings are made, the county superintendent of schools shall investigate the financial condition of the school district and determine if the school district may be unable to meet its financial obligations for the current or two subsequent fiscal years, or should receive a qualified or negative interim financial certification pursuant to Section 42131. If at any time during the fiscal year the county superintendent of schools determines that a school district may be unable to meet its financial obligations for the current or two subsequent fiscal years or if a school district has a qualified or negative certification pursuant to Section 42131, the county superintendent of schools shall notify the governing board of the school district and the Superintendent in writing of that determination and the basis for the determination. The notification shall include the assumptions used in making the determination and shall be available to the public. The county superintendent of schools shall report to the Superintendent on the financial condition of the school district and the county superintendent’s proposed remedial actions and shall do at least one of the following and all actions that are necessary to ensure that the school district meets its financial obligations:

(A) Assign a fiscal expert, paid for by the county superintendent of schools, to advise the school district on its financial problems.

(B) Conduct a study of the financial and budgetary conditions of the school district that includes, but is not limited to, a review of internal controls. If, in the course of this review, the county superintendent of schools determines that the county superintendent’s office requires analytical assistance or expertise that is not available through the school district, the county superintendent of schools may employ, on a short-term basis, with the approval of the Superintendent, staff, including certified public accountants, to provide the assistance and expertise. The school district shall pay 75 percent and the county office of education shall pay 25 percent of these staff costs.

(C) Direct the school district to submit a financial projection of all fund and cash balances of the district as of June 30 of the current year and subsequent fiscal years as the county superintendent of schools requires.

(D) Require the district to encumber all contracts and other obligations, to prepare appropriate cashflow analyses and monthly or quarterly budget revisions, and to appropriately record all receivables and payables.

(E) Direct the school district to submit a proposal for addressing the fiscal conditions that resulted in the determination that the school district may not be able to meet its financial obligations.

(F) Withhold compensation of the members of the governing board of the school district and the school district superintendent for failure to provide requested financial information. This action may be appealed to the Superintendent pursuant to subdivision (b).

(G) Assign the County Office Fiscal Crisis and Management Assistance Team to review teacher hiring practices, teacher retention rate, percentage of provision of highly qualified teachers, and the extent of teacher misassignment in the school district and provide the school district with recommendations to streamline and improve the teacher hiring process, teacher retention rate, extent of teacher misassignment, and provision of highly qualified teachers. If a review team is assigned to a school district, the school district shall follow the recommendations of the team, unless the school district shows good cause for failure to do so. The County Office Fiscal Crisis and Management Assistance Team may not recommend an action that would abrogate a contract that governs employment.

(2) Any contract entered into by a county superintendent of schools for the purposes of this subdivision is subject to the approval of the Superintendent.

(3) An employee of a school district who provides information regarding improper governmental activity, as defined in Section 44112, is entitled to the protection provided pursuant to Article 5 (commencing with Section 44110) of Chapter 1 of Part 25.

(b) Within five days of the county superintendent of schools making the determination specified in subdivision (a), a school district may appeal the basis of the determination and any of the proposed actions that the county superintendent of schools has indicated that the county superintendent of schools will take to further examine the financial condition of the school district. The Superintendent shall sustain or deny any or all parts of the appeal within 10 days.

(c) If, after taking the actions identified in subdivision (a), the county superintendent of schools determines that a school district will be unable to meet its financial obligations for the current or subsequent fiscal year, the county superintendent of schools shall notify the governing board of the school district, the Superintendent, and the president of the state board or the president’s designee in writing of that determination and the basis for that determination. The notification shall include the assumptions used in making the determination and shall be provided to the superintendent of the school district and parent and teacher organization of the school district.

(d) Within five days of the county superintendent of schools making the determination specified in subdivision (c), a school district may appeal that determination to the Superintendent. The Superintendent shall sustain or deny the appeal within 10 days. If the governing board of the school district appeals the determination, the county superintendent of schools may stay any action of the governing board of the school district that the county superintendent of schools determines is inconsistent with the ability of the school district to meet its financial obligations for the current or subsequent fiscal year until resolution of the appeal by the Superintendent.

(e) If the appeal described in subdivision (d) is denied or not filed, or if the school district has a negative certification pursuant to Section 42131, the county superintendent of schools, in consultation with the Superintendent, shall take at least one of the actions described in paragraphs (1) to (5), inclusive, and all actions that are necessary to ensure that the school district meets its financial obligations and shall make a report to the Superintendent and the president of the state board or the president’s designee about the financial condition of the school district and remedial actions proposed by the county superintendent of schools.

(1) Develop and impose, in consultation with the Superintendent and the governing board of the school district, a budget revision that will enable the school district to meet its financial obligations in the current fiscal year.

(2) Stay or rescind any action that is determined to be inconsistent with the ability of the school district to meet its obligations for the current or subsequent fiscal year. This includes any actions up to the point that the subsequent year’s budget is approved by the county superintendent of schools. The county superintendent of schools shall inform the governing board of the school district in writing of the county superintendent’s justification for any exercise of authority under this paragraph.

(3) Assist in developing, in consultation with the governing board of the school district, a financial plan that will enable the school district to meet its future obligations.

(4) Assist in developing, in consultation with the governing board of the school district, a budget for the subsequent fiscal year. If necessary, the county superintendent of schools shall continue to work with the governing board of the school district until the budget for the subsequent year is adopted.

(5) As necessary, appoint a fiscal adviser to perform any or all of the duties prescribed by this section on behalf of the county superintendent of schools.

(f) Any action taken by the county superintendent of schools pursuant to paragraph (1) or (2) of subdivision (e) shall be accompanied by a notification that shall include the actions to be taken, the reasons for the actions, and the assumptions used to support the necessity for these actions.

(g) This section does not authorize the county superintendent of schools to abrogate any provision of a collective bargaining agreement that was entered into by a school district before the date that the county superintendent of schools assumed authority pursuant to subdivision (e).

(h) The school district shall pay 75 percent and the county office of education shall pay 25 percent of the administrative expenses incurred pursuant to subdivision (e) or costs associated with improving the school district’s financial management practices. The Superintendent shall develop and distribute to affected school districts and county offices of education advisory guidelines regarding the appropriate amount of administrative expenses charged pursuant to this subdivision.

(i) Notwithstanding Section 42647 or 42650 or any other law, a county treasurer shall not honor any warrant if, pursuant to Sections 42127 to 42127.5, inclusive, or pursuant to this section, the county superintendent of schools or the Superintendent, as appropriate, has disapproved that warrant or the order on school district funds for which a warrant was prepared.

(j) Effective upon the certification of the election results for a newly organized school district pursuant to Section 35763, the county superintendent of schools may exercise any of the powers and duties of this section regarding the reorganized school district and the other affected school districts until the reorganized school district becomes effective for all purposes in accordance with Article 4 (commencing with Section 35530) of Chapter 3 of Part 21.

(k) The Superintendent shall monitor the efforts of a county office of education in exercising its authority under this section and may exercise any of that authority if the Superintendent finds that the actions of the county superintendent of schools are not effective in resolving the financial problems of the school district. Upon a decision to exercise the powers of the county superintendent of schools, the county superintendent of schools is relieved of those powers assumed by the Superintendent, and shall provide support and assistance to the Superintendent in the exercise of those powers. The Superintendent shall also request that the County Office Fiscal Crisis and Management Assistance Team identify the circumstances that led to the ineffectiveness of the county superintendent of schools in resolving the financial problems of the school district, and shall require the county office of education to demonstrate, in a manner determined by the Superintendent, remediation of those deficiencies. In addition to the actions taken by the county superintendent of schools, the Superintendent shall take further actions to ensure the long-term fiscal stability of the school district. The county office of education shall reimburse the Superintendent for all of the Superintendent’s costs in exercising the Superintendent’s authority under this subdivision. The Superintendent shall promptly notify the county superintendent of schools, the county board of education, the superintendent of the school district, the governing board of the school district, the appropriate policy and fiscal committees of each house of the Legislature, and the Department of Finance of the Superintendent’s decision to exercise the authority of the county superintendent of schools.

42127.9.

 (a) No later than five days after a school district receives notice of any change or changes adopted by the county superintendent of schools in the school district’s budget pursuant to subdivision (b) of Section 42127.3, subdivision (e) of Section 42127.6, or subdivision (b) of Section 42131, the governing board of the school district may submit an appeal to the Superintendent, based upon the contention that the change or changes would do one or more of the following:

(1) Exceed the financial or program changes necessary to allow the school district to meet its financial obligations in the current fiscal year and with regard to its multiyear financial commitments. It is the intent of the Legislature that any change or changes adopted by the county superintendent of schools in a school district’s budget minimize, to the extent possible, any impact upon the educational program of the school district.

(2) Require reductions that are unnecessary in view of other reductions that are proposed by the governing board of the school district and that reasonably can be expected to be realized.

(3) Make one or more changes in the school district’s operations that are inconsistent with any provision of state or federal law.

(b) No later than five days after receiving that appeal, the Superintendent, with the concurrence of the president of the state board or the president’s designee, shall deny or uphold the appeal. If the appeal is denied, the school district shall implement the change or changes adopted by the county superintendent of schools. If the appeal is upheld, the Superintendent may revise the change or changes adopted by the county superintendent of schools or issue guidelines governing the manner in which the governing board of the school district or the county superintendent of schools shall be required to change the school district budget.

42238.02.

 (a) The amount computed pursuant to this section shall be known as the school district and charter school local control funding formula.

(b) (1) For purposes of this section “unduplicated pupil” means a pupil enrolled in a school district or a charter school who is either classified as an English learner, eligible for a free or reduced-price meal, or is a foster youth. A pupil shall be counted only once for purposes of this section if any of the following apply:

(A) The pupil is classified as an English learner and is eligible for a free or reduced-price meal.

(B) The pupil is classified as an English learner and is a foster youth.

(C) The pupil is eligible for a free or reduced-price meal and is classified as a foster youth.

(D) The pupil is classified as an English learner, is eligible for a free or reduced-price meal, and is a foster youth.

(2) Under procedures and timeframes established by the Superintendent, commencing with the 2013–14 fiscal year, a school district or charter school shall annually submit its enrolled free and reduced-price meal eligibility, foster youth, and English learner pupil-level records for enrolled pupils to the Superintendent using the California Longitudinal Pupil Achievement Data System.

(3) (A) Commencing with the 2013–14 fiscal year, a county office of education shall review and validate certified aggregate English learner, foster youth, and free or reduced-price meal eligible pupil data for school districts and charter schools under its jurisdiction to ensure the data is reported accurately. The Superintendent shall provide each county office of education with appropriate access to school district and charter school data reports in the California Longitudinal Pupil Achievement Data System for purposes of ensuring data reporting accuracy.

(B) The Controller shall include the instructions necessary to enforce paragraph (2) in the audit guide required by Section 14502.1. The instructions shall include, but are not necessarily limited to, procedures for determining if the English learner, foster youth, and free or reduced-price meal eligible pupil counts are consistent with the school district’s or charter school’s English learner, foster youth, and free or reduced-price meal eligible pupil records.

(4) The Superintendent shall make the calculations pursuant to this section using the data submitted by local educational agencies, including charter schools, through the California Longitudinal Pupil Achievement Data System. Under timeframes and procedures established by the Superintendent, school districts and charter schools may review and revise their submitted data on English learner, foster youth, and free or reduced-price meal eligible pupil counts to ensure the accuracy of data reflected in the California Longitudinal Pupil Achievement Data System.

(5) The Superintendent shall annually compute the percentage of unduplicated pupils for each school district and charter school by dividing the enrollment of unduplicated pupils in a school district or charter school by the total enrollment in that school district or charter school pursuant to all of the following:

(A) For the 2013–14 fiscal year, divide the sum of unduplicated pupils for the 2013–14 fiscal year by the sum of the total pupil enrollment for the 2013–14 fiscal year.

(B) For the 2014–15 fiscal year, divide the sum of unduplicated pupils for the 2013–14 and 2014–15 fiscal years by the sum of the total pupil enrollment for the 2013–14 and 2014–15 fiscal years.

(C) For the 2015–16 fiscal year and each fiscal year thereafter, divide the sum of unduplicated pupils for the current fiscal year and the two prior fiscal years by the sum of the total pupil enrollment for the current fiscal year and the two prior fiscal years.

(D) (i) For purposes of the quotients determined pursuant to subparagraphs (B) and (C), the Superintendent shall use a school district’s or charter school’s enrollment of unduplicated pupils and total pupil enrollment in the 2014–15 fiscal year instead of the enrollment of unduplicated pupils and total pupil enrollment in the 2013–14 fiscal year if doing so would yield an overall greater percentage of unduplicated pupils.

(ii) It is the intent of the Legislature to review each school district and charter school’s enrollment of unduplicated pupils for the 2013–14 and 2014–15 fiscal years and provide one-time funding, if necessary, for a school district or charter school with higher enrollment of unduplicated pupils in the 2014–15 fiscal year as compared to the 2013–14 fiscal year.

(6) The data used to determine the percentage of unduplicated pupils shall be final once that data is no longer used in the current fiscal year calculation of the percentage of unduplicated pupils. This paragraph does not apply to a change that is the result of an audit that has been appealed pursuant to Section 41344.

(c) Commencing with the 2013–14 fiscal year and each fiscal year thereafter, the Superintendent shall annually calculate a local control funding formula grant for each school district and charter school in the state pursuant to this section.

(d) The Superintendent shall compute a grade span adjusted base grant equal to the total of the following amounts:

(1) For the 2013–14 fiscal year, a base grant of:

(A) Six thousand eight hundred forty-five dollars ($6,845) for average daily attendance in kindergarten and grades 1 to 3, inclusive.

(B) Six thousand nine hundred forty-seven dollars ($6,947) for average daily attendance in grades 4 to 6, inclusive.

(C) Seven thousand one hundred fifty-four dollars ($7,154) for average daily attendance in grades 7 and 8.

(D) Eight thousand two hundred eighty-nine dollars ($8,289) for average daily attendance in grades 9 to 12, inclusive.

(2) In each year the grade span adjusted base grants in paragraph (1) shall be adjusted by the percentage change in the annual average value of the Implicit Price Deflator for State and Local Government Purchases of Goods and Services for the United States, as published by the United States Department of Commerce for the 12-month period ending in the third quarter of the prior fiscal year. This percentage change shall be determined using the latest data available as of May 10 of the preceding fiscal year compared with the annual average value of the same deflator for the 12-month period ending in the third quarter of the second preceding fiscal year, using the latest data available as of May 10 of the preceding fiscal year, as reported by the Department of Finance.

(3) (A) The Superintendent shall compute an additional adjustment to the kindergarten and grades 1 to 3, inclusive, base grant as adjusted for inflation pursuant to paragraph (2) equal to 10.4 percent. The additional grant shall be calculated by multiplying the kindergarten and grades 1 to 3, inclusive, base grant, as adjusted by paragraph (2), by 10.4 percent.

(B) Until paragraph (4) of subdivision (b) of Section 42238.03 is effective, as a condition of the receipt of funds in this paragraph, a school district shall make progress toward maintaining an average class enrollment of not more than 24 pupils for each schoolsite in kindergarten and grades 1 to 3, inclusive, unless a collectively bargained alternative annual average class enrollment for each schoolsite in those grades is agreed to by the school district, pursuant to the following calculation:

(i) Determine a school district’s average class enrollment for each schoolsite for kindergarten and grades 1 to 3, inclusive, in the prior year. For the 2013–14 fiscal year, this amount shall be the average class enrollment for each schoolsite for kindergarten and grades 1 to 3, inclusive, in the 2012–13 fiscal year.

(ii) Determine a school district’s proportion of total need pursuant to paragraph (2) of subdivision (b) of Section 42238.03.

(iii) Determine the percentage of the need calculated in clause (ii) that is met by funding provided to the school district pursuant to paragraph (3) of subdivision (b) of Section 42238.03.

(iv) Determine the difference between the amount computed pursuant to clause (i) and an average class enrollment of not more than 24 pupils.

(v) Calculate a current year average class enrollment adjustment for each schoolsite for kindergarten and grades 1 to 3, inclusive, equal to the adjustment calculated in clause (iv) multiplied by the percentage determined pursuant to clause (iii).

(C) School districts that have an average class enrollment for each schoolsite for kindergarten and grades 1 to 3, inclusive, of 24 pupils or less for each schoolsite in the 2012–13 fiscal year, shall be exempt from the requirements of subparagraph (B) so long as the school district continues to maintain an average class enrollment for each schoolsite for kindergarten and grades 1 to 3, inclusive, of not more than 24 pupils, unless a collectively bargained alternative ratio is agreed to by the school district.

(D) Upon full implementation of the local control funding formula, as a condition of the receipt of funds in this paragraph, all school districts shall maintain an average class enrollment for each schoolsite for kindergarten and grades 1 to 3, inclusive, of not more than 24 pupils for each schoolsite in kindergarten and grades 1 to 3, inclusive, unless a collectively bargained alternative ratio is agreed to by the school district.

(E) The average class enrollment requirement for each schoolsite for kindergarten and grades 1 to 3, inclusive, established pursuant to this paragraph shall not be subject to waiver by the state board pursuant to Section 33050 or by the Superintendent.

(F) The Controller shall include the instructions necessary to enforce this paragraph in the audit guide required by Section 14502.1. The instructions shall include, but are not necessarily limited to, procedures for determining if the average class enrollment for each schoolsite for kindergarten and grades 1 to 3, inclusive, exceeds 24 pupils, or an alternative average class enrollment for each schoolsite pursuant to a collectively bargained alternative ratio. The procedures for determining average class enrollment for each schoolsite shall include criteria for employing sampling.

(4) The Superintendent shall compute an additional adjustment to the base grant for grades 9 to 12, inclusive, as adjusted for inflation pursuant to paragraph (2), equal to 2.6 percent. The additional grant shall be calculated by multiplying the base grant for grades 9 to 12, inclusive, as adjusted by paragraph (2), by 2.6 percent.

(e) The Superintendent shall compute a supplemental grant add-on equal to 20 percent of the base grants as specified in subparagraphs (A) to (D), inclusive, of paragraph (1) of subdivision (d), as adjusted by paragraphs (2) to (4), inclusive, of subdivision (d), for each school district’s or charter school’s percentage of unduplicated pupils calculated pursuant to paragraph (5) of subdivision (b). The supplemental grant shall be calculated by multiplying the base grants as specified in subparagraphs (A) to (D), inclusive, of paragraph (1), as adjusted by paragraphs (2) to (4), inclusive, of subdivision (d), by 20 percent and by the percentage of unduplicated pupils calculated pursuant to paragraph (5) of subdivision (b) in that school district or charter school. The supplemental grant shall be expended in accordance with the regulations adopted pursuant to Section 42238.07.

(f) (1) The Superintendent shall compute a concentration grant add-on equal to 50 percent of the base grants as specified in subparagraphs (A) to (D), inclusive, of paragraph (1) of subdivision (d), as adjusted by paragraphs (2) to (4), inclusive, of subdivision (d), for each school district’s or charter school’s percentage of unduplicated pupils calculated pursuant to paragraph (5) of subdivision (b) in excess of 55 percent of the school district’s or charter school’s total enrollment. The concentration grant shall be calculated by multiplying the base grants as specified in subparagraphs (A) to (D), inclusive, of paragraph (1) of subdivision (d), as adjusted by paragraphs (2) to (4), inclusive, of subdivision (d), by 50 percent and by the percentage of unduplicated pupils calculated pursuant to paragraph (5) of subdivision (b) in excess of 55 percent of the total enrollment in that school district or charter school.

(2) (A) For a charter school physically located in only one school district, the percentage of unduplicated pupils calculated pursuant to paragraph (5) of subdivision (b) in excess of 55 percent used to calculate concentration grants shall not exceed the percentage of unduplicated pupils calculated pursuant to paragraph (5) of subdivision (b) in excess of 55 percent of the school district in which the charter school is physically located. For a charter school physically located in more than one school district, the charter school’s percentage of unduplicated pupils calculated pursuant to paragraph (5) of subdivision (b) in excess of 55 percent used to calculate concentration grants shall not exceed that of the school district with the highest percentage of unduplicated pupils calculated pursuant to paragraph (5) of subdivision (b) in excess of 55 percent of the school districts in which the charter school has a school facility. The concentration grant shall be expended in accordance with the regulations adopted pursuant to Section 42238.07.

(B) For purposes of this paragraph and subparagraph (A) of paragraph (1) of subdivision (f) of Section 42238.03, a charter school shall report its physical location to the department under timeframes established by the department. For a charter school authorized by a school district, the department shall include the authorizing school district in the department’s determination of physical location. For a charter school authorized on appeal pursuant to subdivision (j) of Section 47605, the department shall include the sponsoring school district in the department’s determination of physical location. The reported physical location of the charter school shall be considered final as of the second principal apportionment for that fiscal year. For purposes of this paragraph, the percentage of unduplicated pupils of the school district associated with the charter school pursuant to subparagraph (A) shall be considered final as of the second principal apportionment for that fiscal year.

(g) The Superintendent shall compute an add-on to the total sum of a school district’s or charter school’s base, supplemental, and concentration grants equal to the amount of funding a school district or charter school received from funds allocated pursuant to the Targeted Instructional Improvement Block Grant program, as set forth in Article 6 (commencing with Section 41540) of Chapter 3.2, for the 2012–13 fiscal year, as that article read on January 1, 2013. A school district or charter school shall not receive a total funding amount from this add-on greater than the total amount of funding received by the school district or charter school from that program in the 2012–13 fiscal year. The amount computed pursuant to this subdivision shall reflect the reduction specified in paragraph (2) of subdivision (a) of Section 42238.03.

(h) (1) The Superintendent shall compute an add-on to the total sum of a school district’s or charter school’s base, supplemental, and concentration grants equal to the amount of funding a school district or charter school received from funds allocated pursuant to the Home-to-School Transportation program, as set forth in former Article 2 (commencing with Section 39820) of Chapter 1 of Part 23.5, former Article 10 (commencing with Section 41850) of Chapter 5, and the Small School District Transportation program, as set forth in former Article 4.5 (commencing with Section 42290), as those articles read on January 1, 2013, for the 2012–13 fiscal year. A school district or charter school shall not receive a total funding amount from this add-on greater than the total amount received by the school district or charter school for those programs in the 2012–13 fiscal year. The amount computed pursuant to this subdivision shall reflect the reduction specified in paragraph (2) of subdivision (a) of Section 42238.03.

(2) If a home-to-school transportation joint powers agency, established pursuant to Article 1 (commencing with Section 6500) of Chapter 5 of Division 7 of Title 1 of the Government Code for purposes of providing pupil transportation, received an apportionment directly from the Superintendent from any of the funding sources specified in paragraph (1) for the 2012–13 fiscal year, the joint powers agency may identify the member local educational agencies and transfer entitlement to that funding to any of those member local educational agencies by reporting to the Superintendent, on or before September 30, 2015, the reassignment of a specified amount of the joint powers agency’s 2012–13 fiscal year entitlement to the member local educational agency. Commencing with the 2015–16 fiscal year, the Superintendent shall compute an add-on to the total sum of a school district’s or charter school’s base, supplemental, and concentration grants equal to the amount of the entitlement to funding transferred by the joint powers agency to the member school district or charter school.

(i) (1) The sum of the local control funding formula rates computed pursuant to subdivisions (c) to (f), inclusive, shall be multiplied by:

(A) For school districts, the average daily attendance of the school district in the corresponding grade level ranges computed pursuant to Section 42238.05, excluding the average daily attendance computed pursuant to paragraph (2) of subdivision (a) of Section 42238.05 for purposes of the computation specified in subdivision (d).

(B) For charter schools, the total current year average daily attendance in the corresponding grade level ranges.

(2) The amount computed pursuant to Article 4 (commencing with Section 42280) shall be added to the amount computed pursuant to paragraphs (1) to (4), inclusive, of subdivision (d), as multiplied by subparagraph (A) or (B) of paragraph (1), as appropriate.

(j) The Superintendent shall adjust the sum of each school district’s or charter school’s amount determined in subdivisions (g) to (i), inclusive, pursuant to the calculation specified in Section 42238.03, less the sum of the following:

(1) (A) For school districts, the property tax revenue received pursuant to Chapter 3.5 (commencing with Section 75) and Chapter 6 (commencing with Section 95) of Part 0.5 of Division 1 of the Revenue and Taxation Code.

(B) For charter schools, the in-lieu property tax amount provided to a charter school pursuant to Section 47635.

(2) The amount, if any, received pursuant to Part 18.5 (commencing with Section 38101) of Division 2 of the Revenue and Taxation Code.

(3) The amount, if any, received pursuant to Chapter 3 (commencing with Section 16140) of Part 1 of Division 4 of Title 2 of the Government Code.

(4) Prior years’ taxes and taxes on the unsecured roll.

(5) Fifty percent of the amount received pursuant to Section 41603.

(6) The amount, if any, received pursuant to the Community Redevelopment Law (Part 1 (commencing with Section 33000) of Division 24 of the Health and Safety Code), less any amount received pursuant to Section 33401 or 33676 of the Health and Safety Code that is used for land acquisition, facility construction, reconstruction, or remodeling, or deferred maintenance and that is not an amount received pursuant to Section 33492.15, or paragraph (4) of subdivision (a) of Section 33607.5, or Section 33607.7 of the Health and Safety Code that is allocated exclusively for educational facilities.

(7) The amount, if any, received pursuant to Sections 34177, 34179.5, 34179.6, 34183, and 34188 of the Health and Safety Code.

(8) Revenue received pursuant to subparagraph (B) of paragraph (3) of subdivision (e) of Section 36 of Article XIII of the California Constitution.

(k) A school district shall annually transfer to each of its charter schools funding in lieu of property taxes pursuant to Section 47635.

(l) (1) This section shall not be interpreted to authorize a school district that receives funding on behalf of a charter school pursuant to Section 47651 to redirect this funding for another purpose unless otherwise authorized in law pursuant to paragraph (2) or pursuant to an agreement between the charter school and its chartering authority.

(2) A school district that received funding on behalf of a locally funded charter school in the 2012–13 fiscal year pursuant to paragraph (2) of subdivision (b) of Section 42605, Section 42606, and subdivision (b) of Section 47634.1, as those sections read on January 1, 2013, or a school district that was required to pass through funding to a conversion charter school in the 2012–13 fiscal year pursuant to paragraph (2) of subdivision (b) of Section 42606, as that section read on January 1, 2013, may annually redirect for another purpose a percentage of the amount of the funding received on behalf of that charter school. The percentage of funding that may be redirected shall be determined pursuant to the following computation:

(A) (i) Determine the sum of the need fulfilled for that charter school pursuant to paragraph (3) of subdivision (b) of Section 42238.03 in the then current fiscal year for the charter school.

(ii) Determine the sum of the need fulfilled in every fiscal year before the then current fiscal year pursuant to paragraph (3) of subdivision (b) of Section 42238.03 adjusted for changes in average daily attendance pursuant to paragraph (3) of subdivision (a) of Section 42238.03 for the charter school.

(iii) Subtract the amount computed pursuant to paragraphs (1) to (3), inclusive, of subdivision (a) of Section 42238.03 from the amount computed for that charter school under the local control funding formula entitlement computed pursuant to subdivision (i) of this section.

(iv) Compute a percentage by dividing the sum of the amounts computed pursuant to clauses (i) and (ii) by the amount computed pursuant to clause (iii).

(B) Multiply the percentage computed pursuant to subparagraph (A) by the amount of funding the school district received on behalf of the charter school in the 2012–13 fiscal year pursuant to paragraph (2) of subdivision (b) of Section 42605, Section 42606, and subdivision (b) of Section 47634.1, as those sections read on January 1, 2013.

(C) The maximum amount that may be redirected shall be the lesser of the amount of funding the school district received on behalf of the charter school in the 2012–13 fiscal year pursuant to paragraph (2) of subdivision (b) of Section 42605, Section 42606, and subdivision (b) of Section 47634.1, as those sections read on January 1, 2013, or the amount computed pursuant to subparagraph (B).

(3) Commencing with the 2013–14 fiscal year, a school district operating one or more affiliated charter schools shall provide each affiliated charter school schoolsite with no less than the amount of funding the schoolsite received pursuant to the charter school block grant in the 2012–13 fiscal year.

(m) Any calculations in law that are used for purposes of determining if a local educational agency is an excess tax school entity or basic aid school district, including, but not limited to, this section and Sections 42238.03, 41544, 47632, 47660, 47663, 48310, and 48359.5, and Section 95 of the Revenue and Taxation Code, shall be made exclusive of the revenue received pursuant to subparagraph (B) of paragraph (3) of subdivision (e) of Section 36 of Article XIII of the California Constitution.

(n) The funds apportioned pursuant to this section and Section 42238.03 shall be available to implement the activities required pursuant to Article 4.5 (commencing with Section 52059.5) of Chapter 6.1 of Part 28 of Division 4.

(o) A school district that does not receive an apportionment of state funds pursuant to this section, as implemented pursuant to Section 42238.03, excluding funds apportioned pursuant to the requirements of subparagraph (A) of paragraph (2) of subdivision (e) of Section 42238.03, shall be considered a “basic aid school district” or an “excess tax entity.”

44415.

 (a) (1) For the 2018–19 fiscal year, the sum of seventy-five million dollars ($75,000,000) is hereby appropriated from the General Fund to the commission to establish the Teacher Residency Grant Program. This funding shall be available for encumbrance until June 30, 2023.

(2) Of the amount appropriated in paragraph (1), fifty million dollars ($50,000,000) shall be expended to provide one-time competitive grants to grant applicants to develop new, or expand existing, teacher residency programs that recruit and support the preparation of special education teachers.

(3) Of the amount appropriated in paragraph (1), twenty-five million dollars ($25,000,000) shall be expended to provide one-time competitive grants to grant applicants to develop new, or expand existing, teacher residency programs that recruit and support the preparation of bilingual education, science, technology, engineering, or mathematics teachers.

(b) (1) The commission shall make one-time grants to grant applicants to establish new or expand existing teacher residency programs. Grant recipients shall work with one or more commission-accredited teacher preparation programs and may work with other community partners or nonprofit organizations to develop and implement programs of preparation and mentoring for resident teachers who will be supported through program funds and subsequently employed by the sponsoring grant recipient.

(2) A grant applicant may consist of one or more, or any combination, of the following:

(A) A school district.

(B) A county office of education.

(C) A charter school.

(D) A regional occupational center or program operated by a joint powers authority.

(E) A nonpublic, nonsectarian school, as defined in Section 56034.

(c) Grants allocated pursuant to subdivision (b) shall be up to twenty thousand dollars ($20,000) per teacher candidate in the residency program of the jurisdiction of the grant recipient, matched by that grant recipient on a dollar-for-dollar basis. Grant program funding shall be used for, but is not limited to, any of the following: teacher preparation costs, stipends for mentor teachers, stipends for teacher candidates, and mentoring and beginning teacher induction costs following initial preparation.

(d) A grant recipient shall not use more than 5 percent of a grant award for program administration costs.

(e) A grant recipient shall provide a 100-percent match of grant funding in the form of one or both of the following:

(1) One dollar ($1) for every one dollar ($1) of grant funding received that is to be used in a manner consistent with allowable grant activities pursuant to subdivision (c).

(2) An in-kind match of mentor teacher personnel costs or other personnel costs related to the Teacher Residency Grant Program, provided by the grant recipient.

(f) For purposes of this section, the following terms have the following meanings:

(1) “Teacher residency program” is a grant applicant-based program that partners with one or more teacher preparation programs accredited by the commission and in which a prospective teacher teaches at least one-half time alongside a teacher of record, who is designated as the experienced mentor teacher, for at least one full school year while engaging in initial preparation coursework.

(2) An “experienced mentor teacher” for purposes of the Teacher Residency Grant Program is an educator who meets all of the following requirements:

(A) Has at least three years of teaching experience and a clear credential authorizing instruction of special education, or bilingual education, science, technology, engineering, or mathematics pupils, in the subject in which the experienced mentor teacher will be mentoring.

(B) Has a record of successful teaching as demonstrated, at a minimum, by satisfactory annual performance evaluations for the preceding three years.

(C) Receives specific training for the mentor teacher role, and engages in ongoing professional learning and networking with other mentors.

(D) Receives compensation, appropriate release time, or both, to serve as a mentor in the initial preparation or beginning teacher induction component of the teacher residency program.

(g) Grant recipients shall do all of the following:

(1) Ensure that candidates are prepared to earn a preliminary teaching credential that will authorize the candidate to teach special education, or bilingual education, science, technology, engineering, or mathematics upon completion of the program.

(2) Ensure that candidates are provided instruction in all of the following:

(A) Teaching the content area or areas in which the teacher will become certified to teach.

(B) Planning, curriculum development, and assessment.

(C) Learning and child development.

(D) Management of the classroom environment.

(E) Use of culturally responsive practices, supports for language development, and supports for serving pupils with disabilities.

(F) Professional responsibilities, including interaction with families and colleagues.

(3) Provide each candidate mentoring and beginning teacher induction support following the completion of the initial credential program necessary to obtain a clear credential and ongoing professional development and networking opportunities during the candidate’s first years of teaching.

(4) Prepare candidates to teach at the same grant recipient in which they will work and learn the instructional initiatives and curriculum of the grant recipient.

(5) Group teacher candidates in cohorts to facilitate professional collaboration among residents, and place candidates in teaching schools or professional development programs that are organized to support a high-quality teacher learning experience in a supportive work environment.

(h) To receive a grant, an applicant shall submit an application to the commission at a time, in a manner, and containing information prescribed by the commission.

(i) When selecting grant recipients, the commission shall do both of the following:

(1) Require applicants to demonstrate a need for special education, or bilingual education, science, technology, engineering, or mathematics, teachers and to propose to establish a new, or expand an existing, teacher residency program that recruits, prepares, and supports teachers to teach special education, or bilingual education, science, technology, engineering, or mathematics, in a school within the jurisdiction of the sponsoring grant applicant.

(2) Give priority consideration to grant applicants with one or more schools that exhibit one or more of the following characteristics:

(A) A school where 50 percent or more of the enrolled pupils are eligible for free and reduced-price meals.

(B) A school where at least 5 percent of the teachers are misassigned, as determined by the commission, or working on a short-term staffing permit, a provisional intern permit, or a waiver.

(C) A school that is located in either a rural location or a densely populated region.

(D) A school with a cumulative voluntary teacher attrition rate that exceeded 20 percent over the three preceding school years.

(j) A candidate in a teacher residency program sponsored by a grant provided pursuant to subdivision (b) shall agree in writing to either (1) work as an education specialist serving a caseload of pupils who receive special education services in a special education setting or (2) be placed in a bilingual education, science, technology, engineering, or mathematics assignment, in a school within the grant recipient that sponsored the candidate for a period of at least four school years beginning with the school year that begins after the candidate successfully completes the initial year of preparation and obtains a preliminary teaching credential. A candidate who fails to earn a preliminary credential or complete the period of the placement shall reimburse the sponsoring grant recipient the amount of grant funding invested in the candidate’s residency training. The amount to be reimbursed shall be adjusted proportionately to reflect the service provided if the candidate taught at least one year, but less than four years, at the sponsoring grant recipient. A candidate shall have five school years to complete the four-school-year teaching commitment.

(k) If a candidate is unable to complete a school year of teaching, that school year may still be counted toward the required four complete school years if any of the following occur:

(1) The candidate has completed at least one-half of the school year.

(2) The employer deems the candidate to have fulfilled the candidate’s contractual requirements for the school year for the purposes of salary increases, probationary or permanent status, and retirement.

(3) The candidate was not able to teach due to the financial circumstances of the sponsoring grant recipient, including a decision to not reelect the employee for the next succeeding school year.

(4) The candidate has a condition covered under the federal Family and Medical Leave Act of 1993 (29 U.S.C. Sec. 2601 et seq.) or similar state law.

(5) The candidate was called or ordered to active duty status for more than 30 days as a member of a reserve component of the Armed Forces of the United States.

(l) For purposes of administering the grant program pursuant to subdivision (b), the commission shall do all of the following:

(1) Determine the number of grants to be awarded and the total amount awarded to each grant applicant.

(2) Require grant recipients to submit program and expenditure reports, as specified by the commission, as a condition of receiving grant funds.

(3) Annually review each grant recipient’s program and expenditure reports to determine if any candidate has failed to meet the candidate’s commitment pursuant to subdivision (j).

(m) If the commission determines or is informed that a sponsored candidate failed to earn a preliminary credential or meet the sponsored candidate’s commitment to teach pursuant to subdivision (j), the commission shall confirm with the grant recipient the applicable grant amount to be recovered from the candidate and the grant recipient. The amount to be recovered shall be adjusted proportionately to reflect the service provided if the candidate taught at least one year, but less than four years, at the sponsoring grant recipient.

(n) Upon confirming the amount to be recovered from the grant recipient pursuant to subdivision (m), the commission shall notify the grant recipient of the amount to be repaid within 60 days. The grant recipient shall have 60 days from the date of the notification to make the required repayment to the commission. If the grant recipient fails to make the required payment within 60 days, the commission shall notify the Controller and the grant recipient of the failure to repay the amount owed. The Controller shall deduct an amount equal to the amount owed to the commission from the grant recipient’s next principal apportionment or apportionments of state funds, other than basic aid apportionments required by Section 6 of Article IX of the California Constitution. If the grant recipient is a regional occupational center or a program operated by a joint powers authority that does not receive principal apportionment or apportionments of state funds, or a consortia of local educational agencies, the commission shall notify the Controller of the local educational agency where the candidate taught and the Controller shall deduct the amount owed from the applicable local educational agency’s next principal apportionment or apportionments of state funds, other than basic aid apportionments required by Section 6 of Article IX of the California Constitution.

(o) An amount recovered by the commission or deducted by the Controller pursuant to subdivision (n) shall be deposited into the Proposition 98 Reversion Account.

(p) Grant recipients may recover from a sponsored candidate who fails to earn a preliminary credential or complete the period of placement the amount of grant funding invested in the candidate’s residency training. The amount to be recovered shall be adjusted proportionately to reflect the service provided if the candidate taught at least one year, but less than four years, at the sponsoring grant recipient.

(q) Grant recipients shall not charge a teacher resident a fee to participate in the Teacher Residency Grant Program.

(r) (1) Notwithstanding paragraphs (2) and (3) of subdivision (a), the commission may allocate up to one million five hundred thousand dollars ($1,500,000) of the amount appropriated pursuant to subdivision (a) to capacity grants that shall be awarded on a competitive basis to local educational agencies or consortia, described in subparagraphs (A) to (D), inclusive, of paragraph (2) of subdivision (b), partnering with institutions of higher education to expand or create teacher residency programs that lead to more credentialed special education, or bilingual education, science, technology, engineering, or mathematics, teachers.

(2) (A) The commission shall determine the number of capacity grants to be awarded and the amount of the applicable grants.

(B) Individual capacity grants shall not exceed seventy-five thousand dollars ($75,000) per grant recipient.

(s) For purposes of making the computations required by Section 8 of Article XVI of the California Constitution, the appropriation made by subdivision (a) shall be deemed to be “General Fund revenues appropriated for school districts,” as defined in subdivision (c) of Section 41202, for the 2017–18 fiscal year, and included within the “total allocations to school districts and community college districts from General Fund proceeds of taxes appropriated pursuant to Article XIII B,” as defined in subdivision (e) of Section 41202, for the 2017–18 fiscal year.

44416.

 (a) For the 2018–19 fiscal year, the sum of fifty million dollars ($50,000,000) is hereby appropriated from the General Fund to the commission to establish the Local Solutions Grant Program to provide one-time competitive grants to local educational agencies to develop and implement new, or expand existing, locally identified solutions that address a local need for special education teachers. This funding shall be available for encumbrance through June 30, 2023, and available for liquidation through June 30, 2028.

(b) (1) A grant shall be up to twenty thousand dollars ($20,000) per teacher participant that the identified solution proposes to support, matched by that local educational agency or consortium on a dollar-for-dollar basis. Grant program funding may be used for local efforts to recruit, develop support systems for, and retain special education teachers that include, but are not limited to, teacher career pathways, signing bonuses for newly credentialed teachers who earn an education specialist credential, mentors for existing teachers, professional learning communities, service awards, teacher service scholarships, student debt payment, living stipends for newly credentialed teachers who earn an education specialist credential, or other solutions that address a local need for special education teachers.

(2) (A) A teacher participant who receives a teacher service scholarship, signing bonus, or student debt payment shall agree to teach at a school within the jurisdiction of the grant recipient and work as an education specialist serving a caseload of pupils who receive special education services in a special education setting for four years, and the teacher participant shall have five years to meet that obligation.

(B) A teacher participant who fails to complete the service obligation described in subparagraph (A) shall reimburse the sponsoring grant recipient the amount of grant funding received as a teacher service scholarship, signing bonus, or student debt payment. The amount to be reimbursed shall be adjusted proportionately to reflect the service provided if the teacher participant taught at least one year, but less than the required four years, at the sponsoring grant recipient.

(C) If a teacher participant is unable to complete a school year of teaching, that school year may still be counted toward the required four complete school years if any of the following occur:

(i) The teacher participant has completed at least one-half of the school year.

(ii) The employer deems the teacher participant to have fulfilled the teacher participant’s contractual requirements for the school year for the purposes of salary increases, probationary or permanent status, and retirement.

(iii) The teacher participant was not able to teach due to the financial circumstances of the sponsoring grant recipient, including a decision to not reelect the employee for the next succeeding school year.

(iv) The teacher participant has a condition covered under the federal Family and Medical Leave Act of 1993 (29 U.S.C. Sec. 2601 et seq.) or similar state law.

(v) The teacher participant was called or ordered to active duty status for more than 30 days as a member of a reserve component of the Armed Forces of the United States.

(D) If the commission determines or is informed that a teacher participant who fails to complete the service obligation described in subparagraph (A), the commission shall confirm with the grant recipient the applicable grant amount to be recovered from the teacher participant and the grant recipient. The amount to be recovered shall be adjusted proportionately to reflect the service provided if the teacher participant taught at least one year, but less than four years, at the sponsoring grant recipient.

(E) Upon confirming the amount to be recovered from the grant recipient pursuant to subparagraph (D), the commission shall notify the grant recipient of the amount to be repaid within 60 days. The grant recipient shall have 60 days from the date of the notification to make the required repayment to the commission. If the grant recipient fails to make the required payment within 60 days, the commission shall notify the Controller and the grant recipient of the failure to repay the amount owed. The Controller shall deduct an amount equal to the amount owed to the commission from the grant recipient’s next principal apportionment or apportionments of state funds, other than basic aid apportionments required by Section 6 of Article IX of the California Constitution. If the grant recipient is a regional occupational center or a program operated by a joint powers authority that does not receive principal apportionment or apportionments of state funds, or a consortia of local educational agencies, the commission shall notify the Controller of the local educational agency where the teacher participant taught and the Controller shall deduct the amount owed from the applicable local educational agency’s next principal apportionment or apportionments of state funds, other than basic aid apportionments required by Section 6 of Article IX of the California Constitution.

(F) An amount recovered by the commission or deducted by the Controller pursuant to subparagraph (E) shall be deposited into the Proposition 98 Reversion Account.

(G) Grant recipients may recover from a teacher participant who fails to complete the service obligation described in subparagraph (A) the amount of grant funding received as a teacher service scholarship, signing bonus, or student debt payment. The amount to be recovered shall be adjusted proportionately to reflect the service provided if the teacher participant taught at least one year, but less than four years, at the sponsoring grant recipient.

(c) A grant recipient shall not use more than 5 percent of a grant award for program administration costs.

(d) A grant recipient shall provide a 100-percent match of grant funding to support, complement, or enhance the local solution identified in subdivision (h). The match shall be in the form of one or both of the following:

(1) One dollar ($1) for every one dollar ($1) of grant funding received.

(2) An in-kind match.

(e) An applicant may consist of one or more, or any combination, of the following:

(1) A school district.

(2) A county office of education.

(3) A charter school.

(4) A regional occupational center or program operated by a joint powers authority.

(f) To receive a grant, an applicant shall submit to the commission an application at a time, in a manner, and containing information prescribed by the commission.

(g) A grant recipient shall not use funds from a Local Solutions Grant Program award to support teacher candidates participating in a program supported by an award from the Teacher Residency Grant Program established pursuant to Section 44415.

(h) When selecting grant recipients, the commission shall require applicants to demonstrate a local need for special education teachers and present a plan that proposes one or more solutions that address that local need.

(i) For purposes of administering the grant program pursuant to this section, the commission shall do all of the following:

(1) Determine the number of grants to be awarded and the total amount awarded to each grant applicant.

(2) Require grant recipients to annually report the status and progress of the identified solution and to submit a final implementation report within five years of receiving a grant award that describes the outcomes and effectiveness of the identified solution.

(3) Allocate 90 percent of funding to each grant recipient at the time of the initial grant award and allocate the final 10 percent of grant funding upon receipt of the final implementation report. If the grantee fails to provide the final implementation report pursuant to paragraph (2), the grantee shall not receive the final 10 percent of the grant award.

(j) For purposes of making the computations required by Section 8 of Article XVI of the California Constitution, the appropriation made by subdivision (a) shall be deemed to be “General Fund revenues appropriated for school districts,” as defined in subdivision (c) of Section 41202, for the 2017–18 fiscal year, and included within the “total allocations to school districts and community college districts from General Fund proceeds of taxes appropriated pursuant to Article XIII B,” as defined in subdivision (e) of Section 41202, for the 2017–18 fiscal year.

44615.

 The commission shall adopt rules and regulations providing for the recruitment of, and issuance of special credentials in the teaching of a world language to, foreign-born persons or others having native fluency in a modern world language to teach world languages in the public schools of California. The issuance of special credentials in the teaching of world languages pursuant to this section shall be limited to 500 persons a year. The commission shall prescribe the minimum standards for these special credentials and shall provide for the renewal of these credentials. In issuing the credentials to any applicant, the commission shall take into consideration fluency in the language to be taught, academic preparation, previous teaching experience, a knowledge of modern methods of world language instruction, and a knowledge of peoples of other countries and their environment. The commission shall adopt rules and regulations that require the holder of a special credential issued under this section to undertake, within a reasonable time, a course of study that will enable the holder to become eligible for a standard teaching credential.

44991.

 (a) (1) In an administrative proceeding held pursuant to Section 44934.1 involving an alleged offense involving a minor that meets the definition of egregious misconduct under paragraph (1) of subdivision (a) of Section 44932, counsel for a school district may apply for an order that the minor’s testimony be taken in a room outside the hearing room and be televised by two-way closed-circuit television and bears the burden of proving that such an order is justified. The person seeking such an order shall apply for the order at least seven days before the hearing date, unless the judge finds on the record that the need for such an order was not reasonably foreseeable.

(2) The judge may order that the testimony of the minor be taken by closed-circuit television as provided in paragraph (1) if the judge finds that the minor is unable to testify in the hearing room in the presence of the respondent for any of the following reasons:

(A) The minor is unable to testify because of emotional distress, established by a written statement of the minor, the minor’s parent or guardian, the minor’s support person, or a mental health professional who has evaluated the minor.

(B) There is a substantial likelihood, established by expert testimony, that the minor would suffer emotional distress from testifying.

(C) According to expert testimony, the minor suffers from a medical condition, mental condition, or other infirmity.

(D) The judge finds that conduct of the respondent or the respondent’s representative causes the minor to be unable to continue testifying.

(3) The judge shall rule on the application, and support a ruling on the minor’s inability to testify with findings on the record. In determining whether the impact on an individual minor of one or more of the factors described in paragraph (2) is so substantial as to justify an order under paragraph (1), the judge may question the minor in the judge’s office, or at some comfortable place other than the hearing room, on the record for a reasonable period of time in the presence of the minor’s parent or guardian, the minor’s support person, counsel for the school district, and a representative of the respondent.

(4) If the judge orders the taking of testimony by television, counsel for the school district and a representative of the respondent, not including a respondent represented pro se, shall be present in a room outside the hearing room with the minor, and the minor shall be subjected to direct and cross-examination. The following are the only other persons who may be permitted in the room with the minor during the minor’s testimony:

(A) Any persons necessary to operate the closed-circuit television equipment.

(B) The parent or guardian of the minor.

(C) Any other persons whose presence is determined by the judge to be necessary to the welfare and well-being of the minor, including, but not necessarily limited to, a judicial officer or support person.

(5) In making the determination required by this subdivision, the judge shall consider the age, maturity, and cognitive ability of the minor, compared with other minors of the same age, the relationship between the minor and the respondent, any handicap or disability of the minor, and the nature of the acts alleged to have been committed by the respondent. The minor’s testimony shall be under oath and transmitted by closed-circuit television into the hearing room for viewing and hearing by the respondent, the judge, and any members of the public in attendance. The respondent shall be provided with the means of private, contemporaneous communication with the respondent’s representative during the testimony. The closed-circuit television transmission shall relay into the room in which the minor is testifying the respondent’s image, and the voice of the judge.

(b) (1) In an administrative proceeding held pursuant to Section 44934.1 involving an alleged offense involving a minor that meets the definition of egregious misconduct under paragraph (1) of subdivision (a) of Section 44932, counsel for the school district may apply for an order that a deposition be taken of the minor’s testimony and that the deposition be recorded and preserved on videotape based upon the same criteria that would allow a minor’s testimony to be taken in a room outside the hearing room and be televised by two-way closed-circuit television, as set forth in paragraph (2) of subdivision (a) of this section. Counsel for the school district shall bear the burden of proving that an order applied for under this paragraph is justified in order to be consistent with subdivision (a) of this section.

(2) Upon timely receipt of an application described in paragraph (1), the judge shall make a preliminary finding regarding whether the minor is likely to be unable to testify in the hearing room in the physical presence of the respondent, the judge, and the public for any of the reasons set forth in paragraph (2) of subdivision (a).

(3) If the judge finds that the minor is likely to be unable to testify in open hearing for any of the reasons set forth in paragraph (2) of subdivision (a), the judge shall order that the minor’s deposition be taken and preserved by videotape.

(4) The judge shall preside at the videotaped deposition of a minor, and shall rule on all questions as if at the hearing. The following are the only other persons who shall be permitted to be present at the videotaped deposition:

(A) Counsel for the school district.

(B) Representative of the respondent.

(C) Any persons necessary to operate the videotape equipment.

(D) The respondent, unless the judge excludes the respondent from the hearing room pursuant to paragraph (6).

(E) The parent or guardian of the minor.

(F) Any support person appointed pursuant to Section 44993 to protect the mental health, welfare, and well-being of the minor.

(5) The respondent shall be afforded the rights applicable to respondents during trials, including the right to be confronted with the witness against the respondent and the right to cross-examine the minor.

(6) If the preliminary finding of inability under paragraph (2) is based on evidence that the minor is unable to testify in the physical presence of the respondent, the judge may order that the respondent, including a respondent represented pro se, be excluded from the room in which the deposition is conducted. If the judge orders that the respondent be excluded from the deposition room, the judge shall order that two-way closed-circuit television equipment relay the respondent’s image into the room in which the minor is testifying, and the minor’s testimony into the room in which the respondent is viewing the proceeding, and that the respondent be provided with a means of private, contemporaneous communication with the respondent’s representative during the deposition.

(7) The complete record of the deposition of the minor, including the image and voices of all persons who in any way participate in the deposition, shall be made and preserved on videotape in addition to being stenographically recorded. The videotape shall be transmitted to the judge’s office, and shall be made available for viewing by counsel for the school district, representative of the respondent, and the respondent during ordinary business hours.

(8) If at the time of the hearing, the judge finds that the minor is unavailable or unable to testify in open hearing for a reason described in paragraph (2) of subdivision (a), the judge may admit into evidence the minor’s videotaped deposition in lieu of the minor’s testifying at the hearing. The judge shall support any ruling made pursuant to this paragraph with findings on the record.

(9) Upon timely receipt of notice that new evidence has been discovered after the original videotaping and before or during the hearing, the judge, for good cause shown, may order an additional videotaped deposition. The testimony of the minor shall be restricted to the matters specified by the judge as the basis for granting the order.

(10) In connection with the taking of a videotaped deposition under this subdivision, the judge may enter a protective order for the purpose of protecting the privacy of the minor.

45113.

 (a) The governing board of a school district shall prescribe written rules and regulations, governing the personnel management of the classified service, which shall be printed and made available to employees in the classified service, the public, and those concerned with the administration of this section, whereby these employees are designated as permanent employees of the school district after serving a prescribed period of probation that shall not exceed one year. A permanent employee who accepts a promotion and fails to complete the probationary period for that promotional position, shall be employed in the classification from which the employee was promoted.

(b) Any employee designated as a permanent employee is subject to disciplinary action only for cause as prescribed by rule or regulation of the governing board of the school district, but the governing board’s determination of the sufficiency of the cause for disciplinary action shall be conclusive.

(c) The governing board of a school district shall adopt rules of procedure for disciplinary proceedings that shall contain a provision for informing the employee by written notice of the specific charges against the employee, a statement of the employee’s right to a hearing on those charges, and the time within which the hearing may be requested that shall be not less than five days after service of the notice to the employee, and a card or paper, the signing and filing of which constitutes a demand for hearing, and a denial of all charges. The burden of proof remains with the governing board of the school district, and any rule or regulation to the contrary is void.

(d) Disciplinary action shall not be taken for any cause that arose before the employee’s becoming permanent, nor for any cause that arose more than two years preceding the date of the filing of the notice of cause unless the cause was concealed or not disclosed by the employee when it could be reasonably assumed that the employee should have disclosed the facts to the employing school district.

(e) This section shall not be construed to prohibit the governing board of a school district, pursuant to the terms of an agreement with an employee organization under Chapter 10.7 (commencing with Section 3540) of Division 4 of Title 1 of the Government Code, from delegating its authority to determine whether sufficient cause exists for disciplinary action against classified employees, excluding peace officers as defined in Section 830.32 of the Penal Code, to an impartial third party hearing officer. However, the governing board of the school district retains authority to review the determination under the standards set forth in Section 1286.2 of the Code of Civil Procedure.

(f) (1) A governing board of a school district shall delegate its authority to a judge, as defined in Section 44990, to determine whether sufficient cause exists for disciplinary action against a classified employee involving allegations of egregious misconduct, as defined in Section 44932, and involving a minor, as defined in Section 44990. The judge’s ruling is binding upon all parties.

(2) A judge authorized under this subdivision to conduct a hearing involving allegations as described in Section 44010 or 44011 of this code, or as described in Sections 11165.2 to 11165.6, inclusive, of the Penal Code, shall conduct that hearing in accordance with Article 3.3 (commencing with Section 44990) of Chapter 4 and Section 49077 of this code.

(3) The term “representative of the respondent,” within the meaning of Article 3.3 (commencing with Section 44990) of Chapter 4, includes, but is not necessarily limited to, an exclusive labor representative.

(g) This section applies only to school districts not incorporating the merit system as outlined in Article 6 (commencing with Section 45240).

47604.5.

 The state board, whether or not it is the authority that granted the charter, may, based upon the recommendation of the Superintendent, take appropriate action, including, but not limited to, revocation of the charter school’s charter, when the state board finds any of the following:

(a) Gross financial mismanagement that jeopardizes the financial stability of the charter school.

(b) Illegal or substantially improper use of charter school funds for the personal benefit of any officer, director, or fiduciary of the charter school.

(c) Substantial and sustained departure from measurably successful practices such that continued departure would jeopardize the educational development of the charter school’s pupils.

(d) Failure to improve pupil outcomes across multiple state and school priorities identified in the charter pursuant to subparagraph (A) of paragraph (5) of subdivision (b) of Section 47605 or subparagraph (A) of paragraph (5) of subdivision (b) of Section 47605.6.

47613.5.

 (a) A charter school shall provide each needy pupil, as defined in Section 49552, with one nutritionally adequate free or reduced-price meal, as defined in subdivision (a) of Section 49553, during each schoolday.

(b) Notwithstanding subdivision (a), a charter school that offers nonclassroom-based instruction, as defined in Section 47612.5, shall meet the requirements of this section for any eligible pupil on any schoolday that the pupil is scheduled for educational activities, as defined in Section 49010, lasting two or more hours, at a schoolsite, resource center, meeting space, or other satellite facility operated by the charter school.

(c) (1) Except as provided in paragraph (2), a charter school shall implement this section commencing with the 2019–20 school year.

(2) A charter school that becomes operational on or after July 1, 2019, shall do both of the following:

(A) Implement this section no later than July 1 of the school year after becoming operational.

(B) Provide written notification disclosing the period of time for which the charter school will not implement subdivision (a). The written notice shall be provided at the time of application for enrollment in the charter school to the parent or guardian of each pupil or, if the pupil is a foster child or youth or a homeless child or youth, the pupil’s educational rights holder. The written notice shall be provided in languages other than English, consistent with languages used for the charter school enrollment application.

(d) The chartering authority shall, upon request by a charter school and to the extent feasible within existing resources, provide technical assistance to the charter school in implementing this section.

(e) A charter school may enter into a partnership with an existing school food authority for the purposes of implementing this section.

48900.

 A pupil shall not be suspended from school or recommended for expulsion, unless the superintendent of the school district or the principal of the school in which the pupil is enrolled determines that the pupil has committed an act as defined pursuant to any of subdivisions (a) to (r), inclusive:

(a) (1) Caused, attempted to cause, or threatened to cause physical injury to another person.

(2) Willfully used force or violence upon the person of another, except in self-defense.

(b) Possessed, sold, or otherwise furnished a firearm, knife, explosive, or other dangerous object, unless, in the case of possession of an object of this type, the pupil had obtained written permission to possess the item from a certificated school employee, which is concurred in by the principal or the designee of the principal.

(c) Unlawfully possessed, used, sold, or otherwise furnished, or been under the influence of, a controlled substance listed in Chapter 2 (commencing with Section 11053) of Division 10 of the Health and Safety Code, an alcoholic beverage, or an intoxicant of any kind.

(d) Unlawfully offered, arranged, or negotiated to sell a controlled substance listed in Chapter 2 (commencing with Section 11053) of Division 10 of the Health and Safety Code, an alcoholic beverage, or an intoxicant of any kind, and either sold, delivered, or otherwise furnished to a person another liquid, substance, or material and represented the liquid, substance, or material as a controlled substance, alcoholic beverage, or intoxicant.

(e) Committed or attempted to commit robbery or extortion.

(f) Caused or attempted to cause damage to school property or private property.

(g) Stole or attempted to steal school property or private property.

(h) Possessed or used tobacco, or products containing tobacco or nicotine products, including, but not limited to, cigarettes, cigars, miniature cigars, clove cigarettes, smokeless tobacco, snuff, chew packets, and betel. However, this section does not prohibit the use or possession by a pupil of the pupil’s own prescription products.

(i) Committed an obscene act or engaged in habitual profanity or vulgarity.

(j) Unlawfully possessed or unlawfully offered, arranged, or negotiated to sell drug paraphernalia, as defined in Section 11014.5 of the Health and Safety Code.

(k) (1) Disrupted school activities or otherwise willfully defied the valid authority of supervisors, teachers, administrators, school officials, or other school personnel engaged in the performance of their duties.

(2) Except as provided in Section 48910, a pupil enrolled in kindergarten or any of grades 1 to 3, inclusive, shall not be suspended for any of the acts enumerated in this subdivision, and this subdivision shall not constitute grounds for a pupil enrolled in kindergarten or any of grades 1 to 12, inclusive, to be recommended for expulsion.

(l) Knowingly received stolen school property or private property.

(m) Possessed an imitation firearm. As used in this section, “imitation firearm” means a replica of a firearm that is so substantially similar in physical properties to an existing firearm as to lead a reasonable person to conclude that the replica is a firearm.

(n) Committed or attempted to commit a sexual assault as defined in Section 261, 266c, 286, 287, 288, or 289 of, or former Section 288a of, the Penal Code or committed a sexual battery as defined in Section 243.4 of the Penal Code.

(o) Harassed, threatened, or intimidated a pupil who is a complaining witness or a witness in a school disciplinary proceeding for purposes of either preventing that pupil from being a witness or retaliating against that pupil for being a witness, or both.

(p) Unlawfully offered, arranged to sell, negotiated to sell, or sold the prescription drug Soma.

(q) Engaged in, or attempted to engage in, hazing. For purposes of this subdivision, “hazing” means a method of initiation or preinitiation into a pupil organization or body, whether or not the organization or body is officially recognized by an educational institution, that is likely to cause serious bodily injury or personal degradation or disgrace resulting in physical or mental harm to a former, current, or prospective pupil. For purposes of this subdivision, “hazing” does not include athletic events or school-sanctioned events.

(r) Engaged in an act of bullying. For purposes of this subdivision, the following terms have the following meanings:

(1) “Bullying” means any severe or pervasive physical or verbal act or conduct, including communications made in writing or by means of an electronic act, and including one or more acts committed by a pupil or group of pupils as defined in Section 48900.2, 48900.3, or 48900.4, directed toward one or more pupils that has or can be reasonably predicted to have the effect of one or more of the following:

(A) Placing a reasonable pupil or pupils in fear of harm to that pupil’s or those pupils’ person or property.

(B) Causing a reasonable pupil to experience a substantially detrimental effect on the pupil’s physical or mental health.

(C) Causing a reasonable pupil to experience substantial interference with the pupil’s academic performance.

(D) Causing a reasonable pupil to experience substantial interference with the pupil’s ability to participate in or benefit from the services, activities, or privileges provided by a school.

(2) (A) “Electronic act” means the creation or transmission originated on or off the schoolsite, by means of an electronic device, including, but not limited to, a telephone, wireless telephone, or other wireless communication device, computer, or pager, of a communication, including, but not limited to, any of the following:

(i) A message, text, sound, video, or image.

(ii) A post on a social network internet website, including, but not limited to:

(I) Posting to or creating a burn page. “Burn page” means an internet website created for the purpose of having one or more of the effects listed in paragraph (1).

(II) Creating a credible impersonation of another actual pupil for the purpose of having one or more of the effects listed in paragraph (1). “Credible impersonation” means to knowingly and without consent impersonate a pupil for the purpose of bullying the pupil and such that another pupil would reasonably believe, or has reasonably believed, that the pupil was or is the pupil who was impersonated.

(III) Creating a false profile for the purpose of having one or more of the effects listed in paragraph (1). “False profile” means a profile of a fictitious pupil or a profile using the likeness or attributes of an actual pupil other than the pupil who created the false profile.

(iii) (I) An act of cyber sexual bullying.

(II) For purposes of this clause, “cyber sexual bullying” means the dissemination of, or the solicitation or incitement to disseminate, a photograph or other visual recording by a pupil to another pupil or to school personnel by means of an electronic act that has or can be reasonably predicted to have one or more of the effects described in subparagraphs (A) to (D), inclusive, of paragraph (1). A photograph or other visual recording, as described above, shall include the depiction of a nude, semi-nude, or sexually explicit photograph or other visual recording of a minor where the minor is identifiable from the photograph, visual recording, or other electronic act.

(III) For purposes of this clause, “cyber sexual bullying” does not include a depiction, portrayal, or image that has any serious literary, artistic, educational, political, or scientific value or that involves athletic events or school-sanctioned activities.

(B) Notwithstanding paragraph (1) and subparagraph (A), an electronic act does not constitute pervasive conduct solely on the basis that it has been transmitted on the internet or is currently posted on the internet.

(3) “Reasonable pupil” means a pupil, including, but not limited to, an exceptional needs pupil, who exercises average care, skill, and judgment in conduct for a person of the pupil’s age, or for a person of the pupil’s age with the pupil’s exceptional needs.

(s) A pupil shall not be suspended or expelled for any of the acts enumerated in this section unless the act is related to a school activity or school attendance occurring within a school under the jurisdiction of the superintendent of the school district or principal or occurring within any other school district. A pupil may be suspended or expelled for acts that are enumerated in this section and related to a school activity or school attendance that occur at any time, including, but not limited to, any of the following:

(1) While on school grounds.

(2) While going to or coming from school.

(3) During the lunch period whether on or off the campus.

(4) During, or while going to or coming from, a school-sponsored activity.

(t) A pupil who aids or abets, as defined in Section 31 of the Penal Code, the infliction or attempted infliction of physical injury to another person may be subject to suspension, but not expulsion, pursuant to this section, except that a pupil who has been adjudged by a juvenile court to have committed, as an aider and abettor, a crime of physical violence in which the victim suffered great bodily injury or serious bodily injury shall be subject to discipline pursuant to subdivision (a).

(u) As used in this section, “school property” includes, but is not limited to, electronic files and databases.

(v) For a pupil subject to discipline under this section, a superintendent of the school district or principal may use their discretion to provide alternatives to suspension or expulsion that are age appropriate and designed to address and correct the pupil’s specific misbehavior as specified in Section 48900.5.

(w) It is the intent of the Legislature that alternatives to suspension or expulsion be imposed against a pupil who is truant, tardy, or otherwise absent from school activities.

48900.5.

 (a) Suspension, including supervised suspension as described in Section 48911.1, shall be imposed only when other means of correction fail to bring about proper conduct. A school district may document the other means of correction used and place that documentation in the pupil’s record, which may be accessed pursuant to Section 49069.7. However, a pupil, including an individual with exceptional needs, as defined in Section 56026, may be suspended, subject to Section 1415 of Title 20 of the United States Code, for any of the reasons enumerated in Section 48900 upon a first offense, if the principal or superintendent of schools determines that the pupil violated subdivision (a), (b), (c), (d), or (e) of Section 48900 or that the pupil’s presence causes a danger to persons.

(b) Other means of correction include, but are not limited to, the following:

(1) A conference between school personnel, the pupil’s parent or guardian, and the pupil.

(2) Referrals to the school counselor, psychologist, social worker, child welfare attendance personnel, or other school support service personnel for case management and counseling.

(3) Study teams, guidance teams, resource panel teams, or other intervention-related teams that assess the behavior, and develop and implement individualized plans to address the behavior in partnership with the pupil and the pupil’s parents.

(4) Referral for a comprehensive psychosocial or psychoeducational assessment, including for purposes of creating an individualized education program, or a plan adopted pursuant to Section 504 of the federal Rehabilitation Act of 1973 (29 U.S.C. Sec. 794(a)).

(5) Enrollment in a program for teaching prosocial behavior or anger management.

(6) Participation in a restorative justice program.

(7) A positive behavior support approach with tiered interventions that occur during the schoolday on campus.

(8) After school programs that address specific behavioral issues or expose pupils to positive activities and behaviors, including, but not limited to, those operated in collaboration with local parent and community groups.

(9) Any of the alternatives described in Section 48900.6.

49005.

 The Legislature finds and declares all of the following:

(a) While it is appropriate to intervene in an emergency to prevent a pupil from imminent risk of serious physical self-harm or harm of others, restraint and seclusion are dangerous interventions, with certain known practices posing a great risk to child health and safety.

(b) United States Department of Education guidelines specify that the use of restraint and seclusion must be consistent with the child’s right to be treated with dignity and to be free from abuse.

(c) Restraint and seclusion should only be used as a safety measure of last resort, and should never be used as punishment or discipline or for staff convenience.

(d) Restraint and seclusion may cause serious injury or long lasting trauma and death, even when done safely and correctly.

(e) There is no evidence that restraint or seclusion is effective in reducing the problem behaviors that frequently precipitate the use of those techniques.

(f) Pupils with disabilities and pupils of color, especially African American boys, are disproportionately subject to restraint and seclusion.

(g) Well-established California law already regulates restraint techniques in a number of settings, including general acute care hospitals, acute psychiatric hospitals, psychiatric health facilities, crisis stabilization units, community treatment facilities, group homes, skilled nursing facilities, intermediate care facilities, community care facilities, and mental health rehabilitation centers. These minimal protections should be provided to all pupils in schools.

(h) It is the intent of the Legislature to ensure that schools foster learning in a safe and healthy environment and provide adequate safeguards to prevent harm, and even death, to children in school.

(i) This article is intended to be read to be consistent with, and does not change any requirements, limitations, or protections in, existing law pertaining to pupils with exceptional needs.

(j) It is the intent of the Legislature to prohibit dangerous practices. Restraint and seclusion, as described in this article, do not further a child’s education. At the same time, the Legislature recognizes that if an emergency situation arises, the ability of education personnel to act in that emergency to safeguard a pupil or others from imminent physical harm should not be restricted.

49005.1.

 The following definitions apply to this article:

(a) “Behavioral restraint” means “mechanical restraint” or “physical restraint,” as defined in this section, used as an intervention when a pupil presents an immediate danger to self or to others. “Behavioral restraint” does not include postural restraints or devices used to improve a pupil’s mobility and independent functioning rather than to restrict movement.

(b) “Educational provider” means a person who provides educational or related services, support, or other assistance to a pupil enrolled in an educational program provided by a local educational agency or a nonpublic school or agency.

(c) “Local educational agency” means a school district, county office of education, charter school, the California Schools for the Deaf, and the California School for the Blind.

(d) (1) “Mechanical restraint” means the use of a device or equipment to restrict a pupil’s freedom of movement.

(2) (A) “Mechanical restraint” does not include the use of devices by peace officers or security personnel for detention or for public safety purposes.

(B) “Mechanical restraint” does not include the use of devices by trained school personnel, or by a pupil, prescribed by an appropriate medical or related services professional, if the device is used for the specific and approved purpose for which the device or equipment was prescribed, which shall include, but not be limited to, all of the following:

(i) Adaptive devices or mechanical supports used to achieve proper body position, balance, or alignment to allow greater freedom of mobility than would be possible without the use of such devices or mechanical supports.

(ii) Vehicle safety restraints when used as intended during the transport of a pupil in a moving vehicle.

(iii) Restraints for medical immobilization.

(iv) Orthopedically prescribed devices that permit a pupil to participate in activities without risk of harm.

(e) “Nonpublic school or agency” means any nonpublic school or nonpublic agency, including both in-state and out-of-state nonpublic schools and nonpublic agencies.

(f) (1) “Physical restraint” means a personal restriction that immobilizes or reduces the ability of a pupil to move the pupil’s torso, arms, legs, or head freely. “Physical restraint” does not include a physical escort, which means a temporary touching or holding of the hand, wrist, arm, shoulder, or back for the purpose of inducing a pupil who is acting out to walk to a safe location.

(2) “Physical restraint” does not include the use of force by peace officers or security personnel for detention or for public safety purposes.

(g) “Prone restraint” means the application of a behavioral restraint on a pupil in a facedown position.

(h) “Pupil” means a pupil enrolled in preschool, kindergarten, or any of grades 1 to 12, inclusive, and receiving educational services from an educational provider.

(i) “Seclusion” means the involuntary confinement of a pupil alone in a room or area from which the pupil is physically prevented from leaving. “Seclusion” does not include a timeout, which is a behavior management technique that is part of an approved program, that involves the monitored separation of the pupil in a nonlocked setting, and is implemented for the purpose of calming.

49006.4.

 (a) This article applies with regard to all pupils, including individuals with exceptional needs. For an individual with exceptional needs, if a behavioral restraint or seclusion is used, the procedures for followup contained in subdivisions (e), (f), (g), and (h) of Section 56521.1 also apply.

(b) For purposes of this section, “individual with exceptional needs” has the same meaning specified in Section 56026.

49060.

 (a) It is the intent of the Legislature to resolve potential conflicts between California law and the provisions of Public Law 93-380 regarding parental access to, and the confidentiality of, pupil records in order to ensure the continuance of federal education funds to public educational institutions within the state, and to revise generally and update the law relating to such records.

(b) This chapter applies to public agencies that provide educationally related services to pupils with disabilities pursuant to Chapter 26.5 (commencing with Section 7570) of Division 7 of Title 1 of the Government Code and to public agencies that educate pupils with disabilities in state hospitals or developmental centers and in youth and adult facilities.

(c) This chapter has no effect regarding public community colleges, other public or private institutions of higher education, other governmental or private agencies which receive federal education funds unless described herein, or, except for Sections 49068 and 40969.7 and subdivision (b)(5) of Section 49076, private schools.

(d) The provisions of this chapter prevail over the provisions of Section 12400 of this code and Chapter 3.5 (commencing with Section 6250) of Division 7 of Title 1 of the Government Code to the extent that they may pertain to access to pupil records.

49064.

 A log or record shall be maintained for each pupil’s record which lists all persons, agencies, or organizations requesting or receiving information from the record and the legitimate interests therefor. Such listing need not include:

(a) Parents or pupils to whom access is granted pursuant to Section 49069.7 or paragraph (6) of subdivision (a) of Section 49076;

(b) Parties to whom directory information is released pursuant to Section 49073;

(c) Parties to whom written consent has been executed by the parent pursuant to Section 49075; or

(d) School officials or employees having a legitimate educational interest pursuant to paragraph (1) of subdivision (a) of Section 49076.

The log or record shall be open to inspection only by a parent and the school official, or the official’s designee, responsible for the maintenance of pupil records, and to the Comptroller General of the United States, the Secretary of Health, Education, and Welfare, and administrative head of an education agency as defined in Public Law 93-380, and state educational authorities as a means of auditing the operation of the system.

49069.7.

 (a) Parents of currently enrolled or former pupils have an absolute right to access to any and all pupil records related to their children that are maintained by school districts or private schools. The editing or withholding of any of those records, except as provided for in this chapter, is prohibited.

(b) Each school district shall adopt procedures for the granting of requests by parents for copies of all pupil records pursuant to Section 49065, or to inspect and review records during regular school hours, provided that the requested access shall be granted no later than five business days following the date of the request. Procedures shall include the notification to the parent of the location of all official pupil records if not centrally located and the availability of qualified certificated personnel to interpret records if requested.

49077.

 (a) Information concerning a pupil shall be furnished in compliance with a court order or a lawfully issued subpoena. The school district shall make a reasonable effort to notify the pupil’s parent or legal guardian and the pupil in advance of compliance with a lawfully issued subpoena and, in the case of compliance with a court order, if lawfully possible within the requirements of the order.

(b) Once a court order or lawfully issued subpoena is issued to obtain a pupil’s contact information, the school district shall make a reasonable effort to enter into an agreement with the entity that obtained the court order or subpoena requiring that the pupil contact information be maintained in a confidential manner.

(c) Notwithstanding the content or existence of any agreement with a school district, a party that obtains pupil contact information pursuant to this section shall not use or disseminate that information for any purpose except as authorized by the court order or subpoena.

49085.

 (a) On or before February 1, 2014, the department and the State Department of Social Services shall develop and enter into a memorandum of understanding that shall, at a minimum, require the State Department of Social Services, at least once per week, to share with the department both of the following:

(1) Disaggregated information on children and youth in foster care sufficient for the department to identify pupils in foster care.

(2) Disaggregated data on children and youth in foster care that is helpful to county offices of education and other local educational agencies responsible for ensuring that pupils in foster care receive appropriate educational supports and services.

(b) To the extent allowable under federal law, the department shall regularly identify pupils in foster care and designate those pupils in the California Longitudinal Pupil Achievement Data System or any future data system used by the department to collect disaggregated pupil outcome data.

(c) To the extent allowable under federal law, the Superintendent, on or before July 1 of each even-numbered year, shall report to the Legislature and the Governor on the educational outcomes for pupils in foster care at both the individual schoolsite level and school district level. The report shall include, but is not limited to, all of the following:

(1) Individual schoolsite level and school district level educational outcome data for each local educational agency that enrolls at least 15 pupils in foster care, each county in which at least 15 pupils in foster care attend school, and for the entire state.

(2) The number of pupils in foster care statewide and by each local educational agency.

(3) The academic achievement of pupils in foster care.

(4) The incidence of suspension and expulsion for pupils in foster care.

(5) Truancy rates, attendance rates, and dropout rates for pupils in foster care.

(d) To the extent allowable under federal law, the department, at least once per week, shall do all of the following:

(1) Inform school districts and charter schools of any pupils enrolled in those school districts or charter schools who are in foster care.

(2) Inform county offices of education of any pupils enrolled in schools in the county who are in foster care.

(3) Provide school districts, county offices of education, and charter schools disaggregated data helpful to ensuring pupils in foster care receive appropriate educational supports and services.

(e) (1) For purposes of this section “pupil in foster care” has the same meaning as “foster youth,” as defined in Section 42238.01.

(2) This section does not require the State Department of Social Services to collect, nor share with the department, any information regarding the population described in paragraph (4) of subdivision (b) of Section 42238.01.

49531.

 (a) Any child nutrition entity may apply to the department for all available federal and state funds so that a nutritionally adequate breakfast or lunch, or both, may be provided to pupils each schoolday at each school in the districts or maintained by the county superintendents of schools, or at private schools and parochial schools and to children receiving child development services. The state board shall adopt rules and regulations for the operation of lunch and breakfast programs in school districts. A child nutrition entity that receives state funds pursuant to this article, shall provide breakfasts and lunches in accordance with state and federal guidelines.

(b) A nutritionally adequate breakfast, for the purposes of this article, is one that qualifies for reimbursement under the most current meal pattern for the federal School Breakfast Program, as defined in Section 220.8 of Title 7 of the Code of Federal Regulations. A nutritionally adequate lunch for purposes of this article is one that qualifies for reimbursement under the most current meal pattern for the federal National School Lunch Program, as defined in Section 210.10 of Title 7 of the Code of Federal Regulations.

(c) State reimbursement for meals provided pursuant to this article shall be limited to meals provided to pupils who are within the relevant definitions and criteria in federal statutes and regulations that prescribe eligibility for free and reduced-price meals.

49571.

 (a) The Legislature finds and declares that the state strives to serve National School Lunch Program meals of the highest quality and greatest nutritional value possible.

(b) Upon appropriation by the Legislature, and contingent upon allocations provided by the federal Consolidated Appropriations Act, the department shall provide a state matching grant of up to one hundred thousand dollars ($100,000) to a school food authority participating in the federal National School Lunch Program that applies for and is awarded a federal Equipment Assistance Grant for School Food Authorities from the department in its administration of the federal National School Lunch Program. The state appropriation shall be for a minimum of two years and shall align with the United States Department of Agriculture National School Lunch Program Equipment Grant for School Food Authorities terms and conditions, period of performance, criteria, timelines, and procurement and funding expenditure requirements.

(c) A school food authority may use the federal and state grants for up to five individual schoolsites or may combine the federal and state grants for one purpose, such as creating a centralized industrial kitchen. The state matching assistance grant shall be competitively awarded and shall align with the federal equipment assistance grant requirements pursuant to subdivision (b). Unspent state matching grant funds shall be retained by the department for one or more additional equipment grants, subject to the same requirements.

51225.37.

 The department shall encourage the governing board of each school district, and the governing body of each charter school, whose schools offer world language courses that are specifically designed for native speakers that are not approved as “A–G” courses, to support their respective schools in submitting those courses to the University of California for certification and addition to the schools’ “A–G” course list.

53302.

 (a) No more than 75 schools shall be subject to a petition authorized by this article.

(b) A petition shall be counted toward this limit upon the Superintendent and state board receiving notice from the local educational agency of its final disposition of the petition.

54801.

 There is hereby established the California Student Author Program to accomplish all of the following for public schoolage children from extremely low-income communities:

(a) Improve English language skills.

(b) Improve academic performance.

(c) Build healthy relationships with the community.

(d) Equip participants with critical life skills.

(e) Promote positive life choices.

(f) Increase literacy, reading, and writing among program participants.

54802.

 (a) Any organization that is a grant recipient pursuant to Section 54804 shall implement the literacy program described in this section in the 2019–20 and 2020–21 school years.

(b) A grant recipient shall provide the literacy program described in this section to public schoolage children who are eligible for free and reduced cost lunch.

(c) A grant recipient shall establish a student author program to provide the participants an opportunity to write, edit, and promote a short story or other forms of literature. A grant recipient should provide regular, sequential student author workshops that parallel or complement school calendars, such as quarterly, semester, or summer and vacation-intensive programs that include, but are not limited to, the following components:

(1) Writing and editing, including instruction in the skills necessary for creative writing.

(2) Publishing an anthology.

(3) Marketing, media, and community relations, including instruction in book brand development and entrepreneurship.

(4) Individual and group presentations.

(5) Community-based book signing events.

(d) Grant recipients are expected to implement programming that does all of the following:

(1) Fosters critical thinking in student authors.

(2) Teaches students to practice effective problem solving.

(3) Instructs students on creating an outline for their writing project.

(4) Teaches students to develop promotional and advertising tools.

(5) Provides students with an understanding of how to create a literary character and an engaging plot.

(e) A grant recipient shall collect and provide to the California State Library, on a reporting schedule set by the California State Library, any information sought by the library, including achieving the outcomes listed in Section 54801 and the reporting data described in Section 54803.

54804.

 (a) (1) The California State Library shall provide grant awards for purposes of this article to nonprofit organizations, public libraries, and local educational entities that have demonstrated experience in providing similar literacy programs to children in extremely low-income communities.

(2) The California State Library shall select grant recipients for the California Student Author Program with the participation goal of at least 1,000 public schoolage students, cumulatively, over the course of the 2019–20 and 2020–21 school years.

(b) A grant recipient shall use the funds awarded pursuant to this article only for the purposes described in this article.

(c) The California State Library may use up to 3 percent of the funds appropriated for the purposes of this article for administrative costs.

66021.1.

 (a) For purposes of this section, the following terms shall have the following meanings:

(1) “Institutional financial aid” means all institutional grant aid, including institutional student need-based and merit-based aid.

(2) “Students” means California residents who are undergraduate students at the University of California or the California State University.

(b) The California State University shall, and the University of California is requested to, report annually to the Legislature on their respective institutional financial aid programs. The California State University shall, and the University of California is requested to, provide reports on or before March 31 of each year.

(c) The reports shall include all of the following:

(1) A description of the goals, terms, and policies of each of the university’s institutional aid programs, including eligibility criteria, allocation of financial aid awards, fee waivers, and other relevant information.

(2) A description and explanation of any changes the university has made to any of these policies since the prior year, and any changes the university intends to make for the next academic year.

(3) The total amount the university expended on institutional aid for students, for the two prior academic years, the current year, and a projection for the next year, and the average and 90th percentile undergraduate institutional aid award amount provided per recipient for the prior two academic years and the current academic year.

(4) By parental income level or expected family contribution deciles, both of the following information for the prior academic year:

(A) Net price, which is the balance of the total cost of attendance minus all grant aid.

(B) The percentage of students receiving institutional aid and the average dollar amount of that institutional aid.

(5) For the prior academic year, the current academic year, and the budget year, an analysis identifying the estimated number of undergraduates with financial need; their aggregate cost of attendance and aggregate expected federal parent contribution; the aggregate amount of financial aid, including federal gift aid, state gift aid, institutional need-based aid, institutional merit-based aid, other institutional gift aid, and private gift aid, received by these students; the aggregate remaining amount to be met by work, borrowing, or other means; and an explanation of the estimated change in aggregate student need in the budget year resulting from changes in the cost of attendance, and other factors, including any fee increases proposed by the university in its fall budget proposal. The explanation shall include an estimate of the extent to which cost increases will be offset by federal, state, and institutional financial aid programs. The explanation shall also include an explanation of how year-to-year non-tuition cost increases were calculated.

(6) The typical financial aid package for a typical dependent undergraduate student with a parent income of twenty thousand dollars ($20,000), forty thousand dollars ($40,000), sixty thousand dollars ($60,000), eighty thousand dollars ($80,000), and one hundred thousand dollars ($100,000).

(7) An aggregate summary of financial aid awarded to students, including scholarships, grants, waivers, loans, and workstudy awards from federal, state, institutional, and private sources for the prior academic year.

(8) Indicators of the effectiveness of the university’s aid programs in achieving the university’s stated goals related to financial aid.

(9) Information on students who submit a Free Application for Federal Student Aid, or Dream Act Application, but do not receive a Cal Grant or institutional financial aid for the prior academic year. This information shall be disaggregated by race, ethnicity, expected family contribution deciles, and dependency status.

(10) The California State University shall include information on the number of students who are eligible for a grant pursuant to the State University Grant Program but do not receive it or receive a partial award for the prior academic year. This information shall be disaggregated by race, ethnicity, and campus of attendance.

(11) The University of California is requested to include information on the average undergraduate student financial self-help level. This information shall be disaggregated by race, ethnicity, and campus of attendance.

(d) To the extent the university provides the information requested in subdivision (c) in reports to its governing board or in other university publications, those reports or publications may be submitted to the Legislature to satisfy this request.

66021.3.

 (a) Notwithstanding Section 67400, by January 1, 2020, and permanently thereafter, each campus of the University of California, the California State University, and the California Community Colleges, and each independent institution of higher education as defined in Section 66010, shall provide students with the Financial Aid Shopping Sheet as developed by the United States Department of Education to inform students or individuals who have been offered admission about financial aid award packages. An institution subject to this section shall provide the completed Financial Aid Shopping Sheet when it provides in print or electronically a financial aid award package to an individual who is offered admission to the institution.

(b) In implementing this section, the institutions of higher education identified in this section may seek guidance as needed from the United States Department of Education.

66027.8.

 (a) For the purposes of this section, “program” means a student meal plan donation program.

(b) The Trustees of the California State University shall, and the Regents of the University of California are encouraged to, designate as a “hunger free campus” each of its respective campuses that have all of the following:

(1) A campus employee designated to help ensure that students have the information that they need to enroll in CalFresh.

(2) An on-campus food pantry or regular food distributions on campus. The campus may partner with a local food bank or food pantry to meet the requirement established by this paragraph if the food distributions occur on campus.

(3) A meal sharing program that allows students to voluntarily donate their unused meal plan credits to be distributed for use by students in need to access dining halls or to support an on-campus food pantry. Each campus shall establish the parameters of their meal sharing program and make them publicly available to students and interested parties. The program information made publicly available shall include, but not be limited to, all of the following:

(A) How a student may donate the student’s unused meal plan credits.

(B) How a low-income student can apply to receive donated meal plan credits.

(C) The methodology for determining how unused meal plan credits that are not used by a student in need or how food purchased using these unused meal plan credits will be donated to support the on-campus food pantry, which shall be established by campus officials in consultation with pantry staff and volunteers, including student volunteers.

(D) The campus employee designated pursuant to paragraph (4).

(4) A campus employee designated annually as a point-of-contact to work with student volunteers for the program described in paragraph (3) to assist students.

(c) The governing board of each community college district that chooses to participate shall designate as a “hunger free campus” each of its campuses that have both of the following:

(1) A campus employee designated to help ensure that students have the information that they need to enroll in CalFresh.

(2) An on-campus food pantry or regular food distributions on campus. The campus may partner with a local food bank or food pantry to meet the requirement established by this paragraph if the food distributions occur on campus.

(d) (1) Each campus that receives a “hunger free campus” designation pursuant to subdivision (b) or (c) shall receive a funding incentive upon appropriation by the Legislature.

(2) Each campus that receives a funding incentive pursuant to paragraph (1) shall submit a report to the Office of the President of the University of California, the Office of the Chancellor of the California Community Colleges, or the Office of the Chancellor of the California State University, as applicable. These offices shall compile each of their respective campus-based reports, prepare a systemwide report, and submit the report to the budget committees of the Legislature no later than February 15, 2019. Each campus-based and systemwide report shall include, but not necessarily be limited to, all of the following information:

(A) The hours of operation for any on-campus food pantry and the unduplicated count of the number of people served.

(B) The names of the local community-based pantry or pantries, food bank or banks, or soup kitchen or kitchens that partner with the campus food pantry or deliver an on-campus food distribution.

(C) The unduplicated number of students, faculty, and staff who donated a campus meal through an on-campus meal sharing program.

(D) The unduplicated number of students who received a donated meal through an on-campus meal sharing program.

(E) The name of on-campus restaurants or qualifying food vendors that have been approved to participate in the CalFresh Restaurant Meals Program (RMP).

(F) A list of on-campus point of sale (POS) locations that accept electronic benefit transfer (EBT) payments.

(G) The estimated unduplicated count of the number of students assisted with a CalFresh application.

(H) The number of staff serving the campus with informed CalFresh referral and information or other antihunger services.

(I) Whether the campus has designated a “basic needs center,” and, if so, information about the accessibility and the hours of operations of the center. For the purposes of this paragraph, a “basic needs center” means a central location on campus where basic needs resources, services, and staff are made available to students.

(J) A description of how the campus is serving the specific needs of students who are foster youth or former foster youth.

(e)  This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2022, and as of that date is repealed, unless a later enacted statute that is enacted before January 1, 2022, deletes or extends that date.

68120.7.

 The Hastings College of Law and each campus of the California Community Colleges and the California State University that has an internet website shall, and each campus of the University of California that has an internet website shall, in the event that an appropriate resolution is enacted pursuant to Section 68134, provide an online posting or notice of systemwide fee or tuition waivers available to students pursuant to Section 68120. The online posting or notice shall be done in accordance with all of the following:

(a) It shall be accessible through a prominent direct link to an application for a waiver of the systemwide fee or tuition.

(b) The direct link shall appear on the primary Web page of the financial aid section of the campus website.

(c) The direct link shall be accompanied by a description of the systemwide fee or tuition waiver to clearly indicate the type of student who would potentially be eligible to apply.

69432.

 (a) (1) Cal Grant Program awards shall be known as “Cal Grant A Entitlement Awards,” “Cal Grant B Entitlement Awards,” “California Community College Transfer Entitlement Awards,” “Competitive Cal Grant A and B Awards,” “Cal Grant C Awards,” and “Cal Grant T Awards.”

(2) For purposes of this section, “associate degree for transfer commitment” means a commitment by a private nonprofit educational institution that chooses to accept the California Community College associate degree for transfer pursuant to Section 66749.6.

(b) Maximum award amounts for students at independent institutions and for Cal Grant C and T awards shall be identified in the annual Budget Act. Maximum award amounts for Cal Grant A and B awards for students attending public institutions shall be referenced in the annual Budget Act.

(c) (1) Notwithstanding subdivision (b), and subdivision (c) of Section 66021.2, commencing with the 2013–14 award year, the maximum tuition award amounts for Cal Grant A and B awards for students attending private for-profit postsecondary educational institutions shall be four thousand dollars ($4,000).

(2) Notwithstanding paragraph (1) of this subdivision, subdivision (b) of this section, and subdivision (c) of Section 66021.2, commencing with the 2018–19 award year, the maximum tuition award amounts for Cal Grant A and B awards for students attending private for-profit postsecondary educational institutions accredited by the Western Association of Schools and Colleges shall be nine thousand eighty-four dollars ($9,084) for new recipients, unless otherwise specified in the Budget Act of 2018.

(d) Notwithstanding subdivision (b) of this section, and subdivision (c) of Section 66021.2, the maximum tuition award amounts for Cal Grant A and B awards for students attending private nonprofit postsecondary educational institutions shall be as follows:

(1) For the 2015–16, 2016–17, 2017–18, and 2018–19 award years, nine thousand eighty-four dollars ($9,084) for new recipients.

(2) For the 2019–20 award year:

(A) (i) If the number of new unduplicated transfer students accepted by private nonprofit postsecondary educational institutions who have been given associate degree for transfer commitments in the 2018–19 academic year meets or exceeds a target of 2,000, nine thousand eighty-four dollars ($9,084) for new recipients.

(ii) The first cohort, Fall 2018, shall be reported showing progress towards the annual goal by April 2019. The association representing the largest number of independent colleges and universities shall provide, by April 2019, a list of campuses that have adopted, or are in the process of adopting, the associate degree for transfer pathway.

(B) If the number of new unduplicated transfer students accepted by private nonprofit postsecondary educational institutions who have been given associate degree for transfer commitments in the 2018–19 academic year is fewer than 2,000, eight thousand fifty-six dollars ($8,056) for new recipients.

(3) For the 2020–21 award year:

(A) If the number of new unduplicated transfer students accepted by private nonprofit postsecondary educational institutions who have been given associate degree for transfer commitments in the prior award year meets or exceeds a target of 3,000, nine thousand eighty-four dollars ($9,084) for new recipients.

(B) If the number of new unduplicated transfer students accepted by private nonprofit postsecondary educational institutions who have been given associate degree for transfer commitments in the prior award year is fewer than 3,000, eight thousand fifty-six dollars ($8,056) for new recipients.

(4) For the 2021–22 award year:

(A) If the number of new unduplicated transfer students accepted by private nonprofit postsecondary educational institutions who have been given associate degree for transfer commitments in the prior award year meets or exceeds a target of 3,500, nine thousand eighty-four dollars ($9,084) for new recipients.

(B) If the number of new unduplicated transfer students accepted by private nonprofit postsecondary educational institutions who have been given associate degree for transfer commitments in the prior award year is fewer than 3,500, eight thousand fifty-six dollars ($8,056) for new recipients.

(5) For the 2022–23 award year and each award year thereafter:

(A) If the number of new unduplicated transfer students accepted by private nonprofit postsecondary educational institutions who have been given associate degree for transfer commitments in the prior award year meets or exceeds the target specified in subdivision (h), nine thousand eighty-four dollars ($9,084) for new recipients.

(B) If the number of new unduplicated transfer students accepted by private nonprofit postsecondary educational institutions who have been given associate degree for transfer commitments in the prior award year is less than the target specified in subdivision (h), eight thousand fifty-six dollars ($8,056) for new recipients.

(e) The renewal award amount for a student whose initial award is subject to a maximum award amount specified in this section shall be calculated pursuant to paragraph (2) of subdivision (a) of Section 69433.

(f) It is the intent of the Legislature that a private nonprofit postsecondary educational institution make a good faith effort to make the process for transferring from the California Community Colleges easier for resident students and a decision determining the maximum award amounts made pursuant to this section for students attending a private nonprofit postsecondary educational institution will be made with consideration of the effort of the institution to make that process easier.

(g) The association representing the largest number of private nonprofit postsecondary educational institutions shall submit a report relative to the implementation of this section to the Department of Finance and the Legislature, in conformity with Section 9795 of the Government Code, on or before March 15 of each year.

(h) For the 2022–23 award year and each award year thereafter, the target number of new unduplicated recipients accepted by private nonprofit postsecondary educational institutions who have been given associate degree for transfer commitments shall be equal to the number of new transfer students attending private nonprofit postsecondary educational institutions who were given associate degree for transfer commitments in the prior award year, adjusted by the percentage change in the total number of new transfer students from the year two years prior, compared to the prior year.

69519.

 (a) The commission, through an interagency agreement with the State Department of Social Services, currently operates a federally funded scholarship program, known as the Chafee Educational and Training Vouchers Program, that provides grant aid to provide access to California’s current and former foster youth to postsecondary education. Funds provided through an appropriation by the Legislature shall be supplemental to funds provided by the federal government, and are designated to ensure program availability in the absence of and prior to the annual receipt of federal funds for this purpose. The department shall opt in, as necessary, to expand program age eligibility of former foster youth up to 26 years of age pursuant to federal program guidelines. The department shall pursue and seek possible Chafee Educational and Training Vouchers Program federal matching dollars.

(b) Funds provided for this program shall be used to assist students who are current and former foster youth, for career and technical training or traditional college courses. The commission shall operate this program in accordance with the program instructions provided by the federal Department of Health and Human Services, Administration for Children and Families, and the program guidelines developed by the State Department of Social Services.

(c) The total amount of funding and the amount of individual awards shall depend upon the amount of federal funding provided in addition to state funding. The commission, in conjunction with the State Department of Social Services, shall determine the individual award amounts and total number of students awarded on an annual basis as the amount of total annual funding is determined.

(d) Commencing with the 2017–18 award year, the commission shall make a new Chafee grant award to a student only if the student attends either of the following:

(1) A qualifying institution that is eligible for participation in the Cal Grant Program pursuant to Section 69432.7.

(2) An institution that is not located in California that satisfies the provisions of subparagraphs (C) and (F) of paragraph (3) of subdivision (l) of Section 69432.7.

(e) (1) Commencing with the 2018–19 award year, the commission shall make a Chafee grant award to a student only if the student meets both of the following conditions:

(A) The student will not be 26 years of age or older by July 1 of the award year.

(B) The student attends either of the following institutions:

(i) A qualifying institution that is eligible for participation in the Cal Grant Program pursuant to Section 69432.7.

(ii) An institution that is not located in California that satisfies the provisions of subparagraphs (C) and (F) of paragraph (3) of subdivision (l) of Section 69432.7.

(2) Implementation of this subdivision is contingent upon an appropriation of sufficient funds in the annual Budget Act for this purpose.

(f) Commencing with the 2018–19 award year, up to eighty thousand dollars ($80,000) of any appropriation made by the Legislature in the annual Budget Act or another statute to expand the Chafee Educational and Training Vouchers Program age eligibility of former foster youth up to 26 years of age may be used by the commission or the State Department of Social Services for outreach to newly eligible former foster youth who are at least 23 years of age, but are not yet 26 years of age for the 2018–19 to 2020–21 fiscal years, inclusive. Outreach purposes may include travel, material development, printing or publication, and other costs, as necessary.

(g) The commission shall annually report to the Legislature all of the following information for the preceding award year:

(1) The number of students who apply to receive a Chafee grant award.

(2) The number of Chafee grants awarded.

(3) The number of Chafee applicants denied due to either of the following reasons:

(A) The Chafee applicant no longer meets the age requirements of the program.

(B) There is insufficient proof of the Chafee applicant’s status as a current or former foster youth.

(4) The number of Chafee awardees unpaid due to any of the following reasons:

(A) Failure to meet minimum enrollment requirements.

(B) Failure to meet standard academic progress according to campus policy.

(C) Any other common reason that a Chafee awardee did not receive a payment.

(5) The number and age of students paid through the Chafee Educational and Training Vouchers Program.

(6) The average Chafee grant award amount.

(7) Qualifying institutions where Chafee grant awards are utilized.

(8) Degree levels for which Chafee grant awards are utilized.

(9) The amount spent on outreach and education efforts and the types of activities that the authorization in subdivision (f) funded. This information shall include the distribution of outreach funding between the commission and the State Department of Social Services, and any other entity that was involved.

71030.

 On or before July 31, 2019, the Chancellor of the California Community Colleges shall revise the California community college online application process so that only data that is required by the federal government or state law, or that is otherwise necessary, as determined by the chancellor, is collected during the process. To the extent that data can be collected from the student at a later time, the chancellor may delay the collection of that data until after the student has applied to a community college.

72506.

 (a) Action taken by any governing board of a community college district to procure insurance shall be governed by the authority of Sections 70902 and 75003 and, where applicable, by Sections 989 to 991.2, inclusive, of the Government Code. However, the governing board of any community college district shall ensure against all of the following:

(1) The liability, other than a liability which may be insured against under Division 4 (commencing with Section 3200) of the Labor Code, of the district for damages for death, injury to person, or damage or loss of property.

(2) The personal liability of the members of the board and of the officers and employees of the district for damages for death, injury to a person, or damage or loss of property caused by the negligent act or omission of the member, officer, or employee when acting within the scope of their office or employment.

(b) The insurance may be written by any insurance company authorized to transact the business of insurance in the state, or by a nonadmitted insurer to the extent, and subject to the conditions, prescribed by Section 1763 of the Insurance Code.

(c) Notwithstanding paragraph (2) of subdivision (a), the governing board of any community college district may provide for persons authorized by the governing board to perform volunteer services for the district, insurance coverage which is the same as, or comparable to, that provided for employees of the district including coverage under Division 4 (commencing with Section 3200) of the Labor Code.

(d) The governing board of a community college district may provide protection from its own funds for the purpose of covering the liability of the district, its officers, agents, and employees, in lieu of carrying insurance in insurance companies, as provided in this section. The governing board may also provide protection against the liability partly by means of its own funds and partly by means of insurance written by insurance companies, as provided in this section.

75001.

 (a) (1) The California Online Community College is hereby established.

(2) The California Online Community College shall be under the administration of the board of governors.

(3) The California Online Community College shall fulfill the purposes of this part, which includes the creation of an organized system of accessible, flexible, and high-quality online content, courses, and programs focused on providing industry-valued credentials compatible with the vocational and educational needs of Californians who are not currently accessing higher education. These courses and programs shall lead to a pathway offered at a traditional community college.

(4) The college shall be considered a district and community college within the California Community Colleges system and the state’s public system of higher education.

(5) For purposes of Section 14 of Article IX and Sections 8 and 8.5 of Article XVI of the California Constitution, “community college districts” shall include the California Online Community College established pursuant to paragraph (1).

(b) The college shall be guided by principles and procedures developed by the chancellor’s office and established by the board of governors. These guiding principles shall include all of the following:

(1) Offering working adults additional access to affordable, quality higher education opportunities with labor market value, especially industry-valued credentials based on competencies leading to employment, earnings gain, or upward mobility in the workplace, and not just courses leading to degrees and certificates.

(2) Providing working adults with the necessary conditions for success with flexible course scheduling, start and stop-off times, technology-enabled support communities to deepen engagement and foster social belonging, and short-term credentials as demonstrations of academic progress.

(3) Supporting student success by developing and implementing innovative teaching and student support methodologies and technologies, including leveraging student data to improve teaching and learning and to support individual student progression, providing quality onboarding of students to support their career exploration, goal-setting, educational planning, and support needs, and leveraging relevant technology resources where possible.

(4) Enhancing systemwide student success efforts by using the college’s innovative teaching and student support methodologies and technologies to inform professional development opportunities available to the rest of the community college system.

(5) Ensuring faculty roles are based on the skills needs of the college, such as online instructors, course developers, assessment developers, student mentors, reviewers, and 24-hour virtual classroom support, and ensuring flexible hiring processes that emphasize use of part-time and full-time faculty with field expertise to support emerging programs and shifts in labor market demand.

(6) Addressing barriers faced by working adult students to access higher education, including, but not necessarily limited to, financial aid support, dealing with working learners’ prior educational debts that may impede release of transcripts and credits, pathway navigational help, contextualized academic preparation, navigation of family needs and other supports, and coaching and mentoring.

(7) Aligning the college’s efforts with the broader goals outlined in the California Community Colleges system’s Vision for Success, or other strategic visions outlined by the board of governors, and holding the college accountable for its students’ outcomes and ensuring improved data collection on employment outcomes.

(8) Offering working adults additional access to affordable, high-quality higher education opportunities with labor market value that lead to additional educational opportunities provided by either the California Online Community College or by another California community college.

(c) The college may collaborate and work closely with other agencies, industry partners, and experts to ensure the success of the college, including, but not necessarily limited to, all of the following:

(1) Students the college serves, to ensure the college meets their needs.

(2) Community-based organizations, to provide student outreach to working learners across California.

(3) Statewide public agencies, such as the State Department of Social Services, the California Labor and Workforce Development Agency, and the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation, to incorporate strategies to provide immigrants and other groups with barriers to employment with educational opportunities.

(4) Representatives from the labor community, to provide higher wage jobs for journey-level workers or augment apprenticeship training.

(5) Industry and employer partners, including statewide public agency employers, state associations, large employers, and regional consortia of employers, to inform content that is driven by the demands of the labor market and relevant to regional workforce needs.

(6) The California Community Colleges, to leverage their existing career technical education regional consortia, the Strong Workforce Program regional consortia, and adult education regional consortia.

(7) Two-year and four-year institutions or a consortia, to promote recognition of student skills and knowledge toward degree pathways as well as a way to increase student access and transfers to additional higher educational opportunities.

(d) The college shall conduct all of the following activities:

(1) The college shall offer at least three program pathways within the first three years of program implementation, developed exclusively to serve the population of students not yet accessing postsecondary education or without their first industry-valued credential. The college shall create new programs that are not duplicative of programs offered at other local community colleges.

(2) To ensure student success, the college shall also do all of the following:

(A) Establish competency-based educational opportunities that recognize students’ prior learning and help students advance toward a credential. Competencies shall be established with the advice of appropriate faculty and employers, and shall be focused on knowledge and skills a student must demonstrate to pass a course and to earn a credential. Examples of prior learning include prior military service, registered apprenticeship training, industry-recognized certifications, or experience from other careers. Assessments shall be developed to enable students to demonstrate mastery and shall be mapped to the competencies.

(B) Supplement registered apprenticeship programs and the California Apprenticeship Initiative training as appropriate, and create apprenticeship instructor upskilling training, courses, and programs that are valued by the labor and employer communities.

(C) Identify opportunities to develop short-term, stackable credentials and industry certifications with labor market value. The college shall also leverage existing articulation agreements and develop new articulation agreements with other California Community Colleges, the California State University, the University of California, and other accredited public and independent institutions to facilitate stackability into credit-bearing courses and pathways.

(D) Develop, adapt, or apply technology to meet the ongoing needs of students.

(E) Develop a Research and Development Unit that utilizes current and future learning sciences technology, assesses data metrics within the college’s technological infrastructure to gauge student progress in a course or pathway, informs instructional and support strategies, and improves the functionality of the underlying technology used by the college.

(F) Redesign transcripts in a digital, verifiable format that links coursework, credentials, and competencies to track a student’s entire body of learning in one document. Any redesigned transcript technology shall be a part of the integrated technology portfolio of the chancellor’s office and made available to any campus of the California Community Colleges.

(G) Identify shortcomings in the student experience for unserved and underserved students and develop technological and programmatic solutions to address the gap.

(H) Distribute gains in data and learning science and effective technology-enabled tools and resources throughout the California Community Colleges.

(3) The college shall utilize and leverage, where appropriate, the programs and activities of the chancellor’s office, including the Online Education Initiative and the Zero-Textbook-Cost Degree Grant Program and Open Educational Resources, the Strong Workforce Program, and the Guided Pathways Program framework. This shall include both of the following activities and practices:

(A) Organize newly developed content, courses, programs, and students supports, consistent with the Guided Pathways Program framework, that lead to a pathway at a traditional community college.

(B) Utilize the Online Education Initiative’s existing social and technological infrastructure for students, instructors, and administrators, including all of the following:

(i) Contribute to the Initiative’s common course management platform for online content and classes.

(ii) Utilize and develop comprehensive, specialized student supports that are technology-enabled for scale and focused on the student experience, including, but not limited to, pathway navigation, online tutoring, online mentoring, and online help desk support. These supports, as well as the instructional delivery, shall be made available during nontraditional working hours to promote student success for the focus population.

(iii) Leverage free or low-cost, high-quality online educational materials for students through Open Educational Resources and the Zero-Textbook-Cost Degree Grant. The college shall ensure any open educational resources that are developed are available for use by any California community college through the system’s common learning management platform.

(iv) Enhance systemwide student success efforts by using the college’s innovative teaching and student support methodologies and technologies to inform professional development opportunities available to the rest of the system through the Online Education Initiative and the Institutional Effectiveness Partnership Initiative.

(e) The college shall not enter into College and Career Access Pathways partnerships pursuant to Section 76004.

(f) (1) It is the intent of the Legislature that the California Online Community College create unique content and deliver it in a manner that is not duplicative of programs offered at other local community colleges.

(2) For each new program created, the chancellor’s office shall notify the Legislature and Department of Finance on how the program is not duplicative of programs offered at other community colleges.

(g) Upon the establishment of an Academic Senate for the California Online Community College, the faculty shall review the Online Education Initiative Protocols for online content and adopt as appropriate.

75003.1.

 (a) It is the intent of the Legislature that all students with disabilities enrolled in the California Online Community College be entitled to receive support services and educational accommodations so that they can participate in and benefit from the California Online Community College equal to those students without disabilities. It is the further intent that all support services and educational accommodations made available to students with disabilities at the other community colleges be made equally available to students with disabilities enrolled in the California Online Community College.

(b) The board of governors shall do all of the following:

(1) Ensure the college is in compliance with statutory provisions regarding access for individuals with disabilities, including, but not necessarily limited to, Chapter 14 (commencing with Section 67300) of Part 40 of Division 5, and Section 84850. This duty shall include, but not necessarily be limited to, the creation of a Disabled Students Programs and Services program within the California Online Community College with staff able to assist students with disabilities who are eligible for academic adjustments, auxiliary aids, services, and instruction that may be necessary for equal access to the general activities, programs, and classes offered by the California Online Community College and any other services specified in Section 67311.

(2) Ensure the California Online Community College’s use of electronic technology is in compliance with the accessibility requirements of state and federal electronic and information technology policy and statutes, including Sections 7405 and 11135 of the Government Code; Section 508 of the federal Rehabilitation Act of 1973 (29 U.S.C. Sec. 794d), as amended and the regulations implementing that act set forth in Part 1194 of Title 36 of the Code of Federal Regulations and Appendices A, C, and D of that part; and the federal Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990 (42 U.S.C. Sec. 12101 et seq.), no later than December 31, 2020. In carrying out this duty, the board of governors shall ensure electronic technology used by the California Online Community College has undergone user testing by persons with disabilities for the purpose of assessing compliance with the aforementioned requirements.

(3) Ensure that the California Online Community College’s use of instructional resources, including, but not necessarily limited to, textbooks and other digital or printed course materials, is in compliance with Sections 66406, 66406.7, 66406.9, 67302, and 67302.5, and any other provisions regarding the accessibility, availability, and affordability of such materials.

(4) Establish a complaint procedure for disabled California Online Community College employees, students, and members of the public to register complaints about accessibility services required pursuant to this section and for resolving the complaints. In any case where a complaint is founded on the failure of the California Online Community College to meet the compliance requirements of this section, the California Online Community College shall provide, upon request of the complainant, an immediate accommodation to meet the needs of the complainant caused by the compliance failure. The California Online Community College shall maintain a summary of the complaints received and the resolution of the complaints including any accommodations made due to the lack of compliance.

(5) Report to the Legislature and the Department of Finance on compliance with this section at each reporting interval specified for startup milestones specified in subdivision (b) of Section 75011.

(c) This section does not limit the rights of any person to pursue any remedies or causes of action that they may have under any state or federal law to enforce compliance with those laws or the obligations stated in subdivision (b).

75005.

 (a) The requirements of Article 3 (commencing with Section 72022) of Chapter 1 of Part 45 shall not apply to the board of governors in fulfilling its duties related to the California Online Community College.

(b) The Legislature declares that the board of governors, in carrying out its duties pursuant to Section 70901 and Article 2 (commencing with Section 71020.5) of Part 44, is expressly determined to not have a conflict of interest in the administration of the California Online Community College.

(c) Notwithstanding Chapter 1.5 (commencing with Section 78100) of Part 48, the board of governors may instead provide access to internet-based library services and materials or by contractual arrangements with other entities.

(d) (1) Notwithstanding any other law, the board of governors may authorize the chancellor, or designate members with the appropriate skills and experience, including those necessary to guide the formation of a new entity, to exercise any powers or responsibilities or to take any official actions with respect to the management of the college, including any of the college’s assets, contracts, expenditures, facilities, funds, personnel, or property.

(2) If the board of governors exercises this authority, the chancellor, or the designees of the board of governors, may appoint a chief executive officer to manage the California Online Community College. The chief executive officer shall have served in a similar capacity prior to the establishment of the California Online Community College and shall have expertise in the development and operation of online offerings at a public or nonprofit institution, or shall have relevant qualifications to serve as the chief executive officer of the California Online Community College. The chief executive officer shall meet the minimum qualifications for service as an academic administrator in the California Community Colleges.

(3) A chief executive officer appointed under this subdivision shall serve at the pleasure of the board of governors.

(4) A chief executive officer appointed pursuant to this section is authorized to do all of the following:

(A) Develop fiscal policies and practices for the operation of the California Online Community College.

(B) Enter into agreements on behalf of the California Online Community College.

(C) In consultation with the Chancellor of the California Community Colleges, establish an advisory council process to advise the chief executive officer on issues related to the California Online Community College. The advisory process shall involve representatives from boards of trustees of community college districts, represented employees of the California Online Community College, and students attending the online college. A participant in the advisory process shall not receive any compensation or benefits for the participant’s services.

(D) Consistent with the requirements of the terms of the contract established pursuant to subparagraph (A) of paragraph (2) of subdivision (f) of Section 70901, hire sufficient staff, with appropriate preparation and experience, to provide the functions necessary to support the college’s mission and purpose.

(E) Hire sufficient numbers of qualified faculty that meet the minimum qualifications established by the college, with appropriate preparation and experience to provide online instructional design and technology-supported student supports to achieve the college’s mission and purpose.

(F) Manage and control the operations of the college.

(5) In the event of a vacancy in the chief executive officer position, the chancellor shall temporarily assume all of the powers and duties of the chief executive officer until another chief executive officer can be appointed pursuant to this section.

(6) The board of governors, or its authorized designees, may contract with the Foundation for California Community Colleges for the purpose of providing administrative support for the college’s startup functions.

78213.

 (a) A community college district or college shall not use any assessment instrument for the purposes of this article without the authorization of the board of governors. The board of governors may adopt a list of authorized assessment instruments pursuant to the policies and procedures developed pursuant to this section and the intent of this article. The board of governors may waive this requirement as to any assessment instrument pending evaluation.

(b) The board of governors shall review all assessment instruments to ensure that they meet all of the following requirements:

(1) Assessment instruments shall be sensitive to cultural and language differences between students, and shall be adapted as necessary to accommodate students with disabilities.

(2) Assessment instruments shall be used as an advisory tool to assist students in the selection of appropriate courses.

(3) Assessment instruments shall not be used to exclude students from admission to community colleges.

(c) The board of governors shall establish an advisory committee to review and make recommendations concerning all assessment instruments used by districts and colleges pursuant to this article.

(d) (1) (A) A community college district or college shall maximize the probability that a student will enter and complete transfer-level coursework in English and mathematics within a one-year timeframe, and use, in the placement of students into English and mathematics courses in order to achieve this goal, one or more of the following measures:

(i) High school coursework.

(ii) High school grades.

(iii) High school grade point average.

(B) Colleges shall use multiple evidence-based measures for placing students into English-as-a-second-language (ESL) coursework. For those students placed into credit ESL coursework, their placement should maximize the probability that they will complete degree and transfer requirements in English within three years.

(C) Colleges shall apply multiple measures in the placement of all students in such a manner so that either of the following may occur:

(i) Low performance on one measure may be offset by high performance on another measure.

(ii) The student can demonstrate preparedness and thus bypass remediation based on any one measure.

(D) When high school transcript data is difficult to obtain, logistically problematic to use, or not available, a community college district or community college may use self-reported high school information or guided placement, including self-placement for students.

(E) The board of governors may establish regulations governing the use of these and other measures, instruments, and placement models to ensure that the measures, instruments, and placement models selected by a community college demonstrate that they guide English and mathematics placements to achieve the goal of maximizing the probability that a student will enter and complete transfer-level coursework in English and mathematics within a one-year timeframe and credit ESL students will complete transfer-level coursework in English within a timeframe of three years. The regulations should ensure that, for students who seek a goal other than transfer, and who are in certificate or degree programs with specific requirements that are not met with transfer-level coursework, a community college district or college maximizes the probability that a student will enter and complete the required college-level coursework in English and mathematics within a one-year timeframe.

(2) Notwithstanding Section 78218 or any other law, a community college district or college shall not require students to enroll in remedial English or mathematics coursework that lengthens their time to complete a degree unless placement research that includes consideration of high school grade point average and coursework shows that those students are highly unlikely to succeed in transfer-level coursework in English and mathematics. A community college district or college may require students to enroll in additional concurrent support, including additional language support for ESL students, during the same semester that they take a transfer-level English or mathematics course, but only if it is determined that the support will increase their likelihood of passing the transfer-level English or mathematics course. The community college district or college shall minimize the impact on student financial aid and unit requirements for the degree by exploring embedded support and low or noncredit support options.

(e) For purposes of this section, “assessment” means the process of gathering information about a student regarding the student’s study skills, English language proficiency, computational skills, aptitudes, goals, learning skills, career aspirations, academic performance, and need for special services. Assessment methods may include, but not necessarily be limited to, interviews, standardized tests, attitude surveys, vocational or career aptitude and interest inventories, high school or postsecondary transcripts, specialized certificates or licenses, educational histories, and other measures of performance.

78222.

 (a) (1) The Student Equity and Achievement Program is hereby established.

(2) It is the intent of the Legislature that funds for the Student Equity and Achievement Program support the California Community Colleges in advancing the systemwide goal to boost achievement for all students with an emphasis on eliminating achievement gaps for students from traditionally underrepresented groups by doing all of the following:

(A) Implementing activities and practices pursuant to the California Community College Guided Pathways Grant Program.

(B) Ensuring students complete their educational goals and a defined course of study.

(C) Providing quality curriculum, instruction, and support services to students who enter college deficient in English and mathematics to ensure these students complete a course of study in a timely manner.

(b) As a condition of the receipt of funds for purposes of this section, a district shall comply with all of the following:

(1) Maintain a student equity plan pursuant to Section 78220 to ensure equal educational opportunities and to promote student success for all students, regardless of race, gender, age, disability, or economic circumstances.

(2) Provide student matriculation services pursuant to Section 78212, including implementation of orientation, counseling and advising, referral to specialized student support services, and other education planning services needed to assist a student in making informed decisions about the student’s educational goal and course of study and in developing an education plan. The Office of the Chancellor of the California Community Colleges shall establish guidelines on student matriculation services, including, but not limited to, the development of an education plan leading to a course of study. Notwithstanding any other law, students who are exempted from matriculation services pursuant to Section 78215 are not subject to the requirements of this paragraph.

(3) Adopt and implement placement policies consistent with the requirements of Section 78213.

(4) Provide all students with an education plan, which identifies courses, a sequence of courses, key progress milestones, and other requirements the student must complete to earn an associate degree, career technical education certificate, other community college certificate, or meet transfer requirements. Notwithstanding any other law, students who are exempted from having an education plan under Section 78215 are not subject to the requirement of this paragraph.

(5) Provide a report to the chancellor’s office by January 1 of each year detailing how funding pursuant to this section was expended in the prior fiscal year and for what specific purposes. A district report shall also include an assessment of the progress in advancing the goals identified in paragraph (2) of subdivision (a).

(c) (1) If the total amount of funds appropriated for purposes of this section is equal to or greater than the amount of funds appropriated in the 2017–18 fiscal year for the Student Success and Support Program pursuant to Section 78212, the student equity plans pursuant to Section 78221, and the Student Success for Basic Skills program pursuant to Section 88815, the chancellor shall allocate to each district an amount equal to or greater than the amount allocated in the 2017–18 fiscal year.

(2) If the total amount of funds appropriated for purposes of this section is less than the amount of funds appropriated in the 2017–18 fiscal year for the Student Success and Support Program pursuant to Section 78212, the student equity plans pursuant to Section 78221, and the Student Success for Basic Skills program pursuant to Section 88815, the chancellor shall allocate to each district the pro rata share of the amount appropriated based on the amount allocated to each district in the 2017–18 fiscal year.

(3) The Board of Governors of the California Community Colleges may require districts or colleges to provide a local fund match for funding appropriated for purposes of this section.

(4) The chancellor shall provide guidance to districts regarding eligible expenditures and activities and integrated planning to ensure funding for the Student Equity and Achievement Program is used to support the goal of eliminating disparities pursuant to paragraph (2) of subdivision (a). It is the intent of the Legislature that colleges prioritize funding for high-need and disadvantaged students, as those terms are defined in subdivision (c) of Section 78221.

(5) (A) The chancellor may allocate up to 5 percent of the total funds appropriated for the purposes of this program for state administrative operations to carry out the intent of this section.

(B) Of the amount allocated pursuant to subparagraph (A), the chancellor shall allocate to a community college district no less than the amount that was provided to a district in the 2017–18 fiscal year pursuant to paragraph (1) of subdivision (b) of Section 88815 to carry out faculty and staff development to improve curriculum, instruction, student services, and program practices in the areas of basic skills and English as a second language program.

(6) By April 1 of each year, the chancellor’s office shall submit a systemwide report to the Legislature and Department of Finance that provides a summary of the district reports referenced in paragraph (5) of subdivision (b). A report to the Legislature pursuant to this paragraph shall be submitted in compliance with Section 9795 of the Government Code.

(d) (1) All districts receiving an allocation of funds pursuant to subdivision (c) shall comply with the requirements of Section 78214. In meeting this requirement, the Student Success and Support Program referenced in Section 78214 means the Student Equity and Achievement Program.

(2) For purposes of Section 87482.3, the Student Success and Support Program means the Student Equity and Achievement Program.

84750.4.

 (a) (1) The board of governors, in accordance with this section, and in consultation with institutional representatives of the California Community Colleges and statewide faculty and staff organizations, so as to ensure their participation in the development and review of policy proposals, shall develop criteria and standards for the purpose of making the annual budget request for the California Community Colleges to the Governor and the Legislature, and for the purpose of allocating the state general apportionment revenues.

(2) It is the intent of the Legislature in enacting this section to adopt a formula for general purpose apportionments that encourages access for underrepresented students, provides additional funding in recognition of the need to provide additional support for low-income students, rewards colleges’ progress on improving student success metrics, and improves overall equity and predictability so that community college districts may more readily plan and implement instruction and programs.

(3) It is the intent of the Legislature to determine the amounts appropriated for purposes of this section through the annual Budget Act. This section shall not be construed as limiting the authority of either the Governor to propose, or the Legislature to approve, appropriations for the California Community Colleges programs or purposes.

(b) Commencing with the 2018–19 fiscal year, and each fiscal year thereafter, the chancellor’s office shall annually calculate a base allocation, a supplemental allocation, and a student success allocation for each community college district in the state pursuant to this section. This calculation only applies to the allocation of credit revenue. Noncredit instruction, and instruction in career development and college preparation full-time equivalent students (FTES) shall be funded pursuant to the requirements of paragraphs (3) and (4), respectively, of subdivision (d) of Section 84750.5, as that section read on January 1, 2018.

(c) For purposes of computing the base allocation, the marginal funding rate for credit revenue per FTES shall be no less than the following:

(1) Three thousand seven hundred twenty-seven dollars ($3,727) for the 2018–19 fiscal year.

(2) Three thousand three hundred eighty-seven dollars ($3,387) for the 2019–20 fiscal year adjusted for changes in cost-of-living and other base adjustments.

(3) Three thousand forty-six dollars ($3,046) for the 2020–21 fiscal year adjusted for changes in cost-of-living and other base adjustments in the prior year and the cost-of-living and other base adjustments for the 2020–21 fiscal year.

(4) Commencing with the 2021–22 fiscal year, the rate specified in paragraph (3) adjusted for changes in cost-of-living and other base adjustments in subsequent annual budget acts.

(d) (1) The base allocation shall be computed for each community college district as follows:

(A) Each community college district shall receive a basic allocation based on the number of colleges and comprehensive centers in the community college district that is consistent with the basic allocation formula established by the board of governors pursuant to paragraph (2) of subdivision (d) of Section 84750.5 as of the 2015–16 fiscal year.

(B) Unless otherwise specified in subparagraph (C), each community college district shall receive an allocation based on credit base revenues associated with funded FTES as computed pursuant to subparagraph (A) of paragraph (2) at the rate pursuant to subdivision (c).

(C) (i) Notwithstanding the rate in subdivision (c), for community college districts that had higher rates used to calculate their 2017–18 general purpose apportionments, the following rates shall be used to calculate their base allocations for the 2018–19 fiscal year:

(I) For Foothill-De Anza Community College District, the rate shall be no less than three thousand seven hundred forty-five dollars ($3,745).

(II) For Lake Tahoe Community College District, the rate shall be no less than three thousand eight hundred eighteen dollars ($3,818).

(III) For Lassen Community College District, the rate shall be no less than three thousand seven hundred ninety-four dollars ($3,794).

(IV) For Marin Community College District, the rate shall be no less than four thousand two hundred sixty-one dollars ($4,261).

(V) For MiraCosta Community College District, the rate shall be no less than three thousand seven hundred thirty-four dollars ($3,734).

(VI) For San Francisco Community College District, the rate shall be no less than three thousand seven hundred fifty-six dollars ($3,756).

(VII) For San Jose-Evergreen Community College District, the rate shall be no less than three thousand seven hundred forty-four dollars ($3,744).

(VIII) For Santa Monica Community College District, the rate shall be no less than three thousand seven hundred seventy-six dollars ($3,776).

(IX) For South Orange Community College District, the rate shall be no less than three thousand eight hundred twenty-six dollars ($3,826).

(X) For West Kern Community College District, the rate shall be no less than four thousand nine hundred thirty-four dollars ($4,934).

(ii) Notwithstanding the rate in subdivision (c), for community college districts that had higher rates used to calculate their 2017–18 general purpose apportionments, the following rates shall be used to calculate their base allocations for the 2019–20 fiscal year:

(I) For Foothill-De Anza Community College District, the rate shall be no less than three thousand four hundred three dollars ($3,403) adjusted for changes in cost-of-living and other base adjustments.

(II) For Lake Tahoe Community College District, the rate shall be no less than three thousand four hundred sixty-nine dollars ($3,469) adjusted for changes in cost-of-living and other base adjustments.

(III) For Lassen Community College District, the rate shall be no less than three thousand four hundred forty-seven dollars ($3,447) adjusted for changes in cost-of-living and other base adjustments.

(IV) For Marin Community College District, the rate shall be no less than three thousand eight hundred seventy-two dollars ($3,872) adjusted for changes in cost-of-living and other base adjustments.

(V) For MiraCosta Community College District, the rate shall be no less than three thousand three hundred ninety-two dollars ($3,392) adjusted for changes in cost-of-living and other base adjustments.

(VI) For San Francisco Community College District, the rate shall be no less than three thousand four hundred thirteen dollars ($3,413) adjusted for changes in cost-of-living and other base adjustments.

(VII) For San Jose-Evergreen Community College District, the rate shall be no less than three thousand four hundred one dollars ($3,401) adjusted for changes in cost-of-living and other base adjustments.

(VIII) For Santa Monica Community College District, the rate shall be no less than three thousand four hundred thirty-one dollars ($3,431) adjusted for changes in cost-of-living and other base adjustments.

(IX) For South Orange Community College District, the rate shall be no less than three thousand four hundred seventy-six dollars ($3,476) adjusted for changes in cost-of-living and other base adjustments.

(X) For West Kern Community College District, the rate shall be no less than four thousand four hundred eighty-three dollars ($4,483) adjusted for changes in cost-of-living and other base adjustments.

(iii) Notwithstanding the rate in subdivision (c), for community college districts that had higher rates used to calculate their 2017–18 general purpose apportionments, the following rates shall be used to calculate their base allocations for the 2020–21 fiscal year:

(I) For Foothill-De Anza Community College District, the rate shall be no less than three thousand sixty dollars ($3,060) adjusted for changes in cost-of-living and other base adjustments in the prior year and the cost-of-living and other base adjustments for the 2020–21 fiscal year.

(II) For Lake Tahoe Community College District, the rate shall be no less than three thousand one hundred twenty dollars ($3,120) adjusted for changes in cost-of-living and other base adjustments in the prior year and the cost-of-living and other base adjustments for the 2020–21 fiscal year.

(III) For Lassen Community College District, the rate shall be no less than three thousand one hundred dollars ($3,100) adjusted for changes in cost-of-living and other base adjustments in the prior year and the cost-of-living and other base adjustments for the 2020–21 fiscal year.

(IV) For Marin Community College District, the rate shall be no less than three thousand four hundred eighty-two dollars ($3,482) adjusted for changes in cost-of-living and other base adjustments in the prior year and the cost-of-living and other base adjustments for the 2020–21 fiscal year.

(V) For MiraCosta Community College District, the rate shall be no less than three thousand fifty-one dollars ($3,051) adjusted for changes in cost-of-living and other base adjustments in the prior year and the cost-of-living and other base adjustments for the 2020–21 fiscal year.

(VI) For San Francisco Community College District, the rate shall be no less than three thousand sixty-nine dollars ($3,069) adjusted for changes in cost-of-living and other base adjustments in the prior year and the cost-of-living and other base adjustments for the 2020–21 fiscal year.

(VII) For San Jose-Evergreen Community College District, the rate shall be no less than three thousand fifty-nine dollars ($3,059) adjusted for changes in cost-of-living and other base adjustments in the prior year and the cost-of-living and other base adjustments for the 2020–21 fiscal year.

(VIII) For Santa Monica Community College District, the rate shall be no less than three thousand eighty-six dollars ($3,086) adjusted for changes in cost-of-living and other base adjustments in the prior year and the cost-of-living and other base adjustments for the 2020–21 fiscal year.

(IX) For South Orange Community College District, the rate shall be no less than three thousand one hundred twenty-six dollars ($3,126) adjusted for changes in cost-of-living and other base adjustments in the prior year and the cost-of-living and other base adjustments for the 2020–21 fiscal year.

(X) For West Kern Community College District, the rate shall be no less than four thousand thirty-two dollars ($4,032) adjusted for changes in cost-of-living and other base adjustments in the prior year and the cost-of-living and other base adjustments for the 2020–21 fiscal year.

(iv) Commencing with the 2021–22 fiscal year, the rates in clause (iii) shall be adjusted for changes in the cost-of-living and other base adjustments in subsequent annual budget acts.

(2) To calculate the base allocation for each community college district, the chancellor’s office shall calculate the three-year rolling average comprised of funded FTES from the current year, the prior year, and the year prior to the prior year, as follows:

(A) Commencing with the 2018–19 fiscal year, the chancellor’s office shall compute the sum of annually funded credit FTES from the current year, the prior year, and the year prior to the prior year, and divide the sum by three.

(B) (i) In computing the three-year average pursuant to subparagraph (A), credit FTES associated with enrollment growth proposed in the annual Budget Act shall be excluded from the three-year average and shall instead be added to the computed three-year rolling average.

(ii) In computing the three-year average pursuant to subparagraph (A), credit FTES generated by students who meet the requirements of subdivision (a) of Section 84810.5 and special admit students pursuant to Sections 76002, 76003, and 76004 shall be excluded.

(C) The sum of a community college district’s computed three-year FTES rolling average and current year funded FTES growth shall be multiplied by a community college district’s applicable base allocation funding rate pursuant to subdivision (c), or subparagraph (C) of paragraph (1), as applicable, to compute a community college district’s base allocation.

(D) Community college districts are entitled to the restoration of any reductions in their base allocation due to decreases in FTES during the three years following the initial year of decrease if there is a subsequent increase in FTES.

(3) In addition to the amounts computed pursuant to paragraphs (1) and (2), each community college district shall receive an allocation based on credit base revenues associated with funded FTES generated by students who meet the requirements of subdivision (a) of Section 84810.5 and special admit students pursuant to Sections 76002, 76003, and 76004. FTES generated by students who meet the requirements of subdivision (a) of Section 84810.5 and special admit students pursuant to Sections 76002, 76003, and 76004 shall be multiplied by a community college district’s applicable credit revenue rate computed for the 2017–18 fiscal year pursuant to Section 84750.5, as that section read on January 1, 2018, as adjusted for the 2018–19 fiscal year cost-of-living adjustment and other base adjustments, and adjusted for the changes in the cost-of-living and other base adjustments in subsequent annual budget acts.

(4) The chancellor shall allocate any funding appropriated in the Budget Act for enrollment growth to support the following:

(A) First, for the stated percentage of enrollment growth in the Budget Act and consistent with the growth formula used by the board of governors in the 2015–16 fiscal year.

(B) Second, for the amount of uncapped growth attributable to increases in the amount of a community college district’s supplemental allocation.

(C) Third, for the amount of uncapped growth attributable to increases in the amount of a community college district’s student success allocation.

(e) Commencing with the 2018–19 fiscal year, a supplemental allocation shall be computed for each community college district based on the total points calculated for each community college district in accordance with all of the following:

(1) The marginal funding rate per point for computing a supplemental allocation shall be nine hundred nineteen dollars ($919) and, commencing with the 2019–20 fiscal year, that rate shall be adjusted for changes in the cost-of-living adjustment and other base adjustments in subsequent annual budget acts.

(2) Each community college district shall be granted one point for each student who is a recipient of financial aid under the Federal Pell Grant program (20 U.S.C. Sec. 1070a) based on headcount data of students in the prior year.

(3) Each district shall be granted one point for each student who is granted an exemption from nonresident tuition pursuant to Section 68130.5, based on headcount data of students in the prior year.

(4) Each district shall be granted one point for each student who receives a fee waiver pursuant to Section 76300, based on headcount data of students in the prior year.

(5) For the purposes of calculating the supplemental allocation, the number of students shall be defined as the number of students served by the community college district.

(6) It is the intent of the Legislature that the annual Budget Act fully fund increases in the supplemental allocations computed under this section.

(f) Commencing with the 2018–19 fiscal year, a student success allocation shall be computed for each community college district based on the total points calculated for each community college district in accordance with all of the following:

(1) (A) The marginal funding rate per point for computing student success allocation revenue shall be as follows:

(i) For the 2018–19 fiscal year, four hundred forty dollars ($440).

(ii) For the 2019–20 fiscal year, six hundred sixty dollars ($660) adjusted for changes in cost-of-living and other base adjustments specified for the 2019–20 fiscal year.

(iii) For the 2020–21 fiscal year, eight hundred eighty dollars ($880) adjusted for changes in cost-of-living and other base adjustment in the prior year and the cost-of-living and other base adjustments specified for the 2020–21 fiscal year.

(iv) Commencing with the 2021–22 fiscal year, the rate specified in clause (iii) adjusted for changes in cost-of-living and other base adjustments specified in subsequent annual budget acts.

(B) Each community college district shall be granted three points for each chancellor’s office approved associate degree or approved baccalaureate degree granted, excluding an associate degree for transfer granted pursuant to Article 3 (commencing with Section 66745) of Chapter 9.2 of Part 40 of Division 5, based on prior year data.

(C) Each community college district shall be granted four points for each chancellor’s office approved associate degree for transfer degree granted pursuant to Article 3 (commencing with Section 66745) of Chapter 9.2 of Part 40 of Division 5, based on prior year data.

(D) (i) Each community college district shall be granted two points for each chancellor’s office approved credit certificate requiring 18 or more units granted, based on prior year data.

(ii) Chancellor’s office approved credit certificates requiring 16 or more units granted may be used to compute these points if the chancellor’s office adopts regulations authorizing the approval and issuance of certificates requiring 16 or more units.

(E) Each community college district shall be granted two points for each student who successfully completes both transfer-level mathematics and English courses within the student’s first academic year of enrollment, based on prior year data.

(F) (i) Each community college district shall be granted one and one-half points for each student who successfully transfers to a four-year university, based on prior year data.

(ii) The chancellor’s office may reduce a community college district’s transfer points if a community college district enters into, or expands, a transfer partnership with a private for-profit college that has not demonstrated a track record of providing its students with a baccalaureate degree that leads to a majority of the private for-profit college’s baccalaureate degree program students obtaining a regional living wage within one year of completing their degree program.

(iii) The chancellor’s office may reduce a community college district’s transfer points if a community college district enters into, or expands, a transfer partnership with a private for-profit college that does not meet the qualifications to offer its students federal financial aid.

(G) Each community college district shall be granted one point for each student who successfully completes nine or more career technical education units, based on prior year data.

(H) Each community college district shall be granted one point for each student who obtains a regional living wage within one year of community college completion, based on prior year data.

(2) (A) Each community college district shall also be granted additional points for an equity component of the student success allocation. The marginal funding per point for the equity component of the student success allocation revenue shall be as follows:

(i) For the 2018–19 fiscal year, one hundred eleven dollars ($111).

(ii) For the 2019–20 fiscal year, one hundred sixty-seven dollars ($167) adjusted for changes in cost-of-living and other base adjustments specified for the 2019–20 fiscal year.

(iii) For the 2020–21 fiscal year, two hundred twenty-two dollars ($222) adjusted for changes in cost-of-living and other base adjustments specified for the prior year and the cost-of-living and other base adjustments specified for the 2020–21 fiscal year.

(iv) Commencing with the 2021–22 fiscal year, the rate specified in clause (iii) adjusted for changes in cost-of-living and other base adjustments specified in subsequent annual budget acts.

(B) In computing this allocation, each community college district shall receive points for a student who received a fee waiver pursuant to Section 76300 and generated points for any of the metrics described in paragraph (1), based on prior year data. For each student identified pursuant to this subparagraph, the community college district shall receive the number of points equal to the number of points that the student generated for each of the metrics described in paragraph (1).

(C) In computing this allocation, each community college district shall receive points for a student who received financial aid under the Federal Pell Grant program (20 U.S.C. Sec. 1070a) and generated points for any of the metrics described in paragraph (1), based on prior year data. For each student identified pursuant to this subparagraph, the community college district shall receive the number of points equal to the following:

(i) Four and one-half points for each chancellor’s office approved associate degree or approved baccalaureate degree granted, excluding an associate degree for transfer granted pursuant to Article 3 (commencing with Section 66745) of Chapter 9.2 of Part 40 of Division 5, based on prior year data.

(ii) Six points for each chancellor’s office approved associate for transfer degree granted pursuant to Article 3 (commencing with Section 66745) of Chapter 9.2 of Part 40 of Division 5, based on prior year data.

(iii) Three points for each chancellor’s office approved credit certificate requiring 16 or more units granted, based on prior year data.

(iv) Three points for each student who successfully completes transfer-level mathematics and English courses within the student’s first academic year of enrollment, based on prior year data.

(v) Two and one-quarter points for each student who successfully transfers to a four-year university, based on prior year data.

(vi) One and one-half points for each student who successfully completes nine or more career technical education units, based on prior year data.

(vii) One and one-half points for each student who obtains a regional living wage within one year of community college completion, based on prior year data.

(3) It is the intent of the Legislature that the annual Budget Act fully fund increases in the student success allocations computed under this section.

(g) To establish a hold harmless protection for community college districts pursuant to the funding allocation established in this section, a minimum funding level for all community college districts shall be computed as follows:

(1) For the 2018–19 and 2019–20 fiscal years, a level of funding to ensure that all community college districts receive at a minimum the total computational revenue the district received in the 2017–18 fiscal year, defined as a district’s final entitlement for general purpose apportionment based on FTES and the number of colleges and comprehensive centers the district operates.

(2) Commencing with the 2020–21 fiscal year, and each year thereafter, community college districts shall receive the higher of (A) the funding level determined by the formula established in this section, or (B) the level of funding determined by multiplying the community college district’s new FTES by the associated credit, noncredit, and career development and college preparation rate received by the district in the 2017–18 fiscal year. The level of funding shall be adjusted to include a basic allocation based on the number of colleges and comprehensive centers in the district consistent with the basic allocation rates used in the 2017–18 fiscal year.

(3) (A) From the 2019–20 fiscal year to the 2023–24 fiscal year, inclusive, for the San Francisco Community College District and the Compton Community College District, the rates for computing the hold harmless provisions pursuant to paragraphs (1) and (2) shall be multiplied each year by the cost-of-living adjustment identified in the annual Budget Act and adjusted for increases to FTES. The level of funding for the San Francisco Community College District and the Compton Community College District shall be adjusted to include a basic allocation based on the number of colleges and comprehensive centers in the district consistent with the basic allocation rates used in the 2017–18 fiscal year multiplied by the 2018–19 fiscal year cost-of-living adjustment, and adjusted for changes in the cost of living in subsequent annual budget acts. The intent of these adjustments is to provide the San Francisco Community College District and the Compton Community College District with the greater of the amount that would have been calculated pursuant to the requirements of Section 84750.5, as that section read on January 1, 2018, adjusted for annual changes in the cost-of-living adjustment identified in the annual Budget Act and adjusted for increases in FTES, or the amount computed pursuant to the funding formula established in this section.

(B) For purposes of computing the FTES attributable to this paragraph and subdivision (d), for five fiscal years beginning in the 2017–18 fiscal year, the San Francisco Community College District shall be entitled to restoration of any reduction in apportionment revenue due to decreases in FTES, up to the level of attendance of FTES funded in the 2012–13 fiscal year, if there is a subsequent increase in FTES.

(C) (i) For purposes of computing the FTES attributable to this paragraph and subdivision (d), for five fiscal years beginning in the fiscal year the Compton Community College District is accredited under the governing authority of the Board of Trustees of the Compton Community College District, the board of governors shall provide allocations to the Compton Community College District in an amount not less than the total amount that the district would receive if the level of attendance of FTES was the same level of attendance as in the 2017–18 fiscal year. The amount shall be adjusted to reflect cost-of-living adjustments, deficits in apportionments, or both, as appropriate for the applicable fiscal years.

(ii) For purposes of computing the FTES attributable to this paragraph and subdivision (d), for five fiscal years beginning in the fiscal year the Compton Community College District is accredited under the governing authority of the Board of Trustees of the Compton Community College District, the Compton Community College District shall be entitled to restoration of any reduction in apportionment revenue due to decreases in FTES, up to the level of attendance of FTES funded in the 2017–18 fiscal year, if there is a subsequent increase in FTES.

(iii) In computing statewide entitlements to funding based upon the attendance of FTES, the Compton Community College District shall not be credited with more FTES than were actually enrolled and in attendance.

(4) Decreases in a community college district’s total revenue computed pursuant to the sum of subdivisions (d), (e), and (f), or computed pursuant to this subdivision shall result in the associated reduction beginning in the year following the initial year of decreases.

(h) For the fiscal years 2018–19 to 2020–21, inclusive, each community college district whose increase in 2017–18 general purpose apportionment funding computed pursuant to Section 84750.5, compared to apportionment funding computed pursuant to this section, is less than the year-over-year cost-of-living adjustments applicable to those fiscal years, shall receive discretionary resources in an amount needed to ensure the community college district receives no less than their 2017–18 general purpose apportionment funding computed pursuant to Section 84750.5 adjusted for annual year-over-year cost-of-living adjustments.

(i) The board of governors shall develop the criteria and standards within the statewide minimum requirements established pursuant to this section.

(j) (1) Except as specifically provided in statute, regulations of the board of governors for determining and allocating the state general apportionment to the community college districts shall not require community college district governing boards to expend the allocated revenues in specified categories of operation.

(2) Except as otherwise provided by statute, current categorical programs providing direct services to students, including extended opportunity programs and services, and disabled student programs and services, shall continue to be funded separately through the annual Budget Act, and shall not be assumed under the budget formula otherwise specified by this section.

(k) It is the intent of the Legislature to allow for changes to the criteria and standards developed pursuant to subdivisions (a) and (h) in order to recognize increased operating costs and to improve instruction.

(l) Notwithstanding Subchapter 1 (commencing with Section 51000) of Chapter 2 of Division 6 of Title 5 of the California Code of Regulations and Section 84751, the chancellor shall allocate the ongoing funds first appropriated to paragraph (1) of subdivision (e) of provision 2 of Item 6870-101-0001 of Section 2.00 of the Budget Act of 2015 (Chapters 10 and 11 of the Statutes of 2015) to all community college districts, including districts that have offsetting local revenues that exceed the funding calculated pursuant to the district’s budget formula, on a per FTES basis by modifying each district’s budget formula pursuant to this section. Any revisions to the budget formula made for the purposes of this subdivision shall be made and reported consistent with the requirements of subdivision (i).

(m) (1) (A) The governing board of each community college district shall certify it will do all the following, no later than January 1, 2019:

(i) Adopt goals for the community college district that meet the following requirements:

(I) Are aligned with the systemwide goals identified in the Vision for Success, which were adopted by the Board of Governors of the California Community Colleges in 2017.

(II) Are measurable numerically.

(III) Specify the specific timeline for achievement.

(ii) For the meeting when the goals are considered for adoption, include in the written agenda an explanation of how the goals are consistent and aligned with the systemwide goals.

(iii) Submit the written item and summary of action to the chancellor’s office.

(B) The chancellor’s office shall make available guidance to assist governing boards of community college districts in meeting the requirements of this section. The funds apportioned to a community college district pursuant to this section, and for excess tax districts, the Student Equity and Achievement Program, shall be available to implement the activities required pursuant to this paragraph.

(2) Each community college district shall align its comprehensive plan pursuant to paragraph (9) of subdivision (b) of Section 70901 with the adopted local plan goals and align its budget with the comprehensive plan. The funds apportioned to a community college district pursuant to this section, and for excess tax districts, the Student Equity and Achievement Program, shall be available to implement the activities required pursuant to this paragraph.

(3) If a community college district is identified as needing further assistance to make progress towards achieving specified goals, the chancellor’s office, with the approval from the board of governors, may direct the community college district to use up to 1 percent of the district’s apportionments allocation on technical assistance and professional development to support efforts to meet the district’s efforts towards their goals.

(4) (A) The chancellor’s office shall develop processes to monitor the approval of new awards, certificates, and degree programs. The chancellor’s office shall also develop a process to monitor the number of students who transfer to for-profit postsecondary educational institutions and report on the growth of transfer to these institutions compared to four-year public postsecondary educational institutions.

(B) The chancellor’s office shall also develop minimum standards, in consultation with the oversight committee established pursuant to Section 84750.41, for the approval of certificates and awards that would count towards the funding formula pursuant to this section.

(C) The board of governors shall include instructions in the audit report required by Section 84040 related to the implementation of the funding formula pursuant to this section. The chancellor may require a community college district to repay any funding associated with an audit exception identified in a community college district’s audit report pursuant to this subparagraph.

(5) Notwithstanding Section 10231.5 of the Government Code, on or before October 15, 2019, and each year thereafter, the chancellor’s office shall report to the Legislature, consistent with Section 9795 of the Government Code, on the course sections and FTES added at each community college that received apportionment growth funding in the prior fiscal year, including the number of course sections and if any course sections and FTES were added that are within the primary missions of the segment and those that are not within the primary missions of the segment.

(6) (A) On or before July 1, 2022, the chancellor’s office shall report to the Legislature and the Department of Finance, consistent with Section 9795 of the Government Code, a description on how community college districts are making progress on advancing the goals outlined in the system’s strategic vision plan.

(B) The requirement for submitting a report imposed under subparagraph (A) is inoperative on July 1, 2026, pursuant to Section 10231.5 of the Government Code.

(n) For purposes of this section, the following terms have the following meanings:

(1) “Career development and college preparation” means courses in programs that conform to the requirements of Section 84760.5.

(2) “Chancellor’s office” means the Office of the Chancellor of the California Community Colleges.

(3) “Primary missions of the segment” means credit courses and those noncredit courses specified in paragraphs (2) to (6), inclusive, of subdivision (a) of Section 84757.

84750.5.

 (a) The board of governors, in accordance with the statewide requirements contained in paragraphs (1) to (9), inclusive, of subdivision (d), and in consultation with institutional representatives of the California Community Colleges and statewide faculty and staff organizations, so as to ensure their participation in the development and review of policy proposals, shall develop criteria and standards for the purpose of making the annual budget request for the California Community Colleges to the Governor and the Legislature, and for the purpose of allocating the state general apportionment revenues.

(b) In developing the criteria and standards, the board of governors shall use and strongly consider the recommendations and work product of the “System Office Recommendations Based on the Report of the Work Group on Community College Finance” that was adopted by the board at its meeting of March 7, 2005. The board of governors shall complete the development of these criteria and standards, accompanied by the necessary procedures, processes, and formulas for using its criteria and standards, by March 1, 2007, and shall submit on or before that date a report on these items to the Legislature and the Governor.

(c) (1) It is the intent of the Legislature in enacting this section to improve the equity and predictability of general apportionment and growth funding for community college districts in order that the districts may more readily plan and implement instruction and related programs, more readily serve students according to the policies of the state’s master plan for higher education, and enhance the quality of instruction and related services for students.

(2) It is the intent of the Legislature to determine the amounts to be appropriated for purposes of this section through the annual Budget Act. This section shall not be construed as limiting the authority either of the Governor to propose, or the Legislature to approve, appropriations for California Community Colleges programs or purposes.

(d) The board of governors shall develop the criteria and standards within the following statewide minimum requirements:

(1) The calculations of each community college district’s revenue level for each fiscal year shall be based on the level of general apportionment revenues, state and local, the community college district received for the prior year plus any amount attributed to a deficit from the adopted standards to be developed pursuant to this section, with revenue adjustments being made for increases or decreases in full-time equivalent students (FTES), for equalization of funding per credit FTES, for necessary alignment of funding per FTES between credit and noncredit programs, for inflation, and for other purposes authorized by law.

(2) Commencing with the 2006–07 fiscal year, the funding mechanism developed pursuant to this section shall recognize the need for community college districts to receive an annual allocation based on the number of colleges and comprehensive centers in the community college district. In addition to this basic allocation, the marginal amount of credit revenue allocated per FTES shall be funded at a rate not less than four thousand three hundred sixty-seven dollars ($4,367), as adjusted for the change in the cost of living in subsequent annual budget acts.

(A) To the extent that the Budget Act of 2006 contains an appropriation of one hundred fifty-nine million four hundred thirty-eight thousand dollars ($159,438,000) for community college equalization, the Legislature finds and declares that community college equalization for credit FTES has been effectively accomplished as of March 31, 2007.

(B) The chancellor shall develop criteria for the allocation of one-time grants for those community college districts that would have qualified for more equalization under prior law than pursuant to this section and the Budget Act of 2006, and for those community college districts that would have qualified for more funding under a proposed rural college access grant than pursuant to this section and the Budget Act of 2006, as determined by the chancellor. Appropriations for the one-time grants shall be provided pursuant to paragraph (24) of subdivision (a) of Section 43 of Chapter 79 of the Statutes of 2006.

(3) Noncredit instruction shall be funded at a uniform rate of two thousand six hundred twenty-six dollars ($2,626) per FTES, as adjusted for the change in the cost of living provided in subsequent annual budget acts.

(4) Funding for instruction in career development and college preparation, as authorized pursuant to Section 84760.5, shall be provided as follows:

(A) (i) Beginning in the 2006–07 fiscal year, career development and college preparation FTES may be funded at a rate of three thousand ninety-two dollars ($3,092) per FTES for courses in programs that conform to the requirements of Section 84760.5. This rate shall be adjusted for the change in the cost of living or as otherwise provided in subsequent annual budget acts.

(ii) Beginning in the 2015–16 fiscal year, career development and college preparation FTES shall be funded at the same level as the credit rate specified in paragraph (2). This rate shall be adjusted for the change in the cost of living or as otherwise provided in subsequent annual budget acts.

(iii) The Legislative Analyst shall report to the Legislature on or before March 1, 2017, regarding the change in funding specified in clause (ii), including whether community colleges offered additional classes or programs related to career development or college preparation, and whether there was any change in FTES.

(iv) (I) The requirement for submitting a report imposed under clause (iii) is inoperative on March 30, 2019, pursuant to Section 10231.5 of the Government Code.

(II) A report submitted pursuant to clause (iii) shall be submitted in compliance with Section 9795 of the Government Code.

(B) Changes in career development and college preparation FTES shall result in adjustments to revenues as follows:

(i) Increases in career development and college preparation FTES shall result in an increase in revenues in the year of the increase and at the average rate per career development and college preparation FTES, including any cost-of-living adjustment authorized by statute or by the annual Budget Act.

(ii) Decreases in career development and college preparation FTES shall result in a revenue reduction in the year following the decrease at the average rate per career development and college preparation FTES.

(5) Except as otherwise provided by statute, current categorical programs providing direct services to students, including extended opportunity programs and services, and disabled students programs and services, shall continue to be funded separately through the annual Budget Act, and shall not be assumed under the budget formula otherwise specified by this section.

(6) For credit and noncredit instruction, changes in FTES shall result in adjustments in community college district revenues as follows:

(A) Increases in FTES shall result in an increase in revenues in the year of the increase and at the amount per FTES provided for in paragraph (2) or (3), as appropriate, including any cost-of-living adjustment authorized by statute or by the annual Budget Act.

(B) Decreases in FTES shall result in revenue reductions beginning in the year following the initial year of decrease in FTES, and at the district’s marginal funding per FTES.

(C) Community college districts shall be entitled to the restoration of any reductions in apportionment revenue due to decreases in FTES during the three years following the initial year of decrease in FTES if there is a subsequent increase in FTES.

(7) Revenue adjustments shall be made to reflect cost changes, using the same inflation adjustment as required for school districts pursuant to paragraph (2) of subdivision (d) of Section 42238.02. These revenue adjustments shall be made to the college and center basic allocations, credit and noncredit FTES funding rates, and career development and college preparation FTES funding rates.

(8) The statewide requested increase in budgeted workload FTES shall be based, at a minimum, on the sum of the following computations:

(A) Determination of an equally weighted average of the rate of change in the state’s population of persons between 19 and 24 years of age and the rate of change in the state’s population of persons between 25 and 65 years of age, both as determined by the Department of Finance’s Demographic Research Unit as determined for the preceding fiscal year.

(B) To the extent the state’s unemployment rate exceeds 5 percent for the most recently completed fiscal year, that positive difference shall be added to the rate computed in subparagraph (A). In no event shall that positive difference exceed 2 percent.

(C) The chancellor may also add to the amounts calculated pursuant to subparagraphs (A) and (B) the number of FTES in the areas of transfer, vocational education, and basic skills that were unfunded in the current fiscal year. For this purpose, the following computation shall be determined for each community college district, and a statewide total shall be calculated:

(i) Establish the base level of FTES earned in the prior fiscal year for transfer courses consisting of courses meeting the California State University breadth or Intersegmental General Education Transfer Curriculum requirements or major course prerequisites accepted by the University of California or the California State University.

(ii) Establish the base level of FTES earned in the prior fiscal year for vocational education courses consisting of courses defined by the chancellor’s office Student Accountability Model codes A and B that are consistent with the courses used for measuring success in this program area under the accountability system established pursuant to Section 84754.5.

(iii) Establish the base level of FTES in the prior fiscal year for basic skills courses, both credit and noncredit.

(iv) Add the sum of FTES for clauses (i) to (iii), inclusive.

(v) Multiply the result of the calculation made under clause (iv) by one plus the community college district’s funded growth rate in the current fiscal year. This figure shall represent the maintenance of effort level for the budget year.

(vi) FTES in transfer, vocational education, and basic skills that are in excess of the total calculated pursuant to clause (v), shall be considered in excess of the maintenance of effort level, and shall be eligible for overcap growth funding if the community college district exceeds its overall funded FTES.

(vii) In no event shall the amount calculated pursuant to clause (vi) exceed the total unfunded FTES for that fiscal year. To the extent the computation specified in subdivision (c) requires the reporting of additional data by community college districts, that reporting shall be a condition of the receipt of apportionment for growth pursuant to this section and those funds shall be available to offset any and all costs of providing the data.

(9) Except as specifically provided in statute, regulations of the board of governors for determining and allocating the state general apportionment to the community college districts shall not require community college district governing boards to expend the allocated revenues in specified categories of operation or according to the workload measures developed by the board of governors.

(e) (1) The Chancellor of the California Community Colleges shall develop, and the board of governors shall adopt, a revised apportionment growth formula for use commencing with the 2015–16 fiscal year. The chancellor shall allocate apportionments pursuant to the revised formula only after the revised formula, and any formulas for adjustment pursuant to paragraph (2), have been adopted by the board of governors. The revised apportionment growth formula shall support the primary missions of the segment, and shall be based on each community’s need for access to the community colleges, as determined by local demographics. In developing the revised formula, the chancellor shall consider multiple factors in determining need; however, the primary factors shall be:

(A) (i) The number of persons under 25 years of age without a college degree, within a community college district’s boundaries, and the number of persons 25 to 64 years of age, inclusive, without a college degree, within a community college district’s boundaries.

(ii) Notwithstanding clause (i), the chancellor may use alternative age ranges depending on the availability of data.

(B) The number of persons who are unemployed, have limited English skills, who are in poverty, or who exhibit other signs of being disadvantaged, as determined by the chancellor, within a community college district’s boundaries.

(2) Beginning with the 2016–17 fiscal year, the chancellor shall adjust upward the need determination based on each community college’s effectiveness in serving residents of neighborhoods, within or outside of the community college district’s boundaries, that exhibit the highest levels of need in the state.

(3) The chancellor shall calculate each community college district’s proportionate share of the statewide need for access to the community colleges based on the application of this formula described in paragraph (1), as adjusted pursuant to paragraph (2).

(4) The chancellor shall calculate the difference between each community college district’s proportionate share of the statewide need for access to the community colleges, as calculated pursuant to paragraph (3), and its current proportionate share of statewide enrollment in the community colleges.

(5) (A) Until a community college district reaches its highest level of apportionment revenues previously received, its apportionment revenues shall be eligible to increase by the lesser of 1 percent of its current apportionment base, or one-half of the statewide growth allocation on a proportionate basis, regardless of need.

(B) After a community college district reaches its highest level of apportionment revenues previously received, it is eligible to increase its apportionment revenues by the lesser of one-half of 1 percent of its current apportionment base, or one-quarter of the statewide growth allocation on a proportionate basis, regardless of its need.

(6) The remainder of the apportionment growth funding shall be allocated to allow each community college district to grow its apportionment revenues based on its relative share of the difference between the amounts calculated in paragraph (4), up to a maximum of its apportionment base for the preceding fiscal year appropriate to ensure that community college district is advancing the primary missions of the segment. The maximum established by the chancellor shall not be less than 5 percent nor greater than 10 percent of a community college district’s apportionment base for the preceding fiscal year.

(7) Unless otherwise agreed upon by the board of governors, apportionment reductions shall be allocated proportionally based on the most recent levels of apportionment revenues.

(8) (A) It is the intent of the Legislature, consistent with direction provided in the 2014–15 Budget Act, that apportionment growth funding be expended for purposes of increasing the number of FTES in courses or programs that support the primary missions of the segment.

(B) (i) Notwithstanding Section 10231.5 of the Government Code, on or before October 15, 2015, and each year thereafter, the chancellor shall report to the Legislature on the course sections and FTES added at each community college that received apportionment growth funding in the prior fiscal year, including the number of course sections and if any course sections and FTES were added that are within the primary missions of the segment and those that are not within the primary missions of the segment.

(ii) A report submitted to the Legislature pursuant to clause (i) shall be submitted in compliance with Section 9795 of the Government Code.

(C) For purposes of this section, “primary missions of the segment” means credit courses and those noncredit courses specified in paragraphs (2) to (6), inclusive, of subdivision (a) of Section 84757.

(f) (1) It is the intent of the Legislature to allow for changes to the criteria and standards developed pursuant to subdivisions (a) to (d), inclusive, in order to recognize increased operating costs and to improve instruction.

(2) (A) If the annual Budget Act identifies funds appropriated specifically for the purposes of this subdivision, the chancellor shall adjust the budget request formula to allocate those funds without altering any of the adjustments described in subdivision (d). At least 30 days before allocating any state general apportionment revenues using a budget request formula revised pursuant to this subdivision, the chancellor shall submit to the Department of Finance and the Legislature a description of the specific adjustments made to the budget request formula.

(B) A report to the Legislature pursuant to subparagraph (A) shall be submitted in compliance with Section 9795 of the Government Code.

(g) Notwithstanding Subchapter 1 (commencing with Section 51000) of Chapter 2 of Division 6 of Title 5 of the California Code of Regulations and Section 84751, the chancellor shall allocate the ongoing funds first appropriated pursuant to paragraph (1) of subdivision (e) of provision 2 of Item 6870-101-0001 of Section 2.00 of the Budget Act of 2015 (Chapters 10 and 11, Statutes of 2015) to all community college districts, including districts that have offsetting local revenues that exceed the funding calculated pursuant to the district’s budget formula, on a per FTES basis by modifying each district’s budget formula pursuant to this section. Any revisions to the budget formula made for the purposes of this subdivision shall be made and reported consistent with the requirements of subdivision (f).

(h) Commencing with the 2018–19 fiscal year, this section shall only be used to allocate revenue pursuant to subparagraph (A) of paragraph (3) of subdivision (e) of Section 36 of Article XIII of the California Constitution, to compute allocations for noncredit instruction and career development and college FTES, and to compute allocations to community college districts for fiscal years prior to the 2018–19 fiscal year.

84760.5.

 (a) For purposes of this chapter, the following career development and college preparation courses and classes for which credit is not given, and that are offered in a sequence of courses leading to a certificate of completion, that lead to improved employability or job placement opportunities, or to a certificate of competency in a recognized career field by articulating with college-level coursework, completion of an associate of arts degree, or for transfer to a four-year degree program, are eligible for funding subject to subdivision (b):

(1) Classes and courses in elementary and secondary basic skills.

(2) Classes and courses for students, eligible for educational services in workforce preparation classes, in the basic skills of speaking, listening, reading, writing, mathematics, decisionmaking, and problem solving skills that are necessary to participate in job-specific technical training.

(3) Short-term vocational programs with high employment potential, as determined by the chancellor in consultation with the Employment Development Department utilizing job demand data provided by that department.

(4) Classes and courses in English as a second language and vocational English as a second language.

(b) The board of governors shall adopt criteria and standards for the identification of career development and college preparation courses and the eligibility of these courses for funding, including the definition of courses eligible for funding pursuant to subdivision (a). The criteria and standards shall be based on recommendations from the chancellor, the statewide academic senate, and the statewide association of chief instructional officers. The career and college preparation courses to be identified for this higher rate of funding should include suitable courses that meet one or more of the qualifications described in subdivision (a).

(c) A district that offers courses described in subdivision (a), but that is not eligible for funding under subdivision (b), shall be eligible for funding under Section 84757.

(d) The chancellor, in consultation with the Department of Finance and the Office of the Legislative Analyst, shall develop specific outcome measures for career development and college preparation courses for incorporation into the annual report required by subdivision (b) of Section 84754.5.

(e) The chancellor shall prepare and submit to the Department of Finance and the Legislature, on or before November 1 of each year, a report that details, at a minimum, the following:

(1) The amount of FTES claimed by each community college district for career development and college preparation courses and classes.

(2) The specific certificate programs and course titles of career development and college preparation courses and classes receiving additional funding pursuant to this section, as well as the number of those courses and classes receiving additional funding.

88671.

 (a) The chancellor shall award grants to be expended over a six-year period, to applicants that meet, at a minimum, all of the following conditions:

(1) Applicants are parties to an approved College and Career Access Pathways (CCAP) partnership pursuant to Section 76004 of the Education Code that will govern the delivery of the academic program to students and allocation of funding between the local educational agency and the community college district.

(2) Applicants shall demonstrate that the curriculum in grades 9 to 14, inclusive, shall lead to an associate in science degree in a high-tech field or an associate degree for transfer in a STEM field.

(3) Applicants have a signed memorandum of understanding between the CCAP partnership and one or more private businesses in technology, manufacturing, or health care that obligates the businesses to all of the following:

(A) Committing to place every student who successfully completes the program first in line for a job.

(B) Identifying a mentor for every participating student.

(C) Creating an up-to-date skills map for the industry or sector that identifies essential job requirements.

(D) Collaborating with the CCAP partnership to identify the postsecondary two-year degree that will ensure participating students meet industry expectations and to validate the proposed scope and sequence.

(E) Providing workplace visits, speakers, internships, and apprenticeships for participating students.

(F) Collaborating with the CCAP partnership staff to align technical skills and workplace competencies with curriculum, course offerings, and other resources.

(G) Providing dedicated staff to work on the initiative, including an industry liaison who has the authority to coordinate with the CCAP partnership on the business partners’ behalf.

(4) Students will attend classes from grades 9 to 14, inclusive, on a single campus.

(b) The chancellor shall prioritize applicants that will serve students who:

(1) Have been identified as academically or economically at risk for not successfully completing high school or not enrolling in, or succeeding in, college.

(2) Belong to populations that have historically not had access to, or success in, higher education, such as students with disabilities or English language learners.

(c) The chancellor shall award grants in a geographically diverse manner, to the extent possible, and shall not award more than one grant per county.

(d) The chancellor shall require applicants to submit enrollment, performance, and employment data.

(e) The chancellor shall develop and provide guidance to the program, including, but not limited to, appropriate uses of program funds and the manner in which the program will report data to meet the requirements of subdivision (h).

(f) The chancellor shall develop a request for proposal (RFP) process to determine grant awardees. The RFP process shall comply with the requirements of this section.

(g) For the purposes of this section, an applicant is comprised of a regional consortium that includes one or more of each of the following:

(1) A school district or charter school.

(2) A community college district.

(h) No later than January 10, 2025, the chancellor shall submit a report to the Director of Finance and the appropriate budget and policy committees of the Legislature. The report shall include, but not necessarily be limited to, the following:

(1) The degree to which grant recipients achieved the objectives in subdivision (a).

(2) The number and percentage of students enrolled in the program who earned a two-year associates degree within four, five, and six years.

(3) The number and percentage of students enrolled in the program who earned an industry-recognized certificate or credential within four, five, and six years.

(4) The number and percentage of students enrolled in the program who gained full-time employment in their area of study or training upon completion of the program.

(5) A range of the starting salaries of program graduates that gained full-time employment.

(6) The number and percentage of students enrolled in the program that enrolled in a four-year degree program upon completion of the program.

(7) It is the intent of the Legislature that the report disaggregate results by student subgroup as identified by Section 52052.

(i) For purposes of making the computations required by Section 8 of Article XVI of the California Constitution, the appropriations made by subdivision (a) shall be deemed to be “General Fund revenues appropriated for community college districts,” as defined in subdivision (d) of Section 41202, for the 2017–18 fiscal year, and included within the “total allocations to school districts and community college districts from General Fund proceeds of taxes appropriated pursuant to Article XIII B,” as defined in subdivision (e) of Section 41202, for the 2017–18 fiscal year.

88821.

 (a) The Legislature finds and declares all of the following:

(1) California’s economic competitiveness is fueled, in part, by the strength of its regional economies and its skilled workforce.

(2) Upward social and economic mobility helps keep the state’s economy diversified and vibrant.

(3) The attainment of industry-valued “middle skill credentials” serves as a gateway for a large and diverse number of careers in the state’s economy.

(4) California’s local educational agencies, community college districts, interested public four-year universities, local workforce development boards, economic development and industry leaders, and local civic representatives should collaboratively work together to inform the offerings of courses, programs, pathways, and workforce development opportunities that enable students to access the current and future job market and further social and economic mobility.

(b) The Strong Workforce Program is hereby established as a K–14 state education, economic, and workforce development initiative for the purpose of expanding the availability of high-quality, industry-valued career technical education and workforce development courses, programs, pathways, credentials, certificates, and degrees.

(c) To facilitate program coordination and alignment with other workforce training, education, and employment services in the state, the Strong Workforce Program shall operate in a manner that complies with the California Strategic Workforce Development Plan, required pursuant to the federal Workforce Innovation and Opportunity Act (Public Law 113-128), and expand upon existing consortia infrastructure.

(d) To avoid duplication of effort, activities funded under the Strong Workforce Program shall be informed by, aligned with, and expand upon the activities of existing workforce and education regional partnerships, including those partnership activities that pertain to regional planning efforts established pursuant to the federal Workforce Innovation and Opportunity Act (Public Law 113-128), adult education block grant consortia, and other career technical education programs.

(e) All of the following guiding principles apply to each consortium participating in the Strong Workforce Program:

(1) Any community college district or local educational agency participating in the consortium shall ensure that its career technical education and workforce development courses, credentials, certificates, degrees, programs, and pathway offerings, as applicable, are responsive to the needs of employers, workers, civic leaders, and students.

(2) The consortium shall collaborate with other public institutions, including, but not limited to, adult education consortia, local workforce development boards, and interested California State University and University of California institutions.

(3) The consortium shall collaborate with civic representatives, representatives from the labor community, and economic development and industry sector leaders within the region.

(4) The consortium shall include collaborating entities and persons identified in this subdivision in planning meetings, provide them with adequate notice of the consortium’s proposed decisions, and solicit, consider, and respond to comments from them regarding the consortium’s proposed decisions.

(5) Collaborative efforts shall focus upon evidence-based decisionmaking and student success with workforce outcomes aligned with the performance accountability measures of the federal Workforce Innovation and Opportunity Act (Public Law 113-128), and closing labor market and employment gaps. Each consortium shall strive to align programmatic offerings in the most effective and efficient manner to avoid duplication of effort and streamline access to services, and education and training opportunities.

(6) Community college districts, local educational agencies, and other entities participating in a consortium are encouraged to develop long-term partnerships with private sector employers and labor partners to provide coordinated courses, programs, and pathways with employer involvement in the assessment, planning, and development of career technical education courses, programs, and pathways. To the extent practicable, employer partnerships should build upon regional partnerships formed pursuant to the federal Workforce Innovation and Opportunity Act (Public Law 113-128) and other state or federal programs.

(7) Community college districts, local educational agencies, and other entities participating in a consortium are encouraged to develop and work closely with public and private organizations that offer workforce development programs and pathways to individuals with autism and other developmental disabilities to provide a comprehensive approach to address workforce readiness and employment.

(f) The chancellor’s office shall, in consultation with the California Workforce Development Board, the Academic Senate for California Community Colleges, and its partners formed pursuant to the federal Workforce Innovation and Opportunity Act (Public Law 113-128), as applicable, develop and implement policies and guidance necessary to implement the Community College component of the Strong Workforce Program, including policies and guidance necessary for consortia, including community college districts and their regional partners, to increase the number of aligned middle skill and career technical education courses, programs, pathways, credentials, certificates, and degrees. No later than June 30, 2017, the chancellor’s office shall develop and implement policies and guidance pursuant to this subdivision and bring before the Board of Governors of the California Community Colleges any policies, regulations, and guidance necessary to accomplish all of the following:

(1) Facilitate the development, implementation, and sharing of career technical education effective practices, curriculum models and courses, and community college credentials, certificates, degrees, and programs across regions and among community college districts.

(2) Enable community college districts to develop career technical education and workforce outcomes, and applicable associate degrees and certificates as appropriate.

(3) Provide accessible performance and labor market data that can be used flexibly by participating community college districts and their regional partners to support the implementation of the Strong Workforce Program and related efforts to align regional workforce and education programming with regional labor market needs.

(4) Encourage local efficiency through coordinated and collaborative regional workforce efforts in which community college districts are partners.

(5) Support curriculum processes to ensure that students are able to efficiently transfer college-level career technical education credits across community college districts and to the California State University and the University of California.

(6) Improve sector-based engagement with employers within a region.

(7) Provide, in partnership with employers, work-based learning opportunities for students that increase their employability and earning potential.

(8) Enable community college districts to facilitate and optimize their resources to support the Strong Workforce Program and other related regional workforce development efforts.

(9) Ensure that community college district Strong Workforce Program expenditures are focused on improving student success with workforce outcomes for all students enrolled in community college career technical education courses, programs, and pathways.

(10) (A) For the Community College component only, notwithstanding the June 30, 2017, implementation date specified in this subdivision, develop and implement a plan to streamline the course and curriculum approval process, both at the state and local levels. The plan shall reflect an expedited state approval process for career technical education courses, programs, and certificates, and may include the elimination of an existing state course and program approval process. The plan shall reflect one of the following two options:

(i) A process of course and curriculum approval that enables community college districts to develop a course or program within one academic year and to offer that course or program the subsequent academic year.

(ii) A process of course and curriculum approval that enables community college districts to develop a course or program within one academic semester and to offer that course or program the subsequent academic semester.

(B) The plan described in subparagraph (A) shall also reflect the creation of a process that enables career technical education courses and programs to be portable among community college districts. This process shall enable a community college district to adapt, adopt, or adapt and adopt another community college district’s approved career technical education courses, programs, and curriculum within one academic semester and to offer that course or program, or utilize that curriculum, the subsequent academic semester.

(C) The chancellor’s office shall consult with the Legislature and the Governor prior to implementing the plan. The plan shall be developed no later than July 1, 2017, and implemented no later than January 1, 2018.

(11) Eliminate barriers to hiring qualified instructors for career technical education courses, including reevaluating the required minimum qualifications for career technical education instructors.

(g) After June 30, 2017, and only as necessary, the chancellor’s office may develop and implement revised polices and guidance for the Community College component only, and bring regulations before the Board of Governors of the California Community Colleges as necessary for a community college district and its regional partners to accomplish both of the following:

(1) Implement and expand the amount of aligned middle skill and career technical education credentials, certificates, degrees, courses, programs, and pathways in accordance with paragraphs (1) to (11), inclusive, of subdivision (f).

(2) Implement the recommendations of the Strong Workforce Task Force.

(h) (1) For purposes of this section, the chancellor’s office shall consider input provided by relevant stakeholders, including the Academic Senate of the California Community Colleges, the Workforce Pathways Joint Advisory Committee, and the California Workforce Development Board, before implementing revised guidance, policies, or regulatory changes for the Community College component.

(2) For purposes of the Community College component and in compliance with the consultation requirements in Sections 70901 and 70902, the Academic Senate of the California Community Colleges shall establish a career technical education subcommittee to provide recommendations on career technical education issues. No less than 70 percent of the subcommittee shall consist of career technical education faculty. The subcommittee’s charter shall require it to provide assistance to community college districts to ensure that career technical education and its instruction is responsive and aligned to current and emergent industry trends, and ensure that similar courses, programs, and degrees are portable among community college districts.

88823.

 (a) This section applies to the Community College component only.

(b) Commencing July 1, 2017, as a condition of receipt of funds allocated pursuant to Section 88825 for a fiscal year, each consortium, in consultation with collaborating entities identified in paragraph (2) of subdivision (e) of Section 88821, shall submit a plan to the chancellor’s office that has been updated for that fiscal year.

(c) The plan pursuant to subdivision (b) shall include all of the following requirements:

(1) The names of the community college districts participating in the consortium, including the name of the community college identified as the consortium’s fiscal agent, and the names of entities collaborating pursuant to paragraph (2) of subdivision (e) of Section 88821.

(2) The governance model for the consortium. Decisions governing, or relating to, the distribution of fiscal resources shall be determined exclusively by the community college districts participating in the consortium.

(3) An analysis of regional labor market needs informed by a federal Workforce Innovation and Opportunity Act (Public Law 113-128) economic analysis and other sources as applicable. This analysis shall also include wage data for each industry sector or labor market need identified.

(4) An inventory of regionally prioritized and locally prioritized projects and programs that close relevant labor market and employment gaps.

(5) Measurable regional goals that align with the performance accountability measures of the federal Workforce Innovation and Opportunity Act (Public Law 113-128).

(6) For regionally prioritized projects and programs, a work plan, spending plan, and budget. The work plan, spending plan, and budget shall identify the amount of funding allocated for one-time and ongoing expenditures.

(7) A description of the alignment of work plans, spending plans, and other education and workforce plans guiding services in the region, including plans pertaining to the building of career pathways and the employment of workforce sector strategies and those plans required pursuant to the federal Workforce Innovation and Opportunity Act (Public Law 113-128).

(d) Each consortium shall submit a plan by January 31 once every four years and shall annually update the plan by January 31 of each year until the next new plan is submitted.

(e) The chancellor’s office shall review the plans on a four-year cycle and ensure that annual updates are made by each consortium. The chancellor’s office shall determine if each consortium has made significant progress in meeting the goals and measures outlined in its plan, and provide technical assistance to a consortium that has not met its goals. The chancellor’s office is encouraged to provide technical assistance pursuant to this subdivision through the Institutional Effectiveness Partnership Initiative.

(f) To avoid duplication of effort, plans developed pursuant to this section shall be informed by, aligned with, and expand upon regional plans and planning efforts established pursuant to the federal Workforce Innovation and Opportunity Act (Public Law 113-128).

(g) Community college districts participating in a consortium shall utilize their region’s plan to inform local campus planning efforts to implement career technical education courses, programs, and pathways and integrate available local, regional, state, and nonpublic resources to ensure that students will achieve successful workforce outcomes.

(h) Community college districts shall meet with the members of their consortium not less than annually to inform on the delivery of career technical education and workforce development courses, programs, and pathways within the region.

(i) Each region’s plan shall be for the primary purpose of informing the development of strategies related to career technical education and workforce development courses, programs, and pathways. Each region’s plan shall reflect strategies to efficiently and effectively utilize any available public and private resources, including funds for the Career Technical Education Pathways Program established in Part 52 (commencing with Section 88530), in a manner that better aligns career technical education courses, programs, and pathways with the needs of their regional economies.

(j) It is the intent of the Legislature to align community college career technical education programs within the Strong Workforce Program. Staff from the chancellor’s office, the Legislative Analyst’s Office, and the Department of Finance are requested to investigate the potential consolidation of community college career technical education programs within the Strong Workforce Program.

88827.

 (a) This section applies to the K–12 component only.

(b) Commencing with the 2018–19 fiscal year, the amount appropriated in the annual Budget Act for the K–12 component of the Strong Workforce Program is provided to create, support, or expand high-quality career technical education programs at the K–12 level that are aligned with the workforce development efforts occurring through the Strong Workforce Program.

(c) (1) Pursuant to subdivision (b), one hundred fifty million dollars ($150,000,000) shall be apportioned by the chancellor’s office to the fiscal agent of each consortium based on the following weighted factors in each region:

(A) The unemployment rate. This factor shall comprise 33 percent of the allocation formula.

(B) The region’s total average daily attendance for pupils in grades 7 to 12, inclusive. This factor shall comprise 33 percent of the allocation formula. For purposes of this section, average daily attendance shall be those figures that are reported at the time of the second principal apportionment for the previous fiscal year.

(C) The proportion of projected job openings. This factor shall comprise 34 percent of the allocation formula.

(2) Of the amounts apportioned to each consortium pursuant to paragraph (1), 4 percent is designated for applicants with total average daily attendance of less than or equal to 140, 8 percent is designated for applicants with total average daily attendance of more than 140 and less than or equal to 550, and 88 percent is designated for applicants with total average daily attendance of more than 550, unless otherwise determined by the K–12 Selection Committee formed pursuant to Section 88829, in consultation with the consortium. For any applicant consisting of more than one school district, county office of education, charter school, or regional occupational center or program operated by a joint powers authority, or any combination of those entities, the sum of the average daily attendance for each of the constituent entities shall be used for purposes of this subdivision.

(3) The chancellor’s office shall provide to the Superintendent of Public Instruction, the Department of Finance, and the Legislative Analyst a schedule of proposed allocations, as determined pursuant to paragraph (1), for each consortium no later than August 30 of each year. The Department of Finance shall approve the allocation plan before the release of funding.

(d) Funds appropriated in the annual Budget Act to support consortia administrative costs shall be apportioned by the chancellor’s office in an amount equal to 1 percent of each consortium’s K–12 allocation pursuant to this section to support the costs to administer the regional grant process and to support the duties of the K–12 Selection Committee.

88828.

 This section applies to the K–12 component only. Each consortium shall administer a competitive grant program to distribute funding allocated pursuant to subdivision (c) of Section 88827 to eligible grant recipients. Consortia are encouraged to collaboratively develop a uniform grant application process that includes a process for grant renewals and for a grant applicant to appeal a grant award decision of the K–12 Selection Committee. As part of the application process, each consortium shall ask applicants to indicate whether they have received a grant under the California Career Technical Education Incentive Grant Program established pursuant to Chapter 16.5 (commencing with Section 53070) of Part 28 of Division 4 of Title 2. For each fiscal year, the chancellor’s office shall work with the State Department of Education to produce a list of grant recipients that receive funding under this program as well as through the California Career Technical Education Incentive Grant Program, including the grant amounts awarded through each program and the purpose for which each grant was awarded. Local educational agencies applying to receive a grant from a consortium shall comply with all of the following:

(a) The local educational agency shall be located within the geographical boundaries of the consortium, and engage in regional efforts to align workforce, employment, and education services.

(b) The local educational agency shall use its consortium’s plan developed pursuant to Section 88823 to inform their efforts to create, support, implement, or expand upon career technical education courses, course sequences, programs, and pathways, and to the extent possible, integrate available local, regional, state, and private resources to improve the successful outcomes of pupils enrolled in career technical education courses, course sequences, programs, and pathways. To the extent an applicant’s career technical education program, or programs, offered in the 2018–19 fiscal year do not align with its consortium’s plan developed pursuant to Section 88823, the applicant shall be deemed to meet this requirement by including in its grant application the steps that it will take during the 2018–19 fiscal year to align its career technical education program, or programs, with its consortium’s plan.

(c) (1) The local educational agency shall provide matching funds for any grant funding received from this program as follows:

(A) For regional occupational centers or programs operated by a joint powers authority, one dollar ($1) for every one dollar ($1) received from this program.

(B) For local educational agencies, two dollars ($2) for every one dollar ($1) received from this program.

(2) The local match may include funding from school district and charter school local control funding formula apportionments pursuant to Section 42238.02, the federal Carl D. Perkins Career and Technical Education Improvement Act of 2006 (20 U.S.C. Sec. 2301 et seq.), or its successor, the partnership academies program pursuant to Article 5 (commencing with Section 54690) of Chapter 9 of Part 29 of Division 4 of Title 2, the agricultural career technical education incentive program pursuant to Article 7.5 (commencing with Section 52460) of Chapter 9 of Part 28 of Division 4 of Title 2, or any other source, except as provided in paragraph (3).

(3) The local match described in this subdivision shall not include any funding received by the applicant from the California Career Pathways Trust established pursuant to Section 53010, or the California Career Technical Education Incentive Grant Program established pursuant to Section 53070.

(4) An applicant’s matching funds shall be used to support the program, or programs, for which the applicant was awarded a grant.

(d) The applicant, or the applicant’s career technical education program, as applicable, shall meet all of the following minimum eligibility standards:

(1) Is informed by, aligned with, and expands upon regional plans and planning efforts occurring through the Strong Workforce Program.

(2) Offers high-quality curriculum and instruction aligned with the California Career Technical Education Model Curriculum Standards adopted by the State Board of Education pursuant to Section 51226, including, but not limited to, providing a coherent sequence of career technical education courses that enable pupils to transition to postsecondary education or training programs that lead to a career pathway or attain employment upon graduation from high school.

(3) Provides pupils with quality career exploration and guidance.

(4) Provides pupil support services, including, but not limited to, counseling and leadership development.

(5) Provides opportunities for pupils to participate in after school, extended-day, and out-of-school internships, competitions, and other work-based learning opportunities.

(6) Leads to an industry-recognized credential or certificate, appropriate postsecondary training or employment, or a postsecondary degree.

(7) Is staffed by skilled teachers or faculty and provides professional development opportunities for those teachers or faculty members.

(8) (A) Reports data that can be used by policymakers, local educational agencies, community college districts, and their regional partners to support and evaluate the program, including, to the extent possible, demographic data used to evaluate progress in closing equity gaps in program access and completion, and earnings of underserved demographic groups.

(B) Data reported pursuant to this paragraph shall include, but is not limited to, metrics aligned with the core metrics required by the federal Workforce Innovation and Opportunity Act (Public Law 113-128), the College/Career Indicator included in the California School Dashboard, and the quality indicators described in the California State Plan for Career Technical Education required by the federal Carl D. Perkins Career and Technical Education Improvement Act of 2006 (20 U.S.C. Sec. 2301 et seq.), or its successor, and the following metrics:

(i) The number of pupils completing high school.

(ii) The number of pupils completing career technical education coursework.

(iii) The number of pupils obtaining an industry-recognized credential, certificate, license, or other measure of technical skill attainment.

(iv) The number of former pupils employed and the types of businesses in which they are employed.

(v) The number of former pupils enrolled in each of the following:

(I) A postsecondary educational institution, disaggregated by public, private nonprofit, and private for-profit institutions.

(II) A state apprenticeship program.

(III) Another form of job training.

(C) No later than November 30 of each fiscal year, the Workforce Pathways Joint Advisory Committee established pursuant to Section 12053 shall review the data metrics specified in subparagraph (B) and make recommendations to the fiscal and appropriate policy committees of both houses of the Legislature and to the Department of Finance as to whether they are the most appropriate metrics to measure and evaluate program outcomes for both new and renewal applicants, and whether other metrics should be included.

(D) Data collected pursuant to this section shall be reported by the grant recipient to the State Department of Education and their K–14 Technical Assistance Provider by November 1 immediately following the fiscal year for which the data is being reported. The K–14 Technical Assistance Provider shall annually notify the K–12 Selection Committee in each region of any grant recipient that fails to provide the required outcome data. The K–12 Selection Committee, in consultation with the consortium, may terminate or rescind contracts and grants from grantees that fail to provide the required outcome-based data pursuant to this paragraph.

(E) The State Department of Education shall make the data reported pursuant to subparagraph (D) available to the chancellor’s office on a date to be jointly determined by the State Department of Education and the chancellor’s office, to ensure the data is included on the California Community Colleges LaunchBoard data platform.

(F) No later than January 31, 2024, and on or before January 31 every five years thereafter, the State Department of Education shall submit a report, pursuant to Section 53076.5 and this section, to the Department of Finance, the Governor, and the appropriate policy and fiscal committees of the Legislature evaluating the progress that local educational agencies have made in expanding the availability of high-quality, industry-valued career technical education and workforce development opportunities; improving coordination and alignment with postsecondary educational institutions and workforce agencies and programs; and, to the extent possible, the progress in closing equity gaps in program access and completion.

88829.

 (a) For purposes of awarding grants under the K–12 component of the Strong Workforce Program, each consortium shall form a K–12 Selection Committee made up of individuals with expertise in K–12 career technical education and workforce development. The K–12 Selection Committee membership shall be composed of all of the following:

(1) Current or former K–12 career technical education teachers and administrators.

(2) Charter school representatives, including representatives of charter schools operating pursuant to subdivision (a) of Section 47612.1.

(3) Career guidance counselors.

(4) Representatives of industries that are prioritized by the consortium.

(5) At least one community college faculty or administrator.

(6) Other K–12 education stakeholders, or other stakeholders, as determined by the consortium.

(b) The K–14 Technical Assistance Provider in each consortium shall serve as a consultant to the K–12 Selection Committee.

(c) (1) Decisions governing, or relating to, the distribution of fiscal resources for the K–12 component shall be made exclusively by the K–12 Selection Committee, including selection of grant recipients and specific funding amounts for each grant.

(2) The K–12 Selection Committee shall annually notify the Superintendent of Public Instruction, the State Board of Education, the Department of Finance, and the fiscal and appropriate policy committees of both houses of the Legislature of the amount awarded to each grant recipient and the activities to be supported by the grant.

(d) To be eligible to receive a grant, a local educational agency with a representative on the K–12 Selection Committee shall maintain appropriate and transparent internal controls and processes to ensure that the local educational agency representative’s duties and responsibilities are clearly delineated, identified, and distinguished from the duties and responsibilities conferred upon the local educational agency as a grant applicant and recipient.

89007.7.

 (a) The Legislature finds and declares both of the following:

(1) That the California State University Early Start Program was adopted pursuant to Executive Order No. 1048 at the May 2010 meeting of the Trustees of the California State University (CSU) with the stated goal of facilitating a student’s graduation through changes in policies on fulfilling entry-level proficiencies in mathematics and English.

(2) That the Office of the Chancellor of the California State University issued Executive Order No. 1110 in August 2017, which makes significant changes to the California State University’s assessment and placement policies and remediation-related strategies in mathematics and English, including the California State University Early Start Program.

(b) On January 1, 2014, the Legislative Analyst’s Office, in consultation with CSU, shall submit a report to the Legislature detailing the impact of the CSU Early Start Program on student mathematics and English proficiency. The report to the Legislature required by this subdivision shall include, but not necessarily be limited to, all of the following:

(1) Information on how the CSU Early Start Program increases successful remediation rates as compared to the remediation rates that existed in the 2010–11 academic year.

(2) Information on how the CSU Early Start Program expedites the student remediation process, or otherwise reduces the length of time that students spend on remediation.

(3) Demographic information on participants in the CSU Early Start Program, including information relating to race or ethnicity, eligibility for financial aid, geographic origins, and other pertinent data.

(4) The number of enrollees in the CSU Early Start Program, counted statewide and by campus, including the number who eventually earned credit from the program.

(5) As observed one year after participating in the CSU Early Start Program, counted statewide and by campus, how many enrollees became proficient, how many enrollees did not remediate successfully, and how many enrollees were disenrolled from CSU.

(c) By December 1, 2021, the Legislative Analyst’s Office shall submit a report to the Legislature detailing the impact of policy changes required pursuant to California State University Executive Order No. 1110, including changes in the proportion and number of incoming freshmen who have been identified as in need of remediation, and the proportion and number who have persisted at the university past their freshman year, and the proportion and number who have graduated from the university.

(d) This section shall become inoperative on July 1, 2021, and, as of January 1, 2022, is repealed.

92162.

 (a) The University of California, San Francisco, San Joaquin Valley Regional Campus Medical Education Endowment Fund is hereby established in the State Treasury. Funds received by the University of California or the Controller, for the purposes set forth in subdivision (b), shall be deposited into the University of California, San Francisco, San Joaquin Valley Regional Campus Medical Education Endowment Fund. For purposes of this article, “endowment fund” means the University of California, San Francisco, San Joaquin Valley Regional Campus Medical Education Endowment Fund.

(b) Moneys in the endowment fund shall be allocated to the University of California, upon appropriation by the Legislature, to support the annual operating costs for the development, operation, and maintenance of a branch campus of the University of California, San Francisco, School of Medicine in the San Joaquin Valley, and to generate funding through investment earnings for the support of medical education in the San Joaquin Valley.

(c) (1) Moneys in the endowment fund shall initially be invested with the goal of achieving capital appreciation to create a balance sufficient to generate ongoing earnings to cover the estimated annual operating costs associated with the development, operation, and maintenance of a branch campus of the University of California, San Francisco, School of Medicine in the San Joaquin Valley. The balance of the endowment fund shall not be deemed sufficient until a balance of five hundred million dollars ($500,000,000) is achieved and maintained in the endowment fund.

(2) Upon the determination of the Controller, in consultation with the University of California, that the endowment fund balance has attained the goal established in paragraph (1), moneys in the endowment fund shall be invested to generate earnings to fund annual operating costs associated with the development, operation, and maintenance of a branch campus of the University of California, San Francisco, School of Medicine in the San Joaquin Valley. Moneys shall be invested in a manner that best meets the goals of the endowment fund.

(d) The endowment fund may receive donations and contributions from public and private entities, partnerships between public and private entities, fees, cash advances, and transfers from the General Fund as may be specified by law.

(e) Earnings generated by the endowment fund shall be retained by the endowment fund.

(f) Moneys deposited in the endowment fund are exempt from the requirements of Sections 11270 to 11275, inclusive, of the Government Code.

99151.

 (a) “Admissions data assembly service” means any summary or report of grades, grade point averages, standardized test scores, or any combination of grades and test scores, of a test subject used by any test score recipient.

(b) “Standardized test” or “test” means any test administered in California at the expense of the test subject which is used for the purposes of admission to, or class placement in, postsecondary educational institutions or their programs, or any test used for preliminary preparation for those tests.

“Standardized test” or “test” includes, but is not limited to, the Preliminary Scholastic Aptitude Test, the Scholastic Aptitude Test, the College Board Achievement Tests and Advanced Placement Tests, the ACT Assessment, the Graduate Record Examination, the Medical College Admission Test, the Law School Admission Test, the Dental Admission Testing Program, the Graduate Management Admission Test, and the Miller Analogies Test.

The standardized test does not include a test, or part of a test, which has been in use for less than five years, or which is administered to a selected group of individuals principally for research, pretest, equating, guidance, counseling, or for the purposes of meeting graduation requirements of secondary schools and postsecondary educational institutions.

Tests which are administered as supplements or auxiliaries to another test, or which form a specialized component of a test, may be combined for the purposes of this chapter.

(c) “Secure test” means any test which contains items not available to the public and which, to allow the further use of test items and to protect the validity and reliability of the test, is subject to special security procedures in its publication, distribution, and administration.

(d) “Test subject” or “subject” means an individual who takes a standardized test.

(e) “Test sponsor” or “test agency” means an individual, partnership, corporation, association, company, firm, institution, society, trust, or joint stock company which develops, sponsors, or administers standardized tests.

(f) “Testing year” means the 12 calendar months which the test agency considers either its operational cycle or its fiscal year.

(g) “Test score” or “score” means the value given to the test subject’s performance on a standardized test, administered by the test agency, whether reported in numerical, percentile, or any other form.

(h) “Test score recipient” means any person, organization, association, corporation, postsecondary education institution, or governmental agency or subdivision to which the test subject requests or designates that a test agency report a test score.

(i) “Score reporting service” means the reporting of a test subject’s standardized score to a test score recipient by a test agency.

(j) “Test preparation course” means any curriculum, course of study, plan of instruction, or method of preparation given for a fee which is specifically designed or constructed to prepare or improve a test subject’s score on a standardized test.

(k) “Test program” means all of the administrations of a test of the same name during a testing year.

3019.5.

 (a) A county elections official shall establish a free access system that allows a vote by mail voter to learn if the voter’s vote by mail ballot was counted and, if not, the reason why the ballot was not counted. For each election, the elections official shall make the free access system available to a vote by mail voter upon completion of the official canvass and for 30 days after completion of the official canvass.

(b) For purposes of establishing the free access system for vote by mail ballots required by subdivision (a), a county elections official may use the free access system for provisional ballots established by the county pursuant to Section 302 of the federal Help America Vote Act of 2002 (52 U.S.C. Sec. 21082).

(c) If a county elections official elects not to mail a county voter information guide to a voter pursuant to Section 13305, the elections official shall use any savings achieved to offset the costs associated with establishing the free access system for vote by mail ballots required by subdivision (a).

6768.

 The declaration of a candidate for delegate shall be in substantially the following form:

I desire to be a candidate, at the presidential primary to be held on
the ____ day of ____, 20_, for delegate to the next national
convention of the ____ Party with which the Peace and Freedom
Party of California is affiliated on the national level and I will qualify
as a delegate if elected.

I personally prefer ____ as the nominee of the Peace and
Freedom Party for President of the United States, and hereby declare
to the voters of the Peace and Freedom Party in the State of
California that if elected as delegate to the national party convention,
I shall to the best of my judgment and ability, support ____ as the
nominee of the Peace and Freedom Party for President of the United
States. (This statement of preference shall be omitted where the
candidate for delegate is part of a group not expressing a preference
for a particular presidential candidate.)

I declare under penalty of perjury that the foregoing is true and
correct.

Executed at ______, California, this ____ day of ____,
20_.

_____ (Signed)

8106.5.

 (a) Notwithstanding paragraph (3) of subdivision (b) of Section 8106, if the last day to file in-lieu-filing-fee petitions pursuant to that paragraph for a special election to fill a vacancy occurs before the vacancy begins, or before the Governor calls the special election by issuing a proclamation pursuant to Section 10700, the following apply:

(1) If the nomination period for the special election is 12 days or more, the in-lieu-filing-fee petitions shall be filed at least nine days before the close of the nomination period. Within three days after receipt of a petition, the elections official shall notify the candidate of any deficiency. The candidate shall then, at the time of obtaining nomination forms, pay a pro rata portion of the filing fee to cover the deficiency.

(2) If the nomination period for the special election is 11 days or less, the Secretary of State shall set the time for filing in-lieu-filing-fee petitions and the time by which the elections official shall notify the candidate of any deficiency. If there is a deficiency, the candidate shall, at the time of obtaining nomination forms, pay a pro rata portion of the filing fee to cover the deficiency.

(b) If the number of days for a candidate to collect signatures on a petition in lieu of a filing fee for a special election that is held to fill a vacancy is less than the number of days that a candidate would have to collect signatures on a petition for a regular election for the same office, the elections official shall reduce the required number of signatures for the petition, as specified in subdivision (a) of Section 8106, by the same proportion as the reduction in time for the candidate to collect signatures.

(c) Notwithstanding subdivision (b), the number of signatures required on an in-lieu-filing-fee petition for a special election held to fill a vacancy in the office of Representative in Congress, State Senator, or Member of the Assembly shall be not less than 100.

10010.

 (a) A political subdivision that changes from an at-large method of election to a district-based election, or that establishes district-based elections, shall do all of the following before a public hearing at which the governing body of the political subdivision votes to approve or defeat an ordinance establishing district-based elections:

(1) Before drawing a draft map or maps of the proposed boundaries of the districts, the political subdivision shall hold at least two public hearings over a period of no more than 30 days, at which the public is invited to provide input regarding the composition of the districts. Before these hearings, the political subdivision may conduct outreach to the public, including to non-English-speaking communities, to explain the districting process and to encourage public participation.

(2) After all draft maps are drawn, the political subdivision shall publish and make available for release at least one draft map and, if members of the governing body of the political subdivision will be elected in their districts at different times to provide for staggered terms of office, the potential sequence of the elections. The political subdivision shall also hold at least two additional hearings over a period of no more than 45 days, at which the public is invited to provide input regarding the content of the draft map or maps and the proposed sequence of elections, if applicable. The first version of a draft map shall be published at least seven days before consideration at a hearing. If a draft map is revised at or following a hearing, it shall be published and made available to the public for at least seven days before being adopted.

(b) In determining the final sequence of the district elections conducted in a political subdivision in which members of the governing body will be elected at different times to provide for staggered terms of office, the governing body shall give special consideration to the purposes of the California Voting Rights Act of 2001, and it shall take into account the preferences expressed by members of the districts.

(c) This section applies to, but is not limited to, a proposal that is required due to a court-imposed change from an at-large method of election to a district-based election.

(d) For purposes of this section, the following terms have the following meanings:

(1) “At-large method of election” has the same meaning as set forth in subdivision (a) of Section 14026.

(2) “District-based election” has the same meaning as set forth in subdivision (b) of Section 14026.

(3) “Political subdivision” has the same meaning as set forth in subdivision (c) of Section 14026.

(e) (1) Before commencing an action to enforce Sections 14027 and 14028, a prospective plaintiff shall send by certified mail a written notice to the clerk of the political subdivision against which the action would be brought asserting that the political subdivision’s method of conducting elections may violate the California Voting Rights Act of 2001.

(2) A prospective plaintiff shall not commence an action to enforce Sections 14027 and 14028 within 45 days of the political subdivision’s receipt of the written notice described in paragraph (1).

(3) (A) Before receiving a written notice described in paragraph (1), or within 45 days of receipt of a notice, a political subdivision may pass a resolution outlining its intention to transition from at-large to district-based elections, specific steps it will undertake to facilitate this transition, and an estimated timeframe for doing so.

(B) If a political subdivision passes a resolution pursuant to subparagraph (A), a prospective plaintiff shall not commence an action to enforce Sections 14027 and 14028 within 90 days of the resolution’s passage.

(C) (i) A political subdivision and the prospective plaintiff who first sends a notice pursuant to paragraph (1) may enter into a written agreement to extend the time period described in subparagraph (B) for up to an additional 90 days in order to provide additional time to conduct public outreach, encourage public participation, and receive public input. The written agreement shall include a requirement that the district boundaries be established no later than six months before the political subdivision’s next regular election to select governing board members. However, in a political subdivision that holds a primary election as part of its process for selecting governing board members, the written agreement shall include a requirement that district boundaries be established no later than six months before the political subdivision’s next regular primary election.

(ii) No later than 10 days after a political subdivision enters into a written agreement pursuant to clause (i), the political subdivision shall prepare and make available on its internet website a tentative schedule of the public outreach events and the public hearings held pursuant to this section. If a political subdivision does not maintain an internet website, the political subdivision shall make the tentative schedule available to the public upon request.

(f) (1) If a political subdivision adopts an ordinance establishing district-based elections pursuant to subdivision (a), a prospective plaintiff who sent a written notice pursuant to paragraph (1) of subdivision (e) before the political subdivision passed its resolution of intention may, within 30 days of the ordinance’s adoption, demand reimbursement for the cost of the work product generated to support the notice. A prospective plaintiff shall make the demand in writing and shall substantiate the demand with financial documentation, such as a detailed invoice for demography services. A political subdivision may request additional documentation if the provided documentation is insufficient to corroborate the claimed costs. A political subdivision shall reimburse a prospective plaintiff for reasonable costs claimed, or in an amount to which the parties mutually agree, within 45 days of receiving the written demand, except as provided in paragraph (2). In all cases, the amount of the reimbursement shall not exceed the cap described in paragraph (3).

(2) If more than one prospective plaintiff is entitled to reimbursement, the political subdivision shall reimburse the prospective plaintiffs in the order in which they sent a written notice pursuant to paragraph (1) of subdivision (e), and the 45-day time period described in paragraph (1) shall apply only to reimbursement of the first prospective plaintiff who sent a written notice. The cumulative amount of reimbursements to all prospective plaintiffs shall not exceed the cap described in paragraph (3).

(3) The amount of reimbursement required by this section is capped at thirty thousand dollars ($30,000), as adjusted annually to the Consumer Price Index for All Urban Consumers, United States city average, as published by the United States Department of Labor.

13102.

 (a) All voting shall be by ballot. There shall be provided, at each polling place, at each election at which public officers are to be voted for, but one form of ballot for all candidates for public office, except that, for partisan primary elections, one form of ballot shall be provided for each qualified political party as well as one form of nonpartisan ballot, in accordance with subdivision (b).

(b) At partisan primary elections, each voter not registered disclosing a preference for any one of the political parties participating in the election shall be furnished only a nonpartisan ballot, unless the voter requests a ballot of a political party and that political party, by party rule duly noticed to the Secretary of State, authorizes a person who has declined to disclose a party preference to vote the ballot of that political party. The nonpartisan ballot shall contain only the names of all candidates for nonpartisan offices, voter-nominated offices, and measures to be voted for at the primary election. Each voter registered as preferring a political party participating in the election shall be furnished only a ballot for which the voter disclosed a party preference in accordance with Section 2151 or 2152 and the nonpartisan ballot, both of which shall be printed together as one ballot in the form prescribed by Section 13207.

(c) A political party may adopt a party rule in accordance with subdivision (b) that authorizes a person who has declined to disclose a party preference to vote the ballot of that political party at the next ensuing partisan primary election. The political party shall notify the party chair immediately upon adoption of that party rule. The party chair shall provide written notice of the adoption of that rule to the Secretary of State not later than the 135th day before the partisan primary election at which the vote is authorized.

(d) The county elections official shall maintain a record of which political party’s ballot was requested pursuant to subdivision (b), or whether a nonpartisan ballot was requested, by each person who declined to disclose a party preference. The record shall be made available to any person or committee who is authorized to receive copies of the printed roster for primary and general elections pursuant to Section 2184. A record produced pursuant to this subdivision shall be made available in either a printed or electronic format, as requested by the authorized person or committee.

14201.

 (a) In counties and precincts where the Secretary of State has determined that it is appropriate, the county elections official shall provide facsimile copies of the ballot, as described in subdivision (b), with the ballot measures and ballot instructions printed in Spanish, one of which shall be posted in a conspicuous location in the polling place and at least one of which shall be made available for voters at the polling place to use as a reference when casting a private ballot. Facsimile ballots shall also be printed in other languages and provided in the same manner if a significant and substantial need is found by the Secretary of State. A facsimile copy of the ballot available for voters to use in casting a private ballot shall be sufficiently distinct in appearance from a regular ballot to prevent voters from attempting to vote on the facsimile copy.

(b) (1) In determining if it is appropriate to provide the election materials in Spanish or other languages, the Secretary of State shall determine the number of residents of voting age in each county and precinct who are members of a single language minority, and who lack sufficient skills in English to vote without assistance. If the number of these residents equals 3 percent or more of the voting-age residents of a particular county or precinct, or if interested citizens or organizations provide the Secretary of State with information that gives the Secretary of State sufficient reason to believe a need for the furnishing of facsimile ballots, the Secretary of State shall find a need to provide at least two facsimile copies with the ballot measures and ballot instructions printed in Spanish or other applicable language in the affected polling places.

(2) If the Secretary of State determines that the number of voting-age residents in a precinct who are members of a single language minority and who lack sufficient skills in English to vote without assistance exceeds 20 percent of the voting-age residents in that precinct, the county elections official shall provide at least four facsimile copies of the ballot in the language of that language minority, one of which shall be posted in a conspicuous location in the polling place and at least three of which shall be made available for voters at the polling place to use as a reference when casting a private ballot.

(c) (1) In polling places where facsimile copies of the ballot are necessary, members of the precinct boards shall be trained on the purpose and proper handling of the facsimile copies of the ballot and shall be prepared to inform voters of the existence of the facsimile copies of the ballot, as appropriate.

(2) If a voter requests a facsimile copy of a ballot that is available in the voter’s language of preference pursuant to subdivision (a), a member of the precinct board shall provide the facsimile copy of the ballot to the voter.

(3) In polling places where facsimile copies of the ballot are necessary, a sign near the roster shall inform voters of the existence of the facsimile copies of the ballot. The sign shall be in English and in the language or languages of the facsimile copies available in that polling place.

(d) At least 14 days before an election, the county elections official shall provide information on the county elections internet website identifying all polling places in the county and the languages of facsimile copies of the ballot that will be available to voters at each polling place. Explanatory information pertaining to the list of polling places, but not the list itself, shall be available in all languages in which the county provides facsimile copies of the ballot.

(e) The county elections official shall include text in the county voter information guide that refers voters with language needs to the portion of the county elections internet website containing the information specified in subdivision (d). The text shall be in all languages in which the county provides facsimile copies of the ballot.

(f) The Secretary of State shall make the determinations and findings set forth in subdivisions (a) and (b) by January 1 of each year in which the Governor is elected.

(g) (1) A county elections official shall not be required to provide facsimile copies of the ballot in a particular language if the county elections official is required to provide translated ballots in that language pursuant to Section 203 of the federal Voting Rights Act of 1965 (52 U.S.C. Sec. 10101 et seq.).

(2) In a polling place where a county elections official is required pursuant to subdivision (a) to provide a facsimile copy of the ballot in a language other than English, the county elections official may instead provide voters with a ballot translated into that language. A county elections official who provides and publicizes translated ballots in the same manner as translated ballots provided and publicized pursuant to Section 203 of the federal Voting Rights Act of 1965 (52 U.S.C. Sec. 10101 et seq.), in lieu of providing facsimile copies of the ballot in any language required under subdivision (a), need not comply with subdivisions (c), (d), and (e) as pertaining to that language.

(h) It is the intent of the Legislature that non-English-speaking citizens, like all other citizens, should be encouraged to vote. Therefore, appropriate efforts should be made on a statewide basis to minimize obstacles to voting by citizens who lack sufficient skill in English to vote without assistance.

21003.

 (a) (1) Not sooner than April 1, 2020, and not later than July 1, 2020, the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation shall furnish to the Legislature and the Citizens Redistricting Commission, in the form of a single electronic file for each database maintained by the department, information regarding each inmate incarcerated in a state correctional facility on April 1, 2020. For purposes of this section, a “state correctional facility” means a facility under the control of the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation.

(2) The information furnished by the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation pursuant to paragraph (1) shall include the following for each inmate:

(A) A unique identifier, other than the inmate’s name or Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation number.

(B) Any information maintained by the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation about the residential address or addresses at which the inmate was domiciled before the inmate’s most current term of incarceration, including any available information about the date on which each address was added to records maintained by the department. If the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation does not have any residential address information for an inmate, the information furnished by the department shall state that fact.

(C) The inmate’s ethnicity, as identified by the inmate, and the inmate’s race, to the extent such information is maintained by the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation.

(D) The address of the state correctional facility where the inmate is incarcerated on the decennial Census Day.

(3) In 2030 and in each year ending in the number zero thereafter, the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation shall furnish, in the form of a single electronic file for each database maintained by the department, the information specified in paragraphs (1) and (2) for each inmate incarcerated in a state correctional facility on the decennial Census Day to the Legislature and the Citizens Redistricting Commission not sooner than the decennial Census Day and not later than 90 days thereafter.

(4) The Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation shall exclude all inmates in federal custody in a facility within California from the information furnished pursuant to this section.

(b) In order to comply with its obligation to ensure that a complete and accurate computerized database is available for redistricting in accordance with subdivision (b) of Section 8253 of the Government Code, the Legislature, in coordination with the Citizens Redistricting Commission, shall ensure that the information provided by the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation pursuant to subdivision (a) is included in that computerized database.

(c) Notwithstanding subdivision (b), and regardless of the form in which the information is furnished by the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation, the Legislature or the Citizens Redistricting Commission shall not publish information regarding the race, ethnicity, or prior residential addresses of specific inmates.

(d) Consistent with Section 2025, the Legislature hereby requests the Citizens Redistricting Commission to deem each incarcerated person as residing at that person’s last known place of residence, rather than at the institution of that person’s incarceration, and to use the information furnished to it pursuant to subdivision (a) in carrying out its redistricting responsibilities under Article XXI of the California Constitution. The Legislature also requests the Citizens Redistricting Commission to do all of the following when it uses information regarding inmates that is furnished pursuant to this section:

(1) Deem an inmate incarcerated in a state correctional facility for whom the last known place of residence is either outside California or cannot be determined, or an inmate in federal custody in a facility within California, to reside at an unknown geographical location in the state and exclude the inmate from the population count for any district, ward, or precinct.

(2) Adjust race and ethnicity data in districts, wards, and precincts that contain prisons in a manner that reflects reductions in the local population as inmates are included in the population count of the district, ward, or precinct of their last known place of residence and, to the extent practicable, those deemed to reside at an unknown geographic location.

(e) For purposes of this section, “last known place of residence” means the most recent residential address of an inmate before the inmate’s most current term of incarceration that is sufficiently specific to be assigned to a census block, as determined from information furnished by the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation in accordance with this section. In the case of an inmate for whom residential address information is available but is not sufficiently specific to allow the address to be assigned to a census block, the “last known place of residence” means a randomly determined census block located within the smallest geographical area that can be identified based on the residential address information furnished by the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation.

756.

 (a) To the extent required by other state or federal laws, the Judicial Council shall reimburse courts for court interpreter services provided in civil actions and proceedings to any party who is present in court and who does not proficiently speak or understand the English language for the purpose of interpreting the proceedings in a language the party understands, and assisting communications between the party, the party’s attorney, and the court.

(b) If sufficient funds are not appropriated to provide an interpreter to every party that meets the standard of eligibility, court interpreter services in civil cases reimbursed by the Judicial Council, pursuant to subdivision (a), shall be prioritized by case type by each court in the following order:

(1) Actions and proceedings under Division 10 (commencing with Section 6200) of the Family Code, actions or proceedings under the Uniform Parentage Act (Part 3 (commencing with Section 7600) of Division 12 of the Family Code) in which a protective order has been granted or is being sought pursuant to Section 6221 of the Family Code, and actions and proceedings for dissolution or nullity of marriage or legal separation of the parties in which a protective order has been granted or is being sought pursuant to Section 6221 of the Family Code; actions and proceedings under subdivision (y) of Section 527.6 of the Code of Civil Procedure; and actions and proceedings for physical abuse or neglect under the Elder Abuse and Dependent Adult Civil Protection Act (Chapter 11 (commencing with Section 15600) of Part 3 of Division 9 of the Welfare and Institutions Code).

(2) Actions and proceedings relating to unlawful detainer.

(3) Actions and proceedings to terminate parental rights.

(4) Actions and proceedings relating to conservatorship or guardianship, including the appointment or termination of a probate guardian or conservator.

(5) Actions and proceedings by a parent to obtain sole legal or physical custody of a child or rights to visitation.

(6) All other actions and proceedings under Section 527.6 of the Code of Civil Procedure or the Elder Abuse and Dependent Adult Civil Protection Act (Chapter 11 (commencing with Section 15600) of Part 3 of Division 9 of the Welfare and Institutions Code).

(7) All other actions and proceedings related to family law.

(8) All other civil actions or proceedings.

(c) (1) If funds are not available to provide an interpreter to every party that meets the standard of eligibility, preference shall be given for parties proceeding in forma pauperis pursuant to Section 68631 of the Government Code in any civil action or proceeding described in paragraph (3), (4), (5), (6), (7), or (8) of subdivision (b).

(2) Courts may provide an interpreter to a party outside the priority order listed in subdivision (b) when a qualified interpreter is present and available at the court location and no higher priority action that meets the standard of eligibility described in subdivision (a) is taking place at that location during the period of time for which the interpreter has already been compensated.

(d) A party shall not be charged a fee for the provision of a court interpreter.

(e) In seeking reimbursement for court interpreter services, the court shall identify to the Judicial Council the case types for which the interpretation to be reimbursed was provided. Courts shall regularly certify that in providing the interpreter services, they have complied with the priorities and preferences set forth in subdivisions (b) and (c), which shall be subject to review by the Judicial Council.

(f) This section shall not be construed to alter, limit, or negate any right to an interpreter in a civil action or proceeding otherwise provided by state or federal law, or the right to an interpreter in criminal, traffic, or other infraction, juvenile, or mental competency actions or proceedings.

(g) This section shall not result in a reduction in staffing or compromise the quality of interpreting services in criminal, juvenile, or other types of matters in which interpreters are provided.

3060.

 A petition for a temporary custody order, containing the statement required by Section 3429, may be included with the initial filing of the petition or action or may be filed at any time after the initial filing.

6323.

 (a) Subject to Section 3064:

(1) The court may issue an ex parte order determining the temporary custody and visitation of a minor child on the conditions the court determines to a party who has established a parent and child relationship pursuant to paragraph (2). The parties shall inform the court if any custody or visitation orders have already been issued in any other proceeding.

(2) (A) In making a determination of the best interests of the child and in order to limit the child’s exposure to potential domestic violence and to ensure the safety of all family members, if the party who has obtained the restraining order has established a parent and child relationship and the other party has not established that relationship, the court may award temporary sole legal and physical custody to the party to whom the restraining order was issued and may make an order of no visitation to the other party pending the establishment of a parent and child relationship between the child and the other party.

(B) A party may establish a parent and child relationship for purposes of subparagraph (A) only by offering proof of any of the following:

(i) The party gave birth to the child.

(ii) The child is conclusively presumed to be a child of the marriage between the parties, pursuant to Section 7540, or the party has been determined by a court to be a parent of the child, pursuant to Section 7541.

(iii) Legal adoption or pending legal adoption of the child by the party.

(iv) The party has signed a valid voluntary declaration of paternity, which has been in effect more than 60 days prior to the issuance of the restraining order, and that declaration has not been rescinded or set aside.

(v) A determination made by the juvenile court that there is a parent and child relationship between the party offering the proof and the child.

(vi) A determination of paternity made in a proceeding to determine custody or visitation in a case brought by the district attorney pursuant to Section 17404.

(vii) The party has been determined to be the parent of the child through a proceeding under the Uniform Parentage Act (Part 3 (commencing with Section 7600) of Division 12).

(viii) Both parties stipulate, in writing or on the record, for purposes of this proceeding, that they are the parents of the child.

(b) (1) Except as provided in paragraph (2), the court shall not make a finding of paternity in this proceeding, and any order issued pursuant to this section shall be without prejudice in any other action brought to establish a parent and child relationship.

(2) The court may accept a stipulation of paternity by the parties and, if paternity is uncontested, enter a judgment establishing paternity, subject to the set-aside provisions in Section 7646.

(c) When making any order for custody or visitation pursuant to this section, the court’s order shall specify the time, day, place, and manner of transfer of the child for custody or visitation to limit the child’s exposure to potential domestic conflict or violence and to ensure the safety of all family members. Where the court finds a party is staying in a place designated as a shelter for victims of domestic violence or other confidential location, the court’s order for time, day, place, and manner of transfer of the child for custody or visitation shall be designed to prevent disclosure of the location of the shelter or other confidential location.

(d) When making an order for custody or visitation pursuant to this section, the court shall consider whether the best interest of the child, based upon the circumstances of the case, requires that any visitation or custody arrangement shall be limited to situations in which a third person, specified by the court, is present, or whether visitation or custody shall be suspended or denied.

6380.

 (a) Each county, with the approval of the Department of Justice, shall, by July 1, 1996, develop a procedure, using existing systems, for the electronic transmission of data, as described in subdivision (b), to the Department of Justice. The data shall be electronically transmitted through the California Law Enforcement Telecommunications System (CLETS) of the Department of Justice by law enforcement personnel, or with the approval of the Department of Justice, court personnel, or another appropriate agency capable of maintaining and preserving the integrity of both the CLETS and the Domestic Violence Restraining Order System, as described in subdivision (e). Data entry is required to be entered only once under the requirements of this section, unless the order is served at a later time. A portion of all fees payable to the Department of Justice under subdivision (a) of Section 1203.097 of the Penal Code for the entry of the information required under this section, based upon the proportion of the costs incurred by the local agency and those incurred by the Department of Justice, shall be transferred to the local agency actually providing the data. All data with respect to criminal court protective orders issued, modified, extended, or terminated under subdivision (g) of Section 136.2 of the Penal Code, and all data filed with the court on the required Judicial Council forms with respect to protective orders, including their issuance, modification, extension, or termination, to which this division applies pursuant to Section 6221, shall be transmitted by the court or its designee within one business day to law enforcement personnel by either one of the following methods:

(1) Transmitting a physical copy of the order to a local law enforcement agency authorized by the Department of Justice to enter orders into CLETS.

(2) With the approval of the Department of Justice, entering the order into CLETS directly.

(b) Upon the issuance of a protective order to which this division applies pursuant to Section 6221, or the issuance of a temporary restraining order or injunction relating to harassment, unlawful violence, or the threat of violence pursuant to Section 527.6, 527.8, or 527.85 of the Code of Civil Procedure, or the issuance of a criminal court protective order under subdivision (g) of Section 136.2 of the Penal Code, or the issuance of a juvenile court restraining order related to domestic violence pursuant to Section 213.5, 304, or 362.4 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, or the issuance of a protective order pursuant to Section 15657.03 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, or upon registration with the court clerk of a domestic violence protective or restraining order issued by the tribunal of another state, as defined in Section 6401, and including any of the foregoing orders issued in connection with an order for modification of a custody or visitation order issued pursuant to a dissolution, legal separation, nullity, or paternity proceeding the Department of Justice shall be immediately notified of the contents of the order and the following information:

(1) The name, race, date of birth, and other personal descriptive information of the respondent as required by a form prescribed by the Department of Justice.

(2) The names of the protected persons.

(3) The date of issuance of the order.

(4) The duration or expiration date of the order.

(5) The terms and conditions of the protective order, including stay-away, no-contact, residency exclusion, custody, and visitation provisions of the order.

(6) The department or division number and the address of the court.

(7) Whether or not the order was served upon the respondent.

(8) The terms and conditions of any restrictions on the ownership or possession of firearms.

All available information shall be included; however, the inability to provide all categories of information shall not delay the entry of the information available.

(c) The information conveyed to the Department of Justice shall also indicate whether the respondent was present in court to be informed of the contents of the court order. The respondent’s presence in court shall provide proof of service of notice of the terms of the protective order. The respondent’s failure to appear shall also be included in the information provided to the Department of Justice.

(d) (1) Within one business day of service, any law enforcement officer who served a protective order shall submit the proof of service directly into the Department of Justice Domestic Violence Restraining Order System, including the law enforcement officer’s name and law enforcement agency, and shall transmit the original proof of service form to the issuing court.

(2) Within one business day of receipt of proof of service by a person other than a law enforcement officer, the clerk of the court shall submit the proof of service of a protective order directly into the Department of Justice Domestic Violence Restraining Order System, including the name of the person who served the order. If the court is unable to provide this notification to the Department of Justice by electronic transmission, the court shall, within one business day of receipt, transmit a copy of the proof of service to a local law enforcement agency. The local law enforcement agency shall submit the proof of service directly into the Department of Justice Domestic Violence Restraining Order System within one business day of receipt from the court.

(e) The Department of Justice shall maintain a Domestic Violence Restraining Order System and shall make available to court clerks and law enforcement personnel, through computer access, all information regarding the protective and restraining orders and injunctions described in subdivision (b), whether or not served upon the respondent.

(f) If a court issues a modification, extension, or termination of a protective order, it shall be on forms adopted by the Judicial Council and that have been approved by the Department of Justice, and the transmitting agency for the county shall immediately notify the Department of Justice, by electronic transmission, of the terms of the modification, extension, or termination.

(g) The Judicial Council shall assist local courts charged with the responsibility for issuing protective orders by developing informational packets describing the general procedures for obtaining a domestic violence restraining order and indicating the appropriate Judicial Council forms. The informational packets shall include a design, that local courts shall complete, that describes local court procedures and maps to enable applicants to locate filing windows and appropriate courts, and shall also include information on how to return proofs of service, including mailing addresses and fax numbers. The court clerk shall provide a fee waiver form to all applicants for domestic violence protective orders. The court clerk shall provide all Judicial Council forms required by this chapter to applicants free of charge. The informational packet shall also contain a statement that the protective order is enforceable in any state, as defined in Section 6401, and general information about agencies in other jurisdictions that may be contacted regarding enforcement of an order issued by a court of this state.

(h) For the purposes of this part, “electronic transmission” shall include computer access through the California Law Enforcement Telecommunications System (CLETS).

(i) Only protective and restraining orders issued on forms adopted by the Judicial Council and that have been approved by the Department of Justice shall be transmitted to the Department of Justice. However, this provision does not apply to a valid protective or restraining order related to domestic or family violence issued by a tribunal of another state, as defined in Section 6401. Those orders shall, upon request, be registered pursuant to Section 6404.

(j) (1) All protective orders subject to transmittal to CLETS pursuant to this section are required to be so transmitted.

(2) This subdivision does not constitute a change in, but is declaratory of, existing law.

6924.

 (a) As used in this section:

(1) “Mental health treatment or counseling services” means the provision of mental health treatment or counseling on an outpatient basis by any of the following:

(A) A governmental agency.

(B) A person or agency having a contract with a governmental agency to provide the services.

(C) An agency that receives funding from community united funds.

(D) A runaway house or crisis resolution center.

(E) A professional person, as defined in paragraph (2).

(2) “Professional person” means any of the following:

(A) A person designated as a mental health professional in Sections 622 to 626, inclusive, of Article 8 of Chapter 3 of Division 1 of Title 9 of the California Code of Regulations.

(B) A marriage and family therapist as defined in Chapter 13 (commencing with Section 4980) of Division 2 of the Business and Professions Code.

(C) A licensed educational psychologist as defined in Chapter 13.5 (commencing with Section 4989.10) of Division 2 of the Business and Professions Code.

(D) A credentialed school psychologist as described in Section 49424 of the Education Code.

(E) A clinical psychologist as defined in Section 1316.5 of the Health and Safety Code.

(F) The chief administrator of an agency referred to in paragraph (1) or (3).

(G) A person registered as an associate marriage and family therapist, as defined in Chapter 13 (commencing with Section 4980) of Division 2 of the Business and Professions Code, while working under the supervision of a licensed professional specified in subdivision (g) of Section 4980.03 of the Business and Professions Code.

(H) A licensed professional clinical counselor, as defined in Chapter 16 (commencing with Section 4999.10) of Division 2 of the Business and Professions Code.

(I) A person registered as an associate professional clinical counselor, as defined in Chapter 16 (commencing with Section 4999.10) of Division 2 of the Business and Professions Code, while working under the supervision of a licensed professional specified in subdivision (h) of Section 4999.12 of the Business and Professions Code.

(3) “Residential shelter services” means any of the following:

(A) The provision of residential and other support services to minors on a temporary or emergency basis in a facility that services only minors by a governmental agency, a person or agency having a contract with a governmental agency to provide these services, an agency that receives funding from community funds, or a licensed community care facility or crisis resolution center.

(B) The provision of other support services on a temporary or emergency basis by any professional person as defined in paragraph (2).

(b) A minor who is 12 years of age or older may consent to mental health treatment or counseling on an outpatient basis, or to residential shelter services, if both of the following requirements are satisfied:

(1) The minor, in the opinion of the attending professional person, is mature enough to participate intelligently in the outpatient services or residential shelter services.

(2) The minor (A) would present a danger of serious physical or mental harm to self or to others without the mental health treatment or counseling or residential shelter services, or (B) is the alleged victim of incest or child abuse.

(c) A professional person offering residential shelter services, whether as an individual or as a representative of an entity specified in paragraph (3) of subdivision (a), shall make that person’s best efforts to notify the parent or guardian of the provision of services.

(d) The mental health treatment or counseling of a minor authorized by this section shall include involvement of the minor’s parent or guardian unless, in the opinion of the professional person who is treating or counseling the minor, the involvement would be inappropriate. The professional person who is treating or counseling the minor shall state in the client record whether and when the person attempted to contact the minor’s parent or guardian, and whether the attempt to contact was successful or unsuccessful, or the reason why, in the professional person’s opinion, it would be inappropriate to contact the minor’s parent or guardian.

(e) The minor’s parents or guardian are not liable for payment for mental health treatment or counseling services provided pursuant to this section unless the parent or guardian participates in the mental health treatment or counseling, and then only for services rendered with the participation of the parent or guardian. The minor’s parents or guardian are not liable for payment for any residential shelter services provided pursuant to this section unless the parent or guardian consented to the provision of those services.

(f) This section does not authorize a minor to receive convulsive therapy or psychosurgery as defined in subdivisions (f) and (g) of Section 5325 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, or psychotropic drugs without the consent of the minor’s parent or guardian.

8710.2.

 In order to preclude the delays or denials described in paragraph (3) of subdivision (a) of Section 8708, the department shall establish a statewide exchange system that interjurisdictionally matches waiting children and approved adoptive families. The department may create a new statewide exchange system, modify an existing statewide exchange system, such as the photo-listing service described in Section 8707, or designate an existing exchange system, such as the Adoption Exchange Enhancement Program, as the statewide exchange system for purposes of this section.

17705.

 (a) Beginning July 1, 2018, the director of the Department of Child Support Services and the president of the Child Support Directors Association of California shall jointly lead discussions for the purposes of identifying programwide operational efficiencies and further refinements to the budget methodology for the child support program, as needed. The discussions shall include all of the following areas:

(1) Opportunities to improve operational efficiencies in the child support program at both the state and local levels.

(2) Any additional refinements that are needed to the current allocation methodology.

(3) Cost-of-living, salary, and benefit increases in local child support agencies.

(b) The Department of Child Support Services shall submit a report to the chairs of the budget committees of both houses of the Legislature that includes a description of the topics described in subdivision (a) and recommendations by July 1, 2019.

(c) Pursuant to Section 10231.5 of the Government Code, this section is repealed on January 1, 2021.

8276.1.

 (a) For purposes of this section, the following definitions apply:

(1) “California Dungeness Crab Fishing Gear Working Group” means the California Dungeness Crab Fishing Gear Working Group established by the department, in partnership with the Ocean Protection Council and the National Marine Fisheries Service, on September 21, 2015, and as defined by its most recent charter as it may be amended from time to time.

(2) “Risk assessment and mitigation program” means the program developed by the California Dungeness Crab Fishing Gear Working Group, as that program may be amended from time to time until the regulations are adopted pursuant to subdivision (b), to identify and assess elevated levels of entanglement risk and determine the need for management options to reduce the risk of entanglement.

(b) On or before November 1, 2020, the department, in consultation with the California Dungeness Crab Fishing Gear Working Group and other stakeholders, shall adopt regulations establishing criteria and protocols to evaluate and respond to the potential risk of marine life entanglement. The regulations shall include, but are not limited to, the risk assessment and mitigation program. Upon the effective date of the regulations, the director may restrict the take of Dungeness crab pursuant to the protocols and criteria.

(c) (1) Until the regulations adopted pursuant to subdivision (b) become effective or until November 1, 2020, whichever occurs first, if the director, in consultation with the California Dungeness Crab Fishing Gear Working Group, determines that the California Dungeness crab fishery is being conducted in a manner that poses a significant risk of marine life entanglement, the director may restrict the take of Dungeness crab in those areas where that risk has been determined to exist, including through time or area closures, or both.

(2) The authority of the director provided pursuant to paragraph (1) shall be temporary and shall expire upon the effective date of the regulations described in subdivision (b) or upon the expiration of that authority pursuant to subdivision (e), whichever occurs first.

(3) The director shall evaluate the following factors to determine if there is a significant risk of marine life entanglement and the appropriate management response:

(A) The conditions inherent to the fishery, such as safety of life at sea, weather, vessel operations, and other related issues.

(B) The duration of any delays in the normal start of the fishery.

(C) Indications of anomalous ocean or forage conditions, or both, in the current season.

(D) The known location of marine life of concern.

(E) The known location and intensity of fishing effort.

(F) The number of confirmed marine life entanglements documented in advance of or during the current fishing season.

(G) The existence and prevalence of factors that may result in significant risk of marine life entanglement.

(H) The likelihood of exceeding the potential biological removal level of a marine life species.

(I) The socioeconomic impacts of any management response to fishery stakeholders.

(4) (A) After making a preliminary determination pursuant to paragraph (1) that a significant risk of marine life entanglement exists, the director shall provide 48 hours’ notice to the California Dungeness Crab Fishing Gear Working Group and other stakeholders before taking any action to close the fishery or otherwise restrict the take of Dungeness crab.

(B) The notice shall provide the information supporting the director’s determination of a significant risk of marine life entanglement as well as the anticipated management response.

(C) The director shall consider any recommendations or new information provided by the California Dungeness Crab Fishing Gear Working Group or any member of the public within the 48-hour notice period in advance of enacting any management measures pursuant to this subdivision.

(5) Any time or area closures, or both, implemented pursuant to this subdivision shall, while providing for adequate reduction of risk to marine life, be minimized in duration and extent.

(6) The director shall expeditiously lift any restriction in waters pursuant to this subdivision if the director determines, in consultation with the California Dungeness Crab Fishing Gear Working Group, that the significant risk of marine life entanglement in those waters has abated.

(7) Chapter 3.5 (commencing with Section 11340) of Part 1 of Division 3 of Title 2 of the Government Code does not apply to actions taken pursuant to this subdivision.

(d) It is unlawful to take or possess Dungeness crab from any waters closed, or otherwise violate any restriction on take imposed, pursuant to this section.

(e) If the department has not developed the regulations pursuant to subdivision (b) by November 1, 2020, the power of the director to exercise the authority described in subdivision (c) shall become inoperative on November 1, 2020.

(f) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2024, and as of that date is repealed.

8276.4.

 (a) The Ocean Protection Council shall make a grant, upon appropriation of funding by the Legislature, for the development and administration of a Dungeness crab task force. The membership of the Dungeness crab task force shall be comprised of all of the following:

(1) Two nonvoting members representing the department, appointed by the department.

(2) One nonvoting representative of the University of California Sea Grant, appointed by the University of California Sea Grant.

(3) Seven members appointed by the Chair of the Ocean Protection Council following a public solicitation for nominations, as follows:

(A) One voting and one nonvoting member representing sport fishing interests.

(B) Two voting members representing crab processing interests.

(C) One voting member representing commercial passenger fishing vessel interests.

(D) Two nonvoting members representing nongovernmental organization interests.

(4) Seventeen voting members representing commercial fishery interests, elected by licensed persons possessing valid Dungeness crab permits in their respective ports and production levels, as follows:

(A) Three members from Crescent City.

(B) One member from Trinidad.

(C) Two members from Eureka.

(D) Two members from Fort Bragg.

(E) Two members from Bodega Bay.

(F) Two members from San Francisco.

(G) Two members from Half Moon Bay.

(H) Two members from ports south of Half Moon Bay.

(I) One member who has a valid California nonresident crab permit.

(b) (1) Elected members in each port shall represent the following production levels:

(A) For ports with one elected member, the member shall represent both the upper and lower production levels.

(B) For ports with two elected members, one member shall represent the upper production level and one member shall represent the lower production level.

(C) For ports with three elected members, one member shall represent the upper production level, one member shall represent the lower production level, and one member shall represent both the upper and lower production levels.

(2) Upper and lower production levels shall be determined in relation to the average landing, during the five-year period before the beginning of an election cycle, of valid crab permitholders who landed a minimum of 25,000 pounds of crab during that period.

(c) Elections shall be held every three years in each port, on a staggered basis across ports, in coordination with the department or the Ocean Protection Council and with support from an administrative team of the Dungeness crab task force. In an election year, all elected members in a port shall be subject to reelection. There is no limit on the number of terms that may be served by any person.

(d) (1) Each member appointed pursuant to paragraph (1), (2), or (3) of subdivision (a) shall select an alternate to serve and, if applicable, vote in the member’s place in case of the member’s absence from, or disqualification from participating in, a meeting of the task force. If the position of a member appointed pursuant to one of those paragraphs becomes vacant, the alternate member shall serve until the position is filled as required pursuant to that paragraph.

(2) Each elected member shall select an alternate in the same port and production level to serve and vote in the member’s place in case of the member’s absence from, or disqualification from participating in, a meeting of the task force. If the position of the member becomes vacant, the alternate shall serve and vote in the member’s place until the next election is held in the port pursuant to subdivision (c).

(e) The Dungeness crab task force shall do all of the following:

(1) Review and evaluate the commercial Dungeness crab management measures described in Section 8276.5, and make recommendations to the Joint Committee on Fisheries and Aquaculture, the department, and the commission, no later than January 15, 2022, and by January 15 of every third year thereafter through 2028.

(2) Make recommendations by the dates specified in paragraph (1) on all of the following: the need for a permanent Dungeness crab advisory committee, the economic impact of the program described in Section 8276.5 on permitholders of different tiers and the economies of different ports, the cost of the program to the department, including enforcement costs, the viability of a buyout program for the permitholders described in subparagraph (G) of paragraph (1) of subdivision (a) of Section 8276.5, refining commercial Dungeness crab management, and the need for statutory changes to accomplish task force objectives.

(3) In considering commercial Dungeness crab management options, prioritize the review of pot limit restriction options, current and future commercial fishery effort, season modifications, essential fishery information needs, and short- and long-term objectives for improved management.

(f) The task force may establish subcommittees of specific user groups from the task force membership to focus on issues specific to commercial harvest or crab processing. The subcommittees shall report their recommendations, if any, to the task force.

(g) The Ocean Protection Council may include in a grant funding to cover department staffing costs, as well as travel costs for task force participants as specified in paragraph (1) of subdivision (a).

(h) Except as otherwise provided in Section 8276.5, a recommendation shall be forwarded to the Joint Committee on Fisheries and Aquaculture, the department, and the commission upon an affirmative vote of at least two-thirds of the task force members.

(i) Eligibility to take crab in state waters and offshore for commercial purposes may be subject to restrictions, including, but not limited to, restrictions on the number of traps utilized by that person, if either of the following occurs:

(1) A person holds a California Dungeness crab permit with California landings of less than 5,000 pounds between November 15, 2003, and July 15, 2008, inclusive, as reported in California landings receipts.

(2) A person has purchased a Dungeness crab permit on or after July 15, 2008, from a permitholder whose California landings were less than 5,000 pounds between November 15, 2003, and July 15, 2008, inclusive, as reported in California landings receipts.

(j) This section shall become inoperative on April 1, 2029, and, as of January 1, 2030, is repealed, unless a later enacted statute, that becomes operative on or before January 1, 2030, deletes or extends the dates on which it becomes inoperative and is repealed.

8494.

 (a) Any vessel using bottom trawl gear in state-managed halibut fisheries, as described in subdivision (a) of Section 8841, shall possess a valid California halibut bottom trawl vessel permit that has not been suspended or revoked and that is issued by the department authorizing the use of trawl gear by that vessel for the take of California halibut.

(b) A California halibut bottom trawl vessel permit shall be issued annually, commencing with the 2006 permit year and an applicant shall have been issued a California halibut bottom trawl vessel permit in the immediately preceding permit year.

(c) Permits issued pursuant to this section may be transferred only if at least one of the following occur:

(1) The commission adopts a restricted access program for the fishery that is consistent with the commission’s policies regarding restricted access to commercial fisheries.

(2) (A) Before the implementation of a halibut trawl restricted access program, the department may consider requests from a vessel permitholder or the permitholder’s conservator or estate representative, as applicable, to transfer a vessel permit to a vessel consistent with the requirements of subparagraph (B) or (C). The department may request information that it determines is reasonably necessary from the permitholder or the permitholder’s conservator or heirs or estate for the purpose of verifying statements in the request before authorizing the transfer of the permit.

(B) The department may approve the transfer of a California halibut bottom trawl vessel permit to a replacement vessel if all of the following requirements are met:

(i) In the form of a notarized application, the permitholder submits to the department a request for the transfer of a California halibut bottom trawl vessel permit to another vessel owned by the permitholder.

(ii) The permitholder provides a current United States Coast Guard certificate of documentation or vessel marine survey to the department for the permitted vessel and replacement vessel.

(iii) Based on the information provided pursuant to clause (ii), the department determines that the replacement vessel is equal to or less than the capacity of the permitted vessel.

(iv) The department determines the California halibut bottom trawl vessel permit for the permitted vessel is valid and has not been suspended or revoked.

(v) If applicable, the department receives written confirmation from the replacement vessel’s owner or authorized agent, or mortgager, of the vessel’s participation in the transfer of the California halibut bottom trawl vessel permit.

(vi) The replacement vessel is registered with the department pursuant to Section 7881 at the time the application is submitted pursuant to clause (i).

(C) The department may approve the transfer of a California halibut bottom trawl vessel permit to another person if all of the following requirements are met:

(i) In the form of a notarized application, the permitholder or the permitholder’s conservator or estate submits to the department a request to transfer a California halibut bottom trawl vessel permit to another person.

(ii) If the permitholder’s estate submits a request pursuant to clause (i), the estate submits the notarized application to the department within one year of the death of the permitholder as listed on the death certificate.

(iii) A current United States Coast Guard certificate of documentation or vessel marine survey is provided to the department for the permitted vessel and vessel to be used by the proposed transferee.

(iv) Based on the information provided pursuant to clause (iii), the department determines that the vessel to be used by the proposed transferee is equal to or less than the capacity of the permitted vessel.

(v) The proposed transferee meets both of the following requirements:

(I) The person has a valid commercial fishing license issued pursuant to Section 7852 that has not been suspended or revoked.

(II) The person is the owner of a commercial fishing vessel that is registered with the department pursuant to Section 7881 and that registration has not been suspended or revoked.

(vi) The permit for the permitted vessel is current, and the permitholder or the permitholder’s conservator or estate submitting the application is responsible for any renewal of the permit that becomes due during the application processing period.

(vii) Under penalty of perjury, the permitholder or the permitholder’s conservator or estate signs the application for transfer and certifies that the information included is true to the best of the permitholder’s information and belief.

(D) Any applicant who is denied transfer pursuant to this paragraph may appeal the denial in writing describing the basis for the appeal to the commission within 60 days from the date of the department’s decision.

(d) The commission shall establish California halibut bottom trawl vessel permit fees based on the recommendations of the department and utilizing the guidelines outlined in subdivision (b) of Section 711 to cover the costs of administering this section. Before the adoption of a restricted access program pursuant to subdivision (c), fees may not exceed one thousand dollars ($1,000) per permit.

(e) Individuals holding a federal groundfish trawl permit may retain and land up to 150 pounds of California halibut per trip without a California halibut trawl permit in accordance with federal and state regulations, including, but not limited to, regulations developed under a halibut fishery management plan.

(f) This section shall become inoperative upon the adoption by the commission of a halibut fishery management plan in accordance with the requirements of Part 1.7 (commencing with Section 7050).

(g) The commission may adopt regulations to implement this section.

8583.

 (a) By March 31, 2020, the department shall establish a program to transition the holders of drift gill net permits issued pursuant to Section 8561 out of the drift gill net fishery that includes the following conditions:

(1) A permittee who chooses to participate in the transition program shall indicate the permittee’s intention to the department to participate by submitting a notarized form provided by the department on or before January 1, 2020.

(2) A permittee who has landed swordfish or thresher shark with a shark or swordfish gill net or with a deep-set buoy gear authorized pursuant to a federal exempted fishing permit between April 1, 2012, and March 31, 2018, inclusive, and who voluntarily surrenders the permittee’s drift gill net permit issued pursuant to Section 8561 and shark or swordfish gill net or nets shall receive, to the extent that funds for the transition program are available, the following amounts:

(A) Ten thousand dollars ($10,000) to surrender the permit.

(B) One hundred thousand dollars ($100,000) to surrender the net or nets.

(3) A permittee who has not landed swordfish or thresher shark on or after April 1, 2012, and who voluntarily surrenders the permittee’s drift gill net permit issued pursuant to Section 8561 and shark or swordfish gill net or nets shall receive, to the extent that funds for the transition program are available, ten thousand dollars ($10,000).

(4) The department shall inform a permittee who submits a notarized form pursuant to paragraph (1) whether the permittee meets the requirements of paragraph (2) or (3) and the department shall submit this information to the fiscal agent.

(5) Any permittee who participates in the transition program by surrendering the permittee’s permit pursuant to paragraph (2) or (3) shall be prohibited from obtaining a new California drift gill net shark and swordfish permit, shall agree not to fish under a federal drift gill net permit, shall agree not to transfer or renew a federal drift gill net permit, and shall surrender the permittee’s shark or swordfish gill net or nets to an entity approved by the department for the purpose of destroying the nets.

(b) (1) The department shall enter into an agreement with a fiscal agent for the fiscal agent to receive state and nonstate funds made available for purposes of the transition program, to put those funds in an escrow account, and, upon the receipt of adequate funds, to pay the applicable amount described in subdivision (a) to a participating permittee. As part of the agreement, the department shall require the fiscal agent to notify the department within 10 days of the receipt of one million dollars ($1,000,000) from nonstate sources for purposes of transitioning permittees out of the drift gill net fishery. If the department enters into an agreement with a fiscal agent that is a state entity pursuant to this subdivision, notwithstanding Section 13340 of the Government Code, any funds received from nonstate sources are continuously appropriated to that state entity for purposes of the transition program without regard to fiscal years.

(2) The department shall notify the Legislature pursuant to Section 9795 of the Government Code within 10 days of the date that the fiscal agent receives one million dollars ($1,000,000) from nonstate sources for purposes of the transition program and secures one million dollars ($1,000,000) through an agreement with the Ocean Protection Council pursuant to Section 35651 of the Public Resources Code.

(3) For purposes of this section, “fiscal agent” includes any of the following:

(A) The Department of Finance.

(B) The Pacific States Marine Fisheries Commission.

(C) The Controller.

(D) Any appropriate state or federal agency.

9002.5.

 (a) Notwithstanding Section 9002, the department, in consultation with the Dungeness crab task force, shall establish a retrieval program to provide for the retrieval of lost or abandoned commercial Dungeness crab traps by June 30, 2019.

(b) The retrieval program developed pursuant to subdivision (a) shall be consistent with all of the following:

(1) The department shall establish a retrieval permit that grants a person who obtains a retrieval permit the authority to retrieve Dungeness crab traps located in ocean waters belonging to another person without written permission from that person during the closed season of the Dungeness crab commercial fishery, as described in Section 8276. The department may establish any qualifications it deems necessary for a person to obtain a retrieval permit. The department shall require a permit fee in an amount necessary to fully recover, but not exceed, all reasonable administrative and implementation costs to the department of the retrieval program.

(2) Notwithstanding Chapter 4 (commencing with Section 2080) of Title 6 of Part 4 of Division 3 of the Civil Code or any other law, any Dungeness crab trap retrieved under the authority of a retrieval permit shall become the property of the retrieval permitholder.

(3) The department shall require a retrieval permitholder to notify the former trap owner of the retrieval of a Dungeness crab trap and to offer to sell the trap to the former owner for a reasonable recovery fee, as determined by the retrieval permitholder, based on the cost of trap retrieval and storage of the trap. The department shall impose per-trap fees on any former trap owner who refuses to pay the recovery fee to the retrieval permitholder. The department shall set the rate of these per-trap fees at a level sufficient to recover any costs to the department from handling noncompliance with the gear retrieval program and to reimburse the retrieval permitholder for the reasonable cost of trap retrieval, storage, and disposal of crab traps belonging to a former owner who refuses to pay the recovery fees for those traps and, upon appropriation by the Legislature, shall use the proceeds of the per-trap fees for these purposes. The department shall annually adjust the per-trap fees pursuant to Section 713.

(4) Notwithstanding Section 8022, the department may release contact information to a retrieval permitholder for purposes of the retrieval program under terms and conditions as the department deems necessary to preserve the confidentiality of the information released. Any release of information pursuant to this section does not constitute a waiver of any applicable exemptions from disclosure under the California Public Records Act (Chapter 3.5 (commencing with Section 6250) of Division 7 of Title 1 of the Government Code).

(5) The department may deny an application for renewal or transfer of a Dungeness crab vessel permit until the applicant pays any fees imposed pursuant to paragraph (3).

(6) The department shall submit the proposed retrieval program developed pursuant to this section to the Dungeness crab task force for review, and shall not implement the retrieval program until the task force has had 60 days or more to review the proposed retrieval program and recommend any proposed changes. The director may implement the retrieval program earlier than 60 days after it is submitted to the Dungeness crab task force for review, if recommended by the task force.

(c) This section shall become inoperative on April 1, 2029, and, as of January 1, 2030, is repealed, unless a later enacted statute, that becomes operative on or before January 1, 2030, deletes or extends the dates on which it becomes inoperative and is repealed.

570.

 (a) For purposes of this section, the following definitions apply:

(1) “Grant program” means the technical assistance grant program established pursuant to subdivision (c).

(2) “Programs” means the Healthy Soils Program established pursuant to Section 569, alternative manure management practices programs, and the State Water Efficiency and Enhancement Program established by the department from moneys made available pursuant to Chapter 2 of the Statutes of 2014.

(3) “Technical assistance” means outreach, education, project planning, project design, grant application assistance, project implementation, or project reporting assistance provided to a farmer or rancher to improve their successful participation in the programs.

(4) “Technical assistance providers” means resource conservation districts, the University of California Cooperative Extension, and nonprofit organizations, with demonstrated technical expertise in designing and implementing agricultural management practices to achieve the purposes identified in subdivision (b).

(b) The secretary shall make available not less than 5 percent of the funds appropriated to the department for the programs, but not more than five million dollars ($5,000,000), to the grant program established pursuant to subdivision (c) for both of the following purposes:

(1) Providing technical assistance, pursuant to subdivision (c), to farmers and ranchers who apply for grants from the programs, prioritizing that technical assistance to farms and ranches that are 500 acres or less.

(2) Supporting annual information sharing among technical assistance providers, the department, and other relevant stakeholders for the continuous improvement of programmatic guidelines, application processes, and relevant climate change and agricultural research.

(c) The department shall establish a technical assistance grant program to provide funds to technical assistance providers to provide technical assistance to program applicants, including, but not limited to, conducting initial program outreach to farmers and ranchers, and assisting farmers and ranchers to submit grant applications under the programs to the department and with project design, development, and implementation. The grant program shall do all of the following:

(1) Establish criteria and guidelines for technical assistance providers to qualify to receive grants to provide technical assistance. The criteria and guidelines shall require technical assistance providers to demonstrate expertise in working with California farmers and ranchers on projects relevant to one or more of the purposes identified in subdivision (b). The department shall coordinate grant program guideline development and outreach with the Natural Resources Conservation Service of the United States Department of Agriculture.

(2) Establish a process for technical assistance providers to apply to the department to receive grants to provide technical assistance. Grant applications shall include, at minimum, a work plan that identifies which of the purposes identified in subdivision (b) will be targeted by the technical assistance provider, specific activities that will be undertaken to maximize farmer and rancher program participation and project success, an estimate of the number of farmers and ranchers to be served by the technical assistance provider, and a statement of qualifications of its relevant staff and project partners.

(3) Ensure at least 25 percent of the grant program funds are used to provide technical assistance to socially disadvantaged farmers or ranchers, as defined in Section 512.

(4) Review grant program applications from technical assistance providers and recommend grant awardees to the secretary.

(5) Allow direct project costs and a percentage of overhead expenses, to be determined by the secretary, to be funded as part of the grant awards.

(6) Consult with the Scientific Advisory Panel on Environmental Farming on grant program design, guidelines, and outreach for the technical assistance to improve coordination and information sharing on technical assistance strategies and activities for the department’s programs.

(d) The department shall provide an update to the Scientific Advisory Panel on Environmental Farming on or before January 31, 2021, on the grant program, including grant program outcomes, ongoing technical assistance needs for the programs, and future plans for the grant program.

(e) The secretary shall award grants to technical assistance providers of no less than ten thousand dollars ($10,000) and up to one hundred thousand dollars ($100,000) annually for no more than three years, for a total grant of not more than three hundred thousand dollars ($300,000) per technical assistance provider. A technical assistance provider that demonstrates on its application that the majority of the persons it provides technical assistance to are socially disadvantaged farmers or ranchers shall receive priority consideration for additional grant program funding to cover translation services, the production of outreach materials, and additional outreach-related expenses.

15071.

 (a) The secretary may, after a hearing, refuse to issue or renew, or may suspend or revoke, a license for any violation of this chapter or any regulation that is adopted pursuant to this chapter.

(b) A person against whom a licensing action is initiated may appeal to the secretary by requesting a hearing. If a hearing is not requested, the licensing action shall constitute a final and nonreviewable order.

(c) An appeal pursuant to this section shall be submitted in accordance with subdivision (d) of Section 15071.1 and with Section 1094.5 of the Code of Civil Procedure.

15071.1.

 (a) The department shall levy an administrative penalty against a person who violates this chapter or the regulations adopted pursuant to this chapter in an amount of not more than five thousand dollars ($5,000) for the first violation and not less than five thousand dollars ($5,000) for each subsequent violation. The department may consider the severity, intent, and repeat nature of violations in issuing penalties. The department shall base the amount of the penalty assessed for each violation upon the nature of the violation, the seriousness of the effect of the violation upon the effectuation of the purposes and provisions of this chapter, and the impact of the penalty on the violator, including the deterrent effect on future violations.

(b) The secretary may issue a notice of warning, in lieu of an administrative penalty, upon a finding that the violation is minor or unintentional.

(c) A person against whom an administrative penalty is levied shall be afforded an opportunity for a hearing before the secretary, upon a request made within 30 days after the date of issuance of the notice of penalty. At the hearing, the person shall be given the right to present evidence on the person’s own behalf. If a hearing is not requested, the administrative penalty shall constitute a final and nonreviewable order.

(d) If a hearing is held, review of the decision of the secretary may be sought by the person against whom the administrative penalty is levied within 30 days of the date of the final order of the secretary pursuant to Section 1094.5 of the Code of Civil Procedure.

(e) After completion of the hearing procedure pursuant to subdivision (c), the secretary may file a certified copy of the department’s final decision that directs payment of an administrative penalty, and if applicable, any order denying a petition for a writ of administrative mandamus, with the clerk of the superior court of any county that has jurisdiction over the matter. Judgment shall be entered immediately by the clerk in conformity with the decision or order. Pursuant to Section 6103 of the Government Code, the clerk of the superior court shall not charge a fee for the performance of any official service required in connection with the entry of judgment pursuant to this section.

(f) Any funds recovered by the secretary pursuant to this section shall be deposited in a special account in the Department of Food and Agriculture Fund, and, notwithstanding Section 13340 of the Government Code, are continuously appropriated to the department to cover costs related to the enforcement of this chapter.

19020.

 This chapter does not apply to any of the following:

(a) Owners who slaughter, on their own premises, livestock of their own raising where the meat is not for sale, but used exclusively by the owners, members of the owner’s household, the owner’s employees, and nonpaying guests.

(b) A mobile slaughter operator who provides services to an owner as specified in subdivision (a) where the slaughter occurs on the owner’s premises and the meat is thereafter transported for the owner to an establishment for further processing.

(c) (1) A mobile slaughter operator who provides services to an owner of livestock, if the slaughter occurs on the premises of a person who raised the livestock and who is not the owner of the livestock, subject to the following conditions:

(A) Before the slaughter, the livestock are inspected pursuant to Section 21051.

(B) After the slaughter, the meat is transported for the owner to an establishment for further processing.

(C) The meat is not for sale, but is used exclusively by the owner, members of the owner’s household, the owner’s employees, and nonpaying guests.

(D) The person who raised the livestock maintains a record of the owner of the livestock and of the total number of animals slaughtered.

(E) If conducting multiple slaughter operations at a premises, the mobile slaughter operator maintains a record of the total number of animals slaughtered and the premises where the slaughter occurred.

(F) The mobile slaughter operator follows the guidelines published by the Association of Food and Drug Officials in the Guidelines for Exempt Slaughter and Processing Operations publication.

(2) The exemption in paragraph (1) does not apply to the slaughter of more than five head of cattle on a single premises in a calendar month.

(d) Persons solely engaged in cutting, wrapping, and otherwise processing farm or custom slaughter livestock or the processing and sale of fresh meats derived from United States Department of Agriculture inspected carcasses, except the curing, smoking, and preparing of cooked or smoked sausages or cooked pork products that are not exempted under subdivision (b) of Section 18814.

(e) Livestock slaughter and meat and poultry processing inspected by the United States Department of Agriculture.

21070.

 (a) The secretary may issue an annual exhibition permit to allow cattle to be transported out of the state during the permit year without the inspection required pursuant to this article, if all of the following conditions are met:

(1) The cattle are inspected before issuance of the permit.

(2) The cattle are only moved for exhibition purposes.

(3) There is no change in ownership of the cattle.

(4) The cattle return to the state of origin.

(5) The cattle have an official form of identification.

(b) The department may charge a fee to cover its costs in issuing and renewing the annual exhibition permit. The fee shall not exceed ten dollars ($10) per head.

(c) The department shall accept the exhibition permits of other states and allow cattle to return to their state of origin under those permits without an inspection.

(d) The secretary may, at any time, revoke an exhibition permit if the chief determines that this action is necessary to enforce this division.

21281.5.

 In addition to other applicable fees, as provided by this chapter, the secretary may impose a service charge in an amount not to exceed twenty-five dollars ($25) for an inspection of 29 head of cattle or less at each site, or a service charge of fifteen dollars ($15) for an inspection of 30 head of cattle or more at each site.

65001.

 The Legislature finds and declares all of the following:

(a) The production of cattle for both beef and dairy constitutes a paramount industry of this state that not only provides substantial revenues for the state but also provides willing consumers with local and nutritious food.

(b) The raising of beef and dairy cattle provides a viable living for many Californians and serves as the economic foundation for many rural communities. Cattle producers strive to be stewards of the resources they manage and the existence of ranching in California serves the public by providing numerous environmental and aesthetic benefits that would otherwise be lost without the use of California’s various range and pasture lands as working landscapes.

(c) Cattle production in California reflects a diverse set of family farmers and ranchers, including women- and minority-owned businesses, that provide a varied line of beef and dairy products through conventional, organic, grass-fed, kosher, halal, and other production methods that fill niche markets desired by willing consumers. Cattle producers vary in size from small to large based on the total number of animals raised and contribute equally to providing wholesome beef and dairy products to willing consumers.

(d) The stabilization, maintenance, and expansion of the cattle industry of California and the expansion of local, state, nationwide, and foreign markets for California beef and other products derived from the California cattle industry are necessary in order to provide willing consumers an adequate supply of high-quality California beef and dairy products.

(e) The council’s form of administration created by this chapter is uniquely situated to provide those engaged principally in the production of cattle, along with beef and other products derived from the California cattle industry, the opportunity to avail themselves of the benefits of collective action in advertising, promotion, food safety, production research, nutrition, marketing research, the collection and dissemination of production and related statistics, and public education.

65068.

 (a) Five years after implementation of this chapter, the secretary shall hold a public hearing after providing proper notice to producers subject to this chapter and any other persons or entities who have requested, in writing, notice of the hearing to determine whether the operation of this chapter should be continued. If, after the hearing, the secretary finds that a substantial question exists among the producers assessed under this chapter as to whether the operation of this chapter should be continued, the secretary shall conduct a reapproval referendum to be conducted among producers to determine whether the operation of this chapter shall be reapproved and continue in effect.

(b) If the secretary finds, after conducting a hearing, that no substantial question exists or if a reapproval referendum is required and a majority of eligible producers voting in the referendum voted in favor of continuing the operation of this chapter, the secretary shall certify the vote and this chapter shall remain operative. If the secretary finds that a majority vote has not been given, the secretary shall certify the vote and declare the operation of this chapter suspended and the operations of the council concluded and funds distributed in the manner provided in subdivision (c). A bond or security shall not be required for the referendum. The secretary shall provide public notice of the suspension of this chapter on the department’s internet website.

(c) On the expiration of this chapter pursuant to this article, the council shall remain in existence for the purpose of furnishing the secretary with a complete record of its outstanding financial obligations, accrued and to accrue. The secretary shall pay from the money deposited and disbursed any outstanding obligations and any obligations incurred by the secretary and the department under the terms and provisions of this section. Any money that remains shall be retained by the secretary to defray the expenses of formulation, issuance, administration, or enforcement of any subsequent program for beef promotion. If such a program is not undertaken within a period of three years from the date of termination of this chapter, the money shall be used to fund activities related to the subject matter of this chapter at the discretion of the secretary.

(d) Following a hearing and favorable referendum, if required, the process specified in this section shall be conducted by the secretary every five years between July 1 and June 30 of the following year.

6205.5.

 Unless the context clearly requires otherwise, the definitions in this section apply throughout this chapter.

(a) “Address” means a residential street address, school address, or work address of an individual, as specified on the individual’s application to be a program participant under this chapter.

(b) “Cohabitant” has the same meaning as in subdivision (b) of Section 18291 of the Welfare and Institutions Code.

(c) “Domestic violence” means an act as defined in Section 6211 of the Family Code.

(d) “Domicile” means a place of habitation as defined in Section 349 of the Elections Code.

(e) “Elder or dependent adult abuse” means an act described in Section 15610.07 of the Welfare and Institutions Code or an offense described in Section 368 of the Penal Code.

(f) “Household member” means an adult person who resides at the same residential address as the applicant or participant and is related to the applicant or participant by blood, marriage, registered domestic partnership, adoption, or is a cohabitant of an applicant or participant.

(g) “Human trafficking” means any act punishable pursuant to Section 236.1 of the Penal Code.

(h) “Program participant” means a person certified as a program participant under Section 6206.

(i) “Sexual assault” means an act or attempt made punishable by Section 220, 261, 261.5, 262, 264.1, 266c, 269, 285, 286, 287, 288, 288.5, 289, or 647.6 of, or former Section 288a of, the Penal Code.

(j) “Stalking” means an act as defined in Section 646.9 of the Penal Code.

6254.

 Except as provided in Sections 6254.7 and 6254.13, this chapter does not require the disclosure of any of the following records:

(a) Preliminary drafts, notes, or interagency or intra-agency memoranda that are not retained by the public agency in the ordinary course of business, if the public interest in withholding those records clearly outweighs the public interest in disclosure.

(b) Records pertaining to pending litigation to which the public agency is a party, or to claims made pursuant to Division 3.6 (commencing with Section 810), until the pending litigation or claim has been finally adjudicated or otherwise settled.

(c) Personnel, medical, or similar files, the disclosure of which would constitute an unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.

(d) Records contained in or related to any of the following:

(1) Applications filed with any state agency responsible for the regulation or supervision of the issuance of securities or of financial institutions, including, but not limited to, banks, savings and loan associations, industrial loan companies, credit unions, and insurance companies.

(2) Examination, operating, or condition reports prepared by, on behalf of, or for the use of, any state agency referred to in paragraph (1).

(3) Preliminary drafts, notes, or interagency or intra-agency communications prepared by, on behalf of, or for the use of, any state agency referred to in paragraph (1).

(4) Information received in confidence by any state agency referred to in paragraph (1).

(e) Geological and geophysical data, plant production data, and similar information relating to utility systems development, or market or crop reports, that are obtained in confidence from any person.

(f) Records of complaints to, or investigations conducted by, or records of intelligence information or security procedures of, the office of the Attorney General and the Department of Justice, the Office of Emergency Services and any state or local police agency, or any investigatory or security files compiled by any other state or local police agency, or any investigatory or security files compiled by any other state or local agency for correctional, law enforcement, or licensing purposes. However, state and local law enforcement agencies shall disclose the names and addresses of persons involved in, or witnesses other than confidential informants to, the incident, the description of any property involved, the date, time, and location of the incident, all diagrams, statements of the parties involved in the incident, the statements of all witnesses, other than confidential informants, to the victims of an incident, or an authorized representative thereof, an insurance carrier against which a claim has been or might be made, and any person suffering bodily injury or property damage or loss, as the result of the incident caused by arson, burglary, fire, explosion, larceny, robbery, carjacking, vandalism, vehicle theft, or a crime as defined by subdivision (b) of Section 13951, unless the disclosure would endanger the safety of a witness or other person involved in the investigation, or unless disclosure would endanger the successful completion of the investigation or a related investigation. However, this subdivision does not require the disclosure of that portion of those investigative files that reflects the analysis or conclusions of the investigating officer.

Customer lists provided to a state or local police agency by an alarm or security company at the request of the agency shall be construed to be records subject to this subdivision.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this subdivision, state and local law enforcement agencies shall make public the following information, except to the extent that disclosure of a particular item of information would endanger the safety of a person involved in an investigation or would endanger the successful completion of the investigation or a related investigation:

(1) The full name and occupation of every individual arrested by the agency, the individual’s physical description including date of birth, color of eyes and hair, sex, height and weight, the time and date of arrest, the time and date of booking, the location of the arrest, the factual circumstances surrounding the arrest, the amount of bail set, the time and manner of release or the location where the individual is currently being held, and all charges the individual is being held upon, including any outstanding warrants from other jurisdictions and parole or probation holds.

(2) (A) Subject to the restrictions imposed by Section 841.5 of the Penal Code, the time, substance, and location of all complaints or requests for assistance received by the agency and the time and nature of the response thereto, including, to the extent the information regarding crimes alleged or committed or any other incident investigated is recorded, the time, date, and location of occurrence, the time and date of the report, the name and age of the victim, the factual circumstances surrounding the crime or incident, and a general description of any injuries, property, or weapons involved. The name of a victim of any crime defined by Section 220, 261, 261.5, 262, 264, 264.1, 265, 266, 266a, 266b, 266c, 266e, 266f, 266j, 267, 269, 273a, 273d, 273.5, 285, 286, 287, 288, 288.2, 288.3, 288.4, 288.5, 288.7, 289, 422.6, 422.7, 422.75, 646.9, or 647.6 of, or former Section 288a of, the Penal Code may be withheld at the victim’s request, or at the request of the victim’s parent or guardian if the victim is a minor. When a person is the victim of more than one crime, information disclosing that the person is a victim of a crime defined in any of the sections of the Penal Code set forth in this subdivision may be deleted at the request of the victim, or the victim’s parent or guardian if the victim is a minor, in making the report of the crime, or of any crime or incident accompanying the crime, available to the public in compliance with the requirements of this paragraph.

(B) Subject to the restrictions imposed by Section 841.5 of the Penal Code, the names and images of a victim of human trafficking, as defined in Section 236.1 of the Penal Code, and of that victim’s immediate family, other than a family member who is charged with a criminal offense arising from the same incident, may be withheld at the victim’s request until the investigation or any subsequent prosecution is complete. For purposes of this subdivision, “immediate family” has the same meaning as that provided in paragraph (3) of subdivision (b) of Section 422.4 of the Penal Code.

(3) Subject to the restrictions of Section 841.5 of the Penal Code and this subdivision, the current address of every individual arrested by the agency and the current address of the victim of a crime, if the requester declares under penalty of perjury that the request is made for a scholarly, journalistic, political, or governmental purpose, or that the request is made for investigation purposes by a licensed private investigator as described in Chapter 11.3 (commencing with Section 7512) of Division 3 of the Business and Professions Code. However, the address of the victim of any crime defined by Section 220, 236.1, 261, 261.5, 262, 264, 264.1, 265, 266, 266a, 266b, 266c, 266e, 266f, 266j, 267, 269, 273a, 273d, 273.5, 285, 286, 287, 288, 288.2, 288.3, 288.4, 288.5, 288.7, 289, 422.6, 422.7, 422.75, 646.9, or 647.6 of, or former Section 288a of, the Penal Code shall remain confidential. Address information obtained pursuant to this paragraph shall not be used directly or indirectly, or furnished to another, to sell a product or service to any individual or group of individuals, and the requester shall execute a declaration to that effect under penalty of perjury. This paragraph shall not be construed to prohibit or limit a scholarly, journalistic, political, or government use of address information obtained pursuant to this paragraph.

(4) Notwithstanding any other provision of this subdivision, commencing July 1, 2019, a video or audio recording that relates to a critical incident, as defined in subparagraph (C), may be withheld only as follows:

(A) (i) During an active criminal or administrative investigation, disclosure of a recording related to a critical incident may be delayed for no longer than 45 calendar days after the date the agency knew or reasonably should have known about the incident, if, based on the facts and circumstances depicted in the recording, disclosure would substantially interfere with the investigation, such as by endangering the safety of a witness or a confidential source. If an agency delays disclosure pursuant to this paragraph, the agency shall provide in writing to the requester the specific basis for the agency’s determination that disclosure would substantially interfere with the investigation and the estimated date for disclosure.

(ii) After 45 days from the date the agency knew or reasonably should have known about the incident, and up to one year from that date, the agency may continue to delay disclosure of a recording if the agency demonstrates that disclosure would substantially interfere with the investigation. After one year from the date the agency knew or reasonably should have known about the incident, the agency may continue to delay disclosure of a recording only if the agency demonstrates by clear and convincing evidence that disclosure would substantially interfere with the investigation. If an agency delays disclosure pursuant to this clause, the agency shall promptly provide in writing to the requester the specific basis for the agency’s determination that the interest in preventing interference with an active investigation outweighs the public interest in disclosure and provide the estimated date for the disclosure. The agency shall reassess withholding and notify the requester every 30 days. A recording withheld by the agency shall be disclosed promptly when the specific basis for withholding is resolved.

(B) (i) If the agency demonstrates, on the facts of the particular case, that the public interest in withholding a video or audio recording clearly outweighs the public interest in disclosure because the release of the recording would, based on the facts and circumstances depicted in the recording, violate the reasonable expectation of privacy of a subject depicted in the recording, the agency shall provide in writing to the requester the specific basis for the expectation of privacy and the public interest served by withholding the recording and may use redaction technology, including blurring or distorting images or audio, to obscure those specific portions of the recording that protect that interest. However, the redaction shall not interfere with the viewer’s ability to fully, completely, and accurately comprehend the events captured in the recording and the recording shall not otherwise be edited or altered.

(ii) Except as provided in clause (iii), if the agency demonstrates that the reasonable expectation of privacy of a subject depicted in the recording cannot adequately be protected through redaction as described in clause (i) and that interest outweighs the public interest in disclosure, the agency may withhold the recording from the public, except that the recording, either redacted as provided in clause (i) or unredacted, shall be disclosed promptly, upon request, to any of the following:

(I) The subject of the recording whose privacy is to be protected, or the subject’s authorized representative.

(II) If the subject is a minor, the parent or legal guardian of the subject whose privacy is to be protected.

(III) If the subject whose privacy is to be protected is deceased, an heir, beneficiary, designated immediate family member, or authorized legal representative of the deceased subject whose privacy is to be protected.

(iii) If disclosure pursuant to clause (ii) would substantially interfere with an active criminal or administrative investigation, the agency shall provide in writing to the requester the specific basis for the agency’s determination that disclosure would substantially interfere with the investigation, and provide the video or audio recording. Thereafter, the recording may be withheld by the agency for 45 calendar days, subject to extensions as set forth in clause (ii) of subparagraph (A).

(C) For purposes of this paragraph, a video or audio recording relates to a critical incident if it depicts any of the following incidents:

(i) An incident involving the discharge of a firearm at a person by a peace officer or custodial officer.

(ii) An incident in which the use of force by a peace officer or custodial officer against a person resulted in death or in great bodily injury.

(D) An agency may provide greater public access to video or audio recordings than the minimum standards set forth in this paragraph.

(E) This paragraph does not alter, limit, or negate any other rights, remedies, or obligations with respect to public records regarding an incident other than a critical incident as described in subparagraph (C).

(F) For purposes of this paragraph, a peace officer does not include any peace officer employed by the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation.

(g) Test questions, scoring keys, and other examination data used to administer a licensing examination, examination for employment, or academic examination, except as provided for in Chapter 3 (commencing with Section 99150) of Part 65 of Division 14 of Title 3 of the Education Code.

(h) The contents of real estate appraisals or engineering or feasibility estimates and evaluations made for or by the state or local agency relative to the acquisition of property, or to prospective public supply and construction contracts, until all of the property has been acquired or all of the contract agreement obtained. However, the law of eminent domain is not affected by this provision.

(i) Information required from any taxpayer in connection with the collection of local taxes that is received in confidence and the disclosure of the information to other persons would result in unfair competitive disadvantage to the person supplying the information.

(j) Library circulation records kept for the purpose of identifying the borrower of items available in libraries, and library and museum materials made or acquired and presented solely for reference or exhibition purposes. The exemption in this subdivision shall not apply to records of fines imposed on the borrowers.

(k) Records, the disclosure of which is exempted or prohibited pursuant to federal or state law, including, but not limited to, provisions of the Evidence Code relating to privilege.

(l) Correspondence of and to the Governor or employees of the Governor’s office or in the custody of or maintained by the Governor’s Legal Affairs Secretary. However, public records shall not be transferred to the custody of the Governor’s Legal Affairs Secretary to evade the disclosure provisions of this chapter.

(m) In the custody of or maintained by the Legislative Counsel, except those records in the public database maintained by the Legislative Counsel that are described in Section 10248.

(n) Statements of personal worth or personal financial data required by a licensing agency and filed by an applicant with the licensing agency to establish the applicant’s personal qualification for the license, certificate, or permit applied for.

(o) Financial data contained in applications for financing under Division 27 (commencing with Section 44500) of the Health and Safety Code, if an authorized officer of the California Pollution Control Financing Authority determines that disclosure of the financial data would be competitively injurious to the applicant and the data is required in order to obtain guarantees from the United States Small Business Administration. The California Pollution Control Financing Authority shall adopt rules for review of individual requests for confidentiality under this section and for making available to the public those portions of an application that are subject to disclosure under this chapter.

(p) (1)  Records of state agencies related to activities governed by Chapter 10.3 (commencing with Section 3512), Chapter 10.5 (commencing with Section 3525), and Chapter 12 (commencing with Section 3560) of Division 4, that reveal a state agency’s deliberative processes, impressions, evaluations, opinions, recommendations, meeting minutes, research, work products, theories, or strategy, or that provide instruction, advice, or training to employees who do not have full collective bargaining and representation rights under these chapters. This paragraph shall not be construed to limit the disclosure duties of a state agency with respect to any other records relating to the activities governed by the employee relations acts referred to in this paragraph.

(2) Records of local agencies related to activities governed by Chapter 10 (commencing with Section 3500) of Division 4, that reveal a local agency’s deliberative processes, impressions, evaluations, opinions, recommendations, meeting minutes, research, work products, theories, or strategy, or that provide instruction, advice, or training to employees who do not have full collective bargaining and representation rights under that chapter. This paragraph shall not be construed to limit the disclosure duties of a local agency with respect to any other records relating to the activities governed by the employee relations act referred to in this paragraph.

(q) (1) Records of state agencies related to activities governed by Article 2.6 (commencing with Section 14081), Article 2.8 (commencing with Section 14087.5), and Article 2.91 (commencing with Section 14089) of Chapter 7 of Part 3 of Division 9 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, that reveal the special negotiator’s deliberative processes, discussions, communications, or any other portion of the negotiations with providers of health care services, impressions, opinions, recommendations, meeting minutes, research, work product, theories, or strategy, or that provide instruction, advice, or training to employees.

(2) Except for the portion of a contract containing the rates of payment, contracts for inpatient services entered into pursuant to these articles, on or after April 1, 1984, shall be open to inspection one year after they are fully executed. If a contract for inpatient services that is entered into prior to April 1, 1984, is amended on or after April 1, 1984, the amendment, except for any portion containing the rates of payment, shall be open to inspection one year after it is fully executed. If the California Medical Assistance Commission enters into contracts with health care providers for other than inpatient hospital services, those contracts shall be open to inspection one year after they are fully executed.

(3) Three years after a contract or amendment is open to inspection under this subdivision, the portion of the contract or amendment containing the rates of payment shall be open to inspection.

(4) Notwithstanding any other law, the entire contract or amendment shall be open to inspection by the Joint Legislative Audit Committee and the Legislative Analyst’s Office. The committee and that office shall maintain the confidentiality of the contracts and amendments until the time a contract or amendment is fully open to inspection by the public.

(r) Records of Native American graves, cemeteries, and sacred places and records of Native American places, features, and objects described in Sections 5097.9 and 5097.993 of the Public Resources Code maintained by, or in the possession of, the Native American Heritage Commission, another state agency, or a local agency.

(s) A final accreditation report of the Joint Commission on Accreditation of Hospitals that has been transmitted to the State Department of Health Care Services pursuant to subdivision (b) of Section 1282 of the Health and Safety Code.

(t) Records of a local hospital district, formed pursuant to Division 23 (commencing with Section 32000) of the Health and Safety Code, or the records of a municipal hospital, formed pursuant to Article 7 (commencing with Section 37600) or Article 8 (commencing with Section 37650) of Chapter 5 of Part 2 of Division 3 of Title 4 of this code, that relate to any contract with an insurer or nonprofit hospital service plan for inpatient or outpatient services for alternative rates pursuant to Section 10133 of the Insurance Code. However, the record shall be open to inspection within one year after the contract is fully executed.

(u) (1) Information contained in applications for licenses to carry firearms issued pursuant to Section 26150, 26155, 26170, or 26215 of the Penal Code by the sheriff of a county or the chief or other head of a municipal police department that indicates when or where the applicant is vulnerable to attack or that concerns the applicant’s medical or psychological history or that of members of the applicant’s family.

(2) The home address and telephone number of prosecutors, public defenders, peace officers, judges, court commissioners, and magistrates that are set forth in applications for licenses to carry firearms issued pursuant to Section 26150, 26155, 26170, or 26215 of the Penal Code by the sheriff of a county or the chief or other head of a municipal police department.

(3) The home address and telephone number of prosecutors, public defenders, peace officers, judges, court commissioners, and magistrates that are set forth in licenses to carry firearms issued pursuant to Section 26150, 26155, 26170, or 26215 of the Penal Code by the sheriff of a county or the chief or other head of a municipal police department.

(v) (1) Records of the Managed Risk Medical Insurance Board and the State Department of Health Care Services related to activities governed by former Part 6.3 (commencing with Section 12695), former Part 6.5 (commencing with Section 12700), Part 6.6 (commencing with Section 12739.5), or Part 6.7 (commencing with Section 12739.70) of Division 2 of the Insurance Code, or Chapter 2 (commencing with Section 15810) or Chapter 4 (commencing with Section 15870) of Part 3.3 of Division 9 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, and that reveal any of the following:

(A) The deliberative processes, discussions, communications, or any other portion of the negotiations with entities contracting or seeking to contract with the board or the department, entities with which the board or the department is considering a contract, or entities with which the board or department is considering or enters into any other arrangement under which the board or the department provides, receives, or arranges services or reimbursement.

(B) The impressions, opinions, recommendations, meeting minutes, research, work product, theories, or strategy of the board or its staff or the department or its staff, or records that provide instructions, advice, or training to their employees.

(2) (A) Except for the portion of a contract that contains the rates of payment, contracts entered into pursuant to former Part 6.3 (commencing with Section 12695), former Part 6.5 (commencing with Section 12700), Part 6.6 (commencing with Section 12739.5), or Part 6.7 (commencing with Section 12739.70) of Division 2 of the Insurance Code, or Chapter 2 (commencing with Section 15810) or Chapter 4 (commencing with Section 15870) of Part 3.3 of Division 9 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, on or after July 1, 1991, shall be open to inspection one year after their effective dates.

(B) If a contract that is entered into prior to July 1, 1991, is amended on or after July 1, 1991, the amendment, except for any portion containing the rates of payment, shall be open to inspection one year after the effective date of the amendment.

(3) Three years after a contract or amendment is open to inspection pursuant to this subdivision, the portion of the contract or amendment containing the rates of payment shall be open to inspection.

(4) Notwithstanding any other law, the entire contract or amendments to a contract shall be open to inspection by the Joint Legislative Audit Committee. The committee shall maintain the confidentiality of the contracts and amendments thereto, until the contracts or amendments to the contracts are open to inspection pursuant to paragraph (3).

(w) (1) Records of the Managed Risk Medical Insurance Board related to activities governed by Chapter 8 (commencing with Section 10700) of Part 2 of Division 2 of the Insurance Code, and that reveal the deliberative processes, discussions, communications, or any other portion of the negotiations with health plans, or the impressions, opinions, recommendations, meeting minutes, research, work product, theories, or strategy of the board or its staff, or records that provide instructions, advice, or training to employees.

(2) Except for the portion of a contract that contains the rates of payment, contracts for health coverage entered into pursuant to Chapter 8 (commencing with Section 10700) of Part 2 of Division 2 of the Insurance Code, on or after January 1, 1993, shall be open to inspection one year after they have been fully executed.

(3) Notwithstanding any other law, the entire contract or amendments to a contract shall be open to inspection by the Joint Legislative Audit Committee. The committee shall maintain the confidentiality of the contracts and amendments thereto, until the contracts or amendments to the contracts are open to inspection pursuant to paragraph (2).

(x) Financial data contained in applications for registration, or registration renewal, as a service contractor filed with the Director of Consumer Affairs pursuant to Chapter 20 (commencing with Section 9800) of Division 3 of the Business and Professions Code, for the purpose of establishing the service contractor’s net worth, or financial data regarding the funded accounts held in escrow for service contracts held in force in this state by a service contractor.

(y) (1) Records of the Managed Risk Medical Insurance Board and the State Department of Health Care Services related to activities governed by Part 6.2 (commencing with Section 12693) or former Part 6.4 (commencing with Section 12699.50) of Division 2 of the Insurance Code or Sections 14005.26 and 14005.27 of, or Chapter 3 (commencing with Section 15850) of Part 3.3 of Division 9 of, the Welfare and Institutions Code, if the records reveal any of the following:

(A) The deliberative processes, discussions, communications, or any other portion of the negotiations with entities contracting or seeking to contract with the board or the department, entities with which the board or department is considering a contract, or entities with which the board or department is considering or enters into any other arrangement under which the board or department provides, receives, or arranges services or reimbursement.

(B) The impressions, opinions, recommendations, meeting minutes, research, work product, theories, or strategy of the board or its staff, or the department or its staff, or records that provide instructions, advice, or training to employees.

(2) (A) Except for the portion of a contract that contains the rates of payment, contracts entered into pursuant to Part 6.2 (commencing with Section 12693) or former Part 6.4 (commencing with Section 12699.50) of Division 2 of the Insurance Code, on or after January 1, 1998, or Sections 14005.26 and 14005.27 of, or Chapter 3 (commencing with Section 15850) of Part 3.3 of Division 9 of, the Welfare and Institutions Code shall be open to inspection one year after their effective dates.

(B) If a contract entered into pursuant to Part 6.2 (commencing with Section 12693) or former Part 6.4 (commencing with Section 12699.50) of Division 2 of the Insurance Code or Sections 14005.26 and 14005.27 of, or Chapter 3 (commencing with Section 15850) of Part 3.3 of Division 9 of, the Welfare and Institutions Code, is amended, the amendment shall be open to inspection one year after the effective date of the amendment.

(3) Three years after a contract or amendment is open to inspection pursuant to this subdivision, the portion of the contract or amendment containing the rates of payment shall be open to inspection.

(4) Notwithstanding any other law, the entire contract or amendments to a contract shall be open to inspection by the Joint Legislative Audit Committee. The committee shall maintain the confidentiality of the contracts and amendments thereto until the contract or amendments to a contract are open to inspection pursuant to paragraph (2) or (3).

(5) The exemption from disclosure provided pursuant to this subdivision for the contracts, deliberative processes, discussions, communications, negotiations, impressions, opinions, recommendations, meeting minutes, research, work product, theories, or strategy of the board or its staff, or the department or its staff, shall also apply to the contracts, deliberative processes, discussions, communications, negotiations, impressions, opinions, recommendations, meeting minutes, research, work product, theories, or strategy of applicants pursuant to Part 6.4 (commencing with Section 12699.50) of Division 2 of the Insurance Code or Chapter 3 (commencing with Section 15850) of Part 3.3 of Division 9 of the Welfare and Institutions Code.

(z) Records obtained pursuant to paragraph (2) of subdivision (f) of Section 2891.1 of the Public Utilities Code.

(aa) A document prepared by or for a state or local agency that assesses its vulnerability to terrorist attack or other criminal acts intended to disrupt the public agency’s operations and that is for distribution or consideration in a closed session.

(ab) Critical infrastructure information, as defined in Section 131(3) of Title 6 of the United States Code, that is voluntarily submitted to the Office of Emergency Services for use by that office, including the identity of the person who or entity that voluntarily submitted the information. As used in this subdivision, “voluntarily submitted” means submitted in the absence of the office exercising any legal authority to compel access to or submission of critical infrastructure information. This subdivision does not affect the status of information in the possession of any other state or local governmental agency.

(ac) All information provided to the Secretary of State by a person for the purpose of registration in the Advance Health Care Directive Registry, except that those records shall be released at the request of a health care provider, a public guardian, or the registrant’s legal representative.

(ad) The following records of the State Compensation Insurance Fund:

(1) Records related to claims pursuant to Chapter 1 (commencing with Section 3200) of Division 4 of the Labor Code, to the extent that confidential medical information or other individually identifiable information would be disclosed.

(2) Records related to the discussions, communications, or any other portion of the negotiations with entities contracting or seeking to contract with the fund, and any related deliberations.

(3) Records related to the impressions, opinions, recommendations, meeting minutes of meetings or sessions that are lawfully closed to the public, research, work product, theories, or strategy of the fund or its staff, on the development of rates, contracting strategy, underwriting, or competitive strategy pursuant to the powers granted to the fund in Chapter 4 (commencing with Section 11770) of Part 3 of Division 2 of the Insurance Code.

(4) Records obtained to provide workers’ compensation insurance under Chapter 4 (commencing with Section 11770) of Part 3 of Division 2 of the Insurance Code, including, but not limited to, any medical claims information, policyholder information provided that this paragraph shall not be interpreted to prevent an insurance agent or broker from obtaining proprietary information or other information authorized by law to be obtained by the agent or broker, and information on rates, pricing, and claims handling received from brokers.

(5) (A) Records that are trade secrets pursuant to Section 6276.44, or Article 11 (commencing with Section 1060) of Chapter 4 of Division 8 of the Evidence Code, including, without limitation, instructions, advice, or training provided by the State Compensation Insurance Fund to its board members, officers, and employees regarding the fund’s special investigation unit, internal audit unit, and informational security, marketing, rating, pricing, underwriting, claims handling, audits, and collections.

(B) Notwithstanding subparagraph (A), the portions of records containing trade secrets shall be available for review by the Joint Legislative Audit Committee, California State Auditor’s Office, Division of Workers’ Compensation, and the Department of Insurance to ensure compliance with applicable law.

(6) (A) Internal audits containing proprietary information and the following records that are related to an internal audit:

(i) Personal papers and correspondence of any person providing assistance to the fund when that person has requested in writing that the person’s papers and correspondence be kept private and confidential. Those papers and correspondence shall become public records if the written request is withdrawn, or upon order of the fund.

(ii) Papers, correspondence, memoranda, or any substantive information pertaining to any audit not completed or an internal audit that contains proprietary information.

(B) Notwithstanding subparagraph (A), the portions of records containing proprietary information, or any information specified in subparagraph (A) shall be available for review by the Joint Legislative Audit Committee, California State Auditor’s Office, Division of Workers’ Compensation, and the Department of Insurance to ensure compliance with applicable law.

(7) (A) Except as provided in subparagraph (C), contracts entered into pursuant to Chapter 4 (commencing with Section 11770) of Part 3 of Division 2 of the Insurance Code shall be open to inspection one year after the contract has been fully executed.

(B) If a contract entered into pursuant to Chapter 4 (commencing with Section 11770) of Part 3 of Division 2 of the Insurance Code is amended, the amendment shall be open to inspection one year after the amendment has been fully executed.

(C) Three years after a contract or amendment is open to inspection pursuant to this subdivision, the portion of the contract or amendment containing the rates of payment shall be open to inspection.

(D) Notwithstanding any other law, the entire contract or amendments to a contract shall be open to inspection by the Joint Legislative Audit Committee. The committee shall maintain the confidentiality of the contracts and amendments thereto until the contract or amendments to a contract are open to inspection pursuant to this paragraph.

(E) This paragraph does not apply to documents related to contracts with public entities that are not otherwise expressly confidential as to that public entity.

(F) For purposes of this paragraph, “fully executed” means the point in time when all of the necessary parties to the contract have signed the contract.

This section does not prevent any agency from opening its records concerning the administration of the agency to public inspection, unless disclosure is otherwise prohibited by law.

This section does not prevent any health facility from disclosing to a certified bargaining agent relevant financing information pursuant to Section 8 of the National Labor Relations Act (29 U.S.C. Sec. 158).

6259.

 (a) Whenever it is made to appear by verified petition to the superior court of the county where the records or some part thereof are situated that certain public records are being improperly withheld from a member of the public, the court shall order the officer or person charged with withholding the records to disclose the public record or show cause why the officer or person should not do so. The court shall decide the case after examining the record in camera, if permitted by subdivision (b) of Section 915 of the Evidence Code, papers filed by the parties and any oral argument and additional evidence as the court may allow.

(b) If the court finds that the public official’s decision to refuse disclosure is not justified under Section 6254 or 6255, the court shall order the public official to make the record public. If the court determines that the public official was justified in refusing to make the record public, the court shall return the item to the public official without disclosing its content with an order supporting the decision refusing disclosure.

(c) In an action filed on or after January 1, 1991, an order of the court, either directing disclosure by a public official or supporting the decision of the public official refusing disclosure, is not a final judgment or order within the meaning of Section 904.1 of the Code of Civil Procedure from which an appeal may be taken, but shall be immediately reviewable by petition to the appellate court for the issuance of an extraordinary writ. Upon entry of any order pursuant to this section, a party shall, in order to obtain review of the order, file a petition within 20 days after service upon the party of a written notice of entry of the order, or within such further time not exceeding an additional 20 days as the trial court may for good cause allow. If the notice is served by mail, the period within which to file the petition shall be increased by five days. A stay of an order or judgment shall not be granted unless the petitioning party demonstrates it will otherwise sustain irreparable damage and probable success on the merits. Any person who fails to obey the order of the court shall be cited to show cause why that person is not in contempt of court.

(d) The court shall award court costs and reasonable attorney’s fees to the requester should the requester prevail in litigation filed pursuant to this section. The costs and fees shall be paid by the public agency of which the public official is a member or employee and shall not become a personal liability of the public official. If the court finds that the requester’s case is clearly frivolous, it shall award court costs and reasonable attorney’s fees to the public agency.

(e) This section shall not be construed to limit a requestor’s right to obtain fees and costs pursuant to subdivision (d) or pursuant to any other law.

8334.

 (a) (1) On or before July 1, 2020, each state agency shall register every grant the state agency administers with the California State Library prior to commencing a solicitation or award process for distribution of the grant. Each agency shall provide information regarding the grant, that assists the California State Library with cataloging the distribution of grants and provides potential applicants with understandable and consistent information about available funding opportunities, including, but not limited to, all of the following:

(A) The title of the grant opportunity and grant identification number.

(B) The revenue source allocated to fund the grant.

(C) The purpose of the grant.

(D) A brief description of the grant, including, but not limited to, the mechanism used to announce the availability of funding.

(E) Any eligibility requirements, including, but not limited to, any matching funds requirements.

(F) Geographic limitations, if any.

(G) A description of the total available grant funding, the number of awards, and the amounts per award.

(H) The period of time covered by the grant.

(I) The date the grant will be issued.

(J) The deadline for proposals to be submitted.

(K) Internet address for electronic submission of the proposal.

(L) Contact information of a staff member responsible for communicating the grant requirements.

(2) Each state agency shall provide a link to the California State Library’s funding opportunities internet web portal on the state agency’s internet website.

(b) On or before July 1, 2020, each state agency shall provide for the acceptance of electronic proposals for any grant administered by the state agency, as appropriate.

(c) “Grant” as used in this chapter means any mechanism used by a state agency to distribute appropriations that have been allocated for the purpose of financial assistance through a competitive or first-come, first-served award process. The term shall include loans and federal assistance funds that are administered by a state agency. The term shall not include the procurement of goods or services for a state agency nor the acquisition, construction, alteration, improvement, or repair of real property for a state agency.

(d) The Government Operations Agency shall assist the California State Library with state agency compliance and creating streamlined processes, as appropriate.

8586.5.

 (a) The Office of Emergency Services shall establish and lead the California Cybersecurity Integration Center. The California Cybersecurity Integration Center’s primary mission is to reduce the likelihood and severity of cyber incidents that could damage California’s economy, its critical infrastructure, or public and private sector computer networks in our state. The California Cybersecurity Integration Center shall serve as the central organizing hub of state government’s cybersecurity activities and coordinate information sharing with local, state, and federal agencies, tribal governments, utilities and other service providers, academic institutions, and nongovernmental organizations. The California Cybersecurity Integration Center shall be comprised of representatives from the following organizations:

(1) The Office of Emergency Services.

(2) The Office of Information Security.

(3) The State Threat Assessment Center.

(4) The Department of the California Highway Patrol.

(5) The Military Department.

(6) The Office of the Attorney General.

(7) The California Health and Human Services Agency.

(8) The California Utilities Emergency Association.

(9) The California State University.

(10) The University of California.

(11) The California Community Colleges.

(12) The United States Department of Homeland Security.

(13) The United States Federal Bureau of Investigation.

(14) The United States Secret Service.

(15) The United States Coast Guard.

(16) Other members as designated by the Director of Emergency Services.

(b) The California Cybersecurity Integration Center shall operate in close coordination with the California State Threat Assessment System and the United States Department of Homeland Security — National Cybersecurity and Communications Integration Center, including sharing cyber threat information that is received from utilities, academic institutions, private companies, and other appropriate sources. The California Cybersecurity Integration Center shall provide warnings of cyberattacks to government agencies and nongovernmental partners, coordinate information sharing among these entities, assess risks to critical infrastructure and information technology networks, prioritize cyber threats and support public and private sector partners in protecting their vulnerable infrastructure and information technology networks, enable cross-sector coordination and sharing of recommended best practices and security measures, and support cybersecurity assessments, audits, and accountability programs that are required by state law to protect the information technology networks of California’s agencies and departments.

(c) The California Cybersecurity Integration Center shall develop a statewide cybersecurity strategy, informed by recommendations from the California Task Force on Cybersecurity and in accordance with state and federal requirements, standards, and best practices. The cybersecurity strategy shall be developed to improve how cyber threats are identified, understood, and shared in order to reduce threats to California government, businesses, and consumers. The strategy shall also strengthen cyber emergency preparedness and response, standardize implementation of data protection measures, enhance digital forensics and cyber investigative capabilities, deepen expertise among California’s workforce of cybersecurity professionals, and expand cybersecurity awareness and public education.

(d) The California Cybersecurity Integration Center shall establish a Cyber Incident Response Team to serve as California’s primary unit to lead cyber threat detection, reporting, and response in coordination with public and private entities across the state. This team shall also assist law enforcement agencies with primary jurisdiction for cyber-related criminal investigations and agencies responsible for advancing information security within state government. This team shall be comprised of personnel from agencies, departments, and organizations represented in the California Cybersecurity Integration Center.

(e) Information sharing by the California Cybersecurity Integration Center shall be conducted in a manner that protects the privacy and civil liberties of individuals, safeguards sensitive information, preserves business confidentiality, and enables public officials to detect, investigate, respond to, and prevent cyberattacks that threaten public health and safety, economic stability, and national security.

8594.16.

 (a) Translating emergency notifications into the most commonly spoken language other than English is a critically important governmental activity. In order for residents impacted by an emergency to be made aware of the emergency, it is critical that emergency notifications to the public be translated either into the most commonly spoken language other than English in the impacted county or counties, or, at the option of a county, into one or more commonly spoken languages other than English in the county based on an individualized language assessment of that county.

(b) The Office of Emergency Services shall create a library of translated emergency notifications that may be used by designated alerting authorities when issuing emergency notifications. The office shall consider the two most commonly spoken languages other than English in the state when creating the library.

(c) The Office of Emergency Services shall create a translation style guide that includes a glossary of translated standard abbreviations used in emergency notifications.

(d) Designated alerting authorities shall consider using the library and translation style guide developed pursuant to subdivisions (b) and (c) when issuing emergency notifications to the public.

(e) Designated alerting authorities may use a hyperlink to the translated emergency notification in a message disseminated through a wireless emergency alert for purposes of issuing a translated alert.

(f) Six months after the Office of Emergency Services launches the library and translation style guide pursuant to subdivisions (b) and (c), the office may impose conditions upon a city’s, county’s, or city and county’s application for any voluntary grant funds that have a nexus to emergency management performance that the office administers by requiring the designated alerting authority within a city, county, or city and county to translate emergency notifications.

(g) For purposes of this section, the following definitions apply:

(1) “Designated alerting authority” means a federal, state, local, tribal, or territorial jurisdiction that is authorized to alert the public of emergency situations through federal, state, and local laws.

(2) “Emergency notification” means any message authored by a designated alerting authority intended to alert or warn the public of an imminent threat to life safety or property damage, and that is disseminated through designated alert and warning systems such as the Emergency Alert System or the federal Wireless Emergency Alerts system.

(h) This section does not delay or prohibit a designated alerting authority from issuing an emergency notification in a timely manner.

9114.5.

 (a) There is hereby appropriated, without regard to fiscal years, from the State Project Infrastructure Fund to the Operating Funds of the Assembly and Senate an amount up to twenty million dollars ($20,000,000), as determined by the agreement entered into pursuant to paragraph (1) of subdivision (b) of Section 9112, to cover the costs of the design and construction of components of the project or projects authorized by Section 9112 that will modify portions of the west wing of the State Capitol in order to facilitate a fully functional State Capitol. Any transfer of funds appropriated pursuant to this section shall occur at the same time as the transfer of funds pursuant to subparagraph (C) of paragraph (2) of subdivision (a) of Section 14692.

(b) It is the intent of the Legislature that the appropriation in subdivision (a) constitute an express appropriation for the alteration or modification of the color, detail, design, structure, or fixtures of the historically restored areas of the first, second, and third floors and the exterior of the west wing of the State Capitol, as required by Section 28 of Article IV of the California Constitution.

11093.7.

 Each state agency or department authorized to undertake any infrastructure project costing one hundred million dollars ($100,000,000) or more shall publicly post on its internet website any change in the cost or schedule of the project that would result in the project exceeding its established budget by 10 percent or more or in delaying its completion by 12 months or longer. The posted information shall describe how much the project is expected to exceed its established budget or delay its construction schedule.

12950.

 In addition to employer responsibilities set forth in subdivisions (j) and (k) of Section 12940 and in rules adopted by the department and the council, every employer shall act to ensure a workplace free of sexual harassment by implementing the following minimum requirements:

(a) (1) The department’s poster on discrimination in employment shall include information relating to the illegality of sexual harassment. One copy of the poster shall be provided by the department to an employer or a member of the public upon request. The poster shall be available at each office of the department, and shall be mailed if the request includes a self-addressed envelope with postage affixed. Each employer shall post the poster in a prominent and accessible location in the workplace.

(2) Post a poster developed by the department regarding transgender rights in a prominent and accessible location in the workplace.

(3) Provide sexual harassment training as required by Section 12950.1.

(b) Each employer shall obtain from the department its information sheet on sexual harassment, which the department shall make available to employers for reproduction and distribution to employees. One copy of the information sheet shall be provided by the department to an employer or a member of the public upon request. The information sheets shall be available at each office of the department, and shall be mailed if the request includes a self-addressed envelope with postage affixed. Each employer shall distribute this information sheet to its employees, unless the employer provides equivalent information to its employees that contains, at a minimum, components on the following:

(1) The illegality of sexual harassment.

(2) The definition of sexual harassment under applicable state and federal law.

(3) A description of sexual harassment, utilizing examples.

(4) The internal complaint process of the employer available to the employee.

(5) The legal remedies and complaint process available through the department.

(6) Directions on how to contact the department.

(7) The protection against retaliation provided by Title 2 of the California Code of Regulations for opposing the practices prohibited by this article or for filing a complaint with, or otherwise participating in an investigation, proceeding, or hearing conducted by, the department or the council.

(8) A link to, or the internet website address for, the sexual harassment online training courses developed pursuant to Section 12950.1 and located on the internet website of the department.

(c) The information sheet or information required to be distributed to employees pursuant to subdivision (b) shall be delivered in a manner that ensures distribution to each employee, such as including the information sheet or information with an employee’s pay.

(d) The department shall make the poster, fact sheet, and online training courses available in English, Spanish, Simplified Chinese, Tagalog, Vietnamese, Korean, and any other language that is spoken by a “substantial number of non-English-speaking people,” as that phrase is defined in Section 7296.2. The department shall make versions of the online training courses with subtitles in each language and shall orally dub the online training courses into each language other than English. Simplified Chinese shall be sufficient for subtitling purposes.

(e) The department shall make the poster, fact sheet, and online training courses required by this section, and the corresponding translations, available to employers and to the public through its internet website in formats that may be streamed or downloaded.

(f) Notwithstanding subdivisions (j) and (k) of Section 12940, a claim that the information sheet or information required to be distributed pursuant to this section did not reach a particular individual or individuals shall not in and of itself result in the liability of any employer to any present or former employee or applicant in any action alleging sexual harassment. Conversely, an employer’s compliance with this section does not insulate the employer from liability for sexual harassment of any current or former employee or applicant.

(g) If an employer violates the requirements of this section, the department may seek an order requiring the employer to comply with these requirements.

12950.1.

 (a) By January 1, 2020, an employer having five or more employees shall provide at least two hours of classroom or other effective interactive training and education regarding sexual harassment to all supervisory employees and at least one hour of classroom or other effective interactive training and education regarding sexual harassment to all nonsupervisory employees in California within six months of their assumption of a position. An employer may provide this training in conjunction with other training provided to the employees. The training may be completed by employees individually or as part of a group presentation, and may be completed in shorter segments, as long as the applicable hourly total requirement is met. An employer who has provided this training and education to an employee after January 1, 2019, is not required to provide training and education by the January 1, 2020, deadline. After January 1, 2020, each employer covered by this section shall provide sexual harassment training and education to each employee in California once every two years. The training and education required by this section shall include information and practical guidance regarding the federal and state statutory provisions concerning the prohibition against and the prevention and correction of sexual harassment and the remedies available to victims of sexual harassment in employment. The training and education shall also include practical examples aimed at instructing supervisors in the prevention of harassment, discrimination, and retaliation, and shall be presented by trainers or educators with knowledge and expertise in the prevention of harassment, discrimination, and retaliation. The department shall provide a method for employees who have completed the training to save electronically and print a certificate of completion.

(b) An employer shall also include prevention of abusive conduct as a component of the training and education specified in subdivision (a).

(c) An employer shall also provide training inclusive of harassment based on gender identity, gender expression, and sexual orientation as a component of the training and education specified in subdivision (a). The training and education shall include practical examples inclusive of harassment based on gender identity, gender expression, and sexual orientation, and shall be presented by trainers or educators with knowledge and expertise in those areas.

(d) The state shall incorporate the training required by subdivisions (a) to (c), inclusive, into the 80 hours of training provided to all new employees pursuant to subdivision (b) of Section 19995.4, using existing resources.

(e) Notwithstanding subdivisions (j) and (k) of Section 12940, a claim that the training and education required by this section did not reach a particular individual or individuals shall not in and of itself result in the liability of any employer to any present or former employee or applicant in any action alleging sexual harassment. Conversely, an employer’s compliance with this section does not insulate the employer from liability for sexual harassment of any current or former employee or applicant.

(f) If an employer violates this section, the department may seek an order requiring the employer to comply with these requirements.

(g) The training and education required by this section is intended to establish a minimum threshold and should not discourage or relieve any employer from providing for longer, more frequent, or more elaborate training and education regarding workplace harassment or other forms of unlawful discrimination in order to meet its obligations to take all reasonable steps necessary to prevent and correct harassment and discrimination. This section shall not be construed to override or supersede statutes, including, but not limited to, Section 1684 of the Labor Code, that meet or exceed the training for nonsupervisory employees required under this section.

(h) (1) Beginning January 1, 2020, for seasonal and temporary employees, or any employee that is hired to work for less than six months, an employer shall provide training within 30 calendar days after the hire date or within 100 hours worked, whichever occurs first. In the case of a temporary employee employed by a temporary services employer, as defined in Section 201.3 of the Labor Code, to perform services for clients, the training shall be provided by the temporary services employer, not the client.

(2) Beginning January 1, 2020, sexual harassment prevention training for migrant and seasonal agricultural workers, as defined in the federal Migrant and Seasonal Agricultural Worker Protection Act (29 U.S.C. 1801 et seq.), shall be consistent with training for nonsupervisory employees pursuant to paragraph (8) of subdivision (a) of Section 1684 of the Labor Code.

(i) (1) For purposes of this section only, “employer” means any person regularly employing five or more persons or regularly receiving the services of five or more persons providing services pursuant to a contract, or any person acting as an agent of an employer, directly or indirectly, the state, or any political or civil subdivision of the state, and cities.

(2) For purposes of this section, “abusive conduct” means conduct of an employer or employee in the workplace, with malice, that a reasonable person would find hostile, offensive, and unrelated to an employer’s legitimate business interests. Abusive conduct may include repeated infliction of verbal abuse, such as the use of derogatory remarks, insults, and epithets, verbal or physical conduct that a reasonable person would find threatening, intimidating, or humiliating, or the gratuitous sabotage or undermining of a person’s work performance. A single act does not constitute abusive conduct, unless especially severe and egregious.

(j) For purposes of providing training to employees as required by this section, an employer may develop the employer’s own training module or may direct employees to view the online training course referenced in subdivision (k) and this shall be deemed to have complied with and satisfied the employers’ obligations as set forth in this section and Section 12950.

(k) The department shall develop or obtain two online training courses on the prevention of sexual harassment in the workplace in accordance with the provisions of this section. The course for nonsupervisory employees shall be one hour in length and the course for supervisory employees shall be two hours in length.

(l) The department shall make the online training courses available on its internet website. The online training courses shall contain an interactive feature that requires the viewer to respond to a question periodically in order for the online training courses to continue to play. Any questions resulting from the online training course described in this subdivision shall be directed to the trainee’s employer’s human resources department or equally qualified professional rather than the department.

13109.

 Notwithstanding any other law, the Controller may use the funds in the Infrastructure Stabilization Fund, the State Infrastructure and Maintenance Fund, and the Rail Infrastructure Account for cashflow loans to the General Fund as provided in Sections 16310 and 16381.

14670.

 (a) With the consent of the state agency concerned, the director may do any of the following:

(1) Let for a period not to exceed five years, any real or personal property that belongs to the state, the letting of which is not expressly prohibited by law, if the director deems the letting to be in the best interest of the state.

(2) Sublet any real or personal property leased by the state, the subletting of which is not expressly prohibited by law, if the director deems the subletting to be in the best interest of the state.

(3) Let for a period not to exceed five years, and at less than fair market rental, any real property of the state to any public agency for use as nonprofit, self-help community vegetable gardens and related supporting activities, provided:

(A) Parcels let for those purposes shall not exceed five acres.

(B) Two or more contiguous parcels shall not be let for those purposes.

(C) Parcels shall be let subject to applicable local zoning ordinances.

(b) The Legislature finds and declares that any leases let at less than fair market rental pursuant to paragraph (3) of subdivision (a) shall be of broad public benefit.

(c) Any money received in connection with paragraph (1) of subdivision (a) shall be deposited in the Property Acquisition Law Money Account and shall be available to the department upon appropriation by the Legislature.

(d) All money received pursuant to paragraph (2) of subdivision (a) shall be accounted for to the Controller at the close of each month and on order of the Controller be paid into the State Treasury and credited to the appropriation from which the cost of the lease was paid.

(e) Notwithstanding subdivisions (a) to (d), inclusive, to promote employee wellness initiatives at facilities operated by the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation, the director may determine that allowing a lease to be made at less than fair market value is in the state’s best interest. The director shall base this determination upon the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation’s written request that justifies the letting of a lease at below fair market value. Notwithstanding subdivision (a), the leases may be entered into for a period not to exceed 10 years. The criteria and the process for exempting a lease from fair market value pursuant to this subdivision shall be published in the State Administrative Manual.

(f) The Department of General Services shall report annually to the Joint Legislative Budget Committee on all new leases let at less than fair market rental value pursuant to subdivision (e). The report shall include the lease terms; the reasons, where applicable, for which the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation requested a rental rate at less than fair market value; the justification for letting at a lesser rate; and the approach used to determine the final rental rate.

14692.

 (a) (1) The State Project Infrastructure Fund is hereby established in the State Treasury.

(2) Except as otherwise provided in clause (iii) of subparagraph (C), notwithstanding Section 13340, the fund is continuously appropriated to the department, without regard to fiscal years, for the following purposes:

(A) Subject to authorization as provided in this article, for state projects pursuant to this article.

(B) To cover the costs of any report required by Section 9112 or any report as may be prepared under Section 9125.

(C) (i) For transfer to the Operating Funds of the Assembly and Senate, to be used for the capital outlay projects specified in Article 5.2 (commencing with Section 9112) of Chapter 1.5 of Part 1 of Division 2.

(ii) Upon direction of the Director of Finance, the Controller shall transfer from the fund to the Operating Funds of the Assembly and Senate an amount that is consistent with the budget amount specified in the agreement entered into pursuant to paragraph (1) of subdivision (b) of Section 9112.

(iii) Moneys transferred to the Operating Funds of the Assembly and Senate pursuant to clause (ii) shall not be used to alter or modify the color, detail, design, structure, or fixtures of the historically restored areas of the first, second, and third floors and the exterior of the west wing of the State Capitol unless the Legislature expressly appropriates those moneys for that purpose in accordance with subdivision (b) of Section 28 of Article IV of the California Constitution.

(D) For transfer to the Architecture Revolving Fund, to be used for the capital outlay projects specified in Article 5.6 (commencing with Section 9125) of Chapter 1.5 of Part 1 of Division 2. The Department of Finance shall provide 20 days’ notice to the Joint Rules Committee prior to any transfer pursuant to this subparagraph.

(b) Notwithstanding any other law, the Controller may use the funds in the State Project Infrastructure Fund for cashflow loans to the General Fund as provided in Sections 16310 and 16381.

(c) The moneys in this fund shall be exempt from statewide general administrative cost recovery pursuant to Article 2 (commencing with Section 11270) of Chapter 3 of Part 1.

(d) Any lease entered into pursuant to this article is subject to the approval of the Department of Finance and any applicable notification required by subdivision (d) of Section 14694.

16418.8.

 (a) The Budget Deficit Savings Account is hereby established in the State Treasury.

(b) Deposits to the Budget Stabilization Account for the 2018–19 fiscal year, above the amounts required by Section 20 of Article XVI of the California Constitution, as defined and appropriated in the 2018 Budget Act, shall be transferred from the General Fund to the Budget Deficit Savings Account. Based on the updated projection as calculated by the Department of Finance during the 2019–20 May Revision, upon order of the Director of Finance, no earlier than May 31, 2019, the Controller shall transfer the updated amount from the Budget Deficit Savings Account to the Budget Stabilization Account.

(c) Upon order of the Director of Finance, the Controller shall transfer 50 percent of the remaining amounts deposited in the Budget Deficit Savings Account that are not transferred to the Budget Stabilization Account pursuant to subdivision (b) to the Safety Net Reserve Fund, created by Section 11011 of the Welfare and Institutions Code. The remaining 50 percent of the balance shall remain in the Budget Deficit Savings Account.

(d) Notwithstanding any other law, the Controller may use the funds in the Budget Deficit Savings Account for cashflow loans to the General Fund as provided in Sections 16310 and 16381.

17581.6.

 (a) Funding apportioned pursuant to this section constitutes reimbursement pursuant to Section 6 of Article XIII B of the California Constitution for the performance of any state mandates included in the statutes and executive orders identified in subdivision (e).

(b) Any school district, county office of education, or charter school may elect to receive block grant funding pursuant to this section.

(c) (1) A school district, county office of education, or charter school that elects to receive block grant funding pursuant to this section in a given fiscal year shall submit a letter requesting funding to the Superintendent of Public Instruction on or before August 30 of that fiscal year.

(2) The Superintendent of Public Instruction shall, in the month of November of each year, apportion block grant funding appropriated pursuant to Item 6100-296-0001 of Section 2.00 of the annual Budget Act to all school districts, county offices of education, and charter schools that submitted letters requesting funding in that fiscal year according to the provisions of that item.

(3) A school district or county office of education that receives block grant funding pursuant to this section shall not be eligible to submit claims to the Controller for reimbursement pursuant to Section 17560 for any costs of any state mandates included in the statutes and executive orders identified in subdivision (f) incurred in the same fiscal year during which the school district or county office of education received funding pursuant to this section.

(d) Commencing with the 2017–18 fiscal year, the per unit average daily attendance funding rates specified in the provisions of Item 6100-296-0001 of the annual Budget Act shall be adjusted annually by the percentage change in the annual average value of the Implicit Price Deflator for State and Local Government Purchases of Goods and Services for the United States, as published by the United States Department of Commerce for the 12-month period ending in the third quarter of the prior fiscal year. This percentage change shall be determined using the latest data available as of May 10 of the preceding fiscal year compared with the annual average value of the same deflator for the 12-month period ending in the third quarter of the second preceding fiscal year, using the latest data available as of May 10 of the preceding fiscal year, as reported by the Department of Finance.

(e) Block grant funding apportioned pursuant to this section is subject to annual financial and compliance audits required by Section 41020 of the Education Code.

(f) Block grant funding apportioned pursuant to this section is specifically intended to fund the costs of the following programs and activities:

(1) Academic Performance Index (01-TC-22; Chapter 3 of the Statutes of 1999, First Extraordinary Session; and Chapter 695 of the Statutes of 2000).

(2) Agency Fee Arrangements (00-TC-17 and 01-TC-14; Chapter 893 of the Statutes of 2000 and Chapter 805 of the Statutes of 2001).

(3) AIDS Instruction and AIDS Prevention Instruction (CSM 4422, 99-TC-07, and 00-TC-01; Chapter 818 of the Statutes of 1991; and Chapter 403 of the Statutes of 1998).

(4) California Assessment of Student Performance and Progress (CAASPP) (14-TC-01 and 14-TC-04; Chapter 489 of the Statutes of 2013; and Chapter 32 of the Statutes of 2014).

(5) California State Teachers’ Retirement System (CalSTRS) Service Credit (02-TC-19; Chapter 603 of the Statutes of 1994; Chapters 383, 634, and 680 of the Statutes of 1996; Chapter 838 of the Statutes of 1997; Chapter 965 of the Statutes of 1998; Chapter 939 of the Statutes of 1999; and Chapter 1021 of the Statutes of 2000).

(6) Caregiver Affidavits (CSM 4497; Chapter 98 of the Statutes of 1994).

(7) Charter Schools I, II, and III (CSM 4437, 99-TC-03, and 99-TC-14; Chapter 781 of the Statutes of 1992; Chapters 34 and 673 of the Statutes of 1998; Chapter 34 of the Statutes of 1998; and Chapter 78 of the Statutes of 1999).

(8) Charter Schools IV (03-TC-03; Chapter 1058 of the Statutes of 2002).

(9) Child Abuse and Neglect Reporting (01-TC-21; Chapters 640 and 1459 of the Statutes of 1987; Chapter 132 of the Statutes of 1991; Chapter 459 of the Statutes of 1992; Chapter 311 of the Statutes of 1998; Chapter 916 of the Statutes of 2000; and Chapters 133 and 754 of the Statutes of 2001).

(10) Collective Bargaining (CSM 4425; Chapter 961 of the Statutes of 1975).

(11) Comprehensive School Safety Plans (98-TC-01 and 99-TC-10; Chapter 736 of the Statutes of 1997; Chapter 996 of the Statutes of 1999; and Chapter 828 of the Statutes of 2003).

(12) Consolidation of Annual Parent Notification/Schoolsite Discipline Rules/Alternative Schools (CSM 4488, CSM 4461, 99-TC-09, 00-TC-12, 97-TC-24, CSM 4453, CSM 4474, and CSM 4462; Chapter 448 of the Statutes of 1975; Chapter 965 of the Statutes of 1977; Chapter 975 of the Statutes of 1980; Chapter 469 of the Statutes of 1981; Chapter 459 of the Statutes of 1985; Chapters 87 and 97 of the Statutes of 1986; Chapter 1452 of the Statutes of 1987; Chapters 65 and 1284 of the Statutes of 1988; Chapter 213 of the Statutes of 1989; Chapters 10 and 403 of the Statutes of 1990; Chapter 906 of the Statutes of 1992; Chapter 1296 of the Statutes of 1993; Chapter 929 of the Statutes of 1997; Chapters 846 and 1031 of the Statutes of 1998; Chapter 1 of the Statutes of 1999, First Extraordinary Session; Chapter 73 of the Statutes of 2000; Chapter 650 of the Statutes of 2003; Chapter 895 of the Statutes of 2004; and Chapter 677 of the Statutes of 2005).

(13) Consolidation of Law Enforcement Agency Notification and Missing Children Reports (CSM 4505; Chapter 1117 of the Statutes of 1989 and 01-TC-09; Chapter 249 of the Statutes of 1986; and Chapter 832 of the Statutes of 1999).

(14) Consolidation of Notification to Teachers: Pupils Subject to Suspension or Expulsion I and II, and Pupil Discipline Records (00-TC-10 and 00-TC-11; Chapter 345 of the Statutes of 2000).

(15) Consolidated Suspensions, Expulsions, and Expulsion Appeals (96-358-03, 03A, 98-TC-22, 01-TC-18, 98-TC-23, and 97-TC-09; Chapters 972 and 974 of the Statutes of 1995; Chapters 915, 937, and 1052 of the Statutes of 1996; Chapter 637 of the Statutes of 1997; Chapter 489 of the Statutes of 1998; Chapter 332 of the Statutes of 1999; Chapter 147 of the Statutes of 2000; and Chapter 116 of the Statutes of 2001) (CSM 4455; Chapter 1253 of the Statutes of 1975; Chapter 965 of the Statutes of 1977; Chapter 668 of the Statutes of 1978; Chapter 318 of the Statutes of 1982; Chapter 498 of the Statutes of 1983; Chapter 622 of the Statutes of 1984; Chapter 942 of the Statutes of 1987; Chapter 1231 of the Statutes of 1990; Chapter 152 of the Statutes of 1992; Chapters 1255, 1256, and 1257 of the Statutes of 1993; and Chapter 146 of the Statutes of 1994) (CSM 4456; Chapter 965 of the Statutes of 1977; Chapter 668 of the Statutes of 1978; Chapter 73 of the Statutes of 1980; Chapter 498 of the Statutes of 1983; Chapter 856 of the Statutes of 1985; and Chapter 134 of the Statutes of 1987) (CSM 4463; Chapter 1253 of the Statutes of 1975; Chapter 965 of the Statutes of 1977; Chapter 668 of the Statutes of 1978; and Chapter 498 of the Statutes of 1983).

(16) County Office of Education Fiscal Accountability Reporting (97-TC-20; Chapters 917 and 1452 of the Statutes of 1987; Chapters 1461 and 1462 of the Statutes of 1988; Chapter 1372 of the Statutes of 1990; Chapter 1213 of the Statutes of 1991; Chapter 323 of the Statutes of 1992; Chapters 923 and 924 of the Statutes of 1993; Chapters 650 and 1002 of the Statutes of 1994; and Chapter 525 of the Statutes of 1995).

(17) Criminal Background Checks (97-TC-16; Chapters 588 and 589 of the Statutes of 1997).

(18) Criminal Background Checks II (00-TC-05; Chapters 594 and 840 of the Statutes of 1998; and Chapter 78 of the Statutes of 1999).

(19) Developer Fees (02-TC-42; Chapter 955 of the Statutes of 1977; Chapter 282 of the Statutes of 1979; Chapter 1354 of the Statutes of 1980; Chapter 201 of the Statutes of 1981; Chapter 923 of the Statutes of 1982; Chapter 1254 of the Statutes of 1983; Chapter 1062 of the Statutes of 1984; Chapter 1498 of the Statutes of 1985; Chapters 136 and 887 of the Statutes of 1986; and Chapter 1228 of the Statutes of 1994).

(20) Differential Pay and Reemployment (99-TC-02; Chapter 30 of the Statutes of 1998).

(21) Expulsion of Pupil: Transcript Cost for Appeals (SMAS; Chapter 1253 of the Statutes of 1975).

(22) Financial and Compliance Audits (CSM 4498 and CSM 4498-A; Chapter 36 of the Statutes of 1977).

(23) Graduation Requirements (CSM 4181; Chapter 498 of the Statutes of 1983).

(24) Habitual Truants (CSM 4487 and CSM 4487-A; Chapter 1184 of the Statutes of 1975).

(25) Immunization Records (SB 90-120; Chapter 1176 of the Statutes of 1977).

(26) Immunization Records—Mumps, Rubella, and Hepatitis B (98-TC-05; 14-MR-04; Chapter 325 of the Statutes of 1978; Chapter 435 of the Statutes of 1979; Chapter 472 of the Statutes of 1982; Chapter 984 of the Statutes of 1991; Chapter 1300 of the Statutes of 1992; Chapter 1172 of the Statutes of 1994; Chapters 291 and 415 of the Statutes of 1995; Chapter 1023 of the Statutes of 1996; and Chapters 855 and 882 of the Statutes of 1997; and Chapter 434 of the Statutes of 2010).

(27) Immunization Records—Pertussis (11-TC-02; Chapter 434 of the Statutes of 2010).

(28) Interdistrict Attendance Permits (CSM 4442; Chapters 172 and 742 of the Statutes of 1986; Chapter 853 of the Statutes of 1989; Chapter 10 of the Statutes of 1990; and Chapter 120 of the Statutes of 1992).

(29) Intradistrict Attendance (CSM 4454; Chapters 161 and 915 of the Statutes of 1993).

(30) Juvenile Court Notices II (CSM 4475; Chapters 1011 and 1423 of the Statutes of 1984; Chapter 1019 of the Statutes of 1994; and Chapter 71 of the Statutes of 1995).

(31) Notification of Truancy (CSM 4133; Chapter 498 of the Statutes of 1983; Chapter 1023 of the Statutes of 1994; and Chapter 19 of the Statutes of 1995).

(32) Parental Involvement Programs (03-TC-16; Chapter 1400 of the Statutes of 1990; Chapters 864 and 1031 of the Statutes of 1998; and Chapter 1037 of the Statutes of 2002).

(33) Physical Performance Tests (96-365-01; Chapter 975 of the Statutes of 1995).

(34) Prevailing Wage Rate (01-TC-28; Chapter 1249 of the Statutes of 1978).

(35) Public Contracts (02-TC-35; Chapter 1073 of the Statutes of 1985; Chapter 1408 of the Statutes of 1988; Chapter 330 of the Statutes of 1989; Chapter 1414 of the Statutes of 1990; Chapter 321 of the Statutes of 1990; Chapter 799 of the Statutes of 1992; and Chapter 726 of the Statutes of 1994).

(36) Pupil Health Screenings (CSM 4440; Chapter 1208 of the Statutes of 1976; Chapter 373 of the Statutes of 1991; and Chapter 750 of the Statutes of 1992).

(37) Pupil Promotion and Retention (98-TC-19; Chapter 100 of the Statutes of 1981; Chapter 1388 of the Statutes of 1982; Chapter 498 of the Statutes of 1983; Chapter 1263 of the Statutes of 1990; and Chapters 742 and 743 of the Statutes of 1998).

(38) Pupil Safety Notices (02-TC-13; Chapter 498 of the Statutes of 1983; Chapter 482 of the Statutes of 1984; Chapter 948 of the Statutes of 1984; Chapter 196 of the Statutes of 1986; Chapter 332 of the Statutes of 1986; Chapter 445 of the Statutes of 1992; Chapter 1317 of the Statutes of 1992; Chapter 589 of the Statutes of 1993; Chapter 1172 of the Statutes of 1994; Chapter 1023 of the Statutes of 1996; and Chapter 492 of the Statutes of 2000).

(39) Race to the Top (10-TC-06; Chapters 2 and 3 of the Statutes of 2009).

(40) School Accountability Report Cards (97-TC-21, 00-TC-09, 00-TC-13, and 02-TC-32; Chapter 918 of the Statutes of 1997; Chapter 912 of the Statutes of 1997; Chapter 824 of the Statutes of 1994; Chapter 1031 of the Statutes of 1993; Chapter 759 of the Statutes of 1992; and Chapter 1463 of the Statutes of 1989).

(41) School District Fiscal Accountability Reporting (97-TC-19; Chapter 100 of the Statutes of 1981; Chapter 185 of the Statutes of 1985; Chapter 1150 of the Statutes of 1986; Chapters 917 and 1452 of the Statutes of 1987; Chapters 1461 and 1462 of the Statutes of 1988; Chapter 525 of the Statutes of 1990; Chapter 1213 of the Statutes of 1991; Chapter 323 of the Statutes of 1992; Chapters 923 and 924 of the Statutes of 1993; Chapters 650 and 1002 of the Statutes of 1994; and Chapter 525 of the Statutes of 1995).

(42) School District Reorganization (98-TC-24; Chapter 1192 of the Statutes of 1980; and Chapter 1186 of the Statutes of 1994).

(43) Student Records (02-TC-34; Chapter 593 of the Statutes of 1989; Chapter 561 of the Statutes of 1993; Chapter 311 of the Statutes of 1998; and Chapter 67 of the Statutes of 2000).

(44) The Stull Act (98-TC-25; Chapter 498 of the Statutes of 1983; and Chapter 4 of the Statutes of 1999).

(45) Threats Against Peace Officers (CSM 96-365-02; Chapter -TC-01; Chapters 900, 902, and 903 of the Statutes of 2004; Chapter 118 of the Statutes of 2005; Chapter 704 of the Statutes of 2006; and Chapter 526 of the Statutes of 2007).

(g) Notwithstanding Section 10231.5, on or before November 1 of each fiscal year, the Superintendent of Public Instruction shall produce a report that indicates the total amount of block grant funding each school district, county office of education, and charter school received in that fiscal year pursuant to this section. The Superintendent of Public Instruction shall provide this report to the appropriate fiscal and policy committees of the Legislature, the Controller, the Department of Finance, and the Legislative Analyst’s Office.

27647.

 (a) If requested to do so by the superior court of the county of the county counsel, or by any judge thereof, and insofar as such duties are not in conflict with, and do not interfere with, other duties, the county counsel may represent any such court or judge thereof in all matters and questions of law pertaining to any of such judge’s duties, including any representation authorized by Section 68111 and representation in all civil actions and proceedings in any court in which with respect to the court’s or judge’s official capacity, such court or judge is concerned or is a party.

(b) This section does not apply to any of the following:

(1) Any criminal proceedings in which a judge is a defendant.

(2) Any grand jury proceedings.

(3) Any proceeding before the Commission on Judicial Qualifications.

(4) Any civil action or proceeding arising out of facts under which the judge was convicted of a criminal offense in a criminal proceeding.

65080.

 (a) Each transportation planning agency designated under Section 29532 or 29532.1 shall prepare and adopt a regional transportation plan directed at achieving a coordinated and balanced regional transportation system, including, but not limited to, mass transportation, highway, railroad, maritime, bicycle, pedestrian, goods movement, and aviation facilities and services. The plan shall be action-oriented and pragmatic, considering both the short-term and long-term future, and shall present clear, concise policy guidance to local and state officials. The regional transportation plan shall consider factors specified in Section 134 of Title 23 of the United States Code. Each transportation planning agency shall consider and incorporate, as appropriate, the transportation plans of cities, counties, districts, private organizations, and state and federal agencies.

(b) The regional transportation plan shall be an internally consistent document and shall include all of the following:

(1) A policy element that describes the transportation issues in the region, identifies and quantifies regional needs, and describes the desired short-range and long-range transportation goals, and pragmatic objective and policy statements. The objective and policy statements shall be consistent with the funding estimates of the financial element. The policy element of transportation planning agencies with populations that exceed 200,000 persons may quantify a set of indicators including, but not limited to, all of the following:

(A) Measures of mobility and traffic congestion, including, but not limited to, daily vehicle hours of delay per capita and vehicle miles traveled per capita.

(B) Measures of road and bridge maintenance and rehabilitation needs, including, but not limited to, roadway pavement and bridge conditions.

(C) Measures of means of travel, including, but not limited to, percentage share of all trips (work and nonwork) made by all of the following:

(i) Single occupant vehicle.

(ii) Multiple occupant vehicle or carpool.

(iii) Public transit including commuter rail and intercity rail.

(iv) Walking.

(v) Bicycling.

(D) Measures of safety and security, including, but not limited to, total injuries and fatalities assigned to each of the modes set forth in subparagraph (C).

(E) Measures of equity and accessibility, including, but not limited to, percentage of the population served by frequent and reliable public transit, with a breakdown by income bracket, and percentage of all jobs accessible by frequent and reliable public transit service, with a breakdown by income bracket.

(F) The requirements of this section may be met utilizing existing sources of information. Additional traffic counts, household surveys, or other sources of data are not required.

(2) A sustainable communities strategy prepared by each metropolitan planning organization as follows:

(A) No later than September 30, 2010, the State Air Resources Board shall provide each affected region with greenhouse gas emission reduction targets for the automobile and light truck sector for 2020 and 2035, respectively.

(i) No later than January 31, 2009, the state board shall appoint a Regional Targets Advisory Committee to recommend factors to be considered and methodologies to be used for setting greenhouse gas emission reduction targets for the affected regions. The committee shall be composed of representatives of the metropolitan planning organizations, affected air districts, the League of California Cities, the California State Association of Counties, local transportation agencies, and members of the public, including homebuilders, environmental organizations, planning organizations, environmental justice organizations, affordable housing organizations, and others. The advisory committee shall transmit a report with its recommendations to the state board no later than September 30, 2009. In recommending factors to be considered and methodologies to be used, the advisory committee may consider any relevant issues, including, but not limited to, data needs, modeling techniques, growth forecasts, the impacts of regional jobs-housing balance on interregional travel and greenhouse gas emissions, economic and demographic trends, the magnitude of greenhouse gas reduction benefits from a variety of land use and transportation strategies, and appropriate methods to describe regional targets and to monitor performance in attaining those targets. The state board shall consider the report prior to setting the targets.

(ii) Prior to setting the targets for a region, the state board shall exchange technical information with the metropolitan planning organization and the affected air district. The metropolitan planning organization may recommend a target for the region. The metropolitan planning organization shall hold at least one public workshop within the region after receipt of the report from the advisory committee. The state board shall release draft targets for each region no later than June 30, 2010.

(iii) In establishing these targets, the state board shall take into account greenhouse gas emission reductions that will be achieved by improved vehicle emission standards, changes in fuel composition, and other measures it has approved that will reduce greenhouse gas emissions in the affected regions, and prospective measures the state board plans to adopt to reduce greenhouse gas emissions from other greenhouse gas emission sources as that term is defined in subdivision (i) of Section 38505 of the Health and Safety Code and consistent with the regulations promulgated pursuant to the California Global Warming Solutions Act of 2006 (Division 25.5 (commencing with Section 38500) of the Health and Safety Code), including Section 38566 of the Health and Safety Code.

(iv) The state board shall update the regional greenhouse gas emission reduction targets every eight years consistent with each metropolitan planning organization’s timeframe for updating its regional transportation plan under federal law until 2050. The state board may revise the targets every four years based on changes in the factors considered under clause (iii). The state board shall exchange technical information with the Department of Transportation, metropolitan planning organizations, local governments, and affected air districts and engage in a consultative process with public and private stakeholders, prior to updating these targets.

(v) The greenhouse gas emission reduction targets may be expressed in gross tons, tons per capita, tons per household, or in any other metric deemed appropriate by the state board.

(B) Each metropolitan planning organization shall prepare a sustainable communities strategy, subject to the requirements of Part 450 of Title 23 of, and Part 93 of Title 40 of, the Code of Federal Regulations, including the requirement to utilize the most recent planning assumptions considering local general plans and other factors. The sustainable communities strategy shall (i) identify the general location of uses, residential densities, and building intensities within the region, (ii) identify areas within the region sufficient to house all the population of the region, including all economic segments of the population, over the course of the planning period of the regional transportation plan taking into account net migration into the region, population growth, household formation and employment growth, (iii) identify areas within the region sufficient to house an eight-year projection of the regional housing need for the region pursuant to Section 65584, (iv) identify a transportation network to service the transportation needs of the region, (v) gather and consider the best practically available scientific information regarding resource areas and farmland in the region as defined in subdivisions (a) and (b) of Section 65080.01, (vi) consider the state housing goals specified in Sections 65580 and 65581, (vii) set forth a forecasted development pattern for the region, which, when integrated with the transportation network, and other transportation measures and policies, will reduce the greenhouse gas emissions from automobiles and light trucks to achieve, if there is a feasible way to do so, the greenhouse gas emission reduction targets approved by the state board, and (viii) allow the regional transportation plan to comply with Section 176 of the federal Clean Air Act (42 U.S.C. Sec. 7506).

(C) (i) Within the jurisdiction of the Metropolitan Transportation Commission, as defined by Section 66502, the Association of Bay Area Governments shall be responsible for clauses (i), (ii), (iii), (v), and (vi) of subparagraph (B), the Metropolitan Transportation Commission shall be responsible for clauses (iv) and (viii) of subparagraph (B), and the Association of Bay Area Governments and the Metropolitan Transportation Commission shall jointly be responsible for clause (vii) of subparagraph (B).

(ii) Within the jurisdiction of the Tahoe Regional Planning Agency, as defined in Sections 66800 and 66801, the Tahoe Metropolitan Planning Organization shall use the Regional Plan for the Lake Tahoe Region as the sustainable community strategy, provided that it complies with clauses (vii) and (viii) of subparagraph (B).

(D) In the region served by the multicounty transportation planning agency described in Section 130004 of the Public Utilities Code, a subregional council of governments and the county transportation commission may work together to propose the sustainable communities strategy and an alternative planning strategy, if one is prepared pursuant to subparagraph (I), for that subregional area. The metropolitan planning organization may adopt a framework for a subregional sustainable communities strategy or a subregional alternative planning strategy to address the intraregional land use, transportation, economic, air quality, and climate policy relationships. The metropolitan planning organization shall include the subregional sustainable communities strategy for that subregion in the regional sustainable communities strategy to the extent consistent with this section and federal law and approve the subregional alternative planning strategy, if one is prepared pursuant to subparagraph (I), for that subregional area to the extent consistent with this section. The metropolitan planning organization shall develop overall guidelines, create public participation plans pursuant to subparagraph (F), ensure coordination, resolve conflicts, make sure that the overall plan complies with applicable legal requirements, and adopt the plan for the region.

(E) The metropolitan planning organization shall conduct at least two informational meetings in each county within the region for members of the board of supervisors and city councils on the sustainable communities strategy and alternative planning strategy, if any. The metropolitan planning organization may conduct only one informational meeting if it is attended by representatives of the county board of supervisors and city council members representing a majority of the cities representing a majority of the population in the incorporated areas of that county. Notice of the meeting or meetings shall be sent to the clerk of the board of supervisors and to each city clerk. The purpose of the meeting or meetings shall be to discuss the sustainable communities strategy and the alternative planning strategy, if any, including the key land use and planning assumptions to the members of the board of supervisors and the city council members in that county and to solicit and consider their input and recommendations.

(F) Each metropolitan planning organization shall adopt a public participation plan, for development of the sustainable communities strategy and an alternative planning strategy, if any, that includes all of the following:

(i) Outreach efforts to encourage the active participation of a broad range of stakeholder groups in the planning process, consistent with the agency’s adopted Federal Public Participation Plan, including, but not limited to, affordable housing advocates, transportation advocates, neighborhood and community groups, environmental advocates, home builder representatives, broad-based business organizations, landowners, commercial property interests, and homeowner associations.

(ii) Consultation with congestion management agencies, transportation agencies, and transportation commissions.

(iii) Workshops throughout the region to provide the public with the information and tools necessary to provide a clear understanding of the issues and policy choices. At least one workshop shall be held in each county in the region. For counties with a population greater than 500,000, at least three workshops shall be held. Each workshop, to the extent practicable, shall include urban simulation computer modeling to create visual representations of the sustainable communities strategy and the alternative planning strategy.

(iv) Preparation and circulation of a draft sustainable communities strategy and an alternative planning strategy, if one is prepared, not less than 55 days before adoption of a final regional transportation plan.

(v) At least three public hearings on the draft sustainable communities strategy in the regional transportation plan and alternative planning strategy, if one is prepared. If the metropolitan transportation organization consists of a single county, at least two public hearings shall be held. To the maximum extent feasible, the hearings shall be in different parts of the region to maximize the opportunity for participation by members of the public throughout the region.

(vi) A process for enabling members of the public to provide a single request to receive notices, information, and updates.

(G) In preparing a sustainable communities strategy, the metropolitan planning organization shall consider spheres of influence that have been adopted by the local agency formation commissions within its region.

(H) Prior to adopting a sustainable communities strategy, the metropolitan planning organization shall quantify the reduction in greenhouse gas emissions projected to be achieved by the sustainable communities strategy and set forth the difference, if any, between the amount of that reduction and the target for the region established by the state board.

(I) If the sustainable communities strategy, prepared in compliance with subparagraph (B) or (D), is unable to reduce greenhouse gas emissions to achieve the greenhouse gas emission reduction targets established by the state board, the metropolitan planning organization shall prepare an alternative planning strategy to the sustainable communities strategy showing how those greenhouse gas emission targets would be achieved through alternative development patterns, infrastructure, or additional transportation measures or policies. The alternative planning strategy shall be a separate document from the regional transportation plan, but it may be adopted concurrently with the regional transportation plan. In preparing the alternative planning strategy, the metropolitan planning organization:

(i) Shall identify the principal impediments to achieving the targets within the sustainable communities strategy.

(ii) May include an alternative development pattern for the region pursuant to subparagraphs (B) to (G), inclusive.

(iii) Shall describe how the greenhouse gas emission reduction targets would be achieved by the alternative planning strategy, and why the development pattern, measures, and policies in the alternative planning strategy are the most practicable choices for achievement of the greenhouse gas emission reduction targets.

(iv) An alternative development pattern set forth in the alternative planning strategy shall comply with Part 450 of Title 23 of, and Part 93 of Title 40 of, the Code of Federal Regulations, except to the extent that compliance will prevent achievement of the greenhouse gas emission reduction targets approved by the state board.

(v) For purposes of the California Environmental Quality Act (Division 13 (commencing with Section 21000) of the Public Resources Code), an alternative planning strategy shall not constitute a land use plan, policy, or regulation, and the inconsistency of a project with an alternative planning strategy shall not be a consideration in determining whether a project may have an environmental effect.

(J) (i) Prior to starting the public participation process adopted pursuant to subparagraph (F), the metropolitan planning organization shall submit a description to the state board of the technical methodology it intends to use to estimate the greenhouse gas emissions from its sustainable communities strategy and, if appropriate, its alternative planning strategy. The state board shall respond to the metropolitan planning organization in a timely manner with written comments about the technical methodology, including specifically describing any aspects of that methodology it concludes will not yield accurate estimates of greenhouse gas emissions, and suggested remedies. The metropolitan planning organization is encouraged to work with the state board until the state board concludes that the technical methodology operates accurately.

(ii) After adoption, a metropolitan planning organization shall submit a sustainable communities strategy or an alternative planning strategy, if one has been adopted, to the state board for review, including the quantification of the greenhouse gas emission reductions the strategy would achieve and a description of the technical methodology used to obtain that result. Review by the state board shall be limited to acceptance or rejection of the metropolitan planning organization’s determination that the strategy submitted would, if implemented, achieve the greenhouse gas emission reduction targets established by the state board. The state board shall complete its review within 60 days.

(iii) If the state board determines that the strategy submitted would not, if implemented, achieve the greenhouse gas emission reduction targets, the metropolitan planning organization shall revise its strategy or adopt an alternative planning strategy, if not previously adopted, and submit the strategy for review pursuant to clause (ii). At a minimum, the metropolitan planning organization must obtain state board acceptance that an alternative planning strategy would, if implemented, achieve the greenhouse gas emission reduction targets established for that region by the state board.

(iv) On or before September 1, 2018, and every four years thereafter to align with target setting, notwithstanding Section 10231.5, the state board shall prepare a report that assesses progress made by each metropolitan planning organization in meeting the regional greenhouse gas emission reduction targets set by the state board. The report shall include changes to greenhouse gas emissions in each region and data-supported metrics for the strategies utilized to meet the targets. The report shall also include a discussion of best practices and the challenges faced by the metropolitan planning organizations in meeting the targets, including the effect of state policies and funding. The report shall be developed in consultation with the metropolitan planning organizations and affected stakeholders. The report shall be submitted to the Assembly Committee on Transportation and the Assembly Committee on Natural Resources, and to the Senate Committee on Transportation and Housing and the Senate Committee on Environmental Quality.

(K) Neither a sustainable communities strategy nor an alternative planning strategy regulates the use of land, nor, except as provided by subparagraph (J), shall either one be subject to any state approval. A sustainable communities strategy shall not be interpreted as superseding the exercise of the land use authority of cities and counties within the region. This section shall not be interpreted to limit the state board’s authority under any other law. This section shall not be interpreted to authorize the abrogation of any vested right whether created by statute or by common law. This section does not require a city’s or county’s land use policies and regulations, including its general plan, to be consistent with the regional transportation plan or an alternative planning strategy. This section does not require a metropolitan planning organization to approve a sustainable communities strategy that would be inconsistent with Part 450 of Title 23 of, or Part 93 of Title 40 of, the Code of Federal Regulations and any administrative guidance under those regulations. This section does not relieve a public or private entity or any person from compliance with any other local, state, or federal law.

(L) This section does not require projects programmed for funding on or before December 31, 2011, to be subject to the provisions of this paragraph if they (i) are contained in the 2007 or 2009 Federal Statewide Transportation Improvement Program, (ii) are funded pursuant to Chapter 12.49 (commencing with Section 8879.20) of Division 1 of Title 2, or (iii) were specifically listed in a ballot measure prior to December 31, 2008, approving a sales tax increase for transportation projects. This section does not require a transportation sales tax authority to change the funding allocations approved by the voters for categories of transportation projects in a sales tax measure adopted prior to December 31, 2010. For purposes of this subparagraph, a transportation sales tax authority is a district, as defined in Section 7252 of the Revenue and Taxation Code, that is authorized to impose a sales tax for transportation purposes.

(M) A metropolitan planning organization, or a regional transportation planning agency not within a metropolitan planning organization, that is required to adopt a regional transportation plan not less than every five years, may elect to adopt the plan not less than every four years. This election shall be made by the board of directors of the metropolitan planning organization or regional transportation planning agency no later than June 1, 2009, or thereafter 54 months prior to the statutory deadline for the adoption of housing elements for the local jurisdictions within the region, after a public hearing at which comments are accepted from members of the public and representatives of cities and counties within the region covered by the metropolitan planning organization or regional transportation planning agency. Notice of the public hearing shall be given to the general public and by mail to cities and counties within the region no later than 30 days prior to the date of the public hearing. Notice of election shall be promptly given to the Department of Housing and Community Development. The metropolitan planning organization or the regional transportation planning agency shall complete its next regional transportation plan within three years of the notice of election.

(N) Two or more of the metropolitan planning organizations for Fresno County, Kern County, Kings County, Madera County, Merced County, San Joaquin County, Stanislaus County, and Tulare County may work together to develop and adopt multiregional goals and policies that may address interregional land use, transportation, economic, air quality, and climate relationships. The participating metropolitan planning organizations may also develop a multiregional sustainable communities strategy, to the extent consistent with federal law, or an alternative planning strategy for adoption by the metropolitan planning organizations. Each participating metropolitan planning organization shall consider any adopted multiregional goals and policies in the development of a sustainable communities strategy and, if applicable, an alternative planning strategy for its region.

(3) An action element that describes the programs and actions necessary to implement the plan and assigns implementation responsibilities. The action element may describe all transportation projects proposed for development during the 20-year or greater life of the plan. The action element shall consider congestion management programming activities carried out within the region.

(4) (A) A financial element that summarizes the cost of plan implementation constrained by a realistic projection of available revenues. The financial element shall also contain recommendations for allocation of funds. A county transportation commission created pursuant to Section 130000 of the Public Utilities Code shall be responsible for recommending projects to be funded with regional improvement funds, if the project is consistent with the regional transportation plan. The first five years of the financial element shall be based on the five-year estimate of funds developed pursuant to Section 14524. The financial element may recommend the development of specified new sources of revenue, consistent with the policy element and action element.

(B) The financial element of transportation planning agencies with populations that exceed 200,000 persons may include a project cost breakdown for all projects proposed for development during the 20-year life of the plan that includes total expenditures and related percentages of total expenditures for all of the following:

(i) State highway expansion.

(ii) State highway rehabilitation, maintenance, and operations.

(iii) Local road and street expansion.

(iv) Local road and street rehabilitation, maintenance, and operation.

(v) Mass transit, commuter rail, and intercity rail expansion.

(vi) Mass transit, commuter rail, and intercity rail rehabilitation, maintenance, and operations.

(vii) Pedestrian and bicycle facilities.

(viii) Environmental enhancements and mitigation.

(ix) Research and planning.

(x) Other categories.

(C) The metropolitan planning organization or county transportation agency, whichever entity is appropriate, shall consider financial incentives for cities and counties that have resource areas or farmland, as defined in Section 65080.01, for the purposes of, for example, transportation investments for the preservation and safety of the city street or county road system and farm-to-market and interconnectivity transportation needs. The metropolitan planning organization or county transportation agency, whichever entity is appropriate, shall also consider financial assistance for counties to address countywide service responsibilities in counties that contribute toward the greenhouse gas emission reduction targets by implementing policies for growth to occur within their cities.

(c) Each transportation planning agency may also include other factors of local significance as an element of the regional transportation plan, including, but not limited to, issues of mobility for specific sectors of the community, including, but not limited to, senior citizens.

(d) Except as otherwise provided in this subdivision, each transportation planning agency shall adopt and submit, every four years, an updated regional transportation plan to the California Transportation Commission and the Department of Transportation. A transportation planning agency located in a federally designated air quality attainment area or that does not contain an urbanized area may at its option adopt and submit a regional transportation plan every five years. When applicable, the plan shall be consistent with federal planning and programming requirements and shall conform to the regional transportation plan guidelines adopted by the California Transportation Commission. Prior to adoption of the regional transportation plan, a public hearing shall be held after the giving of notice of the hearing by publication in the affected county or counties pursuant to Section 6061.

65584.01.

 For the fourth and subsequent revision of the housing element pursuant to Section 65588, the department, in consultation with each council of governments, where applicable, shall determine the existing and projected need for housing for each region in the following manner:

(a) The department’s determination shall be based upon population projections produced by the Department of Finance and regional population forecasts used in preparing regional transportation plans, in consultation with each council of governments. If the total regional population forecast for the projection year, developed by the council of governments and used for the preparation of the regional transportation plan, is within a range of 1.5 percent of the total regional population forecast for the projection year by the Department of Finance, then the population forecast developed by the council of governments shall be the basis from which the department determines the existing and projected need for housing in the region. If the difference between the total population projected by the council of governments and the total population projected for the region by the Department of Finance is greater than 1.5 percent, then the department and the council of governments shall meet to discuss variances in methodology used for population projections and seek agreement on a population projection for the region to be used as a basis for determining the existing and projected housing need for the region. If agreement is not reached, then the population projection for the region shall be the population projection for the region prepared by the Department of Finance as may be modified by the department as a result of discussions with the council of governments.

(b) (1) At least 26 months prior to the scheduled revision pursuant to Section 65588 and prior to developing the existing and projected housing need for a region, the department shall meet and consult with the council of governments regarding the assumptions and methodology to be used by the department to determine the region’s housing needs. The council of governments shall provide data assumptions from the council’s projections, including, if available, the following data for the region:

(A) Anticipated household growth associated with projected population increases.

(B) Household size data and trends in household size.

(C) The percentage of households that are overcrowded and the overcrowding rate for a comparable housing market. For purposes of this subparagraph:

(i) The term “overcrowded” means more than one resident per room in each room in a dwelling.

(ii) The term “overcrowded rate for a comparable housing market” means that the overcrowding rate is no more than the average overcrowding rate in comparable regions throughout the nation, as determined by the council of governments.

(D) The rate of household formation, or headship rates, based on age, gender, ethnicity, or other established demographic measures.

(E) The vacancy rates in existing housing stock, and the vacancy rates for healthy housing market functioning and regional mobility, as well as housing replacement needs. For purposes of this subparagraph, the vacancy rate for a healthy rental housing market shall be considered no less than 5 percent.

(F) Other characteristics of the composition of the projected population.

(G) The relationship between jobs and housing, including any imbalance between jobs and housing.

(H) The percentage of households that are cost burdened and the rate of housing cost burden for a healthy housing market. For the purposes of this subparagraph:

(i) The term “cost burdened” means the share of very low, low-, moderate-, and above moderate-income households that are paying more than 30 percent of household income on housing costs.

(ii) The term “rate of housing cost burden for a healthy housing market” means that the rate of households that are cost burdened is no more than the average rate of households that are cost burdened in comparable regions throughout the nation, as determined by the council of governments.

(I) The loss of units during a state of emergency that was declared by the Governor pursuant to the California Emergency Services Act (Chapter 7 (commencing with Section 8550) of Division 1 of Title 2), during the planning period immediately preceding the relevant revision pursuant to Section 65588 that have yet to be rebuilt or replaced at the time of the data request.

(2) The department may accept or reject the information provided by the council of governments or modify its own assumptions or methodology based on this information. After consultation with the council of governments, the department shall make determinations in writing on the assumptions for each of the factors listed in subparagraphs (A) to (I), inclusive, of paragraph (1) and the methodology it shall use and shall provide these determinations to the council of governments. The methodology submitted by the department may make adjustments based on the region’s total projected households, which includes existing households as well as projected households.

(c) (1) After consultation with the council of governments, the department shall make a determination of the region’s existing and projected housing need based upon the assumptions and methodology determined pursuant to subdivision (b). The region’s existing and projected housing need shall reflect the achievement of a feasible balance between jobs and housing within the region using the regional employment projections in the applicable regional transportation plan. Within 30 days following notice of the determination from the department, the council of governments may file an objection to the department’s determination of the region’s existing and projected housing need with the department.

(2) The objection shall be based on and substantiate either of the following:

(A) The department failed to base its determination on the population projection for the region established pursuant to subdivision (a), and shall identify the population projection which the council of governments believes should instead be used for the determination and explain the basis for its rationale.

(B) The regional housing need determined by the department is not a reasonable application of the methodology and assumptions determined pursuant to subdivision (b). The objection shall include a proposed alternative determination of its regional housing need based upon the determinations made in subdivision (b), including analysis of why the proposed alternative would be a more reasonable application of the methodology and assumptions determined pursuant to subdivision (b).

(3) If a council of governments files an objection pursuant to this subdivision and includes with the objection a proposed alternative determination of its regional housing need, it shall also include documentation of its basis for the alternative determination. Within 45 days of receiving an objection filed pursuant to this section, the department shall consider the objection and make a final written determination of the region’s existing and projected housing need that includes an explanation of the information upon which the determination was made.

(d) Statutory changes enacted after the date the department issued a final determination pursuant to this section shall not be a basis for a revision of the final determination.

65584.04.

 (a) At least two years prior to a scheduled revision required by Section 65588, each council of governments, or delegate subregion as applicable, shall develop, in consultation with the department, a proposed methodology for distributing the existing and projected regional housing need to cities, counties, and cities and counties within the region or within the subregion, where applicable pursuant to this section. The methodology shall further the objectives listed in subdivision (d) of Section 65584.

(b) (1) No more than six months prior to the development of a proposed methodology for distributing the existing and projected housing need, each council of governments shall survey each of its member jurisdictions to request, at a minimum, information regarding the factors listed in subdivision (e) that will allow the development of a methodology based upon the factors established in subdivision (e).

(2) With respect to the objective in paragraph (5) of subdivision (d) of Section 65584, the survey shall review and compile information that will allow the development of a methodology based upon the issues, strategies, and actions that are included, as available, in an Analysis of Impediments to Fair Housing Choice or an Assessment of Fair Housing completed by any city or county or the department that covers communities within the area served by the council of governments, and in housing elements adopted pursuant to this article by cities and counties within the area served by the council of governments.

(3) The council of governments shall seek to obtain the information in a manner and format that is comparable throughout the region and utilize readily available data to the extent possible.

(4) The information provided by a local government pursuant to this section shall be used, to the extent possible, by the council of governments, or delegate subregion as applicable, as source information for the methodology developed pursuant to this section. The survey shall state that none of the information received may be used as a basis for reducing the total housing need established for the region pursuant to Section 65584.01.

(5) If the council of governments fails to conduct a survey pursuant to this subdivision, a city, county, or city and county may submit information related to the items listed in subdivision (e) prior to the public comment period provided for in subdivision (d).

(c) The council of governments shall electronically report the results of the survey of fair housing issues, strategies, and actions compiled pursuant to paragraph (2) of subdivision (b). The report shall describe common themes and effective strategies employed by cities and counties within the area served by the council of governments, including common themes and effective strategies around avoiding the displacement of lower income households. The council of governments shall also identify significant barriers to affirmatively furthering fair housing at the regional level and may recommend strategies or actions to overcome those barriers. A council of governments or metropolitan planning organization, as appropriate, may use this information for any other purpose, including publication within a regional transportation plan adopted pursuant to Section 65080 or to inform the land use assumptions that are applied in the development of a regional transportation plan.

(d) Public participation and access shall be required in the development of the methodology and in the process of drafting and adoption of the allocation of the regional housing needs. Participation by organizations other than local jurisdictions and councils of governments shall be solicited in a diligent effort to achieve public participation of all economic segments of the community as well as members of protected classes under Section 12955. The proposed methodology, along with any relevant underlying data and assumptions, an explanation of how information about local government conditions gathered pursuant to subdivision (b) has been used to develop the proposed methodology, how each of the factors listed in subdivision (e) is incorporated into the methodology, and how the proposed methodology furthers the objectives listed in subdivision (e) of Section 65584, shall be distributed to all cities, counties, any subregions, and members of the public who have made a written or electronic request for the proposed methodology and published on the council of governments’, or delegate subregion’s, internet website. The council of governments, or delegate subregion, as applicable, shall conduct at least one public hearing to receive oral and written comments on the proposed methodology.

(e) To the extent that sufficient data is available from local governments pursuant to subdivision (b) or other sources, each council of governments, or delegate subregion as applicable, shall include the following factors to develop the methodology that allocates regional housing needs:

(1) Each member jurisdiction’s existing and projected jobs and housing relationship. This shall include an estimate based on readily available data on the number of low-wage jobs within the jurisdiction and how many housing units within the jurisdiction are affordable to low-wage workers as well as an estimate based on readily available data, of projected job growth and projected household growth by income level within each member jurisdiction during the planning period.

(2) The opportunities and constraints to development of additional housing in each member jurisdiction, including all of the following:

(A) Lack of capacity for sewer or water service due to federal or state laws, regulations or regulatory actions, or supply and distribution decisions made by a sewer or water service provider other than the local jurisdiction that preclude the jurisdiction from providing necessary infrastructure for additional development during the planning period.

(B) The availability of land suitable for urban development or for conversion to residential use, the availability of underutilized land, and opportunities for infill development and increased residential densities. The council of governments may not limit its consideration of suitable housing sites or land suitable for urban development to existing zoning ordinances and land use restrictions of a locality, but shall consider the potential for increased residential development under alternative zoning ordinances and land use restrictions. The determination of available land suitable for urban development may exclude lands where the Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA) or the Department of Water Resources has determined that the flood management infrastructure designed to protect that land is not adequate to avoid the risk of flooding.

(C) Lands preserved or protected from urban development under existing federal or state programs, or both, designed to protect open space, farmland, environmental habitats, and natural resources on a long-term basis, including land zoned or designated for agricultural protection or preservation that is subject to a local ballot measure that was approved by the voters of that jurisdiction that prohibits or restricts conversion to nonagricultural uses.

(D) County policies to preserve prime agricultural land, as defined pursuant to Section 56064, within an unincorporated and land within an unincorporated area zoned or designated for agricultural protection or preservation that is subject to a local ballot measure that was approved by the voters of that jurisdiction that prohibits or restricts its conversion to nonagricultural uses.

(3) The distribution of household growth assumed for purposes of a comparable period of regional transportation plans and opportunities to maximize the use of public transportation and existing transportation infrastructure.

(4) Agreements between a county and cities in a county to direct growth toward incorporated areas of the county and land within an unincorporated area zoned or designated for agricultural protection or preservation that is subject to a local ballot measure that was approved by the voters of the jurisdiction that prohibits or restricts conversion to nonagricultural uses.

(5) The loss of units contained in assisted housing developments, as defined in paragraph (9) of subdivision (a) of Section 65583, that changed to non-low-income use through mortgage prepayment, subsidy contract expirations, or termination of use restrictions.

(6) The percentage of existing households at each of the income levels listed in subdivision (e) of Section 65584 that are paying more than 30 percent and more than 50 percent of their income in rent.

(7) The rate of overcrowding.

(8) The housing needs of farmworkers.

(9) The housing needs generated by the presence of a private university or a campus of the California State University or the University of California within any member jurisdiction.

(10) The loss of units during a state of emergency that was declared by the Governor pursuant to the California Emergency Services Act (Chapter 7 (commencing with Section 8550) of Division 1 of Title 2), during the planning period immediately preceding the relevant revision pursuant to Section 65588 that have yet to be rebuilt or replaced at the time of the analysis.

(11) The region’s greenhouse gas emissions targets provided by the State Air Resources Board pursuant to Section 65080.

(12) Any other factors adopted by the council of governments, that further the objectives listed in subdivision (d) of Section 65584, provided that the council of governments specifies which of the objectives each additional factor is necessary to further. The council of governments may include additional factors unrelated to furthering the objectives listed in subdivision (d) of Section 65584 so long as the additional factors do not undermine the objectives listed in subdivision (d) of Section 65584 and are applied equally across all household income levels as described in subdivision (f) of Section 65584 and the council of governments makes a finding that the factor is necessary to address significant health and safety conditions.

(f) The council of governments, or delegate subregion, as applicable, shall explain in writing how each of the factors described in subdivision (e) was incorporated into the methodology and how the methodology furthers the objectives listed in subdivision (d) of Section 65584. The methodology may include numerical weighting. This information and any other supporting materials used in determining the methodology, shall be posted on the council of governments’, or delegate subregion’s, internet website.

(g) The following criteria shall not be a justification for a determination or a reduction in a jurisdiction’s share of the regional housing need:

(1) Any ordinance, policy, voter-approved measure, or standard of a city or county that directly or indirectly limits the number of residential building permits issued by a city or county.

(2) Prior underproduction of housing in a city or county from the previous regional housing need allocation, as determined by each jurisdiction’s annual production report submitted pursuant to subparagraph (H) of paragraph (2) of subdivision (a) of Section 65400.

(3) Stable population numbers in a city or county from the previous regional housing needs cycle.

(h) Following the conclusion of the public comment period described in subdivision (d) on the proposed allocation methodology, and after making any revisions deemed appropriate by the council of governments, or delegate subregion, as applicable, as a result of comments received during the public comment period, and as a result of consultation with the department, each council of governments, or delegate subregion, as applicable, shall publish a draft allocation methodology on its internet website and submit the draft allocation methodology, along with the information required pursuant to subdivision (e), to the department.

(i) Within 60 days, the department shall review the draft allocation methodology and report its written findings to the council of governments, or delegate subregion, as applicable. In its written findings the department shall determine whether the methodology furthers the objectives listed in subdivision (d) of Section 65584. If the department determines that the methodology is not consistent with subdivision (d) of Section 65584, the council of governments, or delegate subregion, as applicable, shall take one of the following actions:

(1) Revise the methodology to further the objectives listed in subdivision (d) of Section 65584 and adopt a final regional, or subregional, housing need allocation methodology.

(2) Adopt the regional, or subregional, housing need allocation methodology without revisions and include within its resolution of adoption findings, supported by substantial evidence, as to why the council of governments, or delegate subregion, believes that the methodology furthers the objectives listed in subdivision (d) of Section 65584 despite the findings of the department.

(j) If the department’s findings are not available within the time limits set by subdivision (i), the council of governments, or delegate subregion, may act without them.

(k) Upon either action pursuant to subdivision (i), the council of governments, or delegate subregion, shall provide notice of the adoption of the methodology to the jurisdictions within the region, or delegate subregion, as applicable, and to the department, and shall publish the adopted allocation methodology, along with its resolution and any adopted written findings, on its internet website.

(l) The department may, within 90 days, review the adopted methodology and report its findings to the council of governments, or delegate subregion.

(m) (1) It is the intent of the Legislature that housing planning be coordinated and integrated with the regional transportation plan. To achieve this goal, the allocation plan shall allocate housing units within the region consistent with the development pattern included in the sustainable communities strategy.

(2) The final allocation plan shall ensure that the total regional housing need, by income category, as determined under Section 65584, is maintained, and that each jurisdiction in the region receive an allocation of units for low- and very low income households.

(3) The resolution approving the final housing need allocation plan shall demonstrate that the plan is consistent with the sustainable communities strategy in the regional transportation plan and furthers the objectives listed in subdivision (d) of Section 65584.

65915.

 (a) (1) When an applicant seeks a density bonus for a housing development within, or for the donation of land for housing within, the jurisdiction of a city, county, or city and county, that local government shall comply with this section. A city, county, or city and county shall adopt an ordinance that specifies how compliance with this section will be implemented. Failure to adopt an ordinance shall not relieve a city, county, or city and county from complying with this section.

(2) A local government shall not condition the submission, review, or approval of an application pursuant to this chapter on the preparation of an additional report or study that is not otherwise required by state law, including this section. This subdivision does not prohibit a local government from requiring an applicant to provide reasonable documentation to establish eligibility for a requested density bonus, incentives or concessions, as described in subdivision (d), waivers or reductions of development standards, as described in subdivision (e), and parking ratios, as described in subdivision (p).

(3) In order to provide for the expeditious processing of a density bonus application, the local government shall do all of the following:

(A) Adopt procedures and timelines for processing a density bonus application.

(B) Provide a list of all documents and information required to be submitted with the density bonus application in order for the density bonus application to be deemed complete. This list shall be consistent with this chapter.

(C) Notify the applicant for a density bonus whether the application is complete in a manner consistent with the timelines specified in Section 65943.

(D) (i) If the local government notifies the applicant that the application is deemed complete pursuant to subparagraph (C), provide the applicant with a determination as to the following matters:

(I) The amount of density bonus, calculated pursuant to subdivision (f), for which the applicant is eligible.

(II) If the applicant requests a parking ratio pursuant to subdivision (p), the parking ratio for which the applicant is eligible.

(III) If the applicant requests incentives or concessions pursuant to subdivision (d) or waivers or reductions of development standards pursuant to subdivision (e), whether the applicant has provided adequate information for the local government to make a determination as to those incentives, concessions, or waivers or reductions of development standards.

(ii) Any determination required by this subparagraph shall be based on the development project at the time the application is deemed complete. The local government shall adjust the amount of density bonus and parking ratios awarded pursuant to this section based on any changes to the project during the course of development.

(b) (1) A city, county, or city and county shall grant one density bonus, the amount of which shall be as specified in subdivision (f), and, if requested by the applicant and consistent with the applicable requirements of this section, incentives or concessions, as described in subdivision (d), waivers or reductions of development standards, as described in subdivision (e), and parking ratios, as described in subdivision (p), when an applicant for a housing development seeks and agrees to construct a housing development, excluding any units permitted by the density bonus awarded pursuant to this section, that will contain at least any one of the following:

(A) Ten percent of the total units of a housing development for lower income households, as defined in Section 50079.5 of the Health and Safety Code.

(B) Five percent of the total units of a housing development for very low income households, as defined in Section 50105 of the Health and Safety Code.

(C) A senior citizen housing development, as defined in Sections 51.3 and 51.12 of the Civil Code, or a mobilehome park that limits residency based on age requirements for housing for older persons pursuant to Section 798.76 or 799.5 of the Civil Code.

(D) Ten percent of the total dwelling units in a common interest development, as defined in Section 4100 of the Civil Code, for persons and families of moderate income, as defined in Section 50093 of the Health and Safety Code, provided that all units in the development are offered to the public for purchase.

(E) Ten percent of the total units of a housing development for transitional foster youth, as defined in Section 66025.9 of the Education Code, disabled veterans, as defined in Section 18541, or homeless persons, as defined in the federal McKinney-Vento Homeless Assistance Act (42 U.S.C. Sec. 11301 et seq.). The units described in this subparagraph shall be subject to a recorded affordability restriction of 55 years and shall be provided at the same affordability level as very low income units.

(F) (i) Twenty percent of the total units for lower income students in a student housing development that meets the following requirements:

(I) All units in the student housing development will be used exclusively for undergraduate, graduate, or professional students enrolled full time at an institution of higher education accredited by the Western Association of Schools and Colleges or the Accrediting Commission for Community and Junior Colleges. In order to be eligible under this subclause, the developer shall, as a condition of receiving a certificate of occupancy, provide evidence to the city, county, or city and county that the developer has entered into an operating agreement or master lease with one or more institutions of higher education for the institution or institutions to occupy all units of the student housing development with students from that institution or institutions. An operating agreement or master lease entered into pursuant to this subclause is not violated or breached if, in any subsequent year, there are not sufficient students enrolled in an institution of higher education to fill all units in the student housing development.

(II) The applicable 20-percent units will be used for lower income students. For purposes of this clause, “lower income students” means students who have a household income and asset level that does not exceed the level for Cal Grant A or Cal Grant B award recipients as set forth in paragraph (1) of subdivision (k) of Section 69432.7 of the Education Code. The eligibility of a student under this clause shall be verified by an affidavit, award letter, or letter of eligibility provided by the institution of higher education that the student is enrolled in, as described in subclause (I), or by the California Student Aid Commission that the student receives or is eligible for financial aid, including an institutional grant or fee waiver, from the college or university, the California Student Aid Commission, or the federal government shall be sufficient to satisfy this subclause.

(III) The rent provided in the applicable units of the development for lower income students shall be calculated at 30 percent of 65 percent of the area median income for a single-room occupancy unit type.

(IV) The development will provide priority for the applicable affordable units for lower income students experiencing homelessness. A homeless service provider, as defined in paragraph (3) of subdivision (d) of Section 103577 of the Health and Safety Code, or institution of higher education that has knowledge of a person’s homeless status may verify a person’s status as homeless for purposes of this subclause.

(ii) For purposes of calculating a density bonus granted pursuant to this subparagraph, the term “unit” as used in this section means one rental bed and its pro rata share of associated common area facilities. The units described in this subparagraph shall be subject to a recorded affordability restriction of 55 years.

(2) For purposes of calculating the amount of the density bonus pursuant to subdivision (f), an applicant who requests a density bonus pursuant to this subdivision shall elect whether the bonus shall be awarded on the basis of subparagraph (A), (B), (C), (D), (E), or (F) of paragraph (1).

(3) For the purposes of this section, “total units,” “total dwelling units,” or “total rental beds” does not include units added by a density bonus awarded pursuant to this section or any local law granting a greater density bonus.

(c) (1) An applicant shall agree to, and the city, county, or city and county shall ensure, the continued affordability of all very low and low-income rental units that qualified the applicant for the award of the density bonus for 55 years or a longer period of time if required by the construction or mortgage financing assistance program, mortgage insurance program, or rental subsidy program. Rents for the lower income density bonus units shall be set at an affordable rent as defined in Section 50053 of the Health and Safety Code.

(2) An applicant shall agree to, and the city, county, or city and county shall ensure that, the initial occupant of all for-sale units that qualified the applicant for the award of the density bonus are persons and families of very low, low, or moderate income, as required, and that the units are offered at an affordable housing cost, as that cost is defined in Section 50052.5 of the Health and Safety Code. The local government shall enforce an equity sharing agreement, unless it is in conflict with the requirements of another public funding source or law. The following apply to the equity sharing agreement:

(A) Upon resale, the seller of the unit shall retain the value of any improvements, the downpayment, and the seller’s proportionate share of appreciation. The local government shall recapture any initial subsidy, as defined in subparagraph (B), and its proportionate share of appreciation, as defined in subparagraph (C), which amount shall be used within five years for any of the purposes described in subdivision (e) of Section 33334.2 of the Health and Safety Code that promote home ownership.

(B) For purposes of this subdivision, the local government’s initial subsidy shall be equal to the fair market value of the home at the time of initial sale minus the initial sale price to the moderate-income household, plus the amount of any downpayment assistance or mortgage assistance. If upon resale the market value is lower than the initial market value, then the value at the time of the resale shall be used as the initial market value.

(C) For purposes of this subdivision, the local government’s proportionate share of appreciation shall be equal to the ratio of the local government’s initial subsidy to the fair market value of the home at the time of initial sale.

(3) (A) An applicant shall be ineligible for a density bonus or any other incentives or concessions under this section if the housing development is proposed on any property that includes a parcel or parcels on which rental dwelling units are or, if the dwelling units have been vacated or demolished in the five-year period preceding the application, have been subject to a recorded covenant, ordinance, or law that restricts rents to levels affordable to persons and families of lower or very low income; subject to any other form of rent or price control through a public entity’s valid exercise of its police power; or occupied by lower or very low income households, unless the proposed housing development replaces those units, and either of the following applies:

(i) The proposed housing development, inclusive of the units replaced pursuant to this paragraph, contains affordable units at the percentages set forth in subdivision (b).

(ii) Each unit in the development, exclusive of a manager’s unit or units, is affordable to, and occupied by, either a lower or very low income household.

(B) For the purposes of this paragraph, “replace” means either of the following:

(i) If any dwelling units described in subparagraph (A) are occupied on the date of application, the proposed housing development shall provide at least the same number of units of equivalent size to be made available at affordable rent or affordable housing cost to, and occupied by, persons and families in the same or lower income category as those households in occupancy. If the income category of the household in occupancy is not known, it shall be rebuttably presumed that lower income renter households occupied these units in the same proportion of lower income renter households to all renter households within the jurisdiction, as determined by the most recently available data from the United States Department of Housing and Urban Development’s Comprehensive Housing Affordability Strategy database. For unoccupied dwelling units described in subparagraph (A) in a development with occupied units, the proposed housing development shall provide units of equivalent size to be made available at affordable rent or affordable housing cost to, and occupied by, persons and families in the same or lower income category as the last household in occupancy. If the income category of the last household in occupancy is not known, it shall be rebuttably presumed that lower income renter households occupied these units in the same proportion of lower income renter households to all renter households within the jurisdiction, as determined by the most recently available data from the United States Department of Housing and Urban Development’s Comprehensive Housing Affordability Strategy database. All replacement calculations resulting in fractional units shall be rounded up to the next whole number. If the replacement units will be rental dwelling units, these units shall be subject to a recorded affordability restriction for at least 55 years. If the proposed development is for-sale units, the units replaced shall be subject to paragraph (2).

(ii) If all dwelling units described in subparagraph (A) have been vacated or demolished within the five-year period preceding the application, the proposed housing development shall provide at least the same number of units of equivalent size as existed at the highpoint of those units in the five-year period preceding the application to be made available at affordable rent or affordable housing cost to, and occupied by, persons and families in the same or lower income category as those persons and families in occupancy at that time, if known. If the incomes of the persons and families in occupancy at the highpoint is not known, it shall be rebuttably presumed that low-income and very low income renter households occupied these units in the same proportion of low-income and very low income renter households to all renter households within the jurisdiction, as determined by the most recently available data from the United States Department of Housing and Urban Development’s Comprehensive Housing Affordability Strategy database. All replacement calculations resulting in fractional units shall be rounded up to the next whole number. If the replacement units will be rental dwelling units, these units shall be subject to a recorded affordability restriction for at least 55 years. If the proposed development is for-sale units, the units replaced shall be subject to paragraph (2).

(C) Notwithstanding subparagraph (B), for any dwelling unit described in subparagraph (A) that is or was, within the five-year period preceding the application, subject to a form of rent or price control through a local government’s valid exercise of its police power and that is or was occupied by persons or families above lower income, the city, county, or city and county may do either of the following:

(i) Require that the replacement units be made available at affordable rent or affordable housing cost to, and occupied by, low-income persons or families. If the replacement units will be rental dwelling units, these units shall be subject to a recorded affordability restriction for at least 55 years. If the proposed development is for-sale units, the units replaced shall be subject to paragraph (2).

(ii) Require that the units be replaced in compliance with the jurisdiction’s rent or price control ordinance, provided that each unit described in subparagraph (A) is replaced. Unless otherwise required by the jurisdiction’s rent or price control ordinance, these units shall not be subject to a recorded affordability restriction.

(D) For purposes of this paragraph, “equivalent size” means that the replacement units contain at least the same total number of bedrooms as the units being replaced.

(E) Subparagraph (A) does not apply to an applicant seeking a density bonus for a proposed housing development if the applicant’s application was submitted to, or processed by, a city, county, or city and county before January 1, 2015.

(d) (1) An applicant for a density bonus pursuant to subdivision (b) may submit to a city, county, or city and county a proposal for the specific incentives or concessions that the applicant requests pursuant to this section, and may request a meeting with the city, county, or city and county. The city, county, or city and county shall grant the concession or incentive requested by the applicant unless the city, county, or city and county makes a written finding, based upon substantial evidence, of any of the following:

(A) The concession or incentive does not result in identifiable and actual cost reductions, consistent with subdivision (k), to provide for affordable housing costs, as defined in Section 50052.5 of the Health and Safety Code, or for rents for the targeted units to be set as specified in subdivision (c).

(B) The concession or incentive would have a specific, adverse impact, as defined in paragraph (2) of subdivision (d) of Section 65589.5, upon public health and safety or the physical environment or on any real property that is listed in the California Register of Historical Resources and for which there is no feasible method to satisfactorily mitigate or avoid the specific, adverse impact without rendering the development unaffordable to low-income and moderate-income households.

(C) The concession or incentive would be contrary to state or federal law.

(2) The applicant shall receive the following number of incentives or concessions:

(A) One incentive or concession for projects that include at least 10 percent of the total units for lower income households, at least 5 percent for very low income households, or at least 10 percent for persons and families of moderate income in a common interest development.

(B) Two incentives or concessions for projects that include at least 20 percent of the total units for lower income households, at least 10 percent for very low income households, or at least 20 percent for persons and families of moderate income in a common interest development.

(C) Three incentives or concessions for projects that include at least 30 percent of the total units for lower income households, at least 15 percent for very low income households, or at least 30 percent for persons and families of moderate income in a common interest development.

(3) The applicant may initiate judicial proceedings if the city, county, or city and county refuses to grant a requested density bonus, incentive, or concession. If a court finds that the refusal to grant a requested density bonus, incentive, or concession is in violation of this section, the court shall award the plaintiff reasonable attorney’s fees and costs of suit. This section shall not be interpreted to require a local government to grant an incentive or concession that has a specific, adverse impact, as defined in paragraph (2) of subdivision (d) of Section 65589.5, upon health, safety, or the physical environment, and for which there is no feasible method to satisfactorily mitigate or avoid the specific adverse impact. This subdivision shall not be interpreted to require a local government to grant an incentive or concession that would have an adverse impact on any real property that is listed in the California Register of Historical Resources. The city, county, or city and county shall establish procedures for carrying out this section, that shall include legislative body approval of the means of compliance with this section.

(4) The city, county, or city and county has the burden of proof for the denial of a requested concession or incentive.

(e) (1) A city, county, or city and county shall not apply any development standard that will have the effect of physically precluding the construction of a development meeting the criteria of subdivision (b) at the densities or with the concessions or incentives permitted by this section. An applicant may submit to a city, county, or city and county a proposal for the waiver or reduction of development standards that will have the effect of physically precluding the construction of a development meeting the criteria of subdivision (b) at the densities or with the concessions or incentives permitted under this section, and may request a meeting with the city, county, or city and county. If a court finds that the refusal to grant a waiver or reduction of development standards is in violation of this section, the court shall award the plaintiff reasonable attorney’s fees and costs of suit. This subdivision shall not be interpreted to require a local government to waive or reduce development standards if the waiver or reduction would have a specific, adverse impact, as defined in paragraph (2) of subdivision (d) of Section 65589.5, upon health, safety, or the physical environment, and for which there is no feasible method to satisfactorily mitigate or avoid the specific adverse impact. This subdivision shall not be interpreted to require a local government to waive or reduce development standards that would have an adverse impact on any real property that is listed in the California Register of Historical Resources, or to grant any waiver or reduction that would be contrary to state or federal law.

(2) A proposal for the waiver or reduction of development standards pursuant to this subdivision shall neither reduce nor increase the number of incentives or concessions to which the applicant is entitled pursuant to subdivision (d).

(f) For the purposes of this chapter, “density bonus” means a density increase over the otherwise maximum allowable gross residential density as of the date of application by the applicant to the city, county, or city and county, or, if elected by the applicant, a lesser percentage of density increase, including, but not limited to, no increase in density. The amount of density increase to which the applicant is entitled shall vary according to the amount by which the percentage of affordable housing units exceeds the percentage established in subdivision (b).

(1) For housing developments meeting the criteria of subparagraph (A) of paragraph (1) of subdivision (b), the density bonus shall be calculated as follows:

(2) For housing developments meeting the criteria of subparagraph (B) of paragraph (1) of subdivision (b), the density bonus shall be calculated as follows:

(3) (A) For housing developments meeting the criteria of subparagraph (C) of paragraph (1) of subdivision (b), the density bonus shall be 20 percent of the number of senior housing units.

(B) For housing developments meeting the criteria of subparagraph (E) of paragraph (1) of subdivision (b), the density bonus shall be 20 percent of the number of the type of units giving rise to a density bonus under that subparagraph.

(C) For housing developments meeting the criteria of subparagraph (F) of paragraph (1) of subdivision (b), the density bonus shall be 35 percent of the student housing units.

(4) For housing developments meeting the criteria of subparagraph (D) of paragraph (1) of subdivision (b), the density bonus shall be calculated as follows:

(5) All density calculations resulting in fractional units shall be rounded up to the next whole number. The granting of a density bonus shall not require, or be interpreted, in and of itself, to require a general plan amendment, local coastal plan amendment, zoning change, or other discretionary approval.

(g) (1) When an applicant for a tentative subdivision map, parcel map, or other residential development approval donates land to a city, county, or city and county in accordance with this subdivision, the applicant shall be entitled to a 15-percent increase above the otherwise maximum allowable residential density for the entire development, as follows:

(2) This increase shall be in addition to any increase in density mandated by subdivision (b), up to a maximum combined mandated density increase of 35 percent if an applicant seeks an increase pursuant to both this subdivision and subdivision (b). All density calculations resulting in fractional units shall be rounded up to the next whole number. This subdivision shall not be construed to enlarge or diminish the authority of a city, county, or city and county to require a developer to donate land as a condition of development. An applicant is eligible for the increased density bonus described in this subdivision if all of the following conditions are met:

(A) The applicant donates and transfers the land no later than the date of approval of the final subdivision map, parcel map, or residential development application.

(B) The developable acreage and zoning classification of the land being transferred are sufficient to permit construction of units affordable to very low income households in an amount not less than 10 percent of the number of residential units of the proposed development.

(C) The transferred land is at least one acre in size or of sufficient size to permit development of at least 40 units, has the appropriate general plan designation, is appropriately zoned with appropriate development standards for development at the density described in paragraph (3) of subdivision (c) of Section 65583.2, and is or will be served by adequate public facilities and infrastructure.

(D) The transferred land shall have all of the permits and approvals, other than building permits, necessary for the development of the very low income housing units on the transferred land, not later than the date of approval of the final subdivision map, parcel map, or residential development application, except that the local government may subject the proposed development to subsequent design review to the extent authorized by subdivision (i) of Section 65583.2 if the design is not reviewed by the local government before the time of transfer.

(E) The transferred land and the affordable units shall be subject to a deed restriction ensuring continued affordability of the units consistent with paragraphs (1) and (2) of subdivision (c), which shall be recorded on the property at the time of the transfer.

(F) The land is transferred to the local agency or to a housing developer approved by the local agency. The local agency may require the applicant to identify and transfer the land to the developer.

(G) The transferred land shall be within the boundary of the proposed development or, if the local agency agrees, within one-quarter mile of the boundary of the proposed development.

(H) A proposed source of funding for the very low income units shall be identified not later than the date of approval of the final subdivision map, parcel map, or residential development application.

(h) (1) When an applicant proposes to construct a housing development that conforms to the requirements of subdivision (b) and includes a childcare facility that will be located on the premises of, as part of, or adjacent to, the project, the city, county, or city and county shall grant either of the following:

(A) An additional density bonus that is an amount of square feet of residential space that is equal to or greater than the amount of square feet in the childcare facility.

(B) An additional concession or incentive that contributes significantly to the economic feasibility of the construction of the childcare facility.

(2) The city, county, or city and county shall require, as a condition of approving the housing development, that the following occur:

(A) The childcare facility shall remain in operation for a period of time that is as long as or longer than the period of time during which the density bonus units are required to remain affordable pursuant to subdivision (c).

(B) Of the children who attend the childcare facility, the children of very low income households, lower income households, or families of moderate income shall equal a percentage that is equal to or greater than the percentage of dwelling units that are required for very low income households, lower income households, or families of moderate income pursuant to subdivision (b).

(3) Notwithstanding any requirement of this subdivision, a city, county, or city and county shall not be required to provide a density bonus or concession for a childcare facility if it finds, based upon substantial evidence, that the community has adequate childcare facilities.

(4) “Childcare facility,” as used in this section, means a child daycare facility other than a family daycare home, including, but not limited to, infant centers, preschools, extended daycare facilities, and schoolage childcare centers.

(i) “Housing development,” as used in this section, means a development project for five or more residential units, including mixed-use developments. For the purposes of this section, “housing development” also includes a subdivision or common interest development, as defined in Section 4100 of the Civil Code, approved by a city, county, or city and county and consists of residential units or unimproved residential lots and either a project to substantially rehabilitate and convert an existing commercial building to residential use or the substantial rehabilitation of an existing multifamily dwelling, as defined in subdivision (d) of Section 65863.4, where the result of the rehabilitation would be a net increase in available residential units. For the purpose of calculating a density bonus, the residential units shall be on contiguous sites that are the subject of one development application, but do not have to be based upon individual subdivision maps or parcels. The density bonus shall be permitted in geographic areas of the housing development other than the areas where the units for the lower income households are located.

(j) (1) The granting of a concession or incentive shall not require or be interpreted, in and of itself, to require a general plan amendment, local coastal plan amendment, zoning change, study, or other discretionary approval. For purposes of this subdivision, “study” does not include reasonable documentation to establish eligibility for the concession or incentive or to demonstrate that the incentive or concession meets the definition set forth in subdivision (k). This provision is declaratory of existing law.

(2) Except as provided in subdivisions (d) and (e), the granting of a density bonus shall not require or be interpreted to require the waiver of a local ordinance or provisions of a local ordinance unrelated to development standards.

(k) For the purposes of this chapter, concession or incentive means any of the following:

(1) A reduction in site development standards or a modification of zoning code requirements or architectural design requirements that exceed the minimum building standards approved by the California Building Standards Commission as provided in Part 2.5 (commencing with Section 18901) of Division 13 of the Health and Safety Code, including, but not limited to, a reduction in setback and square footage requirements and in the ratio of vehicular parking spaces that would otherwise be required that results in identifiable and actual cost reductions, to provide for affordable housing costs, as defined in Section 50052.5 of the Health and Safety Code, or for rents for the targeted units to be set as specified in subdivision (c).

(2) Approval of mixed-use zoning in conjunction with the housing project if commercial, office, industrial, or other land uses will reduce the cost of the housing development and if the commercial, office, industrial, or other land uses are compatible with the housing project and the existing or planned development in the area where the proposed housing project will be located.

(3) Other regulatory incentives or concessions proposed by the developer or the city, county, or city and county that result in identifiable and actual cost reductions to provide for affordable housing costs, as defined in Section 50052.5 of the Health and Safety Code, or for rents for the targeted units to be set as specified in subdivision (c).

(l) Subdivision (k) does not limit or require the provision of direct financial incentives for the housing development, including the provision of publicly owned land, by the city, county, or city and county, or the waiver of fees or dedication requirements.

(m) This section does not supersede or in any way alter or lessen the effect or application of the California Coastal Act of 1976 (Division 20 (commencing with Section 30000) of the Public Resources Code). Any density bonus, concessions, incentives, waivers or reductions of development standards, and parking ratios to which the applicant is entitled under this section shall be permitted in a manner that is consistent with this section and Division 20 (commencing with Section 30000) of the Public Resources Code.

(n) If permitted by local ordinance, this section shall not be construed to prohibit a city, county, or city and county from granting a density bonus greater than what is described in this section for a development that meets the requirements of this section or from granting a proportionately lower density bonus than what is required by this section for developments that do not meet the requirements of this section.

(o) For purposes of this section, the following definitions apply:

(1) “Development standard” includes a site or construction condition, including, but not limited to, a height limitation, a setback requirement, a floor area ratio, an onsite open-space requirement, or a parking ratio that applies to a residential development pursuant to any ordinance, general plan element, specific plan, charter, or other local condition, law, policy, resolution, or regulation.

(2) “Maximum allowable residential density” means the density allowed under the zoning ordinance and land use element of the general plan, or, if a range of density is permitted, means the maximum allowable density for the specific zoning range and land use element of the general plan applicable to the project. If the density allowed under the zoning ordinance is inconsistent with the density allowed under the land use element of the general plan, the general plan density shall prevail.

(p) (1) Except as provided in paragraphs (2) and (3) upon the request of the developer, a city, county, or city and county shall not require a vehicular parking ratio, inclusive of handicapped and guest parking, of a development meeting the criteria of subdivisions (b) and (c), that exceeds the following ratios:

(A) Zero to one bedroom: one onsite parking space.

(B) Two to three bedrooms: two onsite parking spaces.

(C) Four and more bedrooms: two and one-half parking spaces.

(2) Notwithstanding paragraph (1), if a development includes the maximum percentage of low-income or very low income units provided for in paragraphs (1) and (2) of subdivision (f) and is located within one-half mile of a major transit stop, as defined in subdivision (b) of Section 21155 of the Public Resources Code, and there is unobstructed access to the major transit stop from the development, then, upon the request of the developer, a city, county, or city and county shall not impose a vehicular parking ratio, inclusive of handicapped and guest parking, that exceeds 0.5 spaces per bedroom. For purposes of this subdivision, a development shall have unobstructed access to a major transit stop if a resident is able to access the major transit stop without encountering natural or constructed impediments.

(3) Notwithstanding paragraph (1), if a development consists solely of rental units, exclusive of a manager’s unit or units, with an affordable housing cost to lower income families, as provided in Section 50052.5 of the Health and Safety Code, then, upon the request of the developer, a city, county, or city and county shall not impose a vehicular parking ratio, inclusive of handicapped and guest parking, that exceeds the following ratios:

(A) If the development is located within one-half mile of a major transit stop, as defined in subdivision (b) of Section 21155 of the Public Resources Code, and there is unobstructed access to the major transit stop from the development, the ratio shall not exceed 0.5 spaces per unit.

(B) If the development is a for-rent housing development for individuals who are 62 years of age or older that complies with Sections 51.2 and 51.3 of the Civil Code, the ratio shall not exceed 0.5 spaces per unit. The development shall have either paratransit service or unobstructed access, within one-half mile, to fixed bus route service that operates at least eight times per day.

(C) If the development is a special needs housing development, as defined in Section 51312 of the Health and Safety Code, the ratio shall not exceed 0.3 spaces per unit. The development shall have either paratransit service or unobstructed access, within one-half mile, to fixed bus route service that operates at least eight times per day.

(4) If the total number of parking spaces required for a development is other than a whole number, the number shall be rounded up to the next whole number. For purposes of this subdivision, a development may provide onsite parking through tandem parking or uncovered parking, but not through onstreet parking.

(5) This subdivision applies to a development that meets the requirements of subdivisions (b) and (c), but only at the request of the applicant. An applicant may request parking incentives or concessions beyond those provided in this subdivision pursuant to subdivision (d).

(6) This subdivision does not preclude a city, county, or city and county from reducing or eliminating a parking requirement for development projects of any type in any location.

(7) Notwithstanding paragraphs (2) and (3), if a city, county, city and county, or an independent consultant has conducted an areawide or jurisdictionwide parking study in the last seven years, then the city, county, or city and county may impose a higher vehicular parking ratio not to exceed the ratio described in paragraph (1), based upon substantial evidence found in the parking study, that includes, but is not limited to, an analysis of parking availability, differing levels of transit access, walkability access to transit services, the potential for shared parking, the effect of parking requirements on the cost of market-rate and subsidized developments, and the lower rates of car ownership for low-income and very low income individuals, including seniors and special needs individuals. The city, county, or city and county shall pay the costs of any new study. The city, county, or city and county shall make findings, based on a parking study completed in conformity with this paragraph, supporting the need for the higher parking ratio.

(8) A request pursuant to this subdivision shall not reduce or increase the number of incentives or concessions to which the applicant is entitled pursuant to subdivision (d).

(q) Each component of any density calculation, including base density and bonus density, resulting in fractional units shall be separately rounded up to the next whole number. The Legislature finds and declares that this provision is declaratory of existing law.

(r) This chapter shall be interpreted liberally in favor of producing the maximum number of total housing units.

70371.9.

 (a) (1) The Judicial Council shall conduct, or contract with an independent contractor to conduct, a reassessment of those projects identified in its Update to Trial Court Capital-Outlay Plan and Prioritization Methodology adopted on October 24, 2008, or the most recent version of that update, if any. Other projects may be included for reassessment at the discretion of the Judicial Council. The reassessment shall be submitted to the Senate Committee on Budget and Fiscal Review and the Assembly Committee on Budget by December 31, 2019.

(2)  The Judicial Council may exclude from the reassessment those projects that were canceled prior to June 30, 2018, and those that were approved in the Budget Act of 2018.

(b) A project subject to this section shall be reassessed and ranked, at minimum, on each of the following:

(1) The criteria identified in the Update to Trial Court Capital-Outlay Plan and Prioritization Methodology adopted on October 24, 2008, or the most recent version of that update, if any.

(2) The level of seismic risk, environmental hazards, and other health and safety hazards.

(3) The impact on court users, including, but not limited to, the level of public access to court services, such as accessibility to the courthouse.

(4) The cost avoidance or savings that would be achieved due to the project through operational or organizational efficiencies created for the court or the state.

(5) Ways to minimize increased ongoing costs, including, but not limited to, trial court security and operating and maintenance costs.

(6) A comparison of the cost to repair or renovate the existing facility versus the cost of replacement.

(7) The projected cost of each proposed project, per court user.

(8) The total costs spent on the project as of the date of the assessment.

93010.

 (a) The authority is hereby created, having a service area comprising the Counties of Humboldt, Mendocino, Sonoma, and Trinity.

(b) The County of Marin may elect to join the authority and, if that election is made, the authority is expanded to include that county.

1337.1.

 A skilled nursing facility or intermediate care facility shall adopt an approved training program that meets standards established by the department. The approved training program shall consist of at least all of the following:

(a) An orientation program to be given to newly employed nurse assistants prior to providing direct patient care in skilled nursing facilities or intermediate care facilities.

(b) (1) A precertification training program consisting of at least 60 classroom hours of training on basic nursing skills, patient safety and rights, the social and psychological problems of patients, and resident abuse prevention, recognition, and reporting pursuant to subdivision (e). The 60 classroom hours of training may be conducted within a skilled nursing facility or intermediate care facility or in an educational institution or agency. A skilled nursing facility or intermediate care facility may conduct the 60 classroom hours of training in an online or distance learning course format, as approved by the department.

(2) In addition to the 60 classroom hours of training required under paragraph (1), the precertification training program shall consist of at least 100 hours of supervised and on-the-job training clinical practice. The 100 hours may consist of normal employment as a nurse assistant under the supervision of either the director of nurse training or a licensed nurse qualified to provide nurse assistant training who has no other assigned duties while providing the training.

(3) At least two hours of the 60 hours of classroom training shall address the special needs of persons with developmental and mental disorders, including intellectual disability, cerebral palsy, epilepsy, dementia, Parkinson’s disease, and mental illness. At least two hours of the 60 hours of classroom training shall address the special needs of persons with Alzheimer’s disease and related dementias.

(4) At least four hours of the 100 hours of supervised clinical training shall address the special needs of persons with developmental and mental disorders, including intellectual disability, cerebral palsy, epilepsy, Alzheimer’s disease and related dementias, and Parkinson’s disease.

(5) In a precertification training program subject to this subdivision, credit shall be given for the training received in an approved precertification training program adopted by another skilled nursing facility or intermediate care facility.

(6) This subdivision does not apply to a skilled nursing facility or intermediate care facility that demonstrates to the department that it employs only nurse assistants with a valid certification.

(c) Continuing in-service training to ensure continuing competency in existing and new nursing skills.

(d) Each facility shall consider including training regarding the characteristics and method of assessment and treatment of acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS).

(e) (1) The approved training program shall include, within the 60 hours of classroom training, a minimum of six hours of instruction on preventing, recognizing, and reporting instances of resident abuse utilizing those courses developed pursuant to Section 13823.93 of the Penal Code, and a minimum of one hour of instruction on preventing, recognizing, and reporting residents’ rights violations.

(2) A minimum of four hours of instruction on preventing, recognizing, and reporting instances of resident abuse, including instruction on preventing, recognizing, and reporting residents’ rights violations, shall be included within the total minimum hours of continuing education or in-service training required and in effect for certified nurse assistants.

1399.66.

 (a) Notwithstanding subdivision (d) of Section 1352, a health care service plan that files a material modification that is a transaction or agreement described in subdivision (a) of Section 1399.65 shall be subject to the same fees required by subdivision (a) of Section 1356.

(b) (1) In addition to paying the fees described in subdivision (a), the health care service plan shall reimburse the director for the reasonable costs of all of the following:

(A) The independent analysis described in paragraph (4) of subdivision (a) of Section 1399.65.

(B) The opinion described in subdivision (b) of Section 1399.65.

(C) The public meeting described in subdivision (c) of Section 1399.65.

(D) The statement described in subdivision (d) of Section 1399.65.

(2) The reimbursement required by this subdivision shall be irrespective of the director’s approval, conditional approval, or disapproval of the transaction or agreement described in subdivision (a) of Section 1399.65.

(3) If a transaction described in subdivision (a) of Section 1399.65 involves two health care service plans, the director shall determine whether the reimbursement requirements of this subdivision apply to one or both of the plans.

1538.75.

 (a) (1) The department shall allocate funds appropriated for the purpose of providing training and community-based, culturally relevant, trauma-informed services in order to reduce the frequency of law enforcement involvement and delinquency petitions arising from incidents at group homes and other facilities licensed to provide residential care to dependent children. For county departments participating in the program, participation shall be at the county’s option.

(2) The department’s allocation of the funds shall include, at a minimum, both of the following:

(A) Consultation with stakeholders to establish a methodology to identify facilities in need of training and to establish a methodology for defining areas of highest need for services for youth. The department shall involve stakeholders from rural areas and counties with fewer than 1,000,000 residents.

(B) Identification of highest areas of need by county based on youth living in areas with the highest rate of crossover and dual status youth as described in subdivision (a) of Section 241.1 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, youth placed in probation-supervised foster care placements and foster youth placed in juvenile hall, and youth living in congregate care facilities specified in Sections 1536 and 1538.7, with excessive licensing complaints and excessive calls to law enforcement.

(b) (1) Eligible lead agencies include county child welfare departments, county behavioral health departments, county public health departments, or private nonprofit community-based agencies with experience providing social and mental health services to youth and families. For county departments participating in the program, participation shall be at the county’s option.

(2) A group home, transitional shelter care facility, short-term residential therapeutic program, as defined in Section 1502, and temporary shelter care facility, as defined in subdivision (c) of Section 1530.8, is ineligible to receive funds as specified in this section.

(c) (1) By March 1, 2019, the department shall allocate the funds appropriated to it for these purposes in the annual Budget Act to lead agencies that submit a three-year plan via a request for proposal developed by the department. Funds awarded but not expended during any year shall remain eligible for expenditure by a selected lead agency in the following year. Up to 10 percent of funds awarded may be allocated to the lead agency for the coordination and administration of the program.

(2) (A) A prospective lead agency shall indicate its interest in participating in the program by submitting a three-year plan by February 1 of the first year, and shall submit any plan modifications by February 1 of each subsequent year.

(B) The plan shall designate the lead agency and the community-based organization or organizations that will provide services, including program descriptions and the targeted geographic areas in most need of services. The plan shall provide evidence of all of the following:

(i) Braided or matching county funds of at least 25 percent.

(ii) A memorandum of understanding (MOU) with local law enforcement assuring law enforcement participation in the training and diversion protocols. A plan that does not include a direct MOU with law enforcement may be considered, but plans that include the MOU will have priority for funding.

(iii) Direct coordination of services with identified facilities and collaboration regarding the integration of services with the facility program.

(iv) Youth educational and well-being outcome measures developed in coordination with the department.

(C) The lead agency shall allocate no less than 90 percent of the funds awarded to one or more community-based service providers to provide direct services as described in this section.

(D) If the lead agency is also a community-based organization, the lead agency may directly administer services under this section.

(3) Funding provided to a county pursuant to this section shall supplement, and not supplant, county funding expended for purposes described in subdivision (a) as of the 2016–17 fiscal year.

(4) The department shall issue guidance to eligible lead agencies regarding fund and plan requirements by October 1 of each year in order to ensure maximum utilization of federal funding opportunities, and may periodically revise that guidance following consultation with county agencies, other state departments, advocates for children and youth, and other stakeholders.

(d) (1) For the purposes of this section, community-based, culturally relevant, trauma-informed services include, but are not limited to, mentoring, educational enrichment, college and career preparation, arts, recreation, cultural and ethnic studies, cultural healing practices, permanency services, and self-awareness and health programming, which shall be provided as alternatives to arrest, detention, and incarceration for system-impacted youth living in areas with the highest rates of foster youth arrests and crossover youth.

(2) The services described in paragraph (1) shall be provided by nongovernmental organizations that are easily accessible to residents of the congregate care facilities.

(e) The department shall use five hundred thousand dollars ($500,000) of the funds appropriated to it in the annual Budget Act for purposes of this section to contract with one or more community-based organizations for training purposes pursuant to subdivision (a). The department shall seek federal matching funds to maximize funding for this purpose. The department shall consider the allocation of funds as specified in subdivision (c) when contracting for training purposes.

(1) Training and technical assistance to professionals interacting with youth shall include all of the following:

(A) Adolescent development principles.

(B) Deescalation techniques.

(C) Culturally relevant and trauma-informed interventions.

(2) Training shall be provided to group home, shelter, and short-term residential treatment program staff, and the responding local law enforcement serving youth living in the facilities or areas identified in paragraph (2) of subdivision (a).

(f) The department shall contract with a research firm or university to measure youth outcomes and justice system measures over a three-year period beginning July 1, 2019.

(1) Youth outcome measures may include, but are not limited to, exits to families from congregate care, improvement in the youths’ health and well-being, school and community stability, educational attainment, and employment opportunities, as described in Section 11467 of the Welfare and Institutions Code.

(2) Justice system measures may include, but are not limited to, frequency of law enforcement responses to facilities for low-level offenses, number of charges filed resulting from law enforcement responses, number of hearings resulting from law enforcement responses, days youth spend in detention, youth placement in congregate care, school and placement disruptions, and facility staff turnover.

(3) The department shall seek any necessary federal approvals to obtain federal financial participation for the training and evaluation pursuant to this section, including any approvals necessary to obtain enhanced federal financial participation, as applicable.

(g) The department shall adopt regulations as required to implement the provisions of this section. Notwithstanding the rulemaking provisions of the Administrative Procedure Act (Chapter 3.5 (commencing with Section 11340) of Part 1 of Division 3 of Title 2 of the Government Code), the department may implement and administer this section through all-county letters or similar written instructions until regulations are adopted.

(h) Notwithstanding any other law, contracts or grants awarded for purposes of this section shall be exempt from the personal services contracting requirements of Article 4 (commencing with Section 19130) of Chapter 5 of Part 2 of Division 5 of Title 2 of the Government Code.

(i) Notwithstanding any other law, contracts or grants awarded for purposes of this section are exempt from the Public Contract Code and the State Contracting Manual, and are not subject to the approval of the Department of General Services.

(j)  This section shall become inoperative on July 1, 2023, and, as of January 1, 2024, is repealed.

1596.956.

 (a) The department shall develop guidelines and procedures to authorize licensed child daycare centers serving infants to create a special program component for children between 18 months to three years of age. The optional toddler program shall be subject to the following basic conditions:

(1) An amended application shall be submitted to, and approved by, the department.

(2) A child younger than 18 months of age shall not be moved into the toddler program. A child who is older than 18 months of age shall not be required to be in the toddler program.

(3) Parents shall give permission for the placement of their children in the toddler program.

(4) A ratio of six children to each teacher shall be maintained for all children in attendance at the toddler program. An aide who is participating in on-the-job training may be substituted for a teacher when directly supervised by a fully qualified teacher.

(5) The maximum group size, with two teachers, or one fully qualified teacher and one aide, shall not exceed 12 toddlers.

(6) The toddler program shall be conducted in areas separate from those used by older or younger children. Plans to alternate use of outdoor play space may be approved to achieve separation.

(7) All other regulations pertaining to infants shall be complied with.

(b) The toddler program shall be considered an extension of the infant center license, without the need for a separate license.

(c) The department may extend the period for participation in the toddler program for a maximum of three months for a child in extenuating circumstances, on the request of the daycare center, if the center can establish that it is unable to find an alternative placement.

1797.171.

 (a) The authority shall develop, and after approval of the commission pursuant to Section 1799.50, shall adopt, minimum standards for the training and scope of practice for EMT-II.

(b) (1) No later than July 1, 2019, the authority, local EMS agency, and certifying entity shall require an applicant to provide either the individual taxpayer identification number or social security number for purposes of applying for a certificate or the renewal of a certificate.

(2) If the authority, local EMS agency, or certifying entity utilizes a national examination to issue a certificate, and if a reciprocity agreement or comity exists between the State of California and the state requesting release of the individual taxpayer identification number or social security number, any deputy, agent, clerk, officer, or employee of the authority or agency may release an individual’s taxpayer identification number or social security number to an examination or certifying entity, only for the purpose of verification of certification or examination status.

(3) The individual taxpayer identification or the social security number shall serve to establish the identification of persons affected by state tax laws and for purposes of establishing compliance with subsection (a) of Section 666 of Title 42 of the United States Code, Section 60.15 of Title 45 of the Code of Federal Regulations, Section 17520 of the Family Code, and Section 11105 of the Penal Code, and to that end, the information furnished pursuant to this section shall be used exclusively for those purposes.

(4) The authority, local EMS agency, and certifying entity shall not do either of the following:

(A) Require an applicant to disclose citizenship status or immigration status for purposes of the application or renewal of a certificate.

(B) Deny certification to an otherwise qualified and eligible applicant based solely on the applicant’s citizenship status or immigration status.

(c) An EMT-II shall complete a course of training on the nature of sudden infant death syndrome in accordance with subdivision (d) of Section 1797.170.

(d) In rural or remote areas of the state where patient transport times are particularly long and where local resources are inadequate to support an EMT-P program for EMS responses, the director may approve additions to the scope of practice of EMT-IIs serving the local system, if requested by the medical director of the local EMS agency, and if the EMT-II has received training equivalent to that of an EMT-P. The approval of the director, in consultation with a committee of local EMS medical directors named by the Emergency Medical Directors Association of California, is required prior to implementation of any addition to a local optional scope of practice for EMT-IIs proposed by the medical director of a local EMS agency. No drug or procedure that is not part of the basic EMT-P scope of practice, including, but not limited to, any approved local options, shall be added to any EMT-II scope of practice pursuant to this subdivision.

Approval of additions to the scope of practices pursuant to this subdivision may be given only for EMT-II programs in effect on January 1, 1994.

1796.70.

 For purposes of this chapter, “rehabilitation innovation center” means a not-for-profit or government-owned rehabilitation facility that meets all of the following:

(a) Is classified as a not-for-profit entity or as a government-owned institution under the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services Provider of Services file.

(b) Holds at least one federal rehabilitation research and training designation for research projects on traumatic brain injury, spinal cord injury, or stroke rehabilitation research from the Rehabilitation Research and Training Centers, the Rehabilitation Engineering Research Center, or the Model Spinal Cord Injury Systems at the National Institute on Disability, Independent Living, and Rehabilitation Research at the federal Department of Health and Human Services.

(c) Has at least 200 Medi-Cal discharges per year.

11056.

 (a)  The controlled substances listed in this section are included in Schedule III.

(b)  Stimulants. Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another schedule, any material, compound, mixture, or preparation that contains any quantity of the following substances having a stimulant effect on the central nervous system, including its salts, isomers (whether optical, position, or geometric), and salts of those isomers whenever the existence of those salts, isomers, and salts of isomers is possible within the specific chemical designation:

(1)  Those compounds, mixtures, or preparations in dosage unit form containing any stimulant substances listed in Schedule II which compounds, mixtures, or preparations were listed on August 25, 1971, as excepted compounds under Section 1308.32 of Title 21 of the Code of Federal Regulations, and any other drug of the quantitative composition shown in that list for those drugs or that is the same except that it contains a lesser quantity of controlled substances.

(2)  Benzphetamine.

(3)  Chlorphentermine.

(4)  Clortermine.

(5)  Mazindol.

(6)  Phendimetrazine.

(c)  Depressants. Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another schedule, any material, compound, mixture, or preparation that contains any quantity of the following substances having a depressant effect on the central nervous system:

(1)  Any compound, mixture, or preparation containing any of the following:

(A)  Amobarbital

(B)  Secobarbital

(C)  Pentobarbital
or any salt thereof and one or more other active medicinal ingredients that are not listed in any schedule.

(2)  Any suppository dosage form containing any of the following:

(A)  Amobarbital

(B)  Secobarbital

(C)  Pentobarbital
or any salt of any of these drugs and approved by the federal Food and Drug Administration for marketing only as a suppository.

(3)  Any substance that contains any quantity of a derivative of barbituric acid or any salt thereof.

(4)  Chlorhexadol.

(5)  Lysergic acid.

(6)  Lysergic acid amide.

(7)  Methyprylon.

(8)  Sulfondiethylmethane.

(9)  Sulfonethylmethane.

(10)  Sulfonmethane.

(11)  Gamma hydroxybutyric acid, and its salts, isomers and salts of isomers, contained in a drug product for which an application has been approved under Section 505 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (21 U.S.C. Sec. 355).

(d)  Nalorphine.

(e)  Narcotic drugs. Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another schedule, any material, compound, mixture, or preparation containing any of the following narcotic drugs, or their salts calculated as the free anhydrous base or alkaloid, in limited quantities as set forth below:

(1)  Not more than 1.8 grams of codeine per 100 milliliters or not more than 90 milligrams per dosage unit, with an equal or greater quantity of an isoquinoline alkaloid of opium.

(2)  Not more than 1.8 grams of codeine per 100 milliliters or not more than 90 milligrams per dosage unit, with one or more active, nonnarcotic ingredients in recognized therapeutic amounts.

(3)  Not more than 1.8 grams of dihydrocodeine per 100 milliliters or not more than 90 milligrams per dosage unit, with one or more active nonnarcotic ingredients in recognized therapeutic amounts.

(4)  Not more than 300 milligrams of ethylmorphine per 100 milliliters or not more than 15 milligrams per dosage unit, with one or more active, nonnarcotic ingredients in recognized therapeutic amounts.

(5)  Not more than 500 milligrams of opium per 100 milliliters or per 100 grams or not more than 25 milligrams per dosage unit, with one or more active, nonnarcotic ingredients in recognized therapeutic amounts.

(6)  Not more than 50 milligrams of morphine per 100 milliliters or per 100 grams, with one or more active, nonnarcotic ingredients in recognized therapeutic amounts.

(f)  Anabolic steroids and chorionic gonadotropin. Any material, compound, mixture, or preparation containing chorionic gonadotropin or an anabolic steroid (excluding anabolic steroid products listed in the “Table of Exempt Anabolic Steroid Products” (Section 1308.34 of Title 21 of the Code of Federal Regulations), as exempt from the federal Controlled Substances Act (Section 801 and following of Title 21 of the United States Code)), including, but not limited to, the following:

(1)  Androisoxazole.

(2)  Androstenediol.

(3)  Bolandiol.

(4)  Bolasterone.

(5)  Boldenone.

(6)  Chloromethandienone.

(7)  Clostebol.

(8)  Dihydromesterone.

(9)  Ethylestrenol.

(10)  Fluoxymesterone.

(11)  Formyldienolone.

(12)  4-Hydroxy-19-nortestosterone.

(13)  Mesterolone.

(14)  Methandriol.

(15)  Methandrostenolone.

(16)  Methenolone.

(17)  17-Methyltestosterone.

(18)  Methyltrienolone.

(19)  Nandrolone.

(20)  Norbolethone.

(21)  Norethandrolone.

(22)  Normethandrolone.

(23)  Oxandrolone.

(24)  Oxymesterone.

(25)  Oxymetholone.

(26)  Quinbolone.

(27)  Stanolone.

(28)  Stanozolol.

(29)  Stenbolone.

(30)  Testosterone.

(31)  Trenbolone.

(32)  Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG), except when possessed by, sold to, purchased by, transferred to, or administered by a licensed veterinarian, or a licensed veterinarian’s designated agent, exclusively for veterinary use.

(g)  Ketamine. Any material, compound, mixture, or preparation containing ketamine.

(h)  Hallucinogenic substances. Any of the following hallucinogenic substances: dronabinol (synthetic) in sesame oil and encapsulated in a soft gelatin capsule in a drug product approved by the federal Food and Drug Administration.

14955.

 (a) A manufacturer or any other person or entity that knowingly sells or offers to sell cigarettes other than through retail sale in violation of this part is subject to a civil penalty not to exceed ten thousand dollars ($10,000) for each sale.

(b) A retailer, distributor, or wholesaler that knowingly sells or offers to sell cigarettes in violation of this part shall be subject to the following:

(1) A civil penalty not to exceed five hundred dollars ($500) for each sale or offer for sale in which the total number of cigarettes sold or offered for sale does not exceed 50 packages of cigarettes.

(2) A civil penalty not to exceed one thousand dollars ($1,000) for each sale or offer for sale in which the total number of cigarettes sold or offered for sale exceeds 50 packages of cigarettes.

(c) The civil penalties imposed pursuant to subdivisions (a) and (b) shall be deposited in the Cigarette Fire Safety and Firefighter Protection Fund.

(d) In addition to any other penalty prescribed by law, any corporation, partnership, sole proprietor, limited partnership, or association engaged in the manufacture of cigarettes that knowingly makes a false certification pursuant to Section 14953 is subject to a civil penalty not to exceed ten thousand dollars ($10,000) for each false certification.

(e) A person who violates any other provision in this part is subject to a civil penalty not to exceed one thousand dollars ($1,000) for each violation. Any cigarettes that have been sold or offered for sale that do not comply with the performance standard required by Section 14952 shall be deemed contraband per se and subject to seizure and disposal by the department or a law enforcement agency.

(f) The Attorney General may bring an action on behalf of the people of the state to restrain further violations of this part and for any other relief that may be appropriate. In any action by the Attorney General to enforce this act, the Attorney General shall be entitled to recover costs of investigation, expert witness fees, costs of the action, and reasonable attorney’s fees.

(g) It is a defense in any action for civil penalties that a distributor, wholesaler, retailer, or a person in the stream of commerce relied in good faith on the manufacturer’s certificate or marking that the cigarettes comply with this part.

19891.

 (a) In addition to any other remedies permitted by law, any violations of subdivision (a), (b), or (c) of Section 19890 or Section 19892 are subject to a civil penalty of one thousand dollars ($1,000) per opener installed, manufactured, sold, or offered for sale that is not in compliance with Section 19890 or 19892.

(b) In addition to any other remedies permitted by law, any violations of subdivision (d) or (h) of Section 19890 are subject to a civil penalty of five hundred dollars ($500) per opener installed and operational, that is not in compliance with Section 19890.

(c) In addition to any other remedies permitted by law, a seller who violates the notice requirements of Section 1102.6 of the Civil Code, relating to automatic garage door openers, is subject to a civil penalty of five hundred dollars ($500).

(d) Court proceedings may be initiated by the building department of the local agency with jurisdiction over enforcement of building standards, by affected consumers, or by the district attorney. Civil penalties assessed are payable to the local agency initiating the proceedings to enforce this chapter to offset the costs to the agency related to court proceedings. If an affected consumer initiates the proceeding, the civil penalties are payable to the consumer.

25141.

 (a)  The department shall develop and adopt by regulation criteria and guidelines for the identification of hazardous wastes and extremely hazardous wastes.

(b)  The criteria and guidelines adopted by the department pursuant to subdivision (a) shall identify as hazardous waste or combinations of waste that, because of the quantity, concentration, or physical, chemical, or infectious characteristics of the waste, may do either of the following:

(1)  Cause, or significantly contribute to an increase in mortality or an increase in serious irreversible, or incapacitating reversible, illness.

(2)  Pose a substantial present or potential hazard to human health or the environment, due to factors including, but not limited to, carcinogenicity, acute toxicity, chronic toxicity, bioaccumulative properties, or persistence in the environment, when improperly treated, stored, transported, or disposed of, or otherwise managed.

(c)  Except as provided in Section 25141.5, any regulations adopted pursuant to this section for the identification of hazardous waste as it read on January 1, 1995, which are in effect on January 1, 1995, shall be deemed to comply with the intent of this section as amended by this act during the 1995 portion of the 1995–96 Regular Session of the Legislature.

25173.6.

 (a) There is in the General Fund the Toxic Substances Control Account, which shall be administered by the director. In addition to any other money that may be appropriated by the Legislature to the Toxic Substances Control Account, all of the following shall be deposited in the account:

(1) The fees collected pursuant to Section 25205.6.

(2) The fees collected pursuant to Section 25187.2, to the extent that those fees are for oversight of a removal or remedial action taken under Chapter 6.8 (commencing with Section 25300) or Chapter 6.86 (commencing with Section 25396).

(3) Fines or penalties collected pursuant to this chapter, Chapter 6.8 (commencing with Section 25300) or Chapter 6.86 (commencing with Section 25396), except as directed otherwise by Section 25192.

(4) Interest earned upon money deposited in the Toxic Substances Control Account.

(5) All money recovered pursuant to Section 25360, except any amount recovered on or before June 30, 2006, that was paid from the Hazardous Substance Cleanup Fund.

(6) All money recovered pursuant to Section 25380.

(7) All penalties recovered pursuant to Section 25214.3, except as provided by Section 25192.

(8) All penalties recovered pursuant to Section 25214.22.1, except as provided by Section 25192.

(9) All penalties recovered pursuant to Section 25215.82, except as provided by Section 25192.

(10) Reimbursements for funds expended from the Toxic Substances Control Account for services provided by the department, including, but not limited to, reimbursements required pursuant to Sections 25201.9 and 25343.

(11) Money received from the federal government pursuant to the federal Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act of 1980, as amended (42 U.S.C. Sec. 9601 et seq.).

(12) Money received from responsible parties for remedial action or removal at a specific site, except as otherwise provided by law.

(b) The funds deposited in the Toxic Substances Control Account may be appropriated to the department for the following purposes:

(1) The administration and implementation of the following:

(A) Chapter 6.8 (commencing with Section 25300), except that funds shall not be expended from the Toxic Substances Control Account for purposes of Section 25354.5.

(B) Chapter 6.86 (commencing with Section 25396).

(C) Article 10 (commencing with Section 7710) of Chapter 1 of Division 4 of the Public Utilities Code, to the extent the department has been delegated responsibilities by the Secretary for Environmental Protection for implementing that article.

(D) Activities of the department related to pollution prevention and technology development, authorized pursuant to this chapter.

(2) The administration of the following units, and successor organizations of those units, within the department, and the implementation of programs administered by those units or successor organizations:

(A) The Human and Ecological Risk Office.

(B) The Environmental Chemistry Laboratory.

(C) The Office of Pollution Prevention and Technology Development.

(3) For allocation to the Office of Environmental Health Hazard Assessment, pursuant to an interagency agreement, to assist the department as needed in administering the programs described in subparagraphs (A) and (B) of paragraph (1).

(4) For allocation to the California Department of Tax and Fee Administration to pay refunds of fees collected pursuant to Section 43054 of the Revenue and Taxation Code.

(5) For the state share mandated pursuant to paragraph (3) of subsection (c) of Section 104 of the federal Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act of 1980, as amended (42 U.S.C. Sec. 9604(c)(3)).

(6) For the purchase by the state, or by a local agency with the prior approval of the director, of hazardous substance response equipment and other preparations for response to a release of hazardous substances. However, all equipment shall be purchased in a cost-effective manner after consideration of the adequacy of existing equipment owned by the state or the local agency, and the availability of equipment owned by private contractors.

(7) For payment of all costs of removal and remedial action incurred by the state, or by a local agency with the approval of the director, in response to a release or threatened release of a hazardous substance, to the extent the costs are not reimbursed by the federal Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act of 1980, as amended (42 U.S.C. Sec. 9601 et seq.).

(8) For payment of all costs of actions taken pursuant to subdivision (b) of Section 25358.3, to the extent that these costs are not paid by the federal Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act of 1980, as amended (42 U.S.C. Sec. 9601 et seq.).

(9) For all costs incurred by the department in cooperation with the Agency for Toxic Substances and Disease Registry established pursuant to subsection (i) of Section 104 of the federal Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act of 1980, as amended (42 U.S.C. Sec. 9604(i)) and all costs of health effects studies undertaken regarding specific sites or specific substances at specific sites. Funds appropriated for this purpose shall not exceed five hundred thousand dollars ($500,000) in a single fiscal year. However, these actions shall not duplicate reasonably available federal actions and studies.

(10) For repayment of the principal of, and interest on, bonds sold pursuant to Article 7.5 (commencing with Section 25385) of Chapter 6.8.

(11) Direct site remediation costs.

(12) For the department’s expenses for staff to perform oversight of investigations, characterizations, removals, remediations, or long-term operation and maintenance.

(13) For the administration and collection of the fees imposed pursuant to Section 25205.6.

(14) For allocation to the office of the Attorney General, pursuant to an interagency agreement or similar mechanism, for the support of the Toxic Substance Enforcement Program in the office of the Attorney General, in carrying out the purposes of Chapter 6.8 (commencing with Section 25300) and Chapter 6.86 (commencing with Section 25396).

(15) For funding the California Environmental Contaminant Biomonitoring Program established pursuant to Chapter 8 (commencing with Section 105440) of Part 5 of Division 103.

(16) As provided in Sections 25214.3 and 25215.7 and, with regard to penalties recovered pursuant to Section 25214.22.1, to implement and enforce Article 10.4 (commencing with Section 25214.11).

(c) The funds deposited in the Toxic Substances Control Account may be appropriated by the Legislature to the Office of Environmental Health Hazard Assessment and the State Department of Public Health for the purposes of carrying out their duties pursuant to the California Environmental Contaminant Biomonitoring Program (Chapter 8 (commencing with Section 105440) of Part 5 of Division 103).

(d) The director shall expend federal funds in the Toxic Substances Control Account consistent with the requirements specified in Section 114 of the federal Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act of 1980, as amended (42 U.S.C. Sec. 9614), upon appropriation by the Legislature, for the purposes for which they were provided to the state.

(e) Money in the Toxic Substances Control Account shall not be expended to conduct removal or remedial actions if a significant portion of the hazardous substances to be removed or remedied originated from a source outside the state.

(f) The Director of Finance, upon request of the director, may make a loan from the General Fund to the Toxic Substances Control Account to meet cash needs. The loan shall be subject to the repayment provisions of Section 16351 of the Government Code and the interest provisions of Section 16314 of the Government Code.

(g) The Toxic Substances Control Account established pursuant to subdivision (a) is the successor fund of all of the following:

(1) The Hazardous Substance Account established pursuant to Section 25330, as that section read on June 30, 2006.

(2) The Hazardous Substance Clearing Account established pursuant to Section 25334, as that section read on June 30, 2006.

(3) The Hazardous Substance Cleanup Fund established pursuant to Section 25385.3, as that section read on June 30, 2006.

(4) The Superfund Bond Trust Fund established pursuant to Section 25385.8, as that section read on June 30, 2006.

(h) On and after July 1, 2006, all assets, liabilities, and surplus of the accounts and funds listed in subdivision (g), shall be transferred to, and become a part of, the Toxic Substances Control Account, as provided by Section 16346 of the Government Code. All existing appropriations from these accounts, to the extent encumbered, shall continue to be available for the same purposes and periods from the Toxic Substances Control Account.

(i) Notwithstanding Section 10231.5 of the Government Code, the department, on or before February 1 of each year, shall report to the Governor and the Legislature on the prior fiscal year’s expenditure of funds within the Toxic Substances Control Account for the purposes specified in subdivision (b).

25187.

 (a) (1) The department or a unified program agency, in accordance with subdivision (l), may issue an order requiring that the violation be corrected and imposing an administrative penalty, for any violation of this chapter or any permit, rule, regulation, standard, or requirement issued or adopted pursuant to this chapter, whenever the department or unified program agency determines that a person has violated, is in violation of, or threatens, as defined in subdivision (e) of Section 13304 of the Water Code, to violate, this chapter or Chapter 6.8 (commencing with Section 25300), or any permit, rule, regulation, standard, or requirement issued or adopted pursuant to this chapter or Chapter 6.8 (commencing with Section 25300).

(2) In an order proposing a penalty pursuant to this section, the department or unified program agency shall take into consideration the nature, circumstances, extent, and gravity of the violation, the violator’s past and present efforts to prevent, abate, or clean up conditions posing a threat to the public health or safety or the environment, the violator’s ability to pay the proposed penalty, and the prophylactic effect that the imposition of the proposed penalty would have on both the violator and the regulated community as a whole.

(b) The department or a unified program agency, in accordance with subdivision (l), may issue an order requiring corrective action whenever the department or unified program agency determines that there is or has been a release, as defined in Chapter 6.8 (commencing with Section 25300), of hazardous waste or constituents into the environment from a hazardous waste facility.

(1) In the case of a release of hazardous waste or constituents into the environment from a hazardous waste facility that is required to obtain a permit pursuant to Article 9 (commencing with Section 25200), the department shall pursue the remedies available under this chapter, including the issuance of an order for corrective action pursuant to this section, before using the legal remedies available pursuant to Chapter 6.8 (commencing with Section 25300), except in any of the following circumstances:

(A) If the person who is responsible for the release voluntarily requests in writing that the department issue an order to that person to take corrective action pursuant to Chapter 6.8 (commencing with Section 25300).

(B) If the person who is responsible for the release is unable to pay for the cost of corrective action to address the release. For purposes of this subparagraph, the inability of a person to pay for the cost of corrective action shall be determined in accordance with the policies of the Environmental Protection Agency for the implementation of Section 9605 of Title 42 of the United States Code.

(C) If the person responsible for the release is unwilling to perform corrective action to address the release. For purposes of this subparagraph, the unwillingness of a person to take corrective action shall be determined in accordance with the policies of the Environmental Protection Agency for the implementation of Section 9605 of Title 42 of the United States Code.

(D) If the release is part of a regional or multisite groundwater contamination problem that cannot, in its entirety, be addressed using the legal remedies available pursuant to this chapter and for which other releases that are part of the regional or multisite groundwater contamination problem are being addressed using the legal remedies available pursuant to Chapter 6.8 (commencing with Section 25300).

(E) If an order for corrective action has already been issued against the person responsible for the release, or the department and the person responsible for the release have, prior to January 1, 1996, entered into an agreement to address the required cleanup of the release pursuant to Chapter 6.8 (commencing with Section 25300).

(F) If the hazardous waste facility is owned or operated by the federal government.

(2) The order shall include a requirement that the person take corrective action with respect to the release of hazardous waste or constituents, abate the effects thereof, and take any other necessary remedial action.

(3) If the order requires corrective action at a hazardous waste facility, the order shall require that corrective action be taken beyond the facility boundary, where necessary to protect human health or the environment.

(4) The order shall incorporate, as a condition of the order, any applicable waste discharge requirements issued by the State Water Resources Control Board or a California regional water quality control board, and shall be consistent with all applicable water quality control plans adopted pursuant to Section 13170 of the Water Code and Article 3 (commencing with Section 13240) of Chapter 4 of Division 7 of the Water Code and state policies for water quality control adopted pursuant to Article 3 (commencing with Section 13140) of Chapter 3 of Division 7 of the Water Code existing at the time of the issuance of the order, to the extent that the department or unified program agency determines that those plans and policies are not less stringent than this chapter and regulations adopted pursuant to this chapter. The order may include any more stringent requirement that the department or unified program agency determines is necessary or appropriate to protect water quality.

(5) Persons who are subject to an order pursuant to this subdivision include present and prior owners, lessees, or operators of the property where the hazardous waste is located, present or past generators, storers, treaters, transporters, disposers, and handlers of hazardous waste, and persons who arrange, or have arranged, by contract or other agreement, to store, treat, transport, dispose of, or otherwise handle hazardous waste.

(6) For purposes of this subdivision, “hazardous waste facility” includes the entire site that is under the control of an owner or operator engaged in the management of hazardous waste.

(c) Any order issued pursuant to this section shall be served by personal service or certified mail and shall inform the person so served of the right to a hearing. If the unified program agency issues the order pursuant to this section, the order shall state whether the hearing procedure specified in paragraph (2) of subdivision (f) may be requested by the person receiving the order.

(d) Any person served with an order pursuant to this section who has been unable to resolve any violation or deficiency on an informal basis with the department or unified program agency may, within 15 days after service of the order, request a hearing pursuant to subdivision (e) or (f) by filing with the department or unified program agency a notice of defense. The notice shall be filed with the office that issued the order. A notice of defense shall be deemed filed within the 15-day period provided by this subdivision if it is postmarked within that 15-day period. If a notice of defense is not filed within the time limits provided by this subdivision, the order shall become final.

(e) Any hearing requested on an order issued by the department shall be conducted within 90 days after receipt of the notice of defense by an administrative law judge of the Office of Administrative Hearings of the Department of General Services in accordance with Chapter 4.5 (commencing with Section 11400) of Part 1 of Division 3 of Title 2 of the Government Code, and the department shall have all the authority granted to an agency by those provisions.

(f) Except as provided in subparagraph (B) of paragraph (2), a person requesting a hearing on an order issued by a unified program agency may select the hearing process specified in either paragraph (1) or (2) in the notice of defense filed with the unified program agency pursuant to subdivision (d). Within 90 days of receipt of the notice of defense by the unified program agency, the hearing shall be conducted using one of the following procedures:

(1) An administrative law judge of the Office of Administrative Hearings of the Department of General Services shall conduct the hearing in accordance with Chapter 4.5 (commencing with Section 11400) of Part 1 of Division 3 of Title 2 of the Government Code.

(2) (A) A hearing officer designated by the unified program agency shall conduct the hearing in accordance with Chapter 4.5 (commencing with Section 11400) of Part 1 of Division 3 of Title 2 of the Government Code, and the unified program agency shall have all the authority granted to an agency by those provisions. When a hearing is conducted by a unified program agency pursuant to this paragraph, the unified program agency shall, within 60 days of the hearing, issue a decision.

(B) A person requesting a hearing on an order issued by a unified program agency may select the hearing process specified in this paragraph in a notice of defense filed pursuant to subdivision (d) only if the unified program agency has, as of the date the order is issued pursuant to subdivision (c), selected a designated hearing officer and established a program for conducting a hearing in accordance with this paragraph.

(g) The hearing decision issued pursuant to subdivision (f) is effective and final upon issuance. Copies of the decision shall be served by personal service or by certified mail upon the party served with the order and upon other persons who appeared at the hearing and requested a copy.

(h) Any provision of an order issued under this section, except the imposition of an administrative penalty, takes effect upon issuance by the department or unified program agency if the department or unified program agency finds that the violation or violations of law associated with that provision may pose an imminent and substantial endangerment to the public health or safety or the environment, and a request for a hearing shall not stay the effect of that provision of the order pending a hearing decision. However, if the department or unified program agency determines that any or all provisions of the order are so related that the public health or safety or the environment can be protected only by immediate compliance with the order as a whole, then the order as a whole, except the imposition of an administrative penalty, takes effect upon issuance by the department or unified program agency. A request for a hearing shall not stay the effect of the order as a whole pending a hearing decision.

(i) A decision issued pursuant to this section may be reviewed by the court pursuant to Section 11523 of the Government Code. In all proceedings pursuant to this section, the court shall uphold the decision of the department or unified program agency if the decision is based upon substantial evidence in the whole record. The filing of a petition for writ of mandate shall not stay any action required pursuant to this chapter or the accrual of any penalties assessed pursuant to this chapter. This subdivision does not prohibit the court from granting any appropriate relief within its jurisdiction.

(j) (1) All administrative penalties collected from actions brought by the department pursuant to this section shall be placed in a separate subaccount in the Toxic Substances Control Account and shall be available only for transfer to the Site Remediation Account or the Expedited Site Remediation Trust Fund and for expenditure by the department upon appropriation by the Legislature.

(2) The administrative penalties collected from an action brought by the department pursuant to Sections 25214.3, 25214.22.1, and 25215.82, in accordance with this section, shall be deposited in the Toxic Substances Control Account, for expenditure by the department for implementation and enforcement activities, upon appropriation by the Legislature, pursuant to Section 25173.6.

(k) All administrative penalties collected from an action brought by a unified program agency pursuant to this section shall be paid to the unified program agency that imposed the penalty, and shall be deposited into a special account that shall be expended to fund the activities of the unified program agency in enforcing this chapter pursuant to Section 25180.

(l) The authority granted under this section to a unified program agency is limited to both of the following:

(1) The issuance of orders to impose penalties and to correct violations of the requirements of this chapter and its implementing regulations, only when the violations are violations of requirements applicable to hazardous waste generators and persons operating pursuant to a permit-by-rule, conditional authorization, or conditional exemption, when the violations occur at a unified program facility within the jurisdiction of the CUPA.

(2) The issuance of orders to require corrective action when there has been a release of hazardous waste or constituents only when the unified program agency is authorized to do so pursuant to Section 25404.1.

(m) The CUPA shall annually submit a summary report to the department on the status of orders issued by the unified program agencies under this section and Section 25187.1.

(n) The CUPA shall consult with the district attorney for the county on the development of policies to be followed in exercising the authority delegated pursuant to this section and Section 25187.1, as they relate to the authority of unified program agencies to issue orders.

(o) The CUPA shall arrange to have appropriate legal representation in administrative hearings that are conducted by an administrative law judge of the Office of Administrative Hearings of the Department of General Services, and when a decision issued pursuant to this section is appealed to the superior court.

(p) The department may adopt regulations to implement this section and paragraph (2) of subdivision (a) of Section 25187.1 as they relate to the authority of unified program agencies to issue orders. The regulations shall include, but not be limited to, all of the following requirements:

(1) Provisions to ensure coordinated and consistent application of this section and Section 25187.1 when both the department and the unified program agency have issued or will be issuing orders under one or both of these sections with regard to the same facility.

(2) Provisions to ensure that the enforcement authority granted to the unified program agencies will be exercised consistently throughout the state.

(3) Minimum training requirements for staff of the unified program agency relative to this section and Section 25187.1.

(4) Procedures to be followed by the department to rescind the authority granted to a unified program agency under this section and Section 25187.1, if the department finds that the unified program agency is not exercising that authority in a manner consistent with this chapter and Chapter 6.11 (commencing with Section 25404) and the regulations adopted pursuant thereto.

(q) Except for an enforcement action taken pursuant to this chapter or Chapter 6.8 (commencing with Section 25300), this section does not otherwise affect the authority of a local agency to take any action under any other law.

25215.8.

 (a) A person shall not manufacture, sell, or install a wheel weight in California that contains more than 0.1 percent lead by weight.

(b) If the department identifies an alternative to lead contained in wheel weights as a chemical of concern pursuant to Section 25252, the lead alternative remains subject to the evaluation process imposed pursuant to Section 25253 to determine how best to limit exposure or to reduce the level of hazard posed by the lead alternative.

(c) This section shall not be construed to restrict the authority of the department pursuant to Sections 25252 and 25253 relating to a chemical or chemical ingredient contained in wheel weights, including, but not limited to, an alternative to lead.

25215.82.

 (a) Any person who violates or threatens to violate the provisions of this article may be enjoined in any court of competent jurisdiction.

(b) Notwithstanding any other law, a person who violates this article is not subject to criminal penalties and is only subject to the administrative or civil penalties specified in subdivision (c).

(c) (1) A person who violates this article is liable for an administrative or a civil penalty not to exceed two thousand five hundred dollars ($2,500) per day for each violation. That administrative or civil penalty may be assessed and recovered in an administrative action filed with the Office of Administrative Hearings or in a civil action brought in any court of competent jurisdiction.

(2) In assessing the amount of an administrative or a civil penalty for a violation of this article, the presiding officer or the court shall consider all of the following:

(A) The nature and extent of the violation.

(B) The number and severity of the violations.

(C) The economic effect of the penalty on the violator.

(D) Whether the violator took good faith measures to comply with this article and the time these measures were taken.

(E) The willfulness of the violator’s misconduct.

(F) The deterrent effect that the imposition of the penalty would have on both the violator and the regulated community as a whole.

(G) Any other factor that justice may require.

(d) Administrative and civil penalties collected pursuant to this article shall be deposited in the Toxic Substances Control Account, for expenditure by the Department of Toxic Substances Control, upon appropriation by the Legislature, to implement and enforce this article, except as provided in Section 25192.

25536.7.

 (a) (1) An owner or operator of a stationary source that is engaged in activities described in Code 324110 or 325110 of the North American Industry Classification System (NAICS), as that code read on January 1, 2014, and with one or more covered processes that is required to prepare and submit an RMP pursuant to this article, when contracting for the performance of construction, alteration, demolition, installation, repair, or maintenance work at the stationary source, shall require that its contractors and any subcontractors use a skilled and trained workforce to perform all onsite work within an apprenticeable occupation in the building and construction trades. This section shall not apply to oil and gas extraction operations.

(2) The Chief of the Division of Apprenticeship Standards of the Department of Industrial Relations may approve a curriculum of in-person classroom and laboratory instruction for approved advanced safety training for workers at high hazard facilities. That safety training may be provided by an apprenticeship program approved by the chief or by instruction provided by the Chancellor of the California Community Colleges. The chief shall approve a curriculum in accordance with this paragraph by January 1, 2016, and shall periodically revise the curriculum to reflect current best practices. Upon receipt of certification from the apprenticeship program or community college, the chief shall issue a certificate to a worker who completes the approved curriculum.

(3) For purposes of paragraph (2) of subdivision (b) of Section 3075 of the Labor Code, a stationary source covered by this section shall be considered in determining whether existing apprenticeship programs do not have the capacity, or have neglected or refused, to dispatch sufficient apprentices to qualified employers who are willing to abide by the applicable apprenticeship standards.

(4) This section does not apply to contracts awarded before January 1, 2014, unless the contract is extended or renewed after that date.

(5) (A) This section does not apply to the employees of the owner or operator of the stationary source or prevent the owner or operator of the stationary source from using its own employees to perform any work that has not been assigned to contractors while the employees of the contractor are present and working.

(B) An apprenticeship program approved by the chief may enroll, with advanced standing, applicants with relevant prior work experience at a stationary source that is subject to this section, in accordance with the approved apprenticeship standards of the program.

(6) The criteria of subparagraph (A) of paragraph (10) of subdivision (b), subparagraph (C) of paragraph (10) of subdivision (b), and subparagraph (B) of paragraph (11) of subdivision (b) shall not apply to either of the following:

(A) To the extent that the contractor has requested qualified workers from the local hiring halls that dispatch workers in the apprenticeable occupation and, due to workforce shortages, the contractor is unable to obtain sufficient qualified workers within 48 hours of the request, Saturdays, Sundays, and holidays excepted. This section does not prevent contractors from obtaining workers from any source.

(B) To the extent that compliance is impracticable because an emergency requires immediate action to prevent harm to public health or safety or to the environment, but the criteria applies as soon as the emergency is over or it becomes practicable for contractors to obtain a qualified workforce.

(7) The requirement specified in paragraph (1) for a skilled and trained workforce, as defined in paragraph (11) of subdivision (b), apply to each individual contractor’s and subcontractor’s onsite workforce.

(8) This section does not make the construction, alteration, demolition, installation, repair, or maintenance work at a stationary source that is subject to this section a public work, within the meaning of Chapter 1 (commencing with Section 1720) of Part 7 of Division 2 of the Labor Code. This section does not preclude the use of an alternative workweek schedule adopted pursuant to Section 511 or 514 of the Labor Code.

(b) As used in this section:

(1) “Apprenticeable occupation” means an occupation for which the chief has approved an apprenticeship program pursuant to Section 3075 of the Labor Code.

(2) “Approved advanced safety training for workers at high hazard facilities” means a curriculum approved by the chief pursuant to paragraph (2) of subdivision (a).

(3) “Building and construction trades” has the same meaning as in Section 3075.5 of the Labor Code.

(4) “Chief” means the Chief of the Division of Apprenticeship Standards of the Department of Industrial Relations.

(5) “Construction,” “alteration,” “demolition,” “installation,” “repair,” and “maintenance” have the same meanings as in Sections 1720 and 1771 of the Labor Code.

(6) “Graduate of an apprenticeship program” means either of the following:

(A) An individual that has been issued a certificate of completion under the authority of the California Apprenticeship Council or the chief for completing an apprenticeship program approved by the chief pursuant to Section 3075 of the Labor Code.

(B) An individual that has completed an apprenticeship program located outside California and approved for federal purposes pursuant to the apprenticeship regulations adopted by the federal Secretary of Labor.

(7) “Onsite work” shall not include catalyst handling and loading, chemical cleaning, or inspection and testing that was not within the scope of a prevailing wage determination issued by the Director of Industrial Relations as of January 1, 2013.

(8) “Prevailing hourly wage rate” means the general prevailing rate of per diem wages, as determined by the Director of Industrial Relations pursuant to Sections 1773 and 1773.9 of the Labor Code, but does not include shift differentials, travel and subsistence, or holiday pay. Notwithstanding subdivision (c) of Section 1773.1 of the Labor Code, the requirement that employer payments not reduce the obligation to pay the hourly straight time or overtime wages found to be prevailing does not apply if otherwise provided in a bona fide collective bargaining agreement covering the worker.

(9) “Registered apprentice” means an apprentice registered in an apprenticeship program approved by the chief pursuant to Section 3075 of the Labor Code who is performing work covered by the standards of that apprenticeship program and receiving the supervision required by the standards of that apprenticeship program.

(10) “Skilled journeyperson” means a worker who meets all of the following criteria:

(A) The worker either graduated from an apprenticeship program for the applicable occupation that was approved by the chief, or has at least as many hours of on-the-job experience in the applicable occupation that would be required to graduate from an apprenticeship program for the applicable occupation that is approved by the chief.

(B) The worker is being paid at least a rate equivalent to the prevailing hourly wage rate for a journeyperson in the applicable occupation and geographic area.

(C) The worker has completed within the prior three calendar years at least 20 hours of approved advanced safety training for workers at high hazard facilities. This requirement applies only to work performed on or after July 1, 2018.

(11) “Skilled and trained workforce” means a workforce that meets both of the following criteria:

(A) All the workers are either registered apprentices or skilled journeypersons.

(B) (i) As of January 1, 2014, at least 30 percent of the skilled journeypersons are graduates of an apprenticeship program for the applicable occupation.

(ii) As of January 1, 2015, at least 45 percent of the skilled journeypersons are graduates of an apprenticeship program for the applicable occupation.

(iii) As of January 1, 2016, at least 60 percent of the skilled journeypersons are graduates of an apprenticeship program for the applicable occupation.

44272.4.

 (a) Notwithstanding subdivision (d) of Section 44272.3, on and after June 30, 2013, a biorefiner receiving loan moneys from the state pursuant to an appropriation made in the 2010–11 or 2011–12 fiscal year shall comply with all conditions established pursuant to Section 44272.3 and shall demonstrate that compliance to the commission.

(b) On and after July 1, 2013, the eligibility for funding, pursuant to paragraph (1) of subdivision (e) of Section 44272, of projects for the production of ethanol is limited to ethanol that is not derived from corn. This limitation does not apply to ethanol derived from corn stover, leaves, cobs, or other nonedible plant portions of the corn.

44274.9.

 (a) For purposes of this section, the following terms mean the following:

(1) “Eligible used vehicle” means a zero- or near-zero-emission vehicle, as those terms are defined in Section 44258, and may include, but need not be limited to, any of the following:

(A) A battery electric vehicle.

(B) A fuel cell vehicle.

(C) A plug-in hybrid vehicle.

(2) “Used vehicle” has the same meaning as set forth in Section 665 of the Vehicle Code.

(3) “Vehicle service contract” has the same meaning as set forth in Section 12800 of the Insurance Code.

(b) The state board shall establish the Zero-Emission Assurance Project (ZAP) by allocating moneys, available upon appropriation from the Legislature in the annual Budget Act or other statute, to provide an applicant with a rebate for the replacement of a battery, fuel cell, or related components for an eligible used vehicle; for a vehicle service contract for the battery, fuel cell, or related components; or for all of these.

(c) A rebate issued pursuant to the Zero-Emission Assurance Project shall be limited to one per vehicle.

(d) The state board shall establish minimum eligibility criteria for an applicant to be eligible for a rebate pursuant to the Zero-Emission Assurance Project based on both of the following:

(1) The relevant vehicle performance criteria, including, but not limited to, all of the following:

(A) Decreased battery storage capacity.

(B) Decreased vehicle range.

(C) Decreased fuel cell power output.

(2) An eligible applicant has an annual household income that is at or below 80 percent of the statewide median income or has a median household income at or below the threshold designated as low income by the Department of Housing and Community Development’s list of state income limits adopted pursuant to Section 50093.

(e) The state board shall coordinate the Zero-Emission Assurance Project with the Clean Vehicle Rebate Project, established as part of the Air Quality Improvement Program established pursuant to this article, the enhanced fleet modernization program, established pursuant to Article 11 (commencing with Section 44125) of Chapter 5, and the Charge Ahead California Initiative, established pursuant to Chapter 8.5 (commencing with Section 44258), including, but not limited to, all of the following:

(1) Ensuring appropriate outreach and targeting to low- and moderate-income households in an effort to encourage participation.

(2) Expanding financing mechanisms, including, but not limited to, a loan or loan-loss reserve credit enhancement program to increase consumer access to zero-emission and near-zero-emission vehicle financing and leasing options that can help lower expenditures on transportation and prequalification or point-of-sale rebates or other methods to increase participation rates among low- and moderate-income consumers.

(f) In implementing this section, the state board shall collaborate with other state departments and agencies to enforce safeguards against fraudulent activity by sellers and acquirers of eligible used vehicles that are in accordance with other state laws.

(g) (1) No later than January 1, 2024, the state board shall submit a report to the Legislature that includes, but is not limited to, all of the following:

(A) The number of rebates issued pursuant to the Zero-Emission Assurance Project.

(B) The total cost to administer the Zero-Emission Assurance Project.

(C) A quantitative analysis of the Zero-Emission Assurance Project’s emissions benefits.

(D) A quantitative analysis of the impacts of the Zero-Emission Assurance Project on low-income consumer buyer decisions in the zero- and near-zero-emission vehicle markets.

(2) A report to be submitted pursuant to this subdivision shall be submitted in compliance with Section 9795 of the Government Code.

(h) The implementation of this section is contingent on an appropriation of moneys for those purposes in the annual Budget Act or other statute.

(i) This section shall become inoperative on July 31, 2025, and, as of January 1, 2026, is repealed.

50214.

 (a) Program funds shall be expended on one-time uses that address homelessness, including, but not limited to, prevention, criminal justice diversion programs to homeless individuals with mental health needs, and emergency aid.

(b) No more than 5 percent of programs funds may be used for administrative costs related to the execution of eligible activities. For purposes of this subdivision, “administrative costs” does not include staff costs directly related to carrying out the eligible activities pursuant to subdivision (a). Program funds shall not be used for overhead or planning activities.

(c) An administrative entity shall use no less than 5 percent of its total allocation to establish or expand services meeting the needs of homeless youth or youth at risk of homelessness.

50490.4.

 (a) An administrative entity shall use funds allocated pursuant to subdivision (a) of Section 50490.2 for one or more of the following eligible activities:

(1) Rental assistance and housing relocation and stabilization services to ensure housing affordability to people experiencing homelessness or at risk of homelessness. Rental assistance provided pursuant to this paragraph shall not exceed 48 months for each assisted household, and rent payments shall not exceed two times the current HUD fair market rent for the local area, as determined pursuant to Part 888 of Title 24 of the Code of Federal Regulations.

(2) Operating subsidies in the form of 15-year capitalized operating reserves for new and existing affordable permanent housing units for homeless individuals and families.

(3) Flexible housing subsidy funds for local programs that establish or support the provision of rental subsidies in permanent housing to assist homeless individuals and families. Funds used for purposes of this paragraph may support rental assistance, bridge subsidies to property owners waiting for approval from another permanent rental subsidy source, vacancy payments, or project-based rent or operating reserves.

(4) Operating support for emergency housing interventions, including, but not limited to, the following:

(A) Navigation centers that provide temporary room and board and case managers who work to connect homeless individuals and families to income, public benefits, health services, permanent housing, or other shelter.

(B) Street outreach services to connect unsheltered homeless individuals and families to temporary or permanent housing.

(C) Shelter diversion, including, but not limited to, homelessness prevention activities, and other necessary service integration activities to connect individuals and families to alternate housing arrangements, services, and financial assistance.

(5) Systems support for activities necessary to maintain a comprehensive homeless services and housing delivery system, including CES, data, and HMIS reporting, and homelessness planning activities.

(6) To develop or update a CES system pursuant to subparagraph (B) of paragraph (3) of subdivision (a) of Section 50490.3, or to develop a plan addressing actions to be taken within the Continuum of Care service area to address homelessness pursuant to subdivision (b) of Section 50490.3.

(b) The administrative entity or a subrecipient, as applicable, shall establish the duration, amount, and other terms of assistance provided, consistent with the requirements of this chapter and other reasonable limitations established by the department in the notice of funding availability or in the contract with the department entered into pursuant to subdivision (a) of Section 50490.5.

(c) Unless otherwise exempted by federal rules, an administrative entity that is allocated funding under the program for a program or project that is an eligible activity shall utilize a CES that meets the requirements of Section 576.400(d) or Section 578.7(a)(8), as applicable, of Title 24 of the Code of Federal Regulations and related HUD requirements. Except in the case of a program or project specifically concerned with homelessness prevention activities as a part of shelter diversion activities authorized under subparagraph (C) of paragraph (3) of subdivision (a), an administrative entity that is allocated funding under the program for an eligible program or project funded shall prioritize assistance to homeless individuals and families over assistance to individuals and families at risk of homelessness.

(d) An administrative entity that is allocated funds under the program for eligible activities described in subdivision (a) that provide permanent housing shall incorporate the core components of Housing First, as provided in subdivision (b) of Section 8255 of the Welfare and Institutions Code.

(e) An administrative entity shall provide all eligible activities in a manner consistent with the Housing First practices described in paragraphs (1) to (6), inclusive, of subdivision (b) of Section 8409 of Title 25 of the California Code of Regulations.

(f) An administrative entity shall not use more than 40 percent of any funds allocated pursuant to subdivision (a) of Section 50490.2 in a fiscal year for operating support for emergency housing interventions as described in paragraph (4) of subdivision (a).

114367.4.

 (a) (1) A city, county, or city and county shall not prohibit the operation of, require a permit to operate, require a rezone of the property for, or levy any fees on, or impose any other restriction on, a microenterprise home kitchen operation in any residential dwelling for zoning purposes. A microenterprise home kitchen operation shall be a permitted use of residential property in any residential dwelling for zoning purposes if the microenterprise home kitchen operation complies with both of the following criteria:

(A) Abstain from posting signage or other outdoor displays advertising the microenterprise home kitchen operation.

(B) Be in compliance with applicable local noise ordinances.

(2) This subdivision does not supersede or otherwise limit the investigative and enforcement authority of the city, county, or city and county with respect to violations of its nuisance ordinances.

(b) The use of a residence for the purposes of a microenterprise home kitchen operation shall not constitute a change of occupancy for purposes of the State Housing Law (Part 1.5 (commencing with Section 17910) of Division 13), or for purposes of local building and fire codes.

(c) A microenterprise home kitchen operation shall be considered a residence for the purposes of the State Uniform Building Standards Code and local building and fire codes.

116682.

 (a) (1) The state board, in circumstances described in either subparagraph (A) or (B), may order consolidation with a receiving water system as provided in this section and Section 116684. The consolidation may be physical or operational. The state board may also order the extension of service to an area within a disadvantaged community that does not have access to an adequate supply of safe drinking water so long as the extension of service is an interim extension of service in preparation for consolidation. The consolidation shall occur within six months of the initiation of the extension of service. The state board may set timelines and performance measures to facilitate completion of consolidation.

(A) A public water system or a state small water system, serving a disadvantaged community, consistently fails to provide an adequate supply of safe drinking water.

(B) A disadvantaged community is reliant on a domestic well that consistently fails to provide an adequate supply of safe drinking water.

(2) The state board shall develop and adopt a policy that provides a process by which members of a disadvantaged community may petition the state board to consider ordering consolidation. The state board shall adopt the policy in a policy handbook consistent with the process provided for in subdivision (a) of Section 116760.43.

(b) Before ordering consolidation or extension of service as provided in this section, the state board shall do all of the following:

(1) Encourage voluntary consolidation or extension of service.

(2) Consider other enforcement remedies specified in this article.

(3) Consult with, and fully consider input from, the relevant local agency formation commission regarding the provision of water service in the affected area, the recommendations for improving service in a municipal service review, whether the consolidation or extension of service is cost effective, and any other relevant information.

(4) Consult with, and fully consider input from, the Public Utilities Commission when the consolidation would involve a water corporation subject to the commission’s jurisdiction. If a receiving water system is regulated by the Public Utilities Commission, the state board shall inform the commission at least 60 days before the consolidation order, and upon issuance of the order the commission shall open a proceeding to determine cost allocation, ratemaking, and commission public participation requirements for the consolidation process.

(5) Consult with, and fully consider input from, the local government with land use planning authority over the affected area, particularly regarding any information in the general plan required by Section 65302.10 of the Government Code.

(6) Consult with, and fully consider input from, all public water systems in the chain of distribution of the potentially receiving water systems.

(7) (A) Notify the potentially receiving water system and the potentially subsumed water system, if any, and establish a reasonable deadline of no less than six months, unless a shorter period is justified, for the potentially receiving water system and the potentially subsumed water system, if any, to negotiate consolidation or another means of providing an adequate supply of safe drinking water.

(B) During this period, the state board shall provide technical assistance and work with the potentially receiving water system and the potentially subsumed water system to develop a financing package that benefits both the receiving water system and the subsumed water system.

(C) Upon a showing of good cause, the deadline may be extended by the state board at the request of the potentially receiving water system, potentially subsumed water system, the local agency formation commission with jurisdiction over the potentially subsumed water system, or the Public Utilities Commission.

(8) Consider the affordability of the anticipated monthly rates for drinking water service to residential customers of the potentially subsumed water system.

(9) Obtain written consent from any domestic well owner for consolidation or extension of service. Any domestic well owner within the consolidation or extended service area who does not provide written consent shall be ineligible, until the consent is provided, for any future water-related grant funding from the state other than funding to mitigate a well failure, disaster, or other emergency.

(10) (A) Hold at least one public meeting at the initiation of this process in a place as close as feasible to the affected areas. The state board shall make reasonable efforts to provide a 30-day notice of the meeting to the ratepayers, renters, and property owners to receive water service through service extension or in the area of the subsumed water system and all affected local government agencies and drinking water service providers. The meeting shall provide representatives of the potentially subsumed water system, affected ratepayers, renters, property owners, the potentially receiving water system, and the public an opportunity to present oral and written comments.

(B) The state board shall provide an opportunity to submit comments by mail or electronically during the notice period and for at least one week after the meeting.

(C) The state board shall review comments received during the meeting and received by mail and electronically during the notice period and for one week after the public meeting.

(c) If a consolidation or other means of providing an adequate supply of safe drinking water has not been negotiated by the potentially receiving water system and the potentially subsumed water system before the expiration of the deadline set by the state board pursuant to paragraph (7) of subdivision (b), the state board shall do the following:

(1) Consult with the potentially receiving water system and the potentially subsumed water system, if any.

(2) (A) If the consolidation has not concluded within six months following the first public meeting held pursuant to paragraph (10) of subdivision (b), conduct a public meeting in a location as close as feasible to the affected communities. The meeting shall be held after the state board has made the findings described in subdivision (d).

(B) The state board shall make reasonable efforts to provide a 30-day notice of the meeting to the ratepayers, renters, property owners to receive water service through service extension or in the area of the subsumed water system, and the public, and to all affected local government agencies and drinking water service providers.

(C) The meeting shall provide representatives of the potentially subsumed water system, affected ratepayers, renters, property owners, and the potentially receiving water system an opportunity to present oral and written comments.

(D) The meeting shall provide an opportunity for public comment.

(3) The state board shall make reasonable efforts to ensure that a receiving water system and a subsumed water system are informed on a regular basis of progress regarding actions taken pursuant to this section.

(d) Before ordering consolidation or extension of service, the state board shall find all of the following:

(1) The potentially subsumed water system has consistently failed to provide an adequate supply of safe drinking water.

(2) Reasonable efforts to negotiate consolidation or extension of service were made.

(3) Consolidation of the receiving water system and subsumed water system or extension of service is appropriate and technically and economically feasible.

(4) There is no pending local agency formation commission process that is likely to resolve the problem in a reasonable amount of time.

(5) Concerns regarding water rights and water contracts of the subsumed and receiving water systems have been adequately addressed.

(6) Consolidation or extension of service is an effective and cost-effective means to provide an adequate supply of safe drinking water.

(7) The capacity of the proposed interconnection needed to accomplish the consolidation is limited to serving the current customers of the subsumed water system, infill sites within the community served by the subsumed water system, residents of disadvantaged communities in existence as of the date of consolidation and that are located along the service line connecting the subsumed water system and the receiving water system, and vacant lots within the community served by the subsumed water system that are zoned for residential use and have no more than one other vacant lot between that parcel and an infill parcel, including capacity needed for services such as firefighting.

(e) Upon ordering consolidation or extension of service, the state board shall do all of the following:

(1) As necessary and appropriate, as determined by the state board, compensate the receiving water system for any capacity lost as a result of the consolidation or extension of service either by paying the receiving water system’s capacity connection fee set out in the receiving water system’s adopted rate structure or by providing additional capacity needed as a result of the consolidation or extension of service, and by paying legal fees. If capacity beyond what is needed for consolidation is provided by a project funded through the state board, the state board shall retain an option to utilize that capacity for future consolidations, without paying additional capacity charge fees, for five years, unless it releases that option in writing. Funding pursuant to this paragraph is available for the general purpose of providing financial assistance for the infrastructure needed for the consolidation or extension of service and does not need to be specific to each individual consolidation project. The state board shall provide appropriate financial assistance for the water infrastructure needed for the consolidation or extension of service. The state board’s existing financial assistance guidelines and policies shall be the basis for the financial assistance.

(2) Ensure payment of standard local agency formation commission fees caused by state board-ordered consolidation or extension of service.

(3) Adequately compensate the owners of a privately owned subsumed water system for the fair market value of the system, as determined by the Public Utilities Commission or the state board.

(4) Coordinate with the appropriate local agency formation commission and other relevant local agencies to facilitate the change of organization or reorganization.

(5) If ordering consolidation or extension of service between two water systems, consider any existing domestic wells within the service area that could also be subject to consolidation or extension of service pursuant to this section.

(f) If funds are appropriated for this purpose, the state board may make funds available for the purposes of subdivision (e), as necessary and appropriate, to the receiving water system, the subsumed water system, or an administrator providing full oversight of construction or development projects related to a consolidation or extension of service.

(g) (1) For purposes of this section, the consolidated water system shall not increase charges on existing customers of the receiving water system solely as a consequence of the consolidation or extension of service unless the customers receive a corresponding benefit.

(2) For purposes of this section, fees or charges imposed on a customer of a subsumed water system shall not exceed the costs of the service.

(3) For purposes of this section, the receiving water system shall not charge any fees to, or place conditions on, customers of the subsumed water system that it does not charge to, or impose on, new customers that are not subject to the consolidation with the receiving water system.

(4) (A) Notwithstanding paragraph (2) or (3), for purposes of this section, if costs incurred by the receiving water system in completing the consolidation or extension of service are not otherwise recoverable as provided in subparagraph (B), the receiving water system may charge fees to customers of the subsumed water system to recover those costs.

(B) A receiving water system shall not charge a fee pursuant to subparagraph (A) for costs that are otherwise recoverable from the state, the federal government, programs administered by local agencies, parties responsible for causing contamination that the consolidation or extension of service is designed to address, or other sources, as determined by the state board.

(h) The state board shall not, pursuant to this section, fund public works or upgrades unrelated to the delivery of an adequate supply of affordable, safe drinking water, including, but not limited to, the installation of street lights, sidewalks, curbs, and gutters. A local agency’s decision whether to provide these public works or upgrades shall not delay the consolidation or extension of service.

(i) When a public water system is operated by a local educational agency, the state board may order a receiving water system to consolidate or extend service to a public water system operated by a local educational agency pursuant to this section if both the following additional conditions are met:

(1) The local educational agency serves students from one or more census blocks that are disadvantaged communities.

(2) The state board obtains a written determination from the local educational agency that the state board’s analysis in the financing package, developed pursuant to subparagraph (B) of paragraph (7) of subdivision (b), indicates that consolidating or extending service would not result in additional unacceptable costs to the local educational agency and would result in safe drinking water being available to the local educational agency.

(j) Division 3 (commencing with Section 56000) of Title 5 of the Government Code does not apply to an action taken by the state board pursuant to this section.

116687.

 (a) For purposes of this section, the following terms have the following meanings:

(1) “District” means the Sativa-Los Angeles County Water District.

(2) “Commission” means the Local Agency Formation Commission for the County of Los Angeles.

(b) To provide affordable, safe drinking water to disadvantaged communities, the state board shall order the district to accept administrative and managerial services, including full management and control, from an administrator selected by the state board, as prescribed in Section 116686, except that the state board is not required to conduct a public meeting as described in paragraph (2) of subdivision (b) of Section 116686.

(c) (1) Upon the appointment of an administrator, all of the following apply:

(A) Notwithstanding Article 1 (commencing with Section 30500) of Chapter 1 of Part 3 of Division 12 of the Water Code, the district’s board of directors shall surrender all control to the appointed administrator and shall thereafter cease to exist.

(B) The members of the board of directors of the district shall have no standing to represent the district’s ratepayers, and a member of the board of directors shall have no claim for benefits other than those the member actually received while a member of the board of directors.

(C) Any action by the board of directors to divest the district of its assets shall be deemed tampering with a public water system pursuant to Section 116750 and is subject to the criminal penalties provided for in that section.

(2) Within 90 days of the appointment of an administrator, the Controller shall perform a desk audit or financial review of the district. The state board shall exercise its legal authority to facilitate the desk audit or financial review, including, but not limited to, its authority to take possession of the district’s financial records.

(3) Any decision by the commission about the dissolution or consolidation of the district is not subject to the provisions of Section 57113 of the Government Code, nor to any other requirement for a protest proceeding or election. The commission shall not impose any condition on the successor agency that requires a protest proceeding or an election, as described in Part 4 (commencing with Section 57000) and Part 5 (commencing with Section 57300) of Division 3 of Title 5 of the Government Code, respectively.

(4) If the commission approves a dissolution of the district initiated by the commission, a successor agency designated in the dissolution by the commission, in consultation with the commission, may solicit proposals, evaluate submittals, and select any public water system to be the receiving water system and subsume all assets, liabilities, adjudicated water rights, responsibilities, and service obligations to provide retail water service to existing and future ratepayers within the former territory of the district. The successor agency shall represent the interests of the public and the ratepayers in the former territory of the district.

(d) The state board may provide additional funding to the administrator or the Water Replenishment District of Southern California or the successor agency designated by the commission for urgent infrastructure repairs to the public water system of the district without regard to the future ownership of any facilities affected by this funding. For purposes of this section, “urgent infrastructure repairs” are those that are immediately necessary to protect the public health, safety, and welfare of those served by the district.

(e) If the district is consolidated with a receiving water system as prescribed in Sections 116682 and 116684, the subsumed territory of the district may include both unincorporated territory of the County of Los Angeles and incorporated territory of the City of Compton.

(f) (1) Any administrator appointed pursuant to subdivision (b), any successor agency to the district designated by the commission to take over the district, any receiving operator of a public water system that provides service to the territory of the district, any water corporation that acquires the district, and the commission shall not be held liable for claims by past or existing district ratepayers or those who consumed water provided through the district concerning the operation and supply of water from the district during the interim operation period specified in subdivision (g) for any good faith, reasonable effort using ordinary care to assume possession of the territory of, to operate, or to supply water to the ratepayers within the territory of, the district.

(2) Any administrator appointed pursuant to subdivision (b), any successor agency to the district designated by the commission to take over the district, any receiving operator of a public water system that provides service to the territory of the district, any water corporation that acquires the district, and the commission shall not be held liable for claims by past or existing district ratepayers or those who consumed water provided through the district for any injury that occurred prior to the commencement of the interim operation period specified in subdivision (g).

(g) (1) Notwithstanding subdivision (d) of Section 116684, for any successor agency to the district designated by the commission to take over the district, any receiving operator of a public water system that provides service to the territory of the district, or any water corporation that acquires the district, the interim operation period shall commence upon the execution of an agreement or designation by the commission to provide water services to the district and shall end one year later. Upon the showing of good cause, the interim operation period shall be extended by the commission for up to three successive one-year periods at the request of an entity described in this paragraph.

(2) For the administrator appointed pursuant to subdivision (b), the interim operation period commences upon being appointed by the state board and ends when a successor agency has been designated by the commission to provide water service to ratepayers of the district, when a receiving water agency is consolidated with or extends service to ratepayers of the district, when a water corporation acquires the district with the approval of the Public Utilities Commission, or when the administrator’s obligation to provide interim administrative and managerial services has otherwise ended.

121349.

 (a) The Legislature finds and declares that scientific data from needle exchange programs in the United States and in Europe have shown that the exchange of used hypodermic needles and syringes for clean hypodermic needles and syringes does not increase drug use in the population, can serve as an important bridge to treatment and recovery from drug abuse, and can curtail the spread of human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection among the intravenous drug user population.

(b) In order to reduce the spread of HIV infection and bloodborne hepatitis among the intravenous drug user population within California, the Legislature hereby authorizes a clean needle and syringe exchange project pursuant to this chapter in any city, county, or city and county upon the action of a county board of supervisors and the local health officer or health commission of that county, or upon the action of the city council, the mayor, and the local health officer of a city with a health department, or upon the action of the city council and the mayor of a city without a health department.

(c) In order to reduce the spread of HIV infection, viral hepatitis, and other potentially deadly bloodborne infections, the State Department of Public Health may, notwithstanding any other law, authorize entities that provide services set forth in paragraph (1) of subdivision (d), and that have sufficient staff and capacity to provide the services described in Section 121349.1, as determined by the department, to apply for authorization under this chapter to provide hypodermic needle and syringe exchange services consistent with state standards in any location where the department determines that the conditions exist for the rapid spread of HIV, viral hepatitis, or any other potentially deadly or disabling infections that are spread through the sharing of used hypodermic needles and syringes. Authorization shall be made after consultation with the local health officer and local law enforcement leadership, and after a period of public comment, as described in subdivision (e). In making the determination, the department shall balance the concerns of law enforcement with the public health benefits. The authorization shall not be for more than two years. Before the end of the two-year period, the department may reauthorize the program in consultation with the local health officer and local law enforcement leadership.

(d) In order for an entity to be authorized to conduct a project pursuant to this chapter, its application to the department shall demonstrate that the entity complies with all of the following minimum standards:

(1) The entity provides, directly or through referral, all of the following services:

(A) Drug abuse treatment services.

(B) HIV or hepatitis screening.

(C) Hepatitis A and hepatitis B vaccination.

(D) Screening for sexually transmitted infections.

(E) Housing services for the homeless, for victims of domestic violence, or other similar housing services.

(F) Services related to provision of education and materials for the reduction of sexual risk behaviors, including, but not limited to, the distribution of condoms.

(2) The entity has the capacity to commence needle and syringe exchange services within three months of authorization.

(3) The entity has adequate funding to do all of the following at reasonably projected program participation levels:

(A) Provide needles and syringe exchange services for all of its participants.

(B) Provide HIV and viral hepatitis prevention education services for all of its participants.

(C) Provide for the safe recovery and disposal of used syringes and sharps waste from all of its participants.

(4) The entity has the capacity, and an established plan, to collect evaluative data in order to assess program impact, including, but not limited to, all of the following:

(A) The total number of persons served.

(B) The total number of syringes and needles distributed, recovered, and disposed of.

(C) The total numbers and types of referrals to drug treatment and other services.

(e) If the application is provisionally deemed appropriate by the department, the department shall, at least 45 days prior to approval of the application, provide for a period of public comment as follows:

(1) Post on the department’s internet website the name of the applicant, the nature of the services, and the location where the applying entity will provide the services.

(2) Send a written and an email notice to the local health officer of the affected jurisdiction.

(3) Send a written and an email notice to the chief of police, the sheriff, or both, as appropriate, of the jurisdictions in which the program will operate.

(f) The department shall establish and maintain on its internet website the address and contact information of programs providing hypodermic needle and syringe exchange services pursuant to this chapter.

(g) The authorization provided under this section is only for a clean needle and syringe exchange project as described in Section 121349.1.

(h) If the department, in its discretion, determines that a state authorized syringe exchange program continues to meet all standards set forth in subdivision (d) and that a public health need exists, it may administratively approve amendments to a program’s operations including, but not limited to, modifications to the time, location, and type of services provided, including the designation as a fixed site or a mobile site. The amendment approval is not subject to the noticing requirements of subdivision (e).

(i) The department shall have 30 business days to review and respond to the applicant’s request for amendment of the authorization. If the department does not respond in writing within 30 business days, the request shall be deemed denied.

122354.5.

 (a) A pet store operator shall not sell a live dog, cat, or rabbit in a pet store unless the animal was obtained from a public animal control agency or shelter, society for the prevention of cruelty to animals shelter, humane society shelter, or rescue group that is in a cooperative agreement with at least one private or public shelter pursuant to Section 31108, 31752, or 31753 of the Food and Agricultural Code.

(b) All sales of dogs and cats authorized by this section shall be in compliance with paragraph (1) of subdivision (a) of Section 30503 of, subdivision (b) of Section 30520 of, paragraph (1) of subdivision (a) of Section 31751.3 of, and subdivision (b) of Section 31760 of, the Food and Agricultural Code.

(c) Each pet store shall maintain records sufficient to document the origin of each dog, cat, or rabbit the pet store sells or provides space for, for at least one year. Additionally, each pet store shall post, in a conspicuous location on the cage or enclosure of each animal, a sign listing the name of the public animal control agency or shelter, society for the prevention of cruelty to animals shelter, humane society shelter, or nonprofit from which each animal was obtained. Public animal control agencies or shelters may periodically require pet stores engaged in sales of these animals to provide access to the records.

(d) A pet store operator shall maintain written records sufficient to document the health, status, and disposition of each animal for a period of not less than two years after the animal is sold. These records shall be available to humane officers, animal control officers, law enforcement officers, prospective purchasers, or the purchaser of the animal for inspection during normal business hours.

(e) A pet store operator shall provide to the prospective purchaser, in writing, the pet return policy of the pet store. The return policy shall include the circumstances, if any, under which the pet store will provide followup veterinary care for the animal in the event of illness.

(f) At the request of the pet store operator, the public animal control agency or shelter, society for the prevention of cruelty to animals shelter, humane society shelter, or rescue group that supplies an animal to the pet store shall provide, in writing, the terms under which the animal is being transferred to the pet store, including policies on returning a sick animal, and information related to the animal, including the origin of the animal, if known, and any veterinary records.

(g) A pet store operator shall provide to the prospective purchaser or purchaser of an animal, a copy of the veterinary medical records of the animal, if any, including, but not limited to, records obtained pursuant to the requirements set forth in Section 122135.

(h) A pet store operator who is subject to this section is exempt from the requirements set forth in Article 2 (commencing with Section 122125) of Chapter 5, except for the requirements set forth in Sections 122135 and 122137, paragraphs (3) and (4) of subdivision (a) of, and paragraphs (5) and (6) of subdivision (b) of, Section 122140, and Section 122155.

(i) A pet store operator who violates this section is subject to a civil penalty of five hundred dollars ($500). Each animal offered for sale in violation of this section constitutes a separate violation.

(j) For purposes of this section, a “rescue group” is an organization that is tax exempt under Section 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code, and that does not obtain animals from breeders or brokers for compensation.

(k) This section does not prohibit a local governing body from adopting requirements that are more protective of animal welfare than those set forth in this section.

(l) This section shall become operative on January 1, 2019.

123260.

 (a) Subject to an appropriation in the annual Budget Act for this purpose, the State Department of Public Health shall establish the California Perinatal Equity Initiative to expand the scope of interventions provided under the Black Infant Health Program. The initiative shall foster Community Centers of Excellence in perinatal health and promote the use of interventions designed to fill gaps in current programming offered through the Black Infant Health Program.

(b) (1) As part of the initiative described in subdivision (a), the department shall develop a process to allocate funds to up to 15 county health departments, to work collaboratively with state and local Black Infant Health programs, for the purpose of improving black infant birth outcomes and reducing infant mortality.

(2) Participation in the initiative described in subdivision (a) is optional and counties that participate in the program shall agree to the terms of this article.

(3) Allocations made pursuant to paragraph (1) shall be used by county health departments for any of the following purposes:

(A) Creating a local grant program to develop local Community Centers of Excellence in perinatal health. Recipients of local grants shall be hospitals, federally qualified health centers, health centers that are closely related to federally qualified health centers, women’s health clinics, county clinics, clinics operated by a private nonprofit organization that qualifies under Section 501(c)(3) of the United States Internal Revenue Code, or community-based organizations that have demonstrated capacity to work with public health and health care systems as well as within the black community. Recipients of local grants shall implement or expand at least two of the following:

(i) An evidence-based or evidence-informed group prenatal care program that has shown promise in reducing the incidence of adverse birth outcomes and that includes, but is not limited to, improvement in health provider pre-term birth screening and ongoing, risk-appropriate care for black women to better identify and prevent preterm births.

(ii) Pregnancy intentionality, preconception, and interconception care programs.

(iii) Fatherhood or partnership initiatives that support engagement of partners in pregnancy and childbearing.

(iv) Evidence-based or evidence-informed home visitation programs inclusive of case management to increase advocacy and empowerment for black women and to ensure linkages to prenatal care, monitoring, life planning, birth spacing, infant development, and well-being.

(v) A strategy that is not described in clauses (i) to (iv), inclusive, that is justified based on local needs and resources, if a county determines that the strategy combines social interventions with medical interventions, including integration of mental health services in perinatal health care and other wraparound services, including, but not limited to, assessment, personalized case management, doulas, patient navigator services that increase patient empowerment, and access to and utilization of evidence-based interventions that reduce preterm birth and infant mortality, and that the strategy is evidence-based or evidence-informed in relation to reducing adverse birth outcomes.

(B) Providing technical assistance to recipients of local grants, and coordinating with local partners, such as hospitals, federally qualified health centers, health centers that are closely related to federally qualified health centers, county clinics, and other community-based organizations.

(C) Carrying out local public awareness efforts around birth outcome inequities and the importance of preconception health, group prenatal care, evidence-based interventions to prevent preterm births, and social support during pregnancy, and to promote the role of fathers and partners as supports for women during and after pregnancy.

(D) Participating in collaborative statewide learning efforts and sharing best practices.

(E) Collecting and reporting data and information on process and outcome measures regarding the programs and activities carried out with allocated funds.

(c) The department shall, as part of implementing the initiative, consult with stakeholders, including, but not limited to, representatives of county health departments, current or former participants in the strategies described in subparagraph (A) of paragraph (3) of subdivision (b), health providers, or organizations representing health providers that provide services to improve black infant health outcomes, advocates, and any appropriate state department or agency.

(d) Funds provided to an eligible entity pursuant to this section shall supplement, and not supplant, funds from other sources for infant health equity programs or initiatives.

123615.5.

 The Legislature hereby finds and declares all of the following:

(a) Maternal depression is a common complication of pregnancy. Maternal mental health disorders encompass a range of mental health conditions, such as depression, anxiety, and postpartum psychosis.

(b) Maternal mental health conditions affect one in five women during or after pregnancy, but all women are at risk of suffering from maternal mental health conditions.

(c) Untreated maternal mental health conditions significantly and negatively impact the short- and long-term health and well-being of affected women and their children.

(d) Untreated maternal mental health conditions cause adverse birth outcomes, impaired maternal-infant bonding, poor infant growth, childhood emotional and behavioral problems, and significant medical and economic costs, estimated to be $22,500 per mother.

(e) Lack of understanding and social stigma of mental health conditions prevent women and families from understanding the signs, symptoms, and risks involved with maternal mental health conditions and disproportionately affect women who lack access to social support networks.

(f) It is the intent of the Legislature to raise awareness of the risk factors, signs, symptoms, and treatment options for maternal mental health conditions among pregnant women and their families, the general public, primary health care providers, and health care providers who care for pregnant women, postpartum women, and newborn infants.

127672.

 (a) (1) The Office of Statewide Health Planning and Development shall convene a review committee, composed of health care stakeholders and experts, including, but not limited to, all of the following:

(A) Health care service plans, including specialized health care service plans.

(B) Insurers that have a certificate of authority from the Insurance Commissioner to provide health insurance, as defined in Section 106 of the Insurance Code.

(C) Suppliers, as defined in paragraph (3) of subdivision (b) of Section 1367.50.

(D) Providers, as defined in paragraph (2) of subdivision (b) of Section 1367.50.

(E) Self-insured employers.

(F) Multiemployer self-insured plans that are responsible for paying for health care services provided to beneficiaries or the trust administrator for a multiemployer self-insured plan.

(G) Businesses that purchase health care coverage for their employees.

(H) Organized labor.

(I) Organizations representing consumers.

(2) The review committee shall consist of no fewer than nine and no more than 11 persons.

(3) The review committee shall advise the office on the establishment, implementation, and ongoing administration of the database, including a business plan for sustainability without using moneys from the General Fund.

(4) The review committee shall not have decisionmaking authority related to the administration of the database and shall not have a financial interest, individually or through a family member, in the recommendations made to the office. The review committee shall hold public meetings with stakeholders, solicit input, and set its own meeting agendas. Meetings of the review committee are subject to the Bagley-Keene Open Meeting Act (Article 9 (commencing with Section 11120) of Chapter 1 of Part 1 of Division 3 of Title 2 of the Government Code).

(5) The members of the review committee shall serve without compensation, but shall be reimbursed for any actual and necessary expenses incurred in connection with their duties as members of the committee.

(b) The office may consider recommendations contained within the Health Care Cost, Quality, and Equity Data Atlas Technical Feasibility Analysis dated March 1, 2017, prepared pursuant to Section 127670. In addition, the office shall review information collected by the state in various health care data systems to identify gaps between available data and recommended data. The office may utilize third-party vendors to assist with the implementation of these provisions. The vendor shall prepare a plan, for submission to the office, for completing a Health Care Cost Transparency Database and identify which elements of the system can be addressed using the appropriation included in the 2018–19 Budget Act. To the extent available funding is insufficient to address all elements identified, the plan shall prioritize the key components needed to best support health care cost transparency.

(c) The office shall develop a guidance to require data submission from the entities specified in paragraph (1) of subdivision (a). That guidance shall include a methodology for the collection, validation, refinement, analysis, comparison, review and improvement of health care data, including, but not limited to, data from fee-for-service, capitated, integrated delivery system, and other alternative, value-based, payment sources, submitted by entities specified in paragraph (1) of subdivision (a). The guidance shall also consider data elements proposed by the All-Payer Claims Database Council, the University of New Hampshire, the National Association of Health Data Organizations, Medi-Cal, and Medicare, among others.

(d) (1) No later than July 1, 2020, the office shall submit a report to the Legislature in compliance with Section 9795 of the Government Code, based on recommendations of the review committee and any third-party vendor, that does all of the following:

(A) Includes information on the types of data, including those specified in subdivision (b) of Section 127673, purpose of use, and use case definitions to assist in prioritizing areas of development.

(B) Specifies entities and individuals required to report data, including those specified in Section 127673.

(C) Defines and prioritizes data elements to collect, including the requirements for data linkages to meet specified purposes and use cases.

(D) Analyzes data aggregation and the protection of individual confidentiality to advise on privacy and security.

(E) Analyzes and provides advice regarding existing technology, existing systems, and available data that can be leveraged to ensure a streamlined system.

(2) The report shall also include recommendations including the following:

(A) Additional legislation needed to ensure the database receives appropriate data from identified data submitters including, those specified in subdivision (b) of Section 127673 and legislation regarding enforcement mechanisms necessary for these entities to comply with the requirements of the chapter.

(B) Legislation needed to protect individual privacy rights and confidentiality of the data.

(C) A plan for long-term, non-General Fund financing to support the ongoing costs of maintaining the database.

(D) The type of technology solutions required pursuant to Section 127670, including whether to build a new database or leveraging databases, or developing a network of networks to facilitate a hybrid version of the two options.

(E) Identification of governance structure, including identification of the appropriate entity to operate the database.

(F) How the database can map to other datasets, including public health datasets on morbidity and mortality, and data regarding the social determinants of health.

(e) For purposes of implementing this chapter, including, but not limited to, hiring staff and consultants, facilitating and conducting meetings, conducting research and analysis, and developing the required reports, the office may enter into exclusive or nonexclusive contracts on a bid or negotiated basis. Contracts entered into or amended pursuant to this section are exempt from Chapter 6 (commencing with Section 14825) of Part 5.5 of Division 3 of Title 2 of the Government Code, Section 19130 of the Government Code, and Part 2 (commencing with Section 10100) of Division 2 of the Public Contract Code, and are exempt from the review or approval of any division of the Department of General Services.

10089.23.

 (a) (1) If at any time following the payment of earthquake claims and claim expenses the authority’s available capital is reduced to less than three hundred fifty million dollars ($350,000,000), or if at any time the authority’s available capital is insufficient to pay benefits and continue operations, the authority shall have the power to assess participating insurance companies subject to the maximum limits as set forth in this section and Section 10089.30. The assessment shall be limited to the amount necessary to pay the outstanding or expected claims and claim expenses of the authority and to return the authority’s available capital to three hundred fifty million dollars ($350,000,000), as determined by the board, subject to approval by the commissioner.

(2) Each participating insurer’s assessment shall be determined by multiplying the percentage share of the authority’s total gross written premium that is attributable to that participating insurer’s sales of authority insurance policies, as of April 30 of the immediately preceding year or the most recent year for which premium data not more than one year old are available, by the amount of the total assessment sought by the authority.

(3) The maximum permissible insurer assessments pursuant to this section and Sections 10089.30 and 10089.31 shall be reduced uniformly by multiplication of the maximum assessments and other amounts provided in those sections by the percentage of the total residential property insurance market share participation attained by the authority. The total amount of all assessments levied on participating insurance companies by the authority pursuant to this section shall not exceed three billion dollars ($3,000,000,000), regardless of the frequency or severity of earthquake losses at any and all times subsequent to the creation of the authority. Once a participating insurer has paid, pursuant to this section, amounts equal to the percentage share of the authority’s total gross written premium attributable to that participating insurer’s sales of authority insurance policies, as of April 30 of the immediately preceding year or the most recent full year for which premium data not more than one year old are available, multiplied by three billion dollars ($3,000,000,000) reduced as provided in this paragraph from the maximum assessment, the authority’s power to assess that insurer under this section shall cease and the authority shall be prohibited from levying additional assessments on that insurer pursuant to this section.

(4) Beginning December 31 of the first year of operations, and each December 31 thereafter, the board shall adjust the maximum permissible insurer assessments pursuant to this section, the maximum permissible insurer assessments pursuant to Sections 10089.30 and 10089.31, the maximum permissible authority policyholder assessment pursuant to Section 10089.29, and the maximum permissible bond issuances or other debt financing issued or secured by the Treasurer pursuant to Section 10089.29 to reflect the market share of new insurers entering into the authority as authorized by Sections 10089.15 and 10089.16 and participating insurers withdrawing from the authority as authorized by Section 10089.19. The adjustments shall be made in the same manner as authorized by paragraph (3).

(b) In the case of any insurer assessment, the authority shall cause to be sent to each participating insurer a notice of that insurer’s assessment, and full payment shall be due within 30 days and shall be overdue after 30 days. Penalties and interest shall be assessed for late payments in the same manner as provided for late payments of the insurer gross premium tax pursuant to Section 12258 of the Revenue and Taxation Code. The board may waive the penalties and interest for good cause shown. The board shall make every effort to assess insurers only for funds reasonably anticipated to be necessary for claims payments and claim expenses and to return the authority’s available capital to three hundred fifty million dollars ($350,000,000).

(c) Notwithstanding the other provisions of this section, the aggregate assessment the authority is authorized by this section to impose shall be reduced to zero on December 1, 2008, with respect to earthquake events that commence on or after December 1, 2008.

(d) The authority shall not assess a participating insurer under this section based on any insurance business that is attributable to the insurer selling the insurer’s insurance products that supplement or augment the basic residential earthquake insurance provided by the authority.

10202.5.

 (a) The term “employees” as used in Section 10202 may include the officers, managers, and employees of subsidiary or affiliated corporations, and the individual proprietors, partners, and employees of affiliated individuals and firms, when the business of such subsidiary or affiliated corporations, firms, or individuals is controlled by the policyholder through stock ownership, contract or otherwise, or when the policyholder is controlled by affiliated corporations, firms, or individuals through stock ownership, contract or otherwise. The policy may provide that the term “employees” as used in Section 10202 may include classes of former employees, including retired employees, and may also include the individual proprietors or partners who constitute the policyholder, but limited to such individual proprietors and partners who are actively engaged in the business the employees of which are covered by the group insurance.

(b) This section does not permit any person other than an officer, manager, or employee for compensation, or classes of former employees, including retired employees, of the policyholder or of one or more of the individuals, firms, or corporations or of the individual proprietors or partners specified in subdivision (a) to become insured under a group policy.

10202.8.

 A group life policy conforming to all the following conditions may be issued to the trustees of a fund established by employer members of a trade association, or by a trade association maintained by contributions of such members for the sole benefit of their employees or, by one employer, or by two or more employers in the same industry, or by an association of employers in the same industry, or by one or more labor unions, or by one or more employers and one or more labor unions, or by an association of employers and one or more labor unions, to insure employees of the employers or members of the unions for the benefit of persons other than the employers or the unions:

(a) The persons eligible for insurance shall be all of the employees of the employers or all of the members of the unions, or all of any class or classes thereof determined by conditions pertaining to their employment, or to membership in the unions, or to both. The policy may provide that the term “employees” may include classes of former employees, including retired employees, and the individual proprietor or partners if any employer is an individual proprietor or a partnership. A director of a corporate employer is not eligible for insurance under the policy unless that person is otherwise eligible as a bona fide employee of the corporation by performing services other than the usual duties of a director. An individual proprietor or partner is not eligible for insurance under the policy unless the proprietor or partner is actively engaged in and devotes a substantial part of their time to the conduct of the business of the proprietor or partnership. The policy may provide that the term “employees” shall include the trustees or their employees, or both, if their duties are principally connected with such trusteeship.

(b) The premium for the policy shall be paid by the trustees either: (a) wholly from funds contributed by the employer or employers of the insured persons, or by the union or unions, or by both; or (b) partly from such funds and partly from funds contributed by either all of the insured persons or by one or more classes thereof, or (c) wholly derived funds contributed by the insured persons.

(c) The policy must cover at the date of issue at least 50 persons.

(d) The amounts of insurance under the policy must be based upon some plan precluding individual selection by the insured persons or by the trustees, employers, or unions.

That insurance shall be issued with or without medical examination. For the purpose of this section the word “industry” shall include licensed professions, such as medicine, dentistry, pharmacy, law, and accountancy.

12922.5.

 (a) The commissioner shall convene a working group to identify, assess, and recommend risk transfer market mechanisms that:

(1) Promote investment in natural infrastructure to reduce the risks of climate change related to catastrophic events.

(2) Create incentives for investment in natural infrastructure to reduce risks to communities.

(3) Provide mitigation incentives for private investment in natural lands to lessen exposure and reduce climate risks to public safety, property, utilities, and infrastructure.

(b) To the extent that the working group recommends risk transfer market mechanisms that would be provided by insurance and reinsurance companies, the working group shall recommend mechanisms that:

(1) Are profitable to insurance and reinsurance companies.

(2) If appropriate, apply to communities or regions, rather than individual land parcels.

(c) The policies recommended pursuant to subdivisions (a) and (b) shall include all of the following questions:

(1) What are the California analogies to examples in other countries for creating incentives for investment in natural infrastructure as part of insurance policies that mitigate elemental risks?

(2) Can we use insurance to create incentives for wetland restoration to help defend the coast against storm surge?

(3) Can we create incentives for forests to be managed to reduce the risk of major fires?

(4) Can we reduce the exposure of insurance companies to climate change-related losses through innovative state policies or insurance pricing mechanisms that reward good behavior and charge premiums for actions that increase public safety risks or losses of property or environmental attributes?

(5) Can we develop rating systems based on community risk factors to climate events, and use insurance incentives to make a community more resilient?

138.7.

 (a) Except as expressly permitted in subdivision (b), a person or public or private entity not a party to a claim for workers’ compensation benefits shall not obtain individually identifiable information obtained or maintained by the division regarding that claim. For purposes of this section, “individually identifiable information” means any data concerning an injury or claim that is linked to a uniquely identifiable employee, employer, claims administrator, or any other person or entity.

(b) (1) (A) The administrative director, or a statistical agent designated by the administrative director, may use individually identifiable information for purposes of creating and maintaining the workers’ compensation information system as specified in Section 138.6.

(B) The administrative director may publish the identity of claims administrators in the annual report disclosing the compliance rates of claims administrators pursuant to subdivision (d) of Section 138.6.

(2) (A) The State Department of Public Health may use individually identifiable information for purposes of establishing and maintaining a program on occupational health and occupational disease prevention as specified in Section 105175 of the Health and Safety Code.

(B) (i) The State Department of Health Care Services may use individually identifiable information for purposes of seeking recovery of Medi-Cal costs incurred by the state for treatment provided to injured workers that should have been incurred by employers and insurance carriers pursuant to Article 3.5 (commencing with Section 14124.70) of Chapter 7 of Part 3 of Division 9 of the Welfare and Institutions Code.

(ii) The Department of Industrial Relations shall furnish individually identifiable information to the State Department of Health Care Services, and the State Department of Health Care Services may furnish the information to its designated agent, provided that the individually identifiable information shall not be disclosed for use other than the purposes described in clause (i). The administrative director may adopt regulations solely for the purpose of governing access by the State Department of Health Care Services or its designated agents to the individually identifiable information as defined in subdivision (a).

(3) (A) Individually identifiable information may be used by the Division of Workers’ Compensation and the Division of Occupational Safety and Health as necessary to carry out their duties. The administrative director shall adopt regulations governing the access to the information described in this subdivision by these divisions. Any regulations adopted pursuant to this subdivision shall set forth the specific uses for which this information may be obtained.

(B) Individually identifiable information maintained in the workers’ compensation information system and the Division of Workers’ Compensation may be used by researchers employed by or under contract to the Commission on Health and Safety and Workers’ Compensation as necessary to carry out the commission’s research. The administrative director shall adopt regulations governing the access to the information described in this subdivision by commission researchers. These regulations shall set forth the specific uses for which this information may be obtained and include provisions guaranteeing the confidentiality of individually identifiable information. Individually identifiable information obtained under this subdivision shall not be disclosed to commission members. Individually identifiable information obtained by researchers under contract to the commission pursuant to this subparagraph shall not be disclosed to any other person or entity, public or private, for a use other than that research project for which the information was obtained. Within a reasonable period of time after the research for which the information was obtained has been completed, the data collected shall be modified in such a manner that the subjects cannot be identified, directly or through identifiers linked to the subjects.

(C) Individually identifiable information may be used by the Office of Self-Insurance Plans of the Department of Industrial Relations as necessary to carry out its duties, including evaluating the costs of administration, workers’ compensation benefit expenditures, and solvency and performance of the public self-insured employers’ workers’ compensation programs.

(4) The administrative director shall adopt regulations allowing reasonable access to individually identifiable information by other persons or public or private entities for the purpose of bona fide statistical research. This research shall not divulge individually identifiable information concerning a particular employee, employer, claims administrator, or any other person or entity. The regulations adopted pursuant to this paragraph shall include provisions guaranteeing the confidentiality of individually identifiable information. Within a reasonable period of time after the research for which the information was obtained has been completed, the data collected shall be modified in such a manner that the subjects cannot be identified, directly or through identifiers linked to the subjects.

(5) (A) This section does not exempt from disclosure any information that is considered to be a public record pursuant to the California Public Records Act (Chapter 3.5 (commencing with Section 6250) of Division 7 of Title 1 of the Government Code) contained in an individual’s file once an application for adjudication has been filed pursuant to Section 5501.5.

(B) Individually identifiable information shall not be provided to any person or public or private entity who is not a party to the claim unless that person identifies themself or that public or private entity identifies itself and states the reason for making the request. The administrative director may require the person or public or private entity making the request to produce information to verify that the name and address of the requester is valid and correct. If the purpose of the request is related to preemployment screening, the administrative director shall notify the person about whom the information is requested that the information was provided and shall include the following in 12-point type:

“IT MAY BE A VIOLATION OF FEDERAL AND STATE LAW TO DISCRIMINATE AGAINST A JOB APPLICANT BECAUSE THE APPLICANT HAS FILED A CLAIM FOR WORKERS’ COMPENSATION BENEFITS.”

(C) Any residence address is confidential and shall not be disclosed to any person or public or private entity except to a party to the claim, a law enforcement agency, an office of a district attorney, any person for a journalistic purpose, or other governmental agency.

(D) This paragraph does not prohibit the use of individually identifiable information for purposes of identifying bona fide lien claimants.

(c) Except as provided in subdivision (b), individually identifiable information obtained by the division is privileged and is not subject to subpoena in a civil proceeding unless, after reasonable notice to the division and a hearing, a court determines that the public interest and the intent of this section will not be jeopardized by disclosure of the information. This section does not restrict access to information by any law enforcement agency or district attorney’s office or to limit admissibility of that information in a criminal proceeding.

(d) It is unlawful for any person who has received individually identifiable information from the division pursuant to this section to provide that information to any person who is not entitled to it under this section.

1720.5.

 (a) This chapter does not apply to graffiti abatement work performed pursuant to a contract between the City of Los Angeles and a nonprofit community-based organization if the work is performed by any of the following:

(1) A volunteer within the meaning of Section 1720.4.

(2) A volunteer coordinator within the meaning of Section 1720.4.

(3) An individual performing community service ordered by a court as a condition of probation.

(4) An individual enrolled in a bona fide preapprenticeship training program, as described in subdivision (e) of Section 14230 of the Unemployment Insurance Code, that meets all of the following criteria:

(A) The program was established pursuant to an agreement entered into on or before March 1, 2019, between the City of Los Angeles and a building trades apprenticeship program approved by the Division of Apprenticeship Standards.

(B) The program follows the multicraft core curriculum implemented by the State Department of Education for its pilot project with the California Partnership Academies and by the California Workforce Development Board and local boards.

(C) The program enrolls preapprentices for no longer than one year.

(D) The program provides pathways for continued employment after the preapprenticeship program is completed.

(b) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2024, and as of that date is repealed.

2699.5.

 The provisions of subdivision (a) of Section 2699.3 apply to any alleged violation of the following provisions: subdivision (k) of Section 96, Sections 98.6, 201, 201.3, 201.5, 201.7, 202, 203, 203.1, 203.5, 204, 204a, 204b, 204.1, 204.2, 205, 205.5, 206, 206.5, 208, 209, and 212, subdivision (d) of Section 213, Sections 221, 222, 222.5, 223, and 224, paragraphs (1) to (5), inclusive, (7), and (9) of subdivision (a) of Section 226, Sections 226.7, 227, 227.3, 230, 230.1, 230.2, 230.3, 230.4, 230.7, 230.8, and 231, subdivision (c) of Section 232, subdivision (c) of Section 232.5, Sections 233, 234, 351, 353, and 403, subdivision (b) of Section 404, Sections 432.2, 432.5, 432.7, 435, 450, 510, 511, 512, 513, 551, 552, 601, 602, 603, 604, 750, 751.8, 800, 850, 851, 851.5, 852, 921, 922, 923, 970, 973, 976, 1021, 1021.5, 1025, 1026, 1101, 1102, 1102.5, and 1153, subdivisions (c) and (d) of Section 1174, Sections 1194, 1197, 1197.1, 1197.5, and 1198, subdivision (b) of Section 1198.3, Sections 1199, 1199.5, 1290, 1292, 1293, 1293.1, 1294, 1294.1, 1294.5, 1296, 1297, 1298, 1301, 1308, 1308.1, 1308.7, 1309, 1309.5, 1391, 1391.1, 1391.2, 1392, 1683, and 1695, subdivision (a) of Section 1695.5, Sections 1695.55, 1695.6, 1695.7, 1695.8, 1695.9, 1696, 1696.5, 1696.6, 1697.1, 1700.25, 1700.26, 1700.31, 1700.32, 1700.40, and 1700.47, Sections 1735, 1771, 1774, 1776, 1777.5, 1811, 1815, 2651, and 2673, subdivision (a) of Section 2673.1, Sections 2695.2, 2800, 2801, 2802, 2806, and 2810, subdivision (b) of Section 2929, and Sections 3073.6, 6310, 6311, and 6399.7.

3073.5.

 The Chief of the Division of Apprenticeship Standards, the California Apprenticeship Council, and the Interagency Advisory Committee on Apprenticeship shall annually report separately through the Director of Industrial Relations to the Legislature and the public on their activities. The report shall contain information including, but not limited to, analyses of the following:

(a) (1) The number of individuals, including numbers of women and minorities, registered in apprenticeship, preapprenticeship, and other programs administered pursuant to this chapter in the state for the current year and in each of the previous five years.

(2) For construction trade and firefighter apprenticeship programs, the report shall include demographic data detailing the racial, ethnic, and gender makeup of those participants for the annual reporting period.

(b) The number and percentage of participants, including numbers and percentages of minorities and women, registered in each program having five or more participants, and the percentage of those participants who have completed their programs successfully in the current year and in each of the previous five years.

(c) Remedial actions taken by the division to assist those programs having difficulty in achieving affirmative action goals or having very low completion rates.

(d) The number of disputed issues with respect to individual apprenticeship or other agreements submitted to the Administrator of Apprenticeship for determination and the number of those issues resolved by the administrator or the council on appeal.

(e) The number of apprenticeship and other program applications received by the division, the number approved, the number denied and the reason for those denials, the number being reviewed, and deficiencies, if any, with respect to those program applications being reviewed.

(f) The number of apprenticeship programs, approved by the Division of Apprenticeship Standards, that are disapproved by the California Apprenticeship Council, and the reasons for those disapprovals.

(g) The number of apprenticeship programs receiving reimbursement for related and supplemental instruction pursuant to Section 8152 or 79149.3 of the Education Code including the amounts reimbursed to each program, as reported to the Division of Apprenticeship Standards by the Chancellor’s Office of the California Community Colleges.

(h) The number of apprenticeship programs receiving reimbursement as part of the budget formula developed pursuant to paragraph (2) of subdivision (d) of Section 84750.5 of the Education Code or its successor section, as described in Section 79149.1 of the Education Code including the amounts reimbursed to each program, as reported to the Division of Apprenticeship Standards by the Chancellor’s Office of the California Community Colleges.

(i) Any apprenticeship standards or regulations that were proposed or adopted in the previous year.

3093.

 (a) This section applies only when voluntarily requested by the parties to a collective bargaining agreement or by an employer, an employer’s association, or a union, or its representative where there is no collective bargaining agreement.

(b) This section shall not be construed to compel, regulate, interfere with, or duplicate the provisions of any established training programs that are operated under the terms of any collective bargaining agreements or unilaterally by any employer or bona fide labor union.

(c) Services contemplated under this section may be provided only when voluntarily requested and shall be denied when it is found that existing prevailing conditions in the area and industry would in any way be lowered or adversely affected.

(d) The California Apprenticeship Council and the Division of Apprenticeship Standards, in cooperation with the Department of Education, the Labor and Workforce Development Agency, and the Board of Governors of the California Community Colleges, may foster and promote on-the-job training programs other than apprenticeship as follows: (1) programs for journeymen in the apprenticeable occupations to keep them abreast of current techniques, methods, and materials and opportunities for advancement in their industries; (2) programs in other than apprenticeable occupations for workers entering the labor market for the first time or workers entering new occupations by reason of having been displaced from former occupations by reason of economic, industrial, technological, or scientific changes or developments; (3) the programs shall be in accord with and agreed to by the parties to any applicable collective bargaining agreements and where appropriate will include joint employer-employee cooperation in the programs.

(e) The Division of Apprenticeship Standards when requested may foster and promote voluntary on-the-job training programs in accordance with this section, and assist employers, employees and other interested persons and agencies in the development and carrying out of the programs. The Division of Apprenticeship Standards shall cooperate in these functions with the Department of Education, the Labor and Workforce Development Agency, and the Board of Governors of the California Community Colleges and other governmental agencies. The Division of Apprenticeship Standards may cooperate with the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation and the Department of the Youth Authority in the development of training programs for inmates and ex-offenders released from correctional institutions.

(f) Apprenticeship programs, where appropriate, may include related and supplemental classroom instruction offered and administered by state and local boards responsible for vocational education.

(g) The activities and services of the Division of Apprenticeship Standards in training programs under this section shall be performed without curtailing or in any way interfering with the division’s activities and services in apprenticeship.

(h) The Division of Apprenticeship Standards may contract with, and receive reimbursements from, appropriate federal, state, and other governmental agencies.

(i) The career technical education activities and services of the Department of Education, the Board of Governors of the California Community Colleges, and local public school districts shall not be abridged or abrogated through implementation of this section.

(j) “On-the-job training” as used in this section refers exclusively to training confined to the needs of a specific occupation and conducted at the jobsite for employed workers.

(k) “Journeyman,” as used in this section, means a person who has either (1) completed an accredited apprenticeship in the person’s craft, or (2) who has completed the equivalent of an apprenticeship in length and content of work experience and all other requirements in the apprenticeship standards for the craft which has workers classified as journeymen in an apprenticeable occupation.

(l) This section shall not be construed to require prior approval, ratification, or reference of any training program to the Division of Apprenticeship Standards or the Department of Industrial Relations.

3100.

 (a) On or before January 1, 2019, the Division of Apprenticeship Standards shall develop a process to approve preapprenticeship programs for purposes of establishing eligibility for any state programs.

(b) (1) A program seeking approval as a preapprenticeship program shall submit to the Division of Apprenticeship Standards a request for approval, on a form developed by the division.

(2) The request for approval shall include documentation evidencing that the program’s preapprenticeship training activities are conducted in partnership with one or more apprenticeship programs approved by the Division of Apprenticeship Standards. Valid documentation for purposes of this section shall include a copy of a memorandum of understanding or other formal written agreement that does all the following:

(A) Verifies the apprenticeship program’s support for the preapprenticeship program.

(B) Gives priority but not a guarantee to preapprenticeship graduates for acceptance into the apprenticeship program.

(C) Makes a commitment as to the number of preapprenticeship graduates that may be accepted into the apprenticeship program.

(c) To qualify for approval, a preapprenticeship program shall include the following elements:

(1) Training and curriculum based on industry standards and approved by the documented registered apprenticeship program partner or partners that will prepare individuals with the skills and competencies needed to enter one or more registered apprenticeship programs.

(2) Strategies that increase registered apprenticeship opportunities for underrepresented, disadvantaged, or low-skilled individuals, such that, upon completion, those individuals will meet the entry requirements, gain consideration, and be prepared for success in one or more registered apprenticeship programs. These strategies include any of the following:

(A) Strong recruitment efforts focused on outreach to populations underrepresented in local, state, and national registered apprenticeship programs.

(B) Educational and prevocational services that prepare individuals to meet the entry requisites of one or more registered apprenticeship programs, such as specific career and industry awareness workshops, job readiness courses, English for speakers of other languages, adult basic education, financial literacy seminars, and mathematics tutoring.

(C) Exposing participants to local, state, and national registered apprenticeship programs and providing direct assistance to participants applying to those programs.

(D) Facilitating access to appropriate support services during both the preapprenticeship program and a significant portion of the registered apprenticeship program.

(E) Efforts to sustain the ongoing partnership between the preapprenticeship program and registered apprenticeship program partner or partners, including collaborative efforts that promote alignment with the California Workforce Innovation and Opportunity Act (WIOA) Unified Strategic Workforce Development Plan and use of the registered apprenticeship program as a preferred means for employers to develop a skilled workforce and create career opportunities for individuals.

(F) Providing physical preparedness training for jobs where physical ability and endurance are key elements of success.

(G) Providing training on safe working practices where applicable to the job.

(H) Providing hands-on training to individuals in a simulated lab experience or through volunteer opportunities that accurately simulate industry and occupational conditions while observing proper supervision and safety protocols, provided that such experience and opportunities do not supplant or reduce the compensable work of paid employees.

(I) Providing for automatic acceptance or priority credits for acceptance into apprenticeship programs of individuals who have successfully completed the preapprenticeship program, and when applicable, giving advance credit in the apprenticeship program for skills and competencies already acquired in the preapprenticeship program.

(d) Preapprenticeship programs shall be evaluated and approved based on a determination of the strengths of the elements described in subdivision (c), as demonstrated in the application.

(e) Approval of a preapprenticeship program shall expire in three years unless the program requests and obtains renewal of its approval by the division. Renewed approval shall be based on the program’s success in implementing the elements described in subdivision (c).

4600.

 (a) Medical, surgical, chiropractic, acupuncture, and hospital treatment, including nursing, medicines, medical and surgical supplies, crutches, and apparatuses, including orthotic and prosthetic devices and services, that is reasonably required to cure or relieve the injured worker from the effects of the worker’s injury shall be provided by the employer. In the case of the employer’s neglect or refusal reasonably to do so, the employer is liable for the reasonable expense incurred by or on behalf of the employee in providing treatment.

(b) As used in this division and notwithstanding any other law, medical treatment that is reasonably required to cure or relieve the injured worker from the effects of the worker’s injury means treatment that is based upon the guidelines adopted by the administrative director pursuant to Section 5307.27.

(c) Unless the employer or the employer’s insurer has established or contracted with a medical provider network as provided for in Section 4616, after 30 days from the date the injury is reported, the employee may be treated by a physician of the employee’s own choice or at a facility of the employee’s own choice within a reasonable geographic area. A chiropractor shall not be a treating physician after the employee has received the maximum number of chiropractic visits allowed by subdivision (c) of Section 4604.5.

(d) (1) If an employee has notified the employee’s employer in writing prior to the date of injury that the employee has a personal physician, the employee shall have the right to be treated by that physician from the date of injury if the employee has health care coverage for nonoccupational injuries or illnesses on the date of injury in a plan, policy, or fund as described in subdivisions (b), (c), and (d) of Section 4616.7.

(2) For purposes of paragraph (1), a personal physician shall meet all of the following conditions:

(A) Be the employee’s regular physician and surgeon, licensed pursuant to Chapter 5 (commencing with Section 2000) of Division 2 of the Business and Professions Code.

(B) Be the employee’s primary care physician and has previously directed the medical treatment of the employee, and who retains the employee’s medical records, including the employee’s medical history. “Personal physician” includes a medical group, if the medical group is a single corporation or partnership composed of licensed doctors of medicine or osteopathy, which operates an integrated multispecialty medical group providing comprehensive medical services predominantly for nonoccupational illnesses and injuries.

(C) The physician agrees to be predesignated.

(3) If the employee has health care coverage for nonoccupational injuries or illnesses on the date of injury in a health care service plan licensed pursuant to Chapter 2.2 (commencing with Section 1340) of Division 2 of the Health and Safety Code, and the employer is notified pursuant to paragraph (1), all medical treatment, utilization review of medical treatment, access to medical treatment, and other medical treatment issues shall be governed by Chapter 2.2 (commencing with Section 1340) of Division 2 of the Health and Safety Code. Disputes regarding the provision of medical treatment shall be resolved pursuant to Article 5.55 (commencing with Section 1374.30) of Chapter 2.2 of Division 2 of the Health and Safety Code.

(4) If the employee has health care coverage for nonoccupational injuries or illnesses on the date of injury in a group health insurance policy as described in Section 4616.7, all medical treatment, utilization review of medical treatment, access to medical treatment, and other medical treatment issues shall be governed by the applicable provisions of the Insurance Code.

(5) The insurer may require prior authorization of any nonemergency treatment or diagnostic service and may conduct reasonably necessary utilization review pursuant to Section 4610.

(6) An employee is entitled to all medically appropriate referrals by the personal physician to other physicians or medical providers within the nonoccupational health care plan. An employee is entitled to treatment by physicians or other medical providers outside of the nonoccupational health care plan pursuant to standards established in Article 5 (commencing with Section 1367) of Chapter 2.2 of Division 2 of the Health and Safety Code.

(e) (1) When at the request of the employer, the employer’s insurer, the administrative director, the appeals board, or a workers’ compensation administrative law judge, the employee submits to examination by a physician, the employee is entitled to receive, in addition to all other benefits herein provided, all reasonable expenses of transportation, meals, and lodging incident to reporting for the examination, together with one day of temporary disability indemnity for each day of wages lost in submitting to the examination.

(2) Regardless of the date of injury, “reasonable expenses of transportation” includes mileage fees from the employee’s home to the place of the examination and back at the rate of twenty-one cents ($0.21) a mile or the mileage rate adopted by the Director of Human Resources pursuant to Section 19820 of the Government Code, whichever is higher, plus any bridge tolls. The mileage and tolls shall be paid to the employee at the time the employee is given notification of the time and place of the examination.

(f) When at the request of the employer, the employer’s insurer, the administrative director, the appeals board, or a workers’ compensation administrative law judge, an employee submits to examination by a physician and the employee does not proficiently speak or understand the English language, the employee shall be entitled to the services of a qualified interpreter in accordance with conditions and a fee schedule prescribed by the administrative director. These services shall be provided by the employer. For purposes of this section, “qualified interpreter” means a language interpreter certified, or deemed certified, pursuant to Article 8 (commencing with Section 11435.05) of Chapter 4.5 of Part 1 of Division 3 of Title 2 of, or Section 68566 of, the Government Code.

(g) If the injured employee cannot effectively communicate with the employee’s treating physician because the employee cannot proficiently speak or understand the English language, the injured employee is entitled to the services of a qualified interpreter during medical treatment appointments. To be a qualified interpreter for purposes of medical treatment appointments, an interpreter is not required to meet the requirements of subdivision (f), but shall meet any requirements established by rule by the administrative director that are substantially similar to the requirements set forth in Section 1367.04 of the Health and Safety Code. The administrative director shall adopt a fee schedule for qualified interpreter fees in accordance with this section. Upon request of the injured employee, the employer or insurance carrier shall pay for interpreter services. An employer shall not be required to pay for the services of an interpreter who is not certified or is provisionally certified by the person conducting the medical treatment or examination unless either the employer consents in advance to the selection of the individual who provides the interpreting service or the injured worker requires interpreting service in a language other than the languages designated pursuant to Section 11435.40 of the Government Code.

(h) Home health care services shall be provided as medical treatment only if reasonably required to cure or relieve the injured employee from the effects of the employee’s injury and prescribed by a physician and surgeon licensed pursuant to Chapter 5 (commencing with Section 2000) of Division 2 of the Business and Professions Code, and subject to Section 5307.1 or 5307.8. The employer is not liable for home health care services that are provided more than 14 days prior to the date of the employer’s receipt of the physician’s prescription.

4660.1.

 This section applies to injuries occurring on or after January 1, 2013.

(a) In determining the percentages of permanent partial or permanent total disability, account shall be taken of the nature of the physical injury or disfigurement, the occupation of the injured employee, and the employee’s age at the time of injury.

(b) For purposes of this section, the “nature of the physical injury or disfigurement” shall incorporate the descriptions and measurements of physical impairments and the corresponding percentages of impairments published in the American Medical Association (AMA) Guides to the Evaluation of Permanent Impairment (5th Edition) with the employee’s whole person impairment, as provided in the Guides, multiplied by an adjustment factor of 1.4.

(c) (1) Except as provided in paragraph (2), the impairment ratings for sleep dysfunction, sexual dysfunction, or psychiatric disorder, or any combination thereof, arising out of a compensable physical injury shall not increase. This section does not limit the ability of an injured employee to obtain treatment for sleep dysfunction, sexual dysfunction, or psychiatric disorder, if any, that are a consequence of an industrial injury.

(2) An increased impairment rating for psychiatric disorder is not subject to paragraph (1) if the compensable psychiatric injury resulted from either of the following:

(A) Being a victim of a violent act or direct exposure to a significant violent act within the meaning of Section 3208.3.

(B) A catastrophic injury, including, but not limited to, loss of a limb, paralysis, severe burn, or severe head injury.

(d) The administrative director may formulate a schedule of age and occupational modifiers and may amend the schedule for the determination of the age and occupational modifiers in accordance with this section. The Schedule for Rating Permanent Disabilities pursuant to the American Medical Association (AMA) Guides to the Evaluation of Permanent Impairment (5th Edition) and the schedule of age and occupational modifiers shall be available for public inspection and, without formal introduction in evidence, shall be prima facie evidence of the percentage of permanent disability to be attributed to each injury covered by the schedule. Until the schedule of age and occupational modifiers is amended, for injuries occurring on or after January 1, 2013, permanent disabilities shall be rated using the age and occupational modifiers in the permanent disability rating schedule adopted as of January 1, 2005.

(e) The schedule of age and occupational modifiers shall promote consistency, uniformity, and objectivity.

(f) The schedule of age and occupational modifiers and any amendment thereto or revision thereof shall apply prospectively and shall apply to and govern only those permanent disabilities that result from compensable injuries received or occurring on and after the effective date of the adoption of the schedule, amendment, or revision, as the case may be.

(g) This section does not preclude a finding of permanent total disability in accordance with Section 4662.

(h) In enacting the act adding this section, it is not the intent of the Legislature to overrule the holding in Milpitas Unified School District v. Workers’ Comp. Appeals Bd. (Guzman) (2010) 187 Cal.App.4th 808.

(i) The Commission on Health and Safety and Workers’ Compensation shall conduct a study to compare average loss of earnings for employees who sustained work-related injuries with permanent disability ratings under the schedule, and shall report the results of the study to the appropriate policy and fiscal committees of the Legislature no later than January 1, 2016.

4903.6.

 (a) Except as necessary to meet the requirements of Section 4903.5, a lien claim or application for adjudication shall not be filed or served under subdivision (b) of Section 4903 until both of the following have occurred:

(1) Sixty days have elapsed after the date of acceptance or rejection of liability for the claim, or expiration of the time provided for investigation of liability pursuant to subdivision (b) of Section 5402, whichever date is earlier.

(2) Either of the following:

(A) The time provided for payment of medical treatment bills pursuant to Section 4603.2 has expired and, if the employer objected to the amount of the bill, the reasonable fee has been determined pursuant to Section 4603.6, and, if authorization for the medical treatment has been disputed pursuant to Section 4610, the medical necessity of the medical treatment has been determined pursuant to Sections 4610.5 and 4610.6.

(B) The time provided for payment of medical-legal expenses pursuant to Section 4622 has expired and, if the employer objected to the amount of the bill, the reasonable fee has been determined pursuant to Section 4603.6.

(b) All lien claimants under Section 4903 shall notify the employer and the employer’s representative, if any, and the employee and the employee’s representative, if any, and the appeals board within five working days of obtaining, changing, or discharging representation by an attorney or nonattorney representative. The notice shall set forth the legal name, address, and telephone number of the attorney or nonattorney representative.

(c) A declaration of readiness to proceed shall not be filed for a lien under subdivision (b) of Section 4903 until the underlying case has been resolved or where the applicant chooses not to proceed with the applicant’s case.

(d) With the exception of a lien for services provided by a physician as defined in Section 3209.3, a lien claimant shall not be entitled to any medical information, as defined in subdivision (j) of Section 56.05 of the Civil Code, about an injured worker without prior written approval of the appeals board. Any order authorizing disclosure of medical information to a lien claimant other than a physician shall specify the information to be provided to the lien claimant and include a finding that the information is relevant to the proof of the matter for which the information is sought. The appeals board shall adopt reasonable regulations to ensure compliance with this section, and shall take any further steps as may be necessary to enforce the regulations, including, but not limited to, impositions of sanctions pursuant to Section 5813.

(e) The prohibitions of this section do not apply to lien claims, applications for adjudication, or declarations of readiness to proceed filed by or on behalf of the employee, or to the filings by or on behalf of the employer.

532.

 (a) (1) Subject to subdivision (b), the Adjutant General may enter into a cooperative agreement with the governing board of a school district or a county office of education for the purpose of establishing, pursuant to existing statutory authority in the Education Code, a military academy to be operated as a charter school, pursuant to Part 26.8 (commencing with Section 47600) of Division 4 of Title 2 of the Education Code, or as one of the existing alternative education options, available under the Education Code. The program would provide a structured, disciplined environment that would be conducive to learning in a college preparatory environment. In addition to academic skills, students would develop leadership, self-esteem, and a strong sense of community. An academy established pursuant to this section shall comply with the Education Code.

(2) Pursuant to Section 509 of Title 32 of the United States Code and subject to subdivision (b), the Adjutant General shall conduct a civilian youth opportunities program, to be known as the “National Guard Youth ChalleNGe Program,” which shall consist of at least a 22-week residential program and a 12-month post-residential mentoring period. The program shall serve at-risk teens in areas of the state, including, but not limited to, the San Joaquin Valley and Northern California, and shall be subject to all of the following:

(A) The program shall seek to improve life skills and employment potential of participants by providing military-based leadership development, promoting fellowship and community service, developing life-coping skills and job skills, improving physical fitness, providing health and hygiene training, and assisting participants to receive a high school diploma or its equivalent.

(B) (i) The Adjutant General may accept federal funding to implement a National Guard Youth ChalleNGe Program. The Adjutant General may appoint a director and other service members and employees, permanent or temporary, to operate the program.

(ii) The Adjutant General may appoint a current member of the State Military Reserve who possesses a bachelor’s degree in psychology or social work to serve as a counselor within the program.

(C) The Military Department shall enter into a memorandum of agreement with an appropriate school district or a county office of education for the purpose of providing educational services for students enrolled in a National Guard Youth ChalleNGe Program. The school district or county office of education with which the department contracts shall be responsible for ensuring compliance with any applicable requirements imposed by the Education Code.

(b) A new program, except for the California Cadet Corps, may only be established as provided in subdivision (a) if funds are appropriated for purposes of the program in the annual Budget Act or any other act.

189.

 (a) All murder that is perpetrated by means of a destructive device or explosive, a weapon of mass destruction, knowing use of ammunition designed primarily to penetrate metal or armor, poison, lying in wait, torture, or by any other kind of willful, deliberate, and premeditated killing, or that is committed in the perpetration of, or attempt to perpetrate, arson, rape, carjacking, robbery, burglary, mayhem, kidnapping, train wrecking, or any act punishable under Section 206, 286, 287, 288, or 289, or former Section 288a, or murder that is perpetrated by means of discharging a firearm from a motor vehicle, intentionally at another person outside of the vehicle with the intent to inflict death, is murder of the first degree.

(b) All other kinds of murders are of the second degree.

(c) As used in this section, the following definitions apply:

(1) “Destructive device” has the same meaning as in Section 16460.

(2) “Explosive” has the same meaning as in Section 12000 of the Health and Safety Code.

(3) “Weapon of mass destruction” means any item defined in Section 11417.

(d) To prove the killing was “deliberate and premeditated,” it is not necessary to prove the defendant maturely and meaningfully reflected upon the gravity of the defendant’s act.

(e) A participant in the perpetration or attempted perpetration of a felony listed in subdivision (a) in which a death occurs is liable for murder only if one of the following is proven:

(1) The person was the actual killer.

(2) The person was not the actual killer, but, with the intent to kill, aided, abetted, counseled, commanded, induced, solicited, requested, or assisted the actual killer in the commission of murder in the first degree.

(3) The person was a major participant in the underlying felony and acted with reckless indifference to human life, as described in subdivision (d) of Section 190.2.

(f) Subdivision (e) does not apply to a defendant when the victim is a peace officer who was killed while in the course of the peace officer’s duties, where the defendant knew or reasonably should have known that the victim was a peace officer engaged in the performance of the peace officer’s duties.

290.019.

 (a) Notwithstanding any other section in the Act, a person who was convicted before January 1, 1976, under subdivision (a) of Section 286, or former Section 288a, shall not be required to register pursuant to the Act for that conviction if the conviction was for conduct between consenting adults that was decriminalized by Chapter 71 of the Statutes of 1975 or Chapter 1139 of the Statutes of 1976. The Department of Justice shall remove that person from the California Sex Offender Registry, and the person is discharged from the person’s duty to register pursuant to either of the following procedures:

(1) The person submits to the Department of Justice official documentary evidence, including court records or police reports, that demonstrate that the person’s conviction pursuant to either of those sections was for conduct between consenting adults that was decriminalized.

(2) The person submits to the department a declaration stating that the person’s conviction pursuant to either of those sections was for consensual conduct between adults that has been decriminalized. The declaration shall be confidential and not a public record, and shall include the person’s name, address, telephone number, date of birth, and a summary of the circumstances leading to the conviction, including the date of the conviction and county of the occurrence.

(b) The department shall determine whether the person’s conviction was for conduct between consensual adults that has been decriminalized. If the conviction was for consensual conduct between adults that has been decriminalized, and the person has no other offenses for which the person is required to register pursuant to the Act, the department shall, within 60 days of receipt of those documents, notify the person that the person is relieved of the duty to register, and shall notify the local law enforcement agency with which the person is registered that the person has been relieved of the duty to register. The local law enforcement agency shall remove the person’s registration from its files within 30 days of receipt of notification. If the documentary or other evidence submitted is insufficient to establish the person’s claim, the department shall, within 60 days of receipt of those documents, notify the person that the person’s claim cannot be established, and that the person shall continue to register pursuant to the Act. The department shall provide, upon the person’s request, any information relied upon by the department in making its determination that the person shall continue to register pursuant to the Act. Any person whose claim has been denied by the department pursuant to this subdivision may petition the court to appeal the department’s denial of the person’s claim.

368.5.

 (a) Local law enforcement agencies and state law enforcement agencies with jurisdiction shall have concurrent jurisdiction to investigate elder and dependent adult abuse and all other crimes against elder victims and victims with disabilities.

(b) Adult protective services agencies and local long-term care ombudsperson programs also have jurisdiction within their statutory authority to investigate elder and dependent adult abuse and criminal neglect, and may assist local law enforcement agencies in criminal investigations at the law enforcement agencies’ request; however, law enforcement agencies retain exclusive responsibility for criminal investigations, notwithstanding any law to the contrary.

(c) (1) Every local law enforcement agency and long-term care ombudsperson program shall, when the agency or program next undertakes the policy revision process, revise or include in the portion of its policy manual relating to elder and dependent adult abuse, if that policy manual exists, the following information:

(A) The elements of the offense specified in subdivision (c) of Section 368.

(B) The elements of the offense specified in subdivision (f) of Section 368.

(C) The requirement, pursuant to subdivisions (a) and (b), that law enforcement agencies have the responsibility for criminal investigations of elder and dependent adult abuse and criminal neglect, however, adult protective services agencies and long-term care ombudsperson programs have authority to investigate incidents of elder and dependent adult abuse and neglect and may, if requested, assist law enforcement agencies with criminal investigations.

(D) As a guideline to investigators and first responders, the definition of elder and dependent adult abuse provided by the Department of Justice in its policy and procedures manual, dated March 2015, which defines elder and dependent adult abuse as “physical abuse, neglect, financial abuse, abandonment, isolation, abduction, or other treatment with resulting physical harm or pain or mental suffering; or the deprivation by a care custodian of goods or services that are necessary to avoid physical harm or mental suffering.”

(2) This subdivision does not require a long-term care ombudsperson program that does not have a policy manual to create or adopt a policy manual.

(3) As used in this subdivision, the following terms have the following meanings:

(A) “Local law enforcement agency” means every municipal police department and county sheriffs’ department.

(B) “Policy manual” means any general orders, patrol manual, duty manual, or other written document or collection of documents that provides field or investigative personnel with policies, procedures, or guidelines for responding to or investigating crimes, complaints, or incidents.

667.

 (a) (1) Any person convicted of a serious felony who previously has been convicted of a serious felony in this state or of any offense committed in another jurisdiction which includes all of the elements of any serious felony, shall receive, in addition to the sentence imposed by the court for the present offense, a five-year enhancement for each such prior conviction on charges brought and tried separately. The terms of the present offense and each enhancement shall run consecutively.

(2) This subdivision shall not be applied when the punishment imposed under other provisions of law would result in a longer term of imprisonment. There is no requirement of prior incarceration or commitment for this subdivision to apply.

(3) The Legislature may increase the length of the enhancement of sentence provided in this subdivision by a statute passed by majority vote of each house thereof.

(4) As used in this subdivision, “serious felony” means a serious felony listed in subdivision (c) of Section 1192.7.

(5) This subdivision does not apply to a person convicted of selling, furnishing, administering, or giving, or offering to sell, furnish, administer, or give to a minor any methamphetamine-related drug or any precursors of methamphetamine unless the prior conviction was for a serious felony described in subparagraph (24) of subdivision (c) of Section 1192.7.

(b) It is the intent of the Legislature in enacting subdivisions (b) to (i), inclusive, to ensure longer prison sentences and greater punishment for those who commit a felony and have been previously convicted of one or more serious or violent felony offenses.

(c) Notwithstanding any other law, if a defendant has been convicted of a felony and it has been pled and proved that the defendant has one or more prior serious or violent felony convictions as defined in subdivision (d), the court shall adhere to each of the following:

(1) There shall not be an aggregate term limitation for purposes of consecutive sentencing for any subsequent felony conviction.

(2) Probation for the current offense shall not be granted, nor shall execution or imposition of the sentence be suspended for any prior offense.

(3) The length of time between the prior serious or violent felony conviction and the current felony conviction shall not affect the imposition of sentence.

(4) There shall not be a commitment to any other facility other than the state prison. Diversion shall not be granted nor shall the defendant be eligible for commitment to the California Rehabilitation Center as provided in Article 2 (commencing with Section 3050) of Chapter 1 of Division 3 of the Welfare and Institutions Code.

(5) The total amount of credits awarded pursuant to Article 2.5 (commencing with Section 2930) of Chapter 7 of Title 1 of Part 3 shall not exceed one-fifth of the total term of imprisonment imposed and shall not accrue until the defendant is physically placed in the state prison.

(6) If there is a current conviction for more than one felony count not committed on the same occasion, and not arising from the same set of operative facts, the court shall sentence the defendant consecutively on each count pursuant to subdivision (e).

(7) If there is a current conviction for more than one serious or violent felony as described in paragraph (6), the court shall impose the sentence for each conviction consecutive to the sentence for any other conviction for which the defendant may be consecutively sentenced in the manner prescribed by law.

(8) Any sentence imposed pursuant to subdivision (e) will be imposed consecutive to any other sentence which the defendant is already serving, unless otherwise provided by law.

(d) Notwithstanding any other law and for the purposes of subdivisions (b) to (i), inclusive, a prior conviction of a serious or violent felony shall be defined as:

(1) Any offense defined in subdivision (c) of Section 667.5 as a violent felony or any offense defined in subdivision (c) of Section 1192.7 as a serious felony in this state. The determination of whether a prior conviction is a prior felony conviction for purposes of subdivisions (b) to (i), inclusive, shall be made upon the date of that prior conviction and is not affected by the sentence imposed unless the sentence automatically, upon the initial sentencing, converts the felony to a misdemeanor. The following dispositions shall not affect the determination that a prior conviction is a prior felony for purposes of subdivisions (b) to (i), inclusive:

(A) The suspension of imposition of judgment or sentence.

(B) The stay of execution of sentence.

(C) The commitment to the State Department of Health Care Services as a mentally disordered sex offender following a conviction of a felony.

(D) The commitment to the California Rehabilitation Center or any other facility whose function is rehabilitative diversion from the state prison.

(2) A prior conviction in another jurisdiction for an offense that, if committed in California, is punishable by imprisonment in the state prison constitutes a prior conviction of a particular serious or violent felony if the prior conviction in the other jurisdiction is for an offense that includes all of the elements of a particular violent felony as defined in subdivision (c) of Section 667.5 or serious felony as defined in subdivision (c) of Section 1192.7.

(3) A prior juvenile adjudication constitutes a prior serious or violent felony conviction for purposes of sentence enhancement if:

(A) The juvenile was 16 years of age or older at the time the juvenile committed the prior offense.

(B) The prior offense is listed in subdivision (b) of Section 707 of the Welfare and Institutions Code or described in paragraph (1) or (2) as a serious or violent felony.

(C) The juvenile was found to be a fit and proper subject to be dealt with under the juvenile court law.

(D) The juvenile was adjudged a ward of the juvenile court within the meaning of Section 602 of the Welfare and Institutions Code because the person committed an offense listed in subdivision (b) of Section 707 of the Welfare and Institutions Code.

(e) For purposes of subdivisions (b) to (i), inclusive, and in addition to any other enhancement or punishment provisions which may apply, the following apply if a defendant has one or more prior serious or violent felony convictions:

(1) If a defendant has one prior serious or violent felony conviction as defined in subdivision (d) that has been pled and proved, the determinate term or minimum term for an indeterminate term shall be twice the term otherwise provided as punishment for the current felony conviction.

(2) (A) Except as provided in subparagraph (C), if a defendant has two or more prior serious or violent felony convictions as defined in subdivision (d) that have been pled and proved, the term for the current felony conviction shall be an indeterminate term of life imprisonment with a minimum term of the indeterminate sentence calculated as the greatest of:

(i) Three times the term otherwise provided as punishment for each current felony conviction subsequent to the two or more prior serious or violent felony convictions.

(ii) Imprisonment in the state prison for 25 years.

(iii) The term determined by the court pursuant to Section 1170 for the underlying conviction, including any enhancement applicable under Chapter 4.5 (commencing with Section 1170) of Title 7 of Part 2, or any period prescribed by Section 190 or 3046.

(B) The indeterminate term described in subparagraph (A) shall be served consecutive to any other term of imprisonment for which a consecutive term may be imposed by law. Any other term imposed subsequent to any indeterminate term described in subparagraph (A) shall not be merged therein but shall commence at the time the person would otherwise have been released from prison.

(C) If a defendant has two or more prior serious or violent felony convictions as defined in subdivision (c) of Section 667.5 or subdivision (c) of Section 1192.7 that have been pled and proved, and the current offense is not a serious or violent felony as defined in subdivision (d), the defendant shall be sentenced pursuant to paragraph (1) of subdivision (e) unless the prosecution pleads and proves any of the following:

(i) The current offense is a controlled substance charge, in which an allegation under Section 11370.4 or 11379.8 of the Health and Safety Code was admitted or found true.

(ii) The current offense is a felony sex offense, defined in subdivision (d) of Section 261.5 or Section 262, or any felony offense that results in mandatory registration as a sex offender pursuant to subdivision (c) of Section 290 except for violations of Sections 266 and 285, paragraph (1) of subdivision (b) and subdivision (e) of Section 286, paragraph (1) of subdivision (b) and subdivision (e) of Section 288a, Section 311.11, and Section 314.

(iii) During the commission of the current offense, the defendant used a firearm, was armed with a firearm or deadly weapon, or intended to cause great bodily injury to another person.

(iv) The defendant suffered a prior serious or violent felony conviction, as defined in subdivision (d) of this section, for any of the following felonies:

(I) A “sexually violent offense” as defined in subdivision (b) of Section 6600 of the Welfare and Institutions Code.

(II) Oral copulation with a child who is under 14 years of age, and who is more than 10 years younger than the defendant as defined by Section 288a, sodomy with another person who is under 14 years of age and more than 10 years younger than the defendant as defined by Section 286, or sexual penetration with another person who is under 14 years of age, and who is more than 10 years younger than the defendant, as defined by Section 289.

(III) A lewd or lascivious act involving a child under 14 years of age, in violation of Section 288.

(IV) Any homicide offense, including any attempted homicide offense, defined in Sections 187 to 191.5, inclusive.

(V) Solicitation to commit murder as defined in Section 653f.

(VI) Assault with a machine gun on a peace officer or firefighter, as defined in paragraph (3) of subdivision (d) of Section 245.

(VII) Possession of a weapon of mass destruction, as defined in paragraph (1) of subdivision (a) of Section 11418.

(VIII) Any serious or violent felony offense punishable in California by life imprisonment or death.

(f) (1) Notwithstanding any other law, subdivisions (b) to (i), inclusive, shall be applied in every case in which a defendant has one or more prior serious or violent felony convictions as defined in subdivision (d). The prosecuting attorney shall plead and prove each prior serious or violent felony conviction except as provided in paragraph (2).

(2) The prosecuting attorney may move to dismiss or strike a prior serious or violent felony conviction allegation in the furtherance of justice pursuant to Section 1385, or if there is insufficient evidence to prove the prior serious or violent felony conviction. If upon the satisfaction of the court that there is insufficient evidence to prove the prior serious or violent felony conviction, the court may dismiss or strike the allegation. This section shall not be read to alter a court’s authority under Section 1385.

(g) Prior serious or violent felony convictions shall not be used in plea bargaining as defined in subdivision (b) of Section 1192.7. The prosecution shall plead and prove all known prior felony serious or violent convictions and shall not enter into any agreement to strike or seek the dismissal of any prior serious or violent felony conviction allegation except as provided in paragraph (2) of subdivision (f).

(h) All references to existing statutes in subdivisions (c) to (g), inclusive, are to statutes as they existed on November 7, 2012.

(i) If any provision of subdivisions (b) to (h), inclusive, or the application thereof to any person or circumstance is held invalid, that invalidity shall not affect other provisions or applications of those subdivisions which can be given effect without the invalid provision or application, and to this end the provisions of those subdivisions are severable.

(j) The provisions of this section shall not be amended by the Legislature except by statute passed in each house by rollcall vote entered in the journal, two-thirds of the membership concurring, or by a statute that becomes effective only when approved by the electors.

799.

 (a) Prosecution for an offense punishable by death or by imprisonment in the state prison for life or for life without the possibility of parole, or for the embezzlement of public money, may be commenced at any time.

(b) (1) Prosecution for a felony offense described in paragraph (1), (2), (3), (4), (6), or (7) of subdivision (a) of Section 261, paragraph (1), (2), (3), (4), or (5) of subdivision (a) of Section 262, Section 264.1, paragraph (2) or (3) of subdivision (c) of, or subdivision (d), (f), (g), (i), or (k) of, Section 286, paragraph (2) or (3) of subdivision (c) of, or subdivision (d), (f), (g), (i), or (k) of, Section 287 or former Section 288a, subdivision (a) of Section 288 involving substantial sexual conduct as defined in subdivision (b) of Section 1203.066, subdivision (b) of Section 288, Section 288.5, or subdivision (a), (b), (d), (e), or (g) of Section 289 may be commenced at any time.

(2) This subdivision applies to crimes that were committed on or after January 1, 2017, and to crimes for which the statute of limitations that was in effect prior to January 1, 2017, has not run as of January 1, 2017.

(c) This section applies in any case in which the defendant was a minor at the time of the commission of the offense and the prosecuting attorney could have petitioned the court for a fitness hearing pursuant to Section 707 of the Welfare and Institutions Code.

831.5.

 (a) As used in this section, a custodial officer is a public officer, not a peace officer, who is employed by a law enforcement agency of San Diego County, Fresno County, Kern County, Stanislaus County, Riverside County, Santa Clara County, Napa County, or a county having a population of 425,000 or less who has the authority and responsibility for maintaining custody of prisoners and performs tasks related to the operation of a local detention facility used for the detention of persons usually pending arraignment or upon court order either for their own safekeeping or for the specific purpose of serving a sentence in the local detention facility. Custodial officers of a county shall be employees of, and under the authority of, the sheriff, except in counties in which the sheriff, as of July 1, 1993, is not in charge of and the sole and exclusive authority to keep the county jail and the prisoners in it. A custodial officer includes a person designated as a correctional officer, jailer, or other similar title. The duties of a custodial officer may include the serving of warrants, court orders, writs, and subpoenas in the detention facility or under circumstances arising directly out of maintaining custody of prisoners and related tasks.

(b) A custodial officer has no right to carry or possess firearms in the performance of the officer’s prescribed duties, except, under the direction of the sheriff or chief of police, while engaged in transporting prisoners; guarding hospitalized prisoners; or suppressing jail riots, lynchings, escapes, or rescues in or about a detention facility falling under the care and custody of the sheriff or chief of police.

(c) A person described in this section as a custodial officer shall, within 90 days following the date of the initial assignment to that position, satisfactorily complete the training course specified in Section 832. In addition, a person designated as a custodial officer shall, within one year following the date of the initial assignment as a custodial officer, have satisfactorily met the minimum selection and training standards prescribed by the Board of State and Community Corrections pursuant to Section 6035. Persons designated as custodial officers, before the expiration of the 90-day and one-year periods described in this subdivision, who have not yet completed the required training, shall not carry or possess firearms in the performance of their prescribed duties, but may perform the duties of a custodial officer only while under the direct supervision of a peace officer, as described in Section 830.1, who has completed the training prescribed by the Commission on Peace Officer Standards and Training, or a custodial officer who has completed the training required in this section.

(d) At any time 20 or more custodial officers are on duty, there shall be at least one peace officer, as described in Section 830.1, on duty at the same time to supervise the performance of the custodial officers.

(e) This section does not confer any authority upon any custodial officer except while on duty.

(f) A custodial officer may use reasonable force in establishing and maintaining custody of persons delivered to the custodial officer by a law enforcement officer; may make arrests for misdemeanors and felonies within the local detention facility pursuant to a duly issued warrant; may make warrantless arrests pursuant to Section 836.5 only during the duration of the custodial officer’s job; may release without further criminal process persons arrested for intoxication; and may release misdemeanants on citation to appear in lieu of or after booking.

(g) Custodial officers employed by the Santa Clara County Department of Correction are authorized to perform the following additional duties in the facility:

(1) Arrest a person without a warrant whenever the custodial officer has reasonable cause to believe that the person to be arrested has committed a misdemeanor or felony in the presence of the officer that is a violation of a statute or ordinance that the officer has the duty to enforce.

(2) Search property, cells, prisoners, or visitors.

(3) Conduct strip or body cavity searches of prisoners pursuant to Section 4030.

(4) Conduct searches and seizures pursuant to a duly issued warrant.

(5) Segregate prisoners.

(6) Classify prisoners for the purpose of housing or participation in supervised activities.

These duties may be performed at the Santa Clara Valley Medical Center, or at other health care facilities in the County of Santa Clara, as needed and only as they directly relate to guarding in-custody inmates. This subdivision does not authorize the performance of any law enforcement activity involving any person other than the inmate or the inmate’s visitors.

(h) (1) Upon resolution by the Napa County Board of Supervisors, custodial officers employed by the Napa County Department of Corrections are authorized to perform all of the following duties in a facility located in that county:

(A) Arrest a person without a warrant whenever the custodial officer has reasonable cause to believe that the person to be arrested has committed a misdemeanor or felony in the presence of the officer that is a violation of a statute or ordinance that the officer has the duty to enforce.

(B) Search property, cells, prisoners, or visitors.

(C) Conduct strip or body cavity searches of prisoners pursuant to Section 4030.

(D) Conduct searches and seizures pursuant to a duly issued warrant.

(E) Segregate prisoners.

(F) Classify prisoners for the purpose of housing or participation in supervised activities.

(2) This subdivision does not authorize the performance of any law enforcement activity involving any person other than an inmate or the inmate’s visitors.

(i) (1) Upon resolution by the County of Madera Board of Supervisors, custodial officers employed by the Madera County Department of Corrections are authorized to perform all of the following duties in a facility located in that county:

(A) Arrest a person without a warrant whenever the custodial officer has reasonable cause to believe that the person to be arrested has committed a misdemeanor or felony in the presence of the officer that is a violation of a statute or ordinance that the officer has the duty to enforce.

(B) Search property, cells, prisoners, or visitors.

(C) Conduct strip or body cavity searches of prisoners pursuant to Section 4030.

(D) Conduct searches and seizures pursuant to a duly issued warrant.

(E) Segregate prisoners.

(F) Classify prisoners for the purpose of housing or participation in supervised activities.

(2) This subdivision does not authorize the performance of any law enforcement activity involving any person other than an inmate or the inmate’s visitors.

(j) This section does not authorize a custodial officer to carry or possess a firearm when the officer is not on duty.

(k) It is the intent of the Legislature that this section, as it relates to Santa Clara, Madera, and Napa Counties, enumerate specific duties of custodial officers known as “correctional officers” in Santa Clara, Madera, and Napa Counties and to clarify the relationships of the correctional officers and deputy sheriffs in those counties. These duties are the same duties of the custodial officers prior to the date of enactment of Chapter 635 of the Statutes of 1999 pursuant to local rules and judicial decisions. It is further the intent of the Legislature that all issues regarding compensation for custodial officers remain subject to the collective bargaining process between the counties and the authorized bargaining representative for the custodial officers. However, this section does not assert that the duties of custodial officers are equivalent to the duties of deputy sheriffs and does not affect the ability of the county to negotiate pay that reflects the different duties of custodial officers and deputy sheriffs.

853.6.

 (a) (1) In any case in which a person is arrested for an offense declared to be a misdemeanor, including a violation of any city or county ordinance, and does not demand to be taken before a magistrate, that person shall, instead of being taken before a magistrate, be released according to the procedures set forth by this chapter, although nothing prevents an officer from first booking an arrestee pursuant to subdivision (g). If the person is released, the officer or the officer’s superior shall prepare in duplicate a written notice to appear in court, containing the name and address of the person, the offense charged, and the time when, and place where, the person shall appear in court. If, pursuant to subdivision (i), the person is not released prior to being booked and the officer in charge of the booking or the officer’s superior determines that the person should be released, the officer or the officer’s superior shall prepare a written notice to appear in court.

(2) In any case in which a person is arrested for a misdemeanor violation of a protective court order involving domestic violence, as defined in subdivision (b) of Section 13700, or arrested pursuant to a policy, as described in Section 13701, the person shall be taken before a magistrate instead of being released according to the procedures set forth in this chapter, unless the arresting officer determines that there is not a reasonable likelihood that the offense will continue or resume or that the safety of persons or property would be imminently endangered by release of the person arrested. Prior to adopting these provisions, each city, county, or city and county shall develop a protocol to assist officers to determine when arrest and release is appropriate, rather than taking the arrested person before a magistrate. The county shall establish a committee to develop the protocol, consisting of, at a minimum, the police chief or county sheriff within the jurisdiction, the district attorney, county counsel, city attorney, representatives from domestic violence shelters, domestic violence councils, and other relevant community agencies.

(3) This subdivision does not apply to the crimes specified in Section 1270.1, including crimes defined in each of the following:

(A) Paragraph (1) of subdivision (e) of Section 243.

(B) Section 273.5.

(C) Section 273.6, if the detained person made threats to kill or harm, has engaged in violence against, or has gone to the residence or workplace of, the protected party.

(D) Section 646.9.

(4) This subdivision shall not be construed to affect a defendant’s ability to be released on bail or on the defendant’s own recognizance, except as specified in Section 1270.1.

(b) Unless waived by the person, the time specified in the notice to appear shall be at least 10 days after arrest if the duplicate notice is to be filed by the officer with the magistrate.

(c) The place specified in the notice shall be the court of the magistrate before whom the person would be taken if the requirement of taking an arrested person before a magistrate were complied with, or shall be an officer authorized by that court to receive a deposit of bail.

(d) The officer shall deliver one copy of the notice to appear to the arrested person, and the arrested person, in order to secure release, shall give the arrested person’s written promise to appear in court as specified in the notice by signing the duplicate notice which shall be retained by the officer, and the officer may require the arrested person, if the arrested person has no satisfactory identification, to place a right thumbprint, or a left thumbprint or fingerprint if the person has a missing or disfigured right thumb, on the notice to appear. Except for law enforcement purposes relating to the identity of the arrestee, a person or entity shall not sell, give away, allow the distribution of, include in a database, or create a database with, this print. Upon the signing of the duplicate notice, the arresting officer shall immediately release the person arrested from custody.

(e) The officer shall, as soon as practicable, file the duplicate notice, as follows:

(1) It shall be filed with the magistrate if the offense charged is an infraction.

(2) It shall be filed with the magistrate if the prosecuting attorney has previously directed the officer to do so.

(3) The duplicate notice and underlying police reports in support of the charge or charges shall be filed with the prosecuting attorney in cases other than those specified in paragraphs (1) and (2).

If the duplicate notice is filed with the prosecuting attorney, the prosecuting attorney, within the prosecuting attorney’s discretion, may initiate prosecution by filing the notice or a formal complaint with the magistrate specified in the duplicate notice within 25 days from the time of arrest. If the prosecution is not to be initiated, the prosecutor shall send notice to the person arrested at the address on the notice to appear. The failure by the prosecutor to file the notice or formal complaint within 25 days of the time of the arrest shall not bar further prosecution of the misdemeanor charged in the notice to appear. However, any further prosecution shall be preceded by a new and separate citation or an arrest warrant.

Upon the filing of the notice with the magistrate by the officer, or the filing of the notice or formal complaint by the prosecutor, the magistrate may fix the amount of bail that in the magistrate’s judgment, in accordance with Section 1275, is reasonable and sufficient for the appearance of the defendant and shall endorse upon the notice a statement signed by the magistrate in the form set forth in Section 815a. The defendant may, prior to the date upon which the defendant promised to appear in court, deposit with the magistrate the amount of bail set by the magistrate. At the time the case is called for arraignment before the magistrate, if the defendant does not appear, either in person or by counsel, the magistrate may declare the bail forfeited, and may, in the magistrate’s discretion, order that no further proceedings shall be had in the case, unless the defendant has been charged with a violation of Section 374.3 or 374.7 of this code or of Section 11357, 11360, or 13002 of the Health and Safety Code, or a violation punishable under Section 5008.7 of the Public Resources Code, and the defendant has previously been convicted of a violation of that section or a violation that is punishable under that section, except in cases where the magistrate finds that undue hardship will be imposed upon the defendant by requiring the defendant to appear, the magistrate may declare the bail forfeited and order that no further proceedings be had in the case.

Upon the making of the order that no further proceedings be had, all sums deposited as bail shall immediately be paid into the county treasury for distribution pursuant to Section 1463.

(f) A warrant shall not be issued for the arrest of a person who has given a written promise to appear in court, unless and until the person has violated that promise or has failed to deposit bail, to appear for arraignment, trial, or judgment or to comply with the terms and provisions of the judgment, as required by law.

(g) The officer may book the arrested person at the scene or at the arresting agency prior to release or indicate on the citation that the arrested person shall appear at the arresting agency to be booked or indicate on the citation that the arrested person shall appear at the arresting agency to be fingerprinted prior to the date the arrested person appears in court. If it is indicated on the citation that the arrested person shall be booked or fingerprinted prior to the date of the person’s court appearance, the arresting agency at the time of booking or fingerprinting shall provide the arrested person with verification of the booking or fingerprinting by making an entry on the citation. If it is indicated on the citation that the arrested person is to be booked or fingerprinted, the magistrate, judge, or court shall, before the proceedings begin, order the defendant to provide verification that the defendant was booked or fingerprinted by the arresting agency. If the defendant cannot produce the verification, the magistrate, judge, or court shall require that the defendant be booked or fingerprinted by the arresting agency before the next court appearance, and that the defendant provide the verification at the next court appearance unless both parties stipulate that booking or fingerprinting is not necessary.

(h) A peace officer shall use the written notice to appear procedure set forth in this section for any misdemeanor offense in which the officer has arrested a person without a warrant pursuant to Section 836 or in which the officer has taken custody of a person pursuant to Section 847.

(i) Whenever any person is arrested by a peace officer for a misdemeanor, that person shall be released according to the procedures set forth by this chapter unless one or more of the following is a reason for nonrelease, in which case the arresting officer may release the person, except as provided in subdivision (a), or the arresting officer shall indicate, on a form to be established by the arresting officer’s employing law enforcement agency, which of the following was a reason for the nonrelease:

(1) The person arrested was so intoxicated that the person could have been a danger to the person’s or to others.

(2) The person arrested required medical examination or medical care or was otherwise unable to care for the person’s own safety.

(3) The person was arrested under one or more of the circumstances listed in Sections 40302 and 40303 of the Vehicle Code.

(4) There were one or more outstanding arrest warrants or failures to appear in court on previous misdemeanor citations that have not been resolved for the person.

(5) The person could not provide satisfactory evidence of personal identification.

(6) The prosecution of the offense or offenses for which the person was arrested, or the prosecution of any other offense or offenses, would be jeopardized by immediate release of the person arrested.

(7) There was a reasonable likelihood that the offense or offenses would continue or resume, or that the safety of persons or property would be imminently endangered by release of the person arrested.

(8) The person arrested demanded to be taken before a magistrate or refused to sign the notice to appear.

(9) There is reason to believe that the person would not appear at the time and place specified in the notice. The basis for this determination shall be specifically stated. An arrest warrant or failure to appear that is pending at the time of the current offense shall constitute reason to believe that the person would not appear as specified in the notice.

(10) The person was subject to Section 1270.1.

(11) The person has been cited, arrested, or convicted for misdemeanor or felony theft from a store or from a vehicle in the previous 6 months.

(12) There is probable cause to believe that the person arrested is guilty of committing organized retail theft, as defined in subdivision (a) of Section 490.4.

The form shall be filed with the arresting agency as soon as practicable and shall be made available to any party having custody of the arrested person, subsequent to the arresting officer, and to any person authorized by law to release the arrested person from custody before trial.

(j) Once the arresting officer has prepared the written notice to appear and has delivered a copy to the person arrested, the officer shall deliver the remaining original and all copies as provided by subdivision (e).

Any person, including the arresting officer and any member of the officer’s department or agency, or any peace officer, who alters, conceals, modifies, nullifies, or destroys, or causes to be altered, concealed, modified, nullified, or destroyed, the face side of the remaining original or any copy of a citation that was retained by the officer, for any reason, before it is filed with the magistrate or with a person authorized by the magistrate to receive deposit of bail, is guilty of a misdemeanor.

If, after an arrested person has signed and received a copy of a notice to appear, the arresting officer determines that, in the interest of justice, the citation or notice should be dismissed, the arresting agency may recommend, in writing, to the magistrate that the charges be dismissed. The recommendation shall cite the reasons for the recommendation and shall be filed with the court.

If the magistrate makes a finding that there are grounds for dismissal, the finding shall be entered in the record and the charges dismissed.

A personal relationship with any officer, public official, or law enforcement agency shall not be grounds for dismissal.

(k) (1) A person contesting a charge by claiming under penalty of perjury not to be the person issued the notice to appear may choose to submit a right thumbprint, or a left thumbprint if the person has a missing or disfigured right thumb, to the issuing court through the person’s local law enforcement agency for comparison with the one placed on the notice to appear. A local law enforcement agency providing this service may charge the requester no more than the actual costs. The issuing court may refer the thumbprint submitted and the notice to appear to the prosecuting attorney for comparison of the thumbprints. When there is no thumbprint or fingerprint on the notice to appear, or when the comparison of thumbprints is inconclusive, the court shall refer the notice to appear or copy thereof back to the issuing agency for further investigation, unless the court finds that referral is not in the interest of justice.

(2) Upon initiation of the investigation or comparison process by referral of the court, the court shall continue the case and the speedy trial period shall be tolled for 45 days.

(3) Upon receipt of the issuing agency’s or prosecuting attorney’s response, the court may make a finding of factual innocence pursuant to Section 530.6 if the court determines that there is insufficient evidence that the person cited is the person charged and shall immediately notify the Department of Motor Vehicles of its determination. If the Department of Motor Vehicles determines the citation or citations in question formed the basis of a suspension or revocation of the person’s driving privilege, the department shall immediately set aside the action.

(4) If the prosecuting attorney or issuing agency fails to respond to a court referral within 45 days, the court shall make a finding of factual innocence pursuant to Section 530.6, unless the court finds that a finding of factual innocence is not in the interest of justice.

(5) The citation or notice to appear may be held by the prosecuting attorney or issuing agency for future adjudication should the arrestee who received the citation or notice to appear be found.

(l) For purposes of this section, the term “arresting agency” includes any other agency designated by the arresting agency to provide booking or fingerprinting services.

(m) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2021, and as of that date is repealed.

853.6.

 (a) (1) In any case in which a person is arrested for an offense declared to be a misdemeanor, including a violation of any city or county ordinance, and does not demand to be taken before a magistrate, that person shall, instead of being taken before a magistrate, be released according to the procedures set forth by this chapter, although nothing prevents an officer from first booking an arrestee pursuant to subdivision (g). If the person is released, the officer or the officer’s superior shall prepare in duplicate a written notice to appear in court, containing the name and address of the person, the offense charged, and the time when, and place where, the person shall appear in court. If, pursuant to subdivision (i), the person is not released prior to being booked and the officer in charge of the booking or the officer’s superior determines that the person should be released, the officer or the officer’s superior shall prepare a written notice to appear in court.

(2) In any case in which a person is arrested for a misdemeanor violation of a protective court order involving domestic violence, as defined in subdivision (b) of Section 13700, or arrested pursuant to a policy, as described in Section 13701, the person shall be taken before a magistrate instead of being released according to the procedures set forth in this chapter, unless the arresting officer determines that there is not a reasonable likelihood that the offense will continue or resume or that the safety of persons or property would be imminently endangered by release of the person arrested. Prior to adopting these provisions, each city, county, or city and county shall develop a protocol to assist officers to determine when arrest and release is appropriate, rather than taking the arrested person before a magistrate. The county shall establish a committee to develop the protocol, consisting of, at a minimum, the police chief or county sheriff within the jurisdiction, the district attorney, county counsel, city attorney, representatives from domestic violence shelters, domestic violence councils, and other relevant community agencies.

(3) This subdivision does not apply to the crimes specified in Section 1270.1, including crimes defined in each of the following:

(A) Paragraph (1) of subdivision (e) of Section 243.

(B) Section 273.5.

(C) Section 273.6, if the detained person made threats to kill or harm, has engaged in violence against, or has gone to the residence or workplace of, the protected party.

(D) Section 646.9.

(4) This subdivision shall not be construed to affect a defendant’s ability to be released on bail or on the defendant’s own recognizance, except as specified in Section 1270.1.

(b) Unless waived by the person, the time specified in the notice to appear shall be at least 10 days after arrest if the duplicate notice is to be filed by the officer with the magistrate.

(c) The place specified in the notice shall be the court of the magistrate before whom the person would be taken if the requirement of taking an arrested person before a magistrate were complied with, or shall be an officer authorized by that court to receive a deposit of bail.

(d) The officer shall deliver one copy of the notice to appear to the arrested person, and the arrested person, in order to secure release, shall give the arrested person’s written promise to appear in court as specified in the notice by signing the duplicate notice which shall be retained by the officer, and the officer may require the arrested person, if the arrested person has no satisfactory identification, to place a right thumbprint, or a left thumbprint or fingerprint if the person has a missing or disfigured right thumb, on the notice to appear. Except for law enforcement purposes relating to the identity of the arrestee, a person or entity shall not sell, give away, allow the distribution of, include in a database, or create a database with, this print. Upon the signing of the duplicate notice, the arresting officer shall immediately release the person arrested from custody.

(e) The officer shall, as soon as practicable, file the duplicate notice, as follows:

(1) It shall be filed with the magistrate if the offense charged is an infraction.

(2) It shall be filed with the magistrate if the prosecuting attorney has previously directed the officer to do so.

(3) The duplicate notice and underlying police reports in support of the charge or charges shall be filed with the prosecuting attorney in cases other than those specified in paragraphs (1) and (2).

If the duplicate notice is filed with the prosecuting attorney, the prosecuting attorney, within the prosecuting attorney’s discretion, may initiate prosecution by filing the notice or a formal complaint with the magistrate specified in the duplicate notice within 25 days from the time of arrest. If the prosecution is not to be initiated, the prosecutor shall send notice to the person arrested at the address on the notice to appear. The failure by the prosecutor to file the notice or formal complaint within 25 days of the time of the arrest shall not bar further prosecution of the misdemeanor charged in the notice to appear. However, any further prosecution shall be preceded by a new and separate citation or an arrest warrant.

Upon the filing of the notice with the magistrate by the officer, or the filing of the notice or formal complaint by the prosecutor, the magistrate may fix the amount of bail that in the magistrate’s judgment, in accordance with Section 1275, is reasonable and sufficient for the appearance of the defendant and shall endorse upon the notice a statement signed by the magistrate in the form set forth in Section 815a. The defendant may, prior to the date upon which the defendant promised to appear in court, deposit with the magistrate the amount of bail set by the magistrate. At the time the case is called for arraignment before the magistrate, if the defendant does not appear, either in person or by counsel, the magistrate may declare the bail forfeited, and may, in the magistrate’s discretion, order that no further proceedings shall be had in the case, unless the defendant has been charged with a violation of Section 374.3 or 374.7 of this code or of Section 11357, 11360, or 13002 of the Health and Safety Code, or a violation punishable under Section 5008.7 of the Public Resources Code, and the defendant has previously been convicted of a violation of that section or a violation that is punishable under that section, except in cases where the magistrate finds that undue hardship will be imposed upon the defendant by requiring the defendant to appear, the magistrate may declare the bail forfeited and order that no further proceedings be had in the case.

Upon the making of the order that no further proceedings be had, all sums deposited as bail shall immediately be paid into the county treasury for distribution pursuant to Section 1463.

(f) A warrant shall not be issued for the arrest of a person who has given a written promise to appear in court, unless and until the person has violated that promise or has failed to deposit bail, to appear for arraignment, trial, or judgment or to comply with the terms and provisions of the judgment, as required by law.

(g) The officer may book the arrested person at the scene or at the arresting agency prior to release or indicate on the citation that the arrested person shall appear at the arresting agency to be booked or indicate on the citation that the arrested person shall appear at the arresting agency to be fingerprinted prior to the date the arrested person appears in court. If it is indicated on the citation that the arrested person shall be booked or fingerprinted prior to the date of the person’s court appearance, the arresting agency at the time of booking or fingerprinting shall provide the arrested person with verification of the booking or fingerprinting by making an entry on the citation. If it is indicated on the citation that the arrested person is to be booked or fingerprinted, the magistrate, judge, or court shall, before the proceedings begin, order the defendant to provide verification that the defendant was booked or fingerprinted by the arresting agency. If the defendant cannot produce the verification, the magistrate, judge, or court shall require that the defendant be booked or fingerprinted by the arresting agency before the next court appearance, and that the defendant provide the verification at the next court appearance unless both parties stipulate that booking or fingerprinting is not necessary.

(h) A peace officer shall use the written notice to appear procedure set forth in this section for any misdemeanor offense in which the officer has arrested a person without a warrant pursuant to Section 836 or in which the officer has taken custody of a person pursuant to Section 847.

(i) Whenever any person is arrested by a peace officer for a misdemeanor, that person shall be released according to the procedures set forth by this chapter unless one of the following is a reason for nonrelease, in which case the arresting officer may release the person, except as provided in subdivision (a), or the arresting officer shall indicate, on a form to be established by the arresting officer’s employing law enforcement agency, which of the following was a reason for the nonrelease:

(1) The person arrested was so intoxicated that the person could have been a danger to the person or to others.

(2) The person arrested required medical examination or medical care or was otherwise unable to care for the person’s own safety.

(3) The person was arrested under one or more of the circumstances listed in Sections 40302 and 40303 of the Vehicle Code.

(4) There were one or more outstanding arrest warrants for the person.

(5) The person could not provide satisfactory evidence of personal identification.

(6) The prosecution of the offense or offenses for which the person was arrested, or the prosecution of any other offense or offenses, would be jeopardized by immediate release of the person arrested.

(7) There was a reasonable likelihood that the offense or offenses would continue or resume, or that the safety of persons or property would be imminently endangered by release of the person arrested.

(8) The person arrested demanded to be taken before a magistrate or refused to sign the notice to appear.

(9) There is reason to believe that the person would not appear at the time and place specified in the notice. The basis for this determination shall be specifically stated.

(10) The person was subject to Section 1270.1.

The form shall be filed with the arresting agency as soon as practicable and shall be made available to any party having custody of the arrested person, subsequent to the arresting officer, and to any person authorized by law to release the arrested person from custody before trial.

(j) Once the arresting officer has prepared the written notice to appear and has delivered a copy to the person arrested, the officer shall deliver the remaining original and all copies as provided by subdivision (e).

Any person, including the arresting officer and any member of the officer’s department or agency, or any peace officer, who alters, conceals, modifies, nullifies, or destroys, or causes to be altered, concealed, modified, nullified, or destroyed, the face side of the remaining original or any copy of a citation that was retained by the officer, for any reason, before it is filed with the magistrate or with a person authorized by the magistrate to receive deposit of bail, is guilty of a misdemeanor.

If, after an arrested person has signed and received a copy of a notice to appear, the arresting officer determines that, in the interest of justice, the citation or notice should be dismissed, the arresting agency may recommend, in writing, to the magistrate that the charges be dismissed. The recommendation shall cite the reasons for the recommendation and shall be filed with the court.

If the magistrate makes a finding that there are grounds for dismissal, the finding shall be entered in the record and the charges dismissed.

A personal relationship with any officer, public official, or law enforcement agency shall not be grounds for dismissal.

(k) (1) A person contesting a charge by claiming under penalty of perjury not to be the person issued the notice to appear may choose to submit a right thumbprint, or a left thumbprint if the person has a missing or disfigured right thumb, to the issuing court through the person’s local law enforcement agency for comparison with the one placed on the notice to appear. A local law enforcement agency providing this service may charge the requester no more than the actual costs. The issuing court may refer the thumbprint submitted and the notice to appear to the prosecuting attorney for comparison of the thumbprints. When there is no thumbprint or fingerprint on the notice to appear, or when the comparison of thumbprints is inconclusive, the court shall refer the notice to appear or copy thereof back to the issuing agency for further investigation, unless the court finds that referral is not in the interest of justice.

(2) Upon initiation of the investigation or comparison process by referral of the court, the court shall continue the case and the speedy trial period shall be tolled for 45 days.

(3) Upon receipt of the issuing agency’s or prosecuting attorney’s response, the court may make a finding of factual innocence pursuant to Section 530.6 if the court determines that there is insufficient evidence that the person cited is the person charged and shall immediately notify the Department of Motor Vehicles of its determination. If the Department of Motor Vehicles determines the citation or citations in question formed the basis of a suspension or revocation of the person’s driving privilege, the department shall immediately set aside the action.

(4) If the prosecuting attorney or issuing agency fails to respond to a court referral within 45 days, the court shall make a finding of factual innocence pursuant to Section 530.6, unless the court finds that a finding of factual innocence is not in the interest of justice.

(5) The citation or notice to appear may be held by the prosecuting attorney or issuing agency for future adjudication should the arrestee who received the citation or notice to appear be found.

(l) For purposes of this section, the term “arresting agency” includes any other agency designated by the arresting agency to provide booking or fingerprinting services.

(m) This section shall become operative January 1, 2021.

978.5.

 (a) A bench warrant of arrest may be issued whenever a defendant fails to appear in court as required by law including, but not limited to, the following situations:

(1) If the defendant is ordered by a judge or magistrate to personally appear in court at a specific time and place.

(2) If the defendant is released from custody on bail and is ordered by a judge or magistrate, or other person authorized to accept bail, to personally appear in court at a specific time and place.

(3) If the defendant is released from custody on the defendant’s own recognizance and promises to personally appear in court at a specific time and place.

(4) If the defendant is released from custody or arrest upon citation by a peace officer or other person authorized to issue citations and the defendant has signed a promise to personally appear in court at a specific time and place.

(5) If a defendant is authorized to appear by counsel and the court or magistrate orders that the defendant personally appear in court at a specific time and place.

(6) If an information or indictment has been filed in the superior court and the court has fixed the date and place for the defendant personally to appear for arraignment.

(7) If a defendant has been cited or arrested for misdemeanor or felony theft from a store or vehicle and has failed to appear in court in connection with that charge or those charges in the previous six months.

(b) The bench warrant may be served in any county in the same manner as a warrant of arrest.

(c) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2021, and as of that date is repealed.

978.5.

 (a) A bench warrant of arrest may be issued whenever a defendant fails to appear in court as required by law including, but not limited to, the following situations:

(1) If the defendant is ordered by a judge or magistrate to personally appear in court at a specific time and place.

(2) If the defendant is released from custody on bail and is ordered by a judge or magistrate, or other person authorized to accept bail, to personally appear in court at a specific time and place.

(3) If the defendant is released from custody on the defendant’s own recognizance and promises to personally appear in court at a specific time and place.

(4) If the defendant is released from custody or arrest upon citation by a peace officer or other person authorized to issue citations and the defendant has signed a promise to personally appear in court at a specific time and place.

(5) If a defendant is authorized to appear by counsel and the court or magistrate orders that the defendant personally appear in court at a specific time and place.

(6) If an information or indictment has been filed in the superior court and the court has fixed the date and place for the defendant personally to appear for arraignment.

(b) The bench warrant may be served in any county in the same manner as a warrant of arrest.

(c) This section shall become operative on January 1, 2021.

993.

 (a) At the arraignment of a defendant who is charged with a felony and who is, or whom the court reasonably deems to be, the sole custodial parent of one or more minor children, the court shall provide the following to the defendant:

(1) Judicial Council Form GC-205, the “Guardianship Pamphlet.”

(2) Information regarding a power of attorney for a minor child.

(3) Information regarding trustline background examinations pertaining to childcare providers as provided in Chapter 3.35 (commencing with Section 1596.60) of Division 2 of the Health and Safety Code.

(b) If the defendant states, orally or in writing, at the arraignment that the defendant is a sole custodial parent of one or more minor children, the court may reasonably deem the defendant to be a sole custodial parent of one or more minor children without further investigation. The court may, but is not required to, make that determination on the basis of information other than the defendant’s statement.

1001.36.

 (a) On an accusatory pleading alleging the commission of a misdemeanor or felony offense, the court may, after considering the positions of the defense and prosecution, grant pretrial diversion to a defendant pursuant to this section if the defendant meets all of the requirements specified in paragraph (1) of subdivision (b).

(b) (1) Pretrial diversion may be granted pursuant to this section if all of the following criteria are met:

(A) The court is satisfied that the defendant suffers from a mental disorder as identified in the most recent edition of the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, including, but not limited to, bipolar disorder, schizophrenia, schizoaffective disorder, or post-traumatic stress disorder, but excluding antisocial personality disorder, borderline personality disorder, and pedophilia. Evidence of the defendant’s mental disorder shall be provided by the defense and shall include a recent diagnosis by a qualified mental health expert. In opining that a defendant suffers from a qualifying disorder, the qualified mental health expert may rely on an examination of the defendant, the defendant’s medical records, arrest reports, or any other relevant evidence.

(B) The court is satisfied that the defendant’s mental disorder was a significant factor in the commission of the charged offense. A court may conclude that a defendant’s mental disorder was a significant factor in the commission of the charged offense if, after reviewing any relevant and credible evidence, including, but not limited to, police reports, preliminary hearing transcripts, witness statements, statements by the defendant’s mental health treatment provider, medical records, records or reports by qualified medical experts, or evidence that the defendant displayed symptoms consistent with the relevant mental disorder at or near the time of the offense, the court concludes that the defendant’s mental disorder substantially contributed to the defendant’s involvement in the commission of the offense.

(C) In the opinion of a qualified mental health expert, the defendant’s symptoms of the mental disorder motivating the criminal behavior would respond to mental health treatment.

(D) The defendant consents to diversion and waives the defendant’s right to a speedy trial, unless a defendant has been found to be an appropriate candidate for diversion in lieu of commitment pursuant to clause (iv) of subparagraph (B) of paragraph (1) of subdivision (a) of Section 1370 and, as a result of the defendant’s mental incompetence, cannot consent to diversion or give a knowing and intelligent waiver of the defendant’s right to a speedy trial.

(E) The defendant agrees to comply with treatment as a condition of diversion.

(F) The court is satisfied that the defendant will not pose an unreasonable risk of danger to public safety, as defined in Section 1170.18, if treated in the community. The court may consider the opinions of the district attorney, the defense, or a qualified mental health expert, and may consider the defendant’s violence and criminal history, the current charged offense, and any other factors that the court deems appropriate.

(2) A defendant may not be placed into a diversion program, pursuant to this section, for the following current charged offenses:

(A) Murder or voluntary manslaughter.

(B) An offense for which a person, if convicted, would be required to register pursuant to Section 290, except for a violation of Section 314.

(C) Rape.

(D) Lewd or lascivious act on a child under 14 years of age.

(E) Assault with intent to commit rape, sodomy, or oral copulation, in violation of Section 220.

(F) Commission of rape or sexual penetration in concert with another person, in violation of Section 264.1.

(G) Continuous sexual abuse of a child, in violation of Section 288.5.

(H) A violation of subdivision (b) or (c) of Section 11418.

(3) At any stage of the proceedings, the court may require the defendant to make a prima facie showing that the defendant will meet the minimum requirements of eligibility for diversion and that the defendant and the offense are suitable for diversion. The hearing on the prima facie showing shall be informal and may proceed on offers of proof, reliable hearsay, and argument of counsel. If a prima facie showing is not made, the court may summarily deny the request for diversion or grant any other relief as may be deemed appropriate.

(c) As used in this chapter, “pretrial diversion” means the postponement of prosecution, either temporarily or permanently, at any point in the judicial process from the point at which the accused is charged until adjudication, to allow the defendant to undergo mental health treatment, subject to all of the following:

(1) (A) The court is satisfied that the recommended inpatient or outpatient program of mental health treatment will meet the specialized mental health treatment needs of the defendant.

(B) The defendant may be referred to a program of mental health treatment utilizing existing inpatient or outpatient mental health resources. Before approving a proposed treatment program, the court shall consider the request of the defense, the request of the prosecution, the needs of the defendant, and the interests of the community. The treatment may be procured using private or public funds, and a referral may be made to a county mental health agency, existing collaborative courts, or assisted outpatient treatment only if that entity has agreed to accept responsibility for the treatment of the defendant, and mental health services are provided only to the extent that resources are available and the defendant is eligible for those services.

(2) The provider of the mental health treatment program in which the defendant has been placed shall provide regular reports to the court, the defense, and the prosecutor on the defendant’s progress in treatment.

(3) The period during which criminal proceedings against the defendant may be diverted shall be no longer than two years.

(4) Upon request, the court shall conduct a hearing to determine whether restitution, as defined in subdivision (f) of Section 1202.4, is owed to any victim as a result of the diverted offense and, if owed, order its payment during the period of diversion. However, a defendant’s inability to pay restitution due to indigence or mental disorder shall not be grounds for denial of diversion or a finding that the defendant has failed to comply with the terms of diversion.

(d) If any of the following circumstances exists, the court shall, after notice to the defendant, defense counsel, and the prosecution, hold a hearing to determine whether the criminal proceedings should be reinstated, whether the treatment should be modified, or whether the defendant should be conserved and referred to the conservatorship investigator of the county of commitment to initiate conservatorship proceedings for the defendant pursuant to Chapter 3 (commencing with Section 5350) of Part 1 of Division 5 of the Welfare and Institutions Code:

(1) The defendant is charged with an additional misdemeanor allegedly committed during the pretrial diversion and that reflects the defendant’s propensity for violence.

(2) The defendant is charged with an additional felony allegedly committed during the pretrial diversion.

(3) The defendant is engaged in criminal conduct rendering the defendant unsuitable for diversion.

(4) Based on the opinion of a qualified mental health expert whom the court may deem appropriate, either of the following circumstances exists:

(A) The defendant is performing unsatisfactorily in the assigned program.

(B) The defendant is gravely disabled, as defined in subparagraph (B) of paragraph (1) of subdivision (h) of Section 5008 of the Welfare and Institutions Code. A defendant shall only be conserved and referred to the conservatorship investigator pursuant to this finding.

(e) If the defendant has performed satisfactorily in diversion, at the end of the period of diversion, the court shall dismiss the defendant’s criminal charges that were the subject of the criminal proceedings at the time of the initial diversion. A court may conclude that the defendant has performed satisfactorily if the defendant has substantially complied with the requirements of diversion, has avoided significant new violations of law unrelated to the defendant’s mental health condition, and has a plan in place for long-term mental health care. If the court dismisses the charges, the clerk of the court shall file a record with the Department of Justice indicating the disposition of the case diverted pursuant to this section. Upon successful completion of diversion, if the court dismisses the charges, the arrest upon which the diversion was based shall be deemed never to have occurred, and the court shall order access to the record of the arrest restricted in accordance with Section 1001.9, except as specified in subdivisions (g) and (h). The defendant who successfully completes diversion may indicate in response to any question concerning the defendant’s prior criminal record that the defendant was not arrested or diverted for the offense, except as specified in subdivision (g).

(f) A record pertaining to an arrest resulting in successful completion of diversion, or any record generated as a result of the defendant’s application for or participation in diversion, shall not, without the defendant’s consent, be used in any way that could result in the denial of any employment, benefit, license, or certificate.

(g) The defendant shall be advised that, regardless of the defendant’s completion of diversion, both of the following apply:

(1) The arrest upon which the diversion was based may be disclosed by the Department of Justice to any peace officer application request and that, notwithstanding subdivision (f), this section does not relieve the defendant of the obligation to disclose the arrest in response to any direct question contained in any questionnaire or application for a position as a peace officer, as defined in Section 830.

(2) An order to seal records pertaining to an arrest made pursuant to this section has no effect on a criminal justice agency’s ability to access and use those sealed records and information regarding sealed arrests, as described in Section 851.92.

(h) A finding that the defendant suffers from a mental disorder, any progress reports concerning the defendant’s treatment, or any other records related to a mental disorder that were created as a result of participation in, or completion of, diversion pursuant to this section or for use at a hearing on the defendant’s eligibility for diversion under this section may not be used in any other proceeding without the defendant’s consent, unless that information is relevant evidence that is admissible under the standards described in paragraph (2) of subdivision (f) of Section 28 of Article I of the California Constitution. However, when determining whether to exercise its discretion to grant diversion under this section, a court may consider previous records of participation in diversion under this section.

(i) The county agency administering the diversion, the defendant’s mental health treatment providers, the public guardian or conservator, and the court shall, to the extent not prohibited by federal law, have access to the defendant’s medical and psychological records, including progress reports, during the defendant’s time in diversion, as needed, for the purpose of providing care and treatment and monitoring treatment for diversion or conservatorship.

1170.12.

 Aggregate and consecutive terms for multiple convictions; prior conviction as prior felony; commitment and other enhancements or punishment.

(a) Notwithstanding any other law, if a defendant has been convicted of a felony and it has been pled and proved that the defendant has one or more prior serious or violent felony convictions, as defined in subdivision (b), the court shall adhere to each of the following:

(1) There shall not be an aggregate term limitation for purposes of consecutive sentencing for any subsequent felony conviction.

(2) Probation for the current offense shall not be granted, nor shall execution or imposition of the sentence be suspended for any prior offense.

(3) The length of time between the prior serious or violent felony conviction and the current felony conviction shall not affect the imposition of sentence.

(4) There shall not be a commitment to any other facility other than the state prison. Diversion shall not be granted nor shall the defendant be eligible for commitment to the California Rehabilitation Center as provided in Article 2 (commencing with Section 3050) of Chapter 1 of Division 3 of the Welfare and Institutions Code.

(5) The total amount of credits awarded pursuant to Article 2.5 (commencing with Section 2930) of Chapter 7 of Title 1 of Part 3 shall not exceed one-fifth of the total term of imprisonment imposed and shall not accrue until the defendant is physically placed in the state prison.

(6) If there is a current conviction for more than one felony count not committed on the same occasion, and not arising from the same set of operative facts, the court shall sentence the defendant consecutively on each count pursuant to this section.

(7) If there is a current conviction for more than one serious or violent felony as described in subdivision (b), the court shall impose the sentence for each conviction consecutive to the sentence for any other conviction for which the defendant may be consecutively sentenced in the manner prescribed by law.

(b) Notwithstanding any other law and for the purposes of this section, a prior serious or violent conviction of a felony is defined as:

(1) Any offense defined in subdivision (c) of Section 667.5 as a violent felony or any offense defined in subdivision (c) of Section 1192.7 as a serious felony in this state. The determination of whether a prior conviction is a prior serious and/or violent felony conviction for purposes of this section shall be made upon the date of that prior conviction and is not affected by the sentence imposed unless the sentence automatically, upon the initial sentencing, converts the felony to a misdemeanor. The following dispositions shall not affect the determination that a prior serious or violent conviction is a serious or violent felony for purposes of this section:

(A) The suspension of imposition of judgment or sentence.

(B) The stay of execution of sentence.

(C) The commitment to the State Department of Health Services as a mentally disordered sex offender following a conviction of a felony.

(D) The commitment to the California Rehabilitation Center or any other facility whose function is rehabilitative diversion from the state prison.

(2) A prior conviction in another jurisdiction for an offense that, if committed in California, is punishable by imprisonment in the state prison constitutes a prior conviction of a particular serious or violent felony if the prior conviction in the other jurisdiction is for an offense that includes all of the elements of the particular violent felony as defined in subdivision (c) of Section 667.5 or serious felony as defined in subdivision (c) of Section 1192.7.

(3) A prior juvenile adjudication constitutes a prior serious or violent felony conviction for the purposes of sentence enhancement if:

(A) The juvenile was 16 years of age or older at the time the juvenile committed the prior offense, and

(B) The prior offense is

(i) listed in subdivision (b) of Section 707 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, or

(ii) listed in this subdivision as a serious or violent felony, and

(C) The juvenile was found to be a fit and proper subject to be dealt with under the juvenile court law, and

(D) The juvenile was adjudged a ward of the juvenile court within the meaning of Section 602 of the Welfare and Institutions Code because the person committed an offense listed in subdivision (b) of Section 707 of the Welfare and Institutions Code.

(c) For purposes of this section, and in addition to any other enhancements or punishment provisions which may apply, the following apply if a defendant has one or more prior serious or violent felony convictions:

(1) If a defendant has one prior serious or violent felony conviction as defined in subdivision (b) that has been pled and proved, the determinate term or minimum term for an indeterminate term shall be twice the term otherwise provided as punishment for the current felony conviction.

(2) (A) Except as provided in subparagraph (C), if a defendant has two or more prior serious or violent felony convictions, as defined in subdivision (b), that have been pled and proved, the term for the current felony conviction shall be an indeterminate term of life imprisonment with a minimum term of the indeterminate sentence calculated as the greatest of:

(i) three times the term otherwise provided as punishment for each current felony conviction subsequent to the two or more prior serious or violent felony convictions, or

(ii) twenty-five years or

(iii) the term determined by the court pursuant to Section 1170 for the underlying conviction, including any enhancement applicable under Chapter 4.5 (commencing with Section 1170) of Title 7 of Part 2, or any period prescribed by Section 190 or 3046.

(B) The indeterminate term described in subparagraph (A) of paragraph (2) of this subdivision shall be served consecutive to any other term of imprisonment for which a consecutive term may be imposed by law. Any other term imposed subsequent to any indeterminate term described in subparagraph (A) of paragraph (2) of this subdivision shall not be merged therein but shall commence at the time the person would otherwise have been released from prison.

(C) If a defendant has two or more prior serious or violent felony convictions as defined in subdivision (c) of Section 667.5 or subdivision (c) of Section 1192.7 that have been pled and proved, and the current offense is not a felony described in paragraph (1) of subdivision (b) of this section, the defendant shall be sentenced pursuant to paragraph (1) of subdivision (c) of this section, unless the prosecution pleads and proves any of the following:

(i) The current offense is a controlled substance charge, in which an allegation under Section 11370.4 or 11379.8 of the Health and Safety Code was admitted or found true.

(ii) The current offense is a felony sex offense, defined in subdivision (d) of Section 261.5 or Section 262, or any felony offense that results in mandatory registration as a sex offender pursuant to subdivision (c) of Section 290 except for violations of Sections 266 and 285, paragraph (1) of subdivision (b) and subdivision (e) of Section 286, paragraph (1) of subdivision (b) and subdivision (e) of Section 287, Section 314, and Section 311.11.

(iii) During the commission of the current offense, the defendant used a firearm, was armed with a firearm or deadly weapon, or intended to cause great bodily injury to another person.

(iv) The defendant suffered a prior conviction, as defined in subdivision (b) of this section, for any of the following serious or violent felonies:

(I) A “sexually violent offense” as defined by subdivision (b) of Section 6600 of the Welfare and Institutions Code.

(II) Oral copulation with a child who is under 14 years of age, and who is more than 10 years younger than the defendant as defined by Section 287 or former Section 288a, sodomy with another person who is under 14 years of age and more than 10 years younger than the defendant as defined by Section 286 or sexual penetration with another person who is under 14 years of age, and who is more than 10 years younger than the defendant, as defined by Section 289.

(III) A lewd or lascivious act involving a child under 14 years of age, in violation of Section 288.

(IV) Any homicide offense, including any attempted homicide offense, defined in Sections 187 to 191.5, inclusive.

(V) Solicitation to commit murder as defined in Section 653f.

(VI) Assault with a machinegun on a peace officer or firefighter, as defined in paragraph (3) of subdivision (d) of Section 245.

(VII) Possession of a weapon of mass destruction, as defined in paragraph (1) of subdivision (a) of Section 11418.

(VIII) Any serious or violent felony offense punishable in California by life imprisonment or death.

(d) (1) Notwithstanding any other law, this section shall be applied in every case in which a defendant has one or more prior serious and/or violent felony convictions as defined in this section. The prosecuting attorney shall plead and prove each prior serious or violent felony conviction except as provided in paragraph (2).

(2) The prosecuting attorney may move to dismiss or strike a prior serious or violent felony conviction allegation in the furtherance of justice pursuant to Section 1385, or if there is insufficient evidence to prove the prior serious or violent conviction. If upon the satisfaction of the court that there is insufficient evidence to prove the prior serious or violent felony conviction, the court may dismiss or strike the allegation. This section shall not be read to alter a court’s authority under Section 1385.

(e) Prior serious or violent felony convictions shall not be used in plea bargaining, as defined in subdivision (b) of Section 1192.7. The prosecution shall plead and prove all known prior serious or violent felony convictions and shall not enter into any agreement to strike or seek the dismissal of any prior serious or violent felony conviction allegation except as provided in paragraph (2) of subdivision (d).

(f) If any provision of subdivisions (a) to (e), inclusive, or of Section 1170.126, or the application thereof to any person or circumstance is held invalid, that invalidity does not affect other provisions or applications of those subdivisions which can be given effect without the invalid provision or application, and to this end the provisions of those subdivisions are severable.

(g) The provisions of this section shall not be amended by the Legislature except by statute passed in each house by rollcall vote entered in the journal, two-thirds of the membership concurring, or by a statute that becomes effective only when approved by the electors.

1170.9.

 (a) In the case of any person convicted of a criminal offense who could otherwise be sentenced to county jail or state prison and who alleges that the person committed the offense as a result of sexual trauma, traumatic brain injury, post-traumatic stress disorder, substance abuse, or mental health problems stemming from service in the United States military, the court shall, prior to sentencing, make a determination as to whether the defendant was, or currently is, a member of the United States military and whether the defendant may be suffering from sexual trauma, traumatic brain injury, post-traumatic stress disorder, substance abuse, or mental health problems as a result of the person’s service. The court may request, through existing resources, an assessment to aid in that determination.

(b) (1) If the court concludes that a defendant convicted of a criminal offense is a person described in subdivision (a), and if the defendant is otherwise eligible for probation, the court shall consider the circumstances described in subdivision (a) as a factor in favor of granting probation.

(2) If the court places the defendant on probation, the court may order the defendant into a local, state, federal, or private nonprofit treatment program for a period not to exceed that period which the defendant would have served in state prison or county jail, provided the defendant agrees to participate in the program and the court determines that an appropriate treatment program exists.

(c) If a referral is made to the county mental health authority, the county shall be obligated to provide mental health treatment services only to the extent that resources are available for that purpose, as described in paragraph (5) of subdivision (b) of Section 5600.3 of the Welfare and Institutions Code. If mental health treatment services are ordered by the court, the county mental health agency shall coordinate appropriate referral of the defendant to the county veterans service officer, as described in paragraph (5) of subdivision (b) of Section 5600.3 of the Welfare and Institutions Code. The county mental health agency shall not be responsible for providing services outside its traditional scope of services. An order shall be made referring a defendant to a county mental health agency only if that agency has agreed to accept responsibility for the treatment of the defendant.

(d) When determining the “needs of the defendant,” for purposes of Section 1202.7, the court shall consider the fact that the defendant is a person described in subdivision (a) in assessing whether the defendant should be placed on probation and ordered into a federal or community-based treatment service program with a demonstrated history of specializing in the treatment of mental health problems, including substance abuse, post-traumatic stress disorder, traumatic brain injury, military sexual trauma, and other related mental health problems.

(e) A defendant granted probation under this section and committed to a residential treatment program shall earn sentence credits for the actual time the defendant serves in residential treatment.

(f) The court, in making an order under this section to commit a defendant to an established treatment program, shall give preference to a treatment program that has a history of successfully treating veterans who suffer from sexual trauma, traumatic brain injury, post-traumatic stress disorder, substance abuse, or mental health problems as a result of that service, including, but not limited to, programs operated by the United States Department of Defense or the United States Department of Veterans Affairs.

(g) The court and the assigned treatment program may collaborate with the Department of Veterans Affairs and the United States Department of Veterans Affairs to maximize benefits and services provided to the veteran.

(h) (1) It is in the interests of justice to restore a defendant who acquired a criminal record due to a mental health disorder stemming from service in the United States military to the community of law abiding citizens. The restorative provisions of this subdivision apply to cases in which a trial court or a court monitoring the defendant’s performance of probation pursuant to this section finds at a public hearing, held after not less than 15 days’ notice to the prosecution, the defense, and any victim of the offense, that all of the following describe the defendant:

(A) The defendant was granted probation and was at the time that probation was granted a person described in subdivision (a).

(B) The defendant is in substantial compliance with the conditions of that probation.

(C) The defendant has successfully participated in court-ordered treatment and services to address the sexual trauma, traumatic brain injury, post-traumatic stress disorder, substance abuse, or mental health problems stemming from military service.

(D) The defendant does not represent a danger to the health and safety of others.

(E) The defendant has demonstrated significant benefit from court-ordered education, treatment, or rehabilitation to clearly show that granting restorative relief pursuant to this subdivision would be in the interests of justice.

(2) When determining whether granting restorative relief pursuant to this subdivision is in the interests of justice, the court may consider, among other factors, all of the following:

(A) The defendant’s completion and degree of participation in education, treatment, and rehabilitation as ordered by the court.

(B) The defendant’s progress in formal education.

(C) The defendant’s development of career potential.

(D) The defendant’s leadership and personal responsibility efforts.

(E) The defendant’s contribution of service in support of the community.

(3) If the court finds that a case satisfies each of the requirements described in paragraph (1), then the court may take any of the following actions by a written order setting forth the reasons for so doing:

(A) Deem all conditions of probation to be satisfied, including fines, fees, assessments, and programs, and terminate probation prior to the expiration of the term of probation. This subparagraph does not apply to any court-ordered victim restitution.

(B) Reduce an eligible felony to a misdemeanor pursuant to subdivision (b) of Section 17.

(C) Grant relief in accordance with Section 1203.4.

(4) Notwithstanding anything to the contrary in Section 1203.4, a dismissal of the action pursuant to this subdivision has the following effect:

(A) Except as otherwise provided in this paragraph, a dismissal of the action pursuant to this subdivision releases the defendant from all penalties and disabilities resulting from the offense of which the defendant has been convicted in the dismissed action.

(B) A dismissal pursuant to this subdivision does not apply to any of the following:

(i) A conviction pursuant to subdivision (c) of Section 42002.1 of the Vehicle Code.

(ii) A felony conviction pursuant to subdivision (d) of Section 261.5.

(iii) A conviction pursuant to subdivision (c) of Section 286.

(iv) A conviction pursuant to Section 288.

(v) A conviction pursuant to subdivision (c) of Section 287 or former Section 288a.

(vi) A conviction pursuant to Section 288.5.

(vii) A conviction pursuant to subdivision (j) of Section 289.

(viii) The requirement to register pursuant to Section 290.

(C) The defendant is not obligated to disclose the arrest on the dismissed action, the dismissed action, or the conviction that was set aside when information concerning prior arrests or convictions is requested to be given under oath, affirmation, or otherwise. The defendant may indicate that the defendant has not been arrested when the defendant’s only arrest concerns the dismissed action, except when the defendant is required to disclose the arrest, the conviction that was set aside, and the dismissed action in response to any direct question contained in any questionnaire or application for any law enforcement position.

(D) A dismissal pursuant to this subdivision may, in the discretion of the court, order the sealing of police records of the arrest and court records of the dismissed action, thereafter viewable by the public only in accordance with a court order.

(E) The dismissal of the action pursuant to this subdivision is a bar to any future action based on the conduct charged in the dismissed action.

(F) In any subsequent prosecution for any other offense, a conviction that was set aside in the dismissed action may be pleaded and proved as a prior conviction and has the same effect as if the dismissal pursuant to this subdivision had not been granted.

(G) A conviction that was set aside in the dismissed action may be considered a conviction for the purpose of administratively revoking or suspending or otherwise limiting the defendant’s driving privilege on the ground of two or more convictions.

(H) The defendant’s DNA sample and profile in the DNA data bank shall not be removed by a dismissal pursuant to this subdivision.

(I) Dismissal of an accusation, information, or conviction pursuant to this section does not authorize a defendant to own, possess, or have in the defendant’s custody or control any firearm or prevent the defendant’s conviction pursuant to Chapter 2 (commencing with Section 29800) of Division 9 of Title 4 of Part 6.

3003.

 (a) Except as otherwise provided in this section, an inmate who is released on parole or postrelease community supervision as provided by Title 2.05 (commencing with Section 3450) shall be returned to the county that was the last legal residence of the inmate prior to the inmate’s incarceration. An inmate who is released on parole or postrelease community supervision as provided by Title 2.05 (commencing with Section 3450) and who was committed to prison for a sex offense for which registration is required pursuant to Section 290, shall, through all efforts reasonably possible, be returned to the city that was the last legal residence of the inmate prior to incarceration or a close geographic location in which the inmate has family, social ties, or economic ties and access to reentry services, unless return to that location would violate any other law or pose a risk to the inmate’s victim. For purposes of this subdivision, “last legal residence” shall not be construed to mean the county or city wherein the inmate committed an offense while confined in a state prison or local jail facility or while confined for treatment in a state hospital.

(b) Notwithstanding subdivision (a), an inmate may be returned to another county or city if that would be in the best interests of the public. If the Board of Parole Hearings setting the conditions of parole for inmates sentenced pursuant to subdivision (b) of Section 1168, as determined by the parole consideration panel, or the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation setting the conditions of parole for inmates sentenced pursuant to Section 1170, decides on a return to another county or city, it shall place its reasons in writing in the parolee’s permanent record and include these reasons in the notice to the sheriff or chief of police pursuant to Section 3058.6. In making its decision, the paroling authority shall consider, among others, the following factors, giving the greatest weight to the protection of the victim and the safety of the community:

(1) The need to protect the life or safety of a victim, the parolee, a witness, or any other person.

(2) Public concern that would reduce the chance that the inmate’s parole would be successfully completed.

(3) The verified existence of a work offer, or an educational or vocational training program.

(4) The existence of family in another county with whom the inmate has maintained strong ties and whose support would increase the chance that the inmate’s parole would be successfully completed.

(5) The lack of necessary outpatient treatment programs for parolees receiving treatment pursuant to Section 2960.

(c) The Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation, in determining an out-of-county commitment, shall give priority to the safety of the community and any witnesses and victims.

(d) In making its decision about an inmate who participated in a joint venture program pursuant to Article 1.5 (commencing with Section 2717.1) of Chapter 5, the paroling authority shall give serious consideration to releasing the inmate to the county where the joint venture program employer is located if that employer states to the paroling authority that the employer intends to employ the inmate upon release.

(e) (1) The following information, if available, shall be released by the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation to local law enforcement agencies regarding a paroled inmate or inmate placed on postrelease community supervision pursuant to Title 2.05 (commencing with Section 3450) who is released in their jurisdictions:

(A) Last, first, and middle names.

(B) Birth date.

(C) Sex, race, height, weight, and hair and eye color.

(D) Date of parole or placement on postrelease community supervision and discharge.

(E) Registration status, if the inmate is required to register as a result of a controlled substance, sex, or arson offense.

(F) California Criminal Information Number, FBI number, social security number, and driver’s license number.

(G) County of commitment.

(H) A description of scars, marks, and tattoos on the inmate.

(I) Offense or offenses for which the inmate was convicted that resulted in parole or postrelease community supervision in this instance.

(J) Address, including all of the following information:

(i) Street name and number. Post office box numbers are not acceptable for purposes of this subparagraph.

(ii) City and ZIP Code.

(iii) Date that the address provided pursuant to this subparagraph was proposed to be effective.

(K) Contact officer and unit, including all of the following information:

(i) Name and telephone number of each contact officer.

(ii) Contact unit type of each contact officer such as units responsible for parole, registration, or county probation.

(L) A digitized image of the photograph and at least a single digit fingerprint of the parolee.

(M) A geographic coordinate for the inmate’s residence location for use with a Geographical Information System (GIS) or comparable computer program.

(2) Unless the information is unavailable, the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation shall electronically transmit to the county agency identified in subdivision (a) of Section 3451 the inmate’s tuberculosis status, specific medical, mental health, and outpatient clinic needs, and any medical concerns or disabilities for the county to consider as the offender transitions onto postrelease community supervision pursuant to Section 3450, for the purpose of identifying the medical and mental health needs of the individual. All transmissions to the county agency shall be in compliance with applicable provisions of the federal Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996 (HIPAA) (Public Law 104-191), the federal Health Information Technology for Economic and Clinical Health Act (HITECH) (Public Law 111-005), and the implementing of privacy and security regulations in Parts 160 and 164 of Title 45 of the Code of Federal Regulations. This paragraph shall not take effect until the Secretary of the United States Department of Health and Human Services, or the secretary’s designee, determines that this provision is not preempted by HIPAA.

(3) Except for the information required by paragraph (2), the information required by this subdivision shall come from the statewide parolee database. The information obtained from each source shall be based on the same timeframe.

(4) All of the information required by this subdivision shall be provided utilizing a computer-to-computer transfer in a format usable by a desktop computer system. The transfer of this information shall be continually available to local law enforcement agencies upon request.

(5) The unauthorized release or receipt of the information described in this subdivision is a violation of Section 11143.

(f) Notwithstanding any other law, if the victim or witness has requested additional distance in the placement of the inmate on parole, and if the Board of Parole Hearings or the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation finds that there is a need to protect the life, safety, or well-being of the victim or witness, an inmate who is released on parole shall not be returned to a location within 35 miles of the actual residence of a victim of, or a witness to, any of the following crimes:

(1) A violent felony as defined in paragraphs (1) to (7), inclusive, and paragraphs (11) and (16) of subdivision (c) of Section 667.5.

(2) A felony in which the defendant inflicts great bodily injury on a person, other than an accomplice, that has been charged and proved as provided for in Section 12022.53, 12022.7, or 12022.9.

(3) A violation of paragraph (1), (3), or (4) of subdivision (a) of Section 261, subdivision (f), (g), or (i) of Section 286, subdivision (f), (g), or (i) of Section 287 or of former Section 288a, or subdivision (b), (d), or (e) of Section 289.

(g) Notwithstanding any other law, an inmate who is released on parole for a violation of Section 288 or 288.5 whom the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation determines poses a high risk to the public shall not be placed or reside, for the duration of the inmate’s parole, within one-half mile of a public or private school including any or all of kindergarten and grades 1 to 12, inclusive.

(h) Notwithstanding any other law, an inmate who is released on parole or postrelease community supervision for a stalking offense shall not be returned to a location within 35 miles of the victim’s or witness’ actual residence or place of employment if the victim or witness has requested additional distance in the placement of the inmate on parole or postrelease community supervision, and if the Board of Parole Hearings or the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation, or the supervising county agency, as applicable, finds that there is a need to protect the life, safety, or well-being of the victim. If an inmate who is released on postrelease community supervision cannot be placed in the inmate’s county of last legal residence in compliance with this subdivision, the supervising county agency may transfer the inmate to another county upon approval of the receiving county.

(i) The authority shall give consideration to the equitable distribution of parolees and the proportion of out-of-county commitments from a county compared to the number of commitments from that county when making parole decisions.

(j) An inmate may be paroled to another state pursuant to any other law. The Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation shall coordinate with local entities regarding the placement of inmates placed out of state on postrelease community supervision pursuant to Title 2.05 (commencing with Section 3450).

(k) (1) Except as provided in paragraph (2), the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation shall be the agency primarily responsible for, and shall have control over, the program, resources, and staff implementing the Law Enforcement Automated Data System (LEADS) in conformance with subdivision (e). County agencies supervising inmates released to postrelease community supervision pursuant to Title 2.05 (commencing with Section 3450) shall provide any information requested by the department to ensure the availability of accurate information regarding inmates released from state prison. This information may include the issuance of warrants, revocations, or the termination of postrelease community supervision. On or before August 1, 2011, county agencies designated to supervise inmates released to postrelease community supervision shall notify the department that the county agencies have been designated as the local entity responsible for providing that supervision.

(2) Notwithstanding paragraph (1), the Department of Justice shall be the agency primarily responsible for the proper release of information under LEADS that relates to fingerprint cards.

(l) In addition to the requirements under subdivision (k), the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation shall submit to the Department of Justice data to be included in the supervised release file of the California Law Enforcement Telecommunications System (CLETS) so that law enforcement can be advised through CLETS of all persons on postrelease community supervision and the county agency designated to provide supervision. The data required by this subdivision shall be provided via electronic transfer.

11160.

 (a) A health practitioner, as defined in subdivision (a) of Section 11162.5, employed by a health facility, clinic, physician’s office, local or state public health department, local government agency, or a clinic or other type of facility operated by a local or state public health department who, in the health practitioner’s professional capacity or within the scope of the health practitioner’s employment, provides medical services for a physical condition to a patient whom the health practitioner knows or reasonably suspects is a person described as follows, shall immediately make a report in accordance with subdivision (b):

(1) A person suffering from any wound or other physical injury inflicted by the person’s own act or inflicted by another where the injury is by means of a firearm.

(2) A person suffering from any wound or other physical injury inflicted upon the person where the injury is the result of assaultive or abusive conduct.

(b) A health practitioner, as defined in subdivision (a) of Section 11162.5, employed by a health facility, clinic, physician’s office, local or state public health department, local government agency, or a clinic or other type of facility operated by a local or state public health department shall make a report regarding persons described in subdivision (a) to a local law enforcement agency as follows:

(1) A report by telephone shall be made immediately or as soon as practically possible.

(2) A written report shall be prepared on the standard form developed in compliance with paragraph (4) of this subdivision, and adopted by the Office of Emergency Services, or on a form developed and adopted by another state agency that otherwise fulfills the requirements of the standard form. The completed form shall be sent to a local law enforcement agency within two working days of receiving the information regarding the person.

(3) A local law enforcement agency shall be notified and a written report shall be prepared and sent pursuant to paragraphs (1) and (2) even if the person who suffered the wound, other injury, or assaultive or abusive conduct has expired, regardless of whether or not the wound, other injury, or assaultive or abusive conduct was a factor contributing to the death, and even if the evidence of the conduct of the perpetrator of the wound, other injury, or assaultive or abusive conduct was discovered during an autopsy.

(4) The report shall include, but shall not be limited to, the following:

(A) The name of the injured person, if known.

(B) The injured person’s whereabouts.

(C) The character and extent of the person’s injuries.

(D) The identity of any person the injured person alleges inflicted the wound, other injury, or assaultive or abusive conduct upon the injured person.

(c) For the purposes of this section, “injury” does not include any psychological or physical condition brought about solely through the voluntary administration of a narcotic or restricted dangerous drug.

(d) For the purposes of this section, “assaultive or abusive conduct” includes any of the following offenses:

(1) Murder, in violation of Section 187.

(2) Manslaughter, in violation of Section 192 or 192.5.

(3) Mayhem, in violation of Section 203.

(4) Aggravated mayhem, in violation of Section 205.

(5) Torture, in violation of Section 206.

(6) Assault with intent to commit mayhem, rape, sodomy, or oral copulation, in violation of Section 220.

(7) Administering controlled substances or anesthetic to aid in commission of a felony, in violation of Section 222.

(8) Battery, in violation of Section 242.

(9) Sexual battery, in violation of Section 243.4.

(10) Incest, in violation of Section 285.

(11) Throwing any vitriol, corrosive acid, or caustic chemical with intent to injure or disfigure, in violation of Section 244.

(12) Assault with a stun gun or taser, in violation of Section 244.5.

(13) Assault with a deadly weapon, firearm, assault weapon, or machinegun, or by means likely to produce great bodily injury, in violation of Section 245.

(14) Rape, in violation of Section 261.

(15) Spousal rape, in violation of Section 262.

(16) Procuring any female to have sex with another man, in violation of Section 266, 266a, 266b, or 266c.

(17) Child abuse or endangerment, in violation of Section 273a or 273d.

(18) Abuse of spouse or cohabitant, in violation of Section 273.5.

(19) Sodomy, in violation of Section 286.

(20) Lewd and lascivious acts with a child, in violation of Section 288.

(21) Oral copulation, in violation of Section 287 or former Section 288a.

(22) Sexual penetration, in violation of Section 289.

(23) Elder abuse, in violation of Section 368.

(24) An attempt to commit any crime specified in paragraphs (1) to (23), inclusive.

(e) When two or more persons who are required to report are present and jointly have knowledge of a known or suspected instance of violence that is required to be reported pursuant to this section, and when there is an agreement among these persons to report as a team, the team may select by mutual agreement a member of the team to make a report by telephone and a single written report, as required by subdivision (b). The written report shall be signed by the selected member of the reporting team. Any member who has knowledge that the member designated to report has failed to do so shall thereafter make the report.

(f) The reporting duties under this section are individual, except as provided in subdivision (e).

(g) A supervisor or administrator shall not impede or inhibit the reporting duties required under this section and a person making a report pursuant to this section shall not be subject to any sanction for making the report. However, internal procedures to facilitate reporting and apprise supervisors and administrators of reports may be established, except that these procedures shall not be inconsistent with this article. The internal procedures shall not require any employee required to make a report under this article to disclose the employee’s identity to the employer.

(h) For the purposes of this section, it is the Legislature’s intent to avoid duplication of information.

(i) For purposes of this section only, “employed by a local government agency” includes an employee of an entity under contract with a local government agency to provide medical services.

13519.

 (a) The commission shall implement by January 1, 1986, a course or courses of instruction for the training of law enforcement officers in California in the handling of domestic violence complaints and also shall develop guidelines for law enforcement response to domestic violence. The course or courses of instruction and the guidelines shall stress enforcement of criminal laws in domestic violence situations, availability of civil remedies and community resources, and protection of the victim. When appropriate, the training presenters shall include domestic violence experts with expertise in the delivery of direct services to victims of domestic violence, including utilizing the staff of shelters for battered women in the presentation of training.

(b) As used in this section, “law enforcement officer” means any officer or employee of a local police department or sheriff’s office, any peace officer of the Department of Parks and Recreation, as defined in subdivision (f) of Section 830.2, any peace officer of the University of California Police Department, as defined in subdivision (b) of Section 830.2, any peace officer of the California State University Police Departments, as defined in subdivision (c) of Section 830.2, a peace officer, as defined in subdivision (d) of Section 830.31, or a peace officer as defined in subdivisions (a) and (b) of Section 830.32.

(c) The course of basic training for law enforcement officers shall include adequate instruction in the procedures and techniques described below:

(1) The provisions set forth in Title 5 (commencing with Section 13700) relating to response, enforcement of court orders, and data collection.

(2) The legal duties imposed on peace officers to make arrests and offer protection and assistance including guidelines for making felony and misdemeanor arrests.

(3) Techniques for handling incidents of domestic violence that minimize the likelihood of injury to the officer and that promote the safety of the victim.

(4) The nature and extent of domestic violence.

(5) The signs of domestic violence.

(6) The assessment of lethality or signs of lethal violence in domestic violence situations.

(7) The legal rights of, and remedies available to, victims of domestic violence.

(8) The use of an arrest by a private person in a domestic violence situation.

(9) Documentation, report writing, and evidence collection.

(10) Domestic violence diversion as provided in Chapter 2.6 (commencing with Section 1000.6) of Title 6 of Part 2.

(11) Tenancy issues and domestic violence.

(12) The impact on children of law enforcement intervention in domestic violence.

(13) The services and facilities available to victims and batterers.

(14) The use and applications of this code in domestic violence situations.

(15) Verification and enforcement of temporary restraining orders when (A) the suspect is present and (B) the suspect has fled.

(16) Verification and enforcement of stay-away orders.

(17) Cite and release policies.

(18) Emergency assistance to victims and how to assist victims in pursuing criminal justice options.

(d) The guidelines developed by the commission shall also incorporate the foregoing factors.

(e) (1) All law enforcement officers who have received their basic training before January 1, 1986, shall participate in supplementary training on domestic violence subjects, as prescribed and certified by the commission.

(2) Except as provided in paragraph (3), the training specified in paragraph (1) shall be completed no later than January 1, 1989.

(3) (A) The training for peace officers of the Department of Parks and Recreation, as defined in subdivision (g) of Section 830.2, shall be completed no later than January 1, 1992.

(B) The training for peace officers of the University of California Police Department and the California State University Police Departments, as defined in Section 830.2, shall be completed no later than January 1, 1993.

(C) The training for peace officers employed by a housing authority, as defined in subdivision (d) of Section 830.31, shall be completed no later than January 1, 1995.

(4) Local law enforcement agencies are encouraged to include, as a part of their advanced officer training program, periodic updates and training on domestic violence. The commission shall assist where possible.

(f) (1) The course of instruction, the learning and performance objectives, the standards for the training, and the guidelines shall be developed by the commission in consultation with appropriate groups and individuals having an interest and expertise in the field of domestic violence. The groups and individuals shall include, but shall not be limited to, the following: one representative each from the California Peace Officers’ Association, the Peace Officers Research Association of California, the State Bar of California, California Women Lawyers, and the State Commission on the Status of Women and Girls; two representatives from the commission; two representatives from the California Partnership to End Domestic Violence; two peace officers, recommended by the commission, who are experienced in the provision of domestic violence training; and two domestic violence experts, recommended by the California Partnership to End Domestic Violence, who are experienced in the provision of direct services to victims of domestic violence and at least one representative of service providers serving the lesbian, gay, bisexual, and transgender community in connection with domestic violence. At least one of the persons selected shall be a former victim of domestic violence.

(2) The commission, in consultation with these groups and individuals, shall review existing training programs to determine in what ways domestic violence training might be included as a part of ongoing programs.

(g) Each law enforcement officer below the rank of supervisor who is assigned to patrol duties and would normally respond to domestic violence calls or incidents of domestic violence shall complete, every two years, an updated course of instruction on domestic violence that is developed according to the standards and guidelines developed pursuant to subdivision (d). The instruction required pursuant to this subdivision shall be funded from existing resources available for the training required pursuant to this section. It is the intent of the Legislature not to increase the annual training costs of local government entities.

13837.

 (a) The California Office of Emergency Services (Cal OES) shall provide grants to proposed and existing child sexual exploitation and child sexual abuse victim counseling centers and prevention programs, including programs for minor victims of human trafficking. Grant recipients shall provide appropriate in-person counseling and referral services during normal business hours, and maintain other standards or services which shall be determined to be appropriate by the advisory committee established pursuant to Section 13836 as grant conditions. The advisory committee shall identify the criteria to be utilized in awarding the grants provided by this chapter before any funds are allocated.

In order to be eligible for funding pursuant to this chapter, the centers shall demonstrate an ability to receive and make use of any funds available from governmental, voluntary, philanthropic, or other sources which may be used to augment any state funds appropriated for purposes of this chapter. Each center receiving funds pursuant to this chapter shall make every attempt to qualify for any available federal funding.

State funds provided to establish centers shall be utilized when possible, as determined by the advisory committee, to expand the program and shall not be expended to reduce fiscal support from other public or private sources. The centers shall maintain quarterly and final fiscal reports in a form to be prescribed by the administering agency. In granting funds, the advisory committee shall give priority to centers which are operated in close proximity to medical treatment facilities.

(b) (1) It is the intent of the Legislature that a goal or purpose of the Cal OES is to ensure that all victims of sexual assault and rape receive comprehensive, quality services, and to decrease the incidence of sexual assault through school and community education and prevention programs.

(2) The Cal OES and the advisory committee established pursuant to Section 13836 shall collaboratively administer sexual assault/rape crisis center victim services programs and provide grants to proposed and existing sexual assault services programs (SASPs) operating local rape victim centers and prevention programs. All SASPs shall provide the services in subparagraphs (A) to (G), inclusive, and to the extent federal funding is made available, shall also provide the service described in subparagraph (H). The Cal OES shall provide financial and technical assistance to SASPs in implementing the following services:

(A) Crisis intervention, 24 hours per day, seven days per week.

(B) Followup counseling services.

(C) In-person counseling, including group counseling.

(D) Accompaniment services.

(E) Advocacy services.

(F) Information and referrals to victims and the general public.

(G) Community education presentations.

(H) Rape prevention presentations and self-defense programs.

(3) The funding process for distributing grant awards to SASPs shall be administered as follows:

(A) The Cal OES and the advisory committee established pursuant to Section 13836 shall collaboratively adopt each of the following:

(i) The process and standards for determining whether to grant, renew, or deny funding to any SASP applying or reapplying for funding under the terms of the program.

(ii) For SASPs applying for grants under the RFP process described in subparagraph (B), a system for grading grant applications in relation to the standards established pursuant to clause (i), and an appeal process for applications that are denied. A description of this grading system and appeal process shall be provided to all SASPs as part of the application required under the RFP process.

(iii) For SASPs reapplying for funding under the RFA process described in subparagraph (D), a system for grading the performance of SASPs in relation to the standards established pursuant to clause (i), and an appeal process for decisions to deny or reduce funding. A description of this grading system and appeal process shall be provided to all SASPs receiving grants under this program.

(B) Grants for centers that have previously not been funded or were not funded in the previous cycle shall be awarded as a result of a competitive request for proposal (RFP) process. The RFP process shall comply with all applicable state and federal statutes for sexual assault/rape crisis center funding, and to the extent possible, the response to the RFP shall not exceed 25 narrative pages, excluding attachments.

(C) Grants shall be awarded to SASPs that propose to maintain services previously granted funding pursuant to this section, to expand existing services or create new services, or to establish new sexual assault/rape crisis centers in underserved or unserved areas. Each grant shall be awarded for a three-year term.

(D) SASPs reapplying for grants are not subject to a competitive bidding grant process, but are subject to a request for application (RFA) process. The RFA process for a SASP reapplying for grant funds shall consist in part of an assessment of the past performance history of the SASP in relation to the standards established pursuant to subparagraph (A). The RFA process shall comply with all applicable state and federal statutes for sexual assault/rape crisis center funding, and to the extent possible, the response to the RFA shall not exceed 10 narrative pages, excluding attachments.

(E) Any SASP funded through this program in the previous grant cycle shall be funded upon reapplication, unless its past performance history fails to meet the standards established pursuant to clause (i) of subparagraph (A).

(F) The Cal OES shall conduct a minimum of one site visit every three years for each agency funded to provide sexual assault/rape crisis centers. The purpose of the site visit shall be to conduct a performance assessment of, and provide subsequent technical assistance for, each center visited. The performance assessment shall include, but need not be limited to, a review of all of the following:

(i) Progress in meeting program goals and objectives.

(ii) Agency organization and facilities.

(iii) Personnel policies, files, and training.

(iv) Recordkeeping, budgeting, and expenditures.

(v) Documentation, data collection, and client confidentiality.

(G) After each site visit conducted pursuant to subparagraph (F), the Cal OES shall provide a written report to the SASP summarizing the performance of the SASP, any deficiencies noted, any corrective action needed, and a deadline for corrective action to be completed. The Cal OES shall also develop a corrective action plan for verifying the completion of any corrective action required. The Cal OES shall submit its written report to the SASP no more than 60 days after the site visit. A grant under the RFA process shall not be denied if the SASP did not receive a site visit during the previous three years, unless the Cal OES is aware of criminal violations relative to the administration of grant funding.

(H) SASPs receiving written reports of deficiencies or orders for corrective action after a site visit shall be given no less than six months’ time to take corrective action before the deficiencies or failure to correct may be considered in the next RFA process. However, the Cal OES shall have the discretion to reduce the time to take corrective action in cases where the deficiencies present a significant health or safety risk or when other severe circumstances are found to exist. If corrective action is deemed necessary, and a SASP fails to comply, or if other deficiencies exist that, in the judgment of the Cal OES, cannot be corrected, the Cal OES shall determine, using its grading system, whether continued funding for the SASP should be reduced or denied altogether. If a SASP has been determined to be deficient, the Cal OES may, at any point during the SASP’s funding cycle following the expiration of the period for corrective action, deny or reduce any further funding.

(I) If a SASP applies or reapplies for funding pursuant to this section and that funding is denied or reduced, the decision to deny or reduce funding shall be provided in writing to the SASP, along with a written explanation of the reasons for the reduction or denial made in accordance with the grading system for the RFP or RFA process. Except as otherwise provided, any appeal of the decision to deny or reduce funding shall be made in accordance with the appeal process established by the Cal OES. The appeal process shall allow a SASP a minimum of 30 days to appeal after a decision to deny or reduce funding. All pending appeals shall be resolved before final funding decisions are reached.

(J) It is the intent of the Legislature that priority for additional funds that become available be given to currently funded, new, or previously unfunded SASPs for expansion of services. However, the Cal OES may determine when expansion is needed to accommodate underserved or unserved areas. If supplemental funding is unavailable, the Cal OES shall have the authority to lower the base level of grants to all currently funded SASPs in order to provide funding for currently funded, new, or previously unfunded SASPs that will provide services in underserved or unserved areas. However, to the extent reasonable, funding reductions shall be reduced proportionately among all currently funded SASPs. After the amount of funding reductions has been determined, SASPs that are currently funded and those applying for funding shall be notified of changes in the available level of funding prior to the next application process. Funding reductions made under this paragraph shall not be subject to appeal.

(K) Notwithstanding any other provision of this section, the Cal OES may reduce funding to a SASP funded pursuant to this section if federal funding support is reduced. Funding reductions as a result of a reduction in federal funding are not subject to appeal.

(L) This section shall not be construed to supersede any function or duty required by federal acts, rules, regulations, or guidelines for the distribution of federal grants.

(M) As a condition of receiving funding pursuant to this section, a SASP shall do each of the following:

(i) Demonstrate an ability to receive and make use of any funds available from governmental, voluntary, philanthropic, or other sources that may be used to augment any state funds appropriated for purposes of this chapter.

(ii) Make every attempt to qualify for any available federal funding.

(N) For the purposes of this paragraph, “sexual assault” means an act or attempt made punishable by Section 220, 261, 261.5, 262, 264.1, 266c, 285, 286, 287, 288, or 647.6, or former Section 288a.

(O) For the purposes of this paragraph, “sexual assault services program” or “SASP” means an agency operating a sexual assault/rape crisis center.

1304.

 With respect to a trust, the grant or denial of the following orders is appealable:

(a) Any final order under Chapter 3 (commencing with Section 17200) of Part 5 of Division 9, except the following:

(1) Compelling the trustee to submit an account or report acts as trustee.

(2) Accepting the resignation of the trustee.

(b) Any final order under Chapter 2 (commencing with Section 19020) of Part 8 of Division 9.

(c) Any final order under Chapter 1 (commencing with Section 20100) and Chapter 2 (commencing with Section 20200) of Division 10.

(d) Determining whether an action constitutes a contest under former Chapter 2 (commencing with Section 21320) of Part 3 of Division 11, as that chapter read prior to its repeal by Chapter 174 of the Statutes of 2008.

1993.

 (a) A court of this state has jurisdiction to appoint a conservator for a proposed conservatee if this state is the proposed conservatee’s home state.

(b) A court of this state has jurisdiction to appoint a conservator for a proposed conservatee if, on the date the petition is filed, this state is a significant-connection state and the proposed conservatee does not have a home state.

(c) A court of this state has jurisdiction to appoint a conservator for a proposed conservatee if, on the date the petition is filed, this state is a significant-connection state and a court of the proposed conservatee’s home state has expressly declined to exercise jurisdiction because this state is a more appropriate forum.

(d) A court of this state has jurisdiction to appoint a conservator for a proposed conservatee if both of the following conditions are satisfied:

(1) On the date the petition is filed, this state is a significant-connection state, the proposed conservatee has a home state, and a conservatorship petition is not pending in a court of the home state or another significant-connection state.

(2) Before the court makes the appointment, no conservatorship petition is filed in the proposed conservatee’s home state, no objection to the court’s jurisdiction is filed by a person required to be notified of the proceeding, and the court in this state concludes that it is an appropriate forum under the factors set forth in Section 1996.

(e) A court of this state has jurisdiction to appoint a conservator for a proposed conservatee if all of the following conditions are satisfied:

(1) This state does not have jurisdiction under subdivision (a), (b), (c), or (d).

(2) The proposed conservatee’s home state and all significant-connection states have expressly declined to exercise jurisdiction because this state is the more appropriate forum.

(3) Jurisdiction in this state is consistent with the constitutions of this state and the United States.

(f) A court of this state has jurisdiction to appoint a conservator for a proposed conservatee if the requirements for special jurisdiction under Section 1994 are met.

19529.

 This part does not limit a trustee’s ability to petition for instructions or other approval under a trust pursuant to Chapter 3 (commencing with Section 17200) of Part 5 or to petition for modification of a trust pursuant to Chapter 3 (commencing with Section 15400) of Part 2.

6971.

 (a) The Legislature finds and declares that the County of Riverside should be considered a transportation planning agency for the purposes of this chapter in order to effectuate the construction of the railroad grade separations and bridge rehabilitations and replacements specified in subparagraph (C) of paragraph (4) of subdivision (b) using Construction Manager/General Contractor authority. The passage of the Road Repair and Accountability Act of 2017 (Chapter 5 of the Statutes of 2017) provides additional transportation revenue to help close the significant funding shortfalls and address the substantial backlog of infrastructure projects that are in need of repair. The geography, topography, and location of these railroad grade separations and bridge rehabilitations and replacements projects present many potential complex challenges, and the Construction Manager/General Contractor method could reduce delays and ensure that those challenges are fully understood at the outset of construction.

(b) For purposes of this chapter, the following definitions apply:

(1) “Construction manager” means a partnership, corporation, or other legal entity that is able to provide appropriately licensed contracting and engineering services as needed pursuant to a Construction Manager/General Contractor method contract.

(2) “Construction Manager/General Contractor method” means a project delivery method in which a construction manager is procured to provide preconstruction services during the design phase of the project and construction services during the construction phase of the project. The contract for construction services may be entered into at the same time as the contract for preconstruction services, or at a later time. The execution of the design and the construction of the project may be in sequential phases or concurrent phases.

(3) “Preconstruction services” means advice during the design phase, including, but not limited to, scheduling, pricing, and phasing to assist the regional transportation agency to design a more constructible project.

(4) “Project” means any of the following:

(A) The construction of an expressway that is not on the state highway system.

(B) The construction of the following bridges that are not on the state highway system:

(i) Yerba Buena Island (YBI) West Side Bridges Seismic Retrofit Project.

(ii) Yankee Jims Road Bridge Project in the County of Placer (Replacement/Rehabilitation).

(C) The construction of railroad grade separations and bridge rehabilitations and replacements in the County of Riverside, as specified in Item 2660-110-0042 of Section 2.00 of the Budget Act of 2016, as amended by Chapter 7 of the Statutes of 2017.

(D) The construction, alteration, repair, rehabilitation, or improvement of the Golden Gate Bridge, as defined in Section 27502 of the Streets and Highways Code.

(E) A Metrolink commuter rail project.

(5) “Regional transportation agency” means any of the following:

(A) A transportation planning agency described in Section 29532 or 29532.1 of the Government Code.

(B) A county transportation commission established under Section 130050, 130050.1, or 130050.2 of the Public Utilities Code.

(C) Any other local or regional transportation entity that is designated by statute as a regional transportation agency.

(D) A joint exercise of powers authority established pursuant to Chapter 5 (commencing with Section 6500) of Division 7 of Title 1 of the Government Code, with the consent of a transportation planning agency or a county transportation commission for the jurisdiction in which the transportation project will be developed.

(E) A local transportation authority created or designated pursuant to Division 12.5 (commencing with Section 131000) or Division 19 (commencing with Section 180000) of the Public Utilities Code.

(F) The Santa Clara Valley Transportation Authority established pursuant to Part 12 (commencing with Section 100000) of Division 10 of the Public Utilities Code.

(G) The County of Placer.

(H) The County of Riverside.

(I) The Golden Gate Bridge, Highway and Transportation District established pursuant to Chapter 18 (commencing with Section 27500) of Part 3 of Division 16 of the Streets and Highways Code.

(c) This section does not extend any other authority to the County of Riverside or the Golden Gate Bridge, Highway and Transportation District as a transportation planning agency under any other law.

2717.

 (a) Notwithstanding Section 10231.5 of the Government Code, the board shall submit to the Legislature on December 1 of each year a report on the actions taken pursuant to this chapter during the preceding fiscal year. The report shall include a statement of the actions, including legislative recommendations, that are necessary to carry out more completely the purposes and requirements of this chapter.

(b) For purposes of ensuring compliance with Sections 10295.5 and 20676 of the Public Contract Code, the Division of Mine Reclamation shall, at a minimum, quarterly publish in the California Regulatory Notice Register, or otherwise make available upon request to the Department of General Services or any other state or local agency, a list identifying all surface mining operations subject to this chapter and Section 2207 that are reporting as newly permitted, active, or idle, for which all of the following apply:

(1) A reclamation plan has been approved.

(2) A financial assurance mechanism that is at least equal to the current approved financial assurance cost estimate, as described in Section 2736, has been approved.

(3) A financial assurance cost estimate required under Section 2773.4 has been submitted, as indicated on a notice of completion of inspection submitted by the lead agency pursuant to subdivision (b) of Section 2774. Operators may also confirm submission of their annual financial assurance cost estimate as required by subparagraphs (A) and (B) of paragraph (1) of subdivision (d) of Section 2773.4 by providing a copy of the first page of the financial assurance cost estimate (FACE-1) form to the supervisor.

(4) The annual report required under Section 2207 has been submitted.

(5) All fees required under Section 2207, including all past-due fees, administrative penalties, and interest have been paid.

(6) The operation is not out of compliance with an order to comply or stipulated order to comply.

(c) Notwithstanding paragraphs (1) and (2) of subdivision (b), surface mining operations for which an appeal is pending before the board pursuant to subdivision (e) of Section 2770, if the appeal was not pending before the board for more than 180 days, shall be included on the list published pursuant to subdivision (b).

(d) A report submitted pursuant to subdivision (a) shall be submitted in compliance with Section 9795 of the Government Code.

3432.

 (a) The Attorney General shall defend the action.

(b) The provisions of the Code of Civil Procedure relating to pleadings, proofs, trials, and appeals are applicable to these proceedings.

4137.

 (a) For purposes of this section, “fire prevention activities” include, but are not limited to, all of the following:

(1) Fire prevention education.

(2) Hazardous fuel reduction and vegetation management.

(3) Fire investigation.

(4) Civil cost recovery.

(5) Forest and fire law enforcement.

(6) Fire prevention engineering.

(7) Prefire planning.

(8) Risk analysis.

(9) Volunteer programs and partnerships.

(b) It is the intent of the Legislature that the year-round staffing and the extension of the workweek that has been provided to the department pursuant to memorandums of understanding with the state will result in significant increases in the department’s current level of fire prevention activities. It is also the intent of the Legislature that the budgetary augmentations for year-round staffing not reduce the reimbursements that the department receives from contracts with local governments for the department to provide local fire protection and emergency services pursuant to Section 4144, commonly referred to as “Amador agreements.”

(c) On or before January 10 of each year, the department shall provide a report to the Legislature, including to the budget, fiscal, and appropriate policy committees of the Assembly and the Senate, in accordance with Section 9795 of the Government Code, detailing the department’s fire prevention activities, including the increased activities described in subdivision (b). The report shall display the fire prevention activities of the previous fiscal year, as well as the information from previous reports for purposes of a comparison of data. The report shall include all of the following:

(1) Fire prevention activities performed by the department on lands designated as state responsibility areas, and by counties, where, pursuant to a contract with the department, a county has agreed to provide fire protection services in state responsibility areas within county boundaries on behalf of the department. The fire prevention activities included in the report pursuant to this paragraph shall include, but not be limited to, all of the following:

(A) The number of hours of fire prevention education performed.

(B) The number of defensible space inspections conducted, including statewide totals and totals for each region.

(C) The number of citations issued for noncompliance with Section 4291.

(D) The number of acres treated by mechanical fuel reduction.

(E) The number of acres treated by prescribed burns.

(F) The funding sources and estimated amounts for the fire prevention activities described in this paragraph, itemized by the activity categories described in subparagraphs (A) to (E), inclusive.

(G) Any other data or qualitative information deemed necessary by the department in order to provide the Legislature with a clear and accurate accounting of fire prevention activities, particularly with regard to variations from one year to the next.

(2) The fire prevention performance measures described in paragraph (1) shall be reported for each region annually, including activities performed from December 15 to April 15, inclusive.

(3) Projected fire prevention activities for the following fiscal year.

(4) Information on each of the “Amador contracts” described in subdivision (b), including an annual update on the number of those contracts and reimbursements received from the contracts that are in effect.

4290.5.

 (a) On or before July 1, 2021, and every five years thereafter, the board, in consultation with the State Fire Marshal, shall survey local governments, including counties, cities, and fire districts, to identify existing subdivisions located in a state responsibility area or a very high fire hazard severity zone, identified pursuant to Section 51178 of the Government Code, without a secondary egress route that are at significant fire risk.

(b) (1) The board, in consultation with the State Fire Marshal and the local government that identified the subdivision, shall develop recommendations to improve the subdivision’s fire safety. The recommendations may include, but are not limited to, the following:

(A) Creating secondary access to the subdivision.

(B) Improvements to the existing access road.

(C) Other additional fire safety measures.

(2) The board shall provide the final recommendations developed pursuant to this subdivision to the local government that identified the subdivision and to the residents of the subdivision.

(c) The board may enter into contracts with an independent group to conduct the survey required in subdivision (a).

(d) For purposes of this section, “subdivision” means an existing residential development of more than 30 dwelling units.

(e) The board shall maintain a list of the subdivisions identified in subdivision (a) and the status of the implementation of the recommendations provided pursuant to subdivision (b).

4630.2.

 (a) On or before July 1, 2020, the Forest Health Task Force pursuant to Executive Order No. B-52-18 or its successor entity shall, in consultation with the Governor’s Office of Business and Economic Development, the Joint Institute for Wood Products Innovation in the Board of Forestry and Fire Protection, private industry, investors, and other stakeholders it deems appropriate, develop recommendations for siting additional wood product manufacturing facilities in the state. These recommendations shall include but are not limited to:

(1) A financially viable proposal for the development and construction of at least one new mass timber production facility that can manufacture mass timber panels that can be cross or dowel laminated or use similar mass timber technology.

(2) Identify and propose the necessary incentives needed to attract private investment to construct such a mass timber production facility in California.

(3) Identify other former manufacturing or wood processing sites that may be suitable for future investment.

(b) In developing the recommendations pursuant to subdivision (a), it is the intent of the Legislature that the location and activities of the mass timber production facilities, to the extent feasible, meet the following:

(1) Be adjacent to a high or very high fire hazard severity zone, as identified by the Department of Forestry and Fire Protection, and be capable of processing materials generated as a result of fuel treatments or other forest management practices.

(2) Generate mass timber workforce training and job creation opportunities.

(3) Be located in, or be proximate to, areas that are near the locations of large landscape fires of greater than 50,000 acres that have occurred since 2005 and in areas identified as federal opportunity zones or in areas that have an average household income of 5 percent below the state’s median household income.

4795.

 (a) The director may enter into agreements with eligible landowners pursuant to which the landowner will undertake forest resource improvement work in return for an agreement by the director to share the cost of carrying out the work. The director is authorized to share up to 90 percent of the lesser of either:

(1) The landowner’s actual cost per acre to accomplish the work.

(2) The prevailing per acre cost as determined by the director pursuant to Section 4799.02.

(b) (1) The director may provide the funds for the director’s share of the costs, as described in subdivision (a), in advance of any work performed if the eligible landowner agrees in writing to undertake the forest resource improvement work and agrees to the condition that funds provided for any uncompleted work shall constitute grounds for a claim and lien upon the real property owned by the landowner that is subject to this section. Any such lien shall attach to the property regardless of whether the responsible party is insolvent. A lien established pursuant to this subdivision shall be subject to notice and hearing procedures required by due process of the law.

(2) A lien authorized under this subdivision shall continue in effect until the liability for repayment of funds, or a judgment against the responsible party, is satisfied. However, if it is determined by the court that the judgment against the responsible party will not be satisfied, the department may exercise its rights under the lien.

(3) A lien imposed pursuant to this subdivision shall have the force and effect of, and the same priority as, a judgment lien upon its recordation in the county in which the property subject to the lien is located. The lien shall contain the legal description of the real property, the assessor’s parcel number, and the name of the owner of record, as shown on the latest assessor’s property tax assessment roll.

(4) All funds recovered pursuant to this subdivision shall be deposited in the Timber Regulation and Forest Restoration Fund established pursuant to Section 4629.3.

(c) The director shall prepare a schedule of cost share percentages applicable to agreements undertaken pursuant to this section. Required landowner cost share contributions may be made in the form of materials, services, or equipment as well as funds. The cost share percentage schedule shall set forth the percentage of required landowner’s project cost share for various categories of forest resource improvement projects. The percentage of cost sharing required of the landowner may be decreased if the ownership contains less than 500 acres.

(d) The percentage of cost sharing required of the landowner may also be decreased to the extent that any of the following applies:

(1) The project or other actions of the landowner would increase recreational opportunities for the public.

(2) The project would provide relatively more employment opportunities than other proposed projects.

(3) Forest land conservation measures or fish or wildlife habitat improvements are included in the project.

(e) Consistent with the criteria set forth in subdivisions (c) and (d), the director shall submit a schedule further specifying cost share percentages to the board for its review. The schedule shall apply to all agreements made pursuant to this section unless the board acts to change the schedule within 75 days of its submission by the director.

4796.

 (a) The director may make the following types of loans relating to forest resource improvement projects:

(1) The director may make loans for forest resource improvement work to cover all or part of a smaller nonindustrial landowner’s cost share payment required pursuant to Section 4795. The director shall establish reasonable terms relating to the length of, and the interest rate for, a loan made pursuant to this subdivision. In order to secure repayment of the loan, the forest resource improvement loans shall be secured by a mortgage or deed of trust upon the parcel of land to which the forest improvement project applies. The director shall record the mortgage or deed of trust in the office of the county recorder in the county in which the real property subject to the resource improvement loan is located.

(2) (A) The director may make loans for forest resource improvement work to landowners eligible pursuant to the provisions of subdivision (d) of Section 4797 for up to 100 percent of the lesser of either:

(i) The landowner’s actual cost per acre to accomplish the work.

(ii) The prevailing cost per acre as determined by the director pursuant to Section 4799.02.

(B) A loan made pursuant to this subdivision may be made for a term not exceeding 20 years and shall bear interest at the prevailing rate. In order to secure repayment of the loan, the forest resource improvement loans shall be secured by a mortgage or deed of trust upon the parcel of land to which the forest improvement project applies. The director shall record the mortgage or deed of trust in the office of the county recorder in the county in which the real property subject to the resource improvement loan is located.

(b) Any loan made pursuant to this section may be paid prior to the maturity date set forth in the loan agreement without an interest penalty being charged to the landowner.

(c) Payment of all or part of the principal and interest due under loans made pursuant to this chapter shall not be required upon a finding by the board that the parcel to which a forest resource improvement project applies, and that is subject to a loan, satisfies both of the following conditions:

(1) The parcel has been substantially damaged by fire, flood, insects, disease, or other natural causes.

(2) The damage was not caused by the negligence or willful act of the landowner.

5010.4.

 (a) The department may license, sell, or license and sell, its branded merchandise, images, and other state-park-related merchandise, directly to the public for revenue generation, if the department is unable to obtain through good faith efforts a concession or cooperating association agreement to provide these services.

(b) (1) The department may enter into agreements with individuals, public agencies, qualified nonprofit organizations, and other private entities for sale of department branded merchandise, images, or other state-park-related merchandise to the public.

(2) The department shall receive fair and reasonable revenues and commissions for the sales and agreements to sell merchandise.

(c) (1) All revenues and commissions received by the department as a result of this section shall be paid into the State Treasury to the credit of the State Parks and Recreation Fund, pursuant to Section 5010.

(2) Notwithstanding paragraph (1), all revenues and commissions received by the department from the state vehicular recreation areas as a result of this section shall be paid into the State Treasury to the credit of the Off-Highway Vehicle Trust Fund, pursuant to Section 38225 of the Vehicle Code.

14571.

 (a) Except as otherwise provided in this chapter, there shall be at least one certified recycling center or location within every convenience zone that accepts and pays the refund value, if any, at one location for all types of empty beverage containers and is open for business during at least 30 hours per week with a minimum of five hours of operation occurring during periods other than from Monday to Friday, from 9 a.m. to 5 p.m.

(b) (1) Notwithstanding subdivision (a), the department may require a certified recycling center to operate 15 of its 30 hours of operation other than during 9 a.m. to 5 p.m.

(2) Notwithstanding subdivision (a) and paragraph (1), the department may certify a recycling center that will operate less than 30 hours per week, if all of the following conditions are met:

(A) The recycling center is in a rural region. For purposes of this subparagraph, “rural region” means a nonurban area identified by the department on an annual basis using the loan eligibility criteria of the Rural Housing Service of the United States Department of Agriculture, Rural Development Administration, or its successor agency. Those criteria include, but are not limited to, places, open country, cities, towns, or census designated places with populations that are less than 10,000 persons. The department may designate an area with a population of between 10,000 and 50,000 persons as a rural region, unless the area is identified as part of, or associated with, an urban area, as determined by the department on an individual basis.

(B) The recycling center agrees to post a sign indicating the location of the nearest recycling center that is open at least 30 hours per week and that will accept all material types.

(C) The needs of the community and the goals of this division will be best served by certification of the operation as a recycling center.

(c) Before establishing operating hours for a certified recycling center pursuant to subdivision (b), the department shall make a determination that this action is necessary to further the goals of this division and that the proposed operating hours will not significantly decrease the ability of consumers to conveniently return beverage containers for the refund value to a certified recycling center redeeming all material types.

(d) For purposes of this section, if the recycling center is staffed and is not a reverse vending machine, a center is “open for business” if all of the following requirements are met:

(1) An employee of the certified recycling center or location is present during the hours of operation and available to the public to accept containers and to pay the refund values.

(2) In addition to the sign specified in subdivision (i), a sign having a minimum size of two feet by two feet is posted at the certified recycling center or location indicating that the center or location is open. Where allowed by local zoning requirements or where zoning restrictions apply, the sign shall be of the maximum allowable size.

(3) The prices paid, by weight or per container, are posted at the location.

(e) (1) Except as provided in subdivisions (f) and (h), for the purpose of this section, if the recycling center consists of reverse vending machines or other unmanned automated equipment, the center is “open for business” if the equipment is properly functioning, accepting all types of empty beverage containers at the recycling location, and paying posted refund values no less than the minimums required by this division.

(2) A recycling center that meets the requirements in paragraph (1) shall not be required to have an employee present during the hours of operation in order to be “open for business.”

(f) If a recycling center consists of reverse vending machines or other automated equipment, the recycling center is “open for business” if the equipment is properly functioning, and accepting all types of empty beverage containers at one physical recycling location within the recycling location.

(g) Whenever a recycling center that is a reverse vending machine is not “open for business” during the hours of operation required and posted pursuant to this section and Section 14570, the dealer that is hosting the reverse vending machine at its place of business shall redeem all empty beverage container types at all open cash registers or one designated location in the store, as specified on the sign required pursuant to subdivision (i).

(h) (1) A recycling center that is a reverse vending machine that accepts all types of empty beverage containers except those that are three or more liters in volume and those that are pouches is open for business if it does both of the following:

(A) Provides an attendant to accept all types of empty beverage containers for no less than 10 hours per week, with no less than five of those hours on a weekend day between the hours of 9 a.m. and 5 p.m.

(B) Is operational and functioning properly for no less than 70 hours per week.

(2) A handling fee shall not be paid to a recycling center described in paragraph (1) if the recycling center is located in a convenience zone in which a preexisting certified recycling center is located. Notwithstanding paragraph (1) of subdivision (c) of Section 14585, a preexisting certified recycling center located in the same convenience zone as a recycling center described in paragraph (1) shall continue to be eligible to receive handling fee payments.

(3) The department shall pay handling fees to a recycling center described in paragraph (1), and the recycling center shall pay refund values, on the basis of the number of beverage containers redeemed through the reverse vending machine, and not on the basis of weight. The department shall determine the method of certifying the validity of the number of beverage containers counted by the reverse vending machine.

(i) In addition to the sign specified in paragraph (2) of subdivision (d), each reverse vending machine shall be posted with a clear and conspicuous sign on or near the reverse vending machine that states that beverage containers may be redeemed by the host dealer if the machine is nonoperational at any time during the required hours of operation, pursuant to subdivision (g). The department shall determine the size and location of the sign and the message required to be printed on the sign.

21159.25.

 (a) For purposes of this section, the following definitions apply:

(1) “Residential or mixed-use housing project” means a project consisting of multifamily residential uses only or a mix of multifamily residential and nonresidential uses, with at least two-thirds of the square footage of the development designated for residential use.

(2) “Substantially surrounded” means at least 75 percent of the perimeter of the project site adjoins, or is separated only by an improved public right-of-way from, parcels that are developed with qualified urban uses. The remainder of the perimeter of the site adjoins, or is separated only by an improved public right-of-way from, parcels that have been designated for qualified urban uses in a zoning, community plan, or general plan for which an environmental impact report was certified.

(b) Without limiting any other statutory exemption or categorical exemption, this division does not apply to a residential or mixed-use housing project if all of the following conditions described in this section are met:

(1) The project is consistent with the applicable general plan designation and all applicable general plan policies as well as with applicable zoning designation and regulations.

(2) (A) The public agency approving or carrying out the project determines, based upon substantial evidence, that the density of the residential portion of the project is not less than the greater of the following:

(i) The average density of the residential properties that adjoin, or are separated only by an improved public right-of-way from, the perimeter of the project site, if any.

(ii) The average density of the residential properties within 1,500 feet of the project site.

(iii) Six dwelling units per acre.

(B) The residential portion of the project is a multifamily housing development that contains six or more residential units.

(3) The proposed development occurs within an unincorporated area of a county on a project site of no more than five acres substantially surrounded by qualified urban uses.

(4) The project site has no value as habitat for endangered, rare, or threatened species.

(5) Approval of the project would not result in any significant effects relating to transportation, noise, air quality, greenhouse gas emissions, or water quality.

(6) The site can be adequately served by all required utilities and public services.

(7) The project is located on a site that is a legal parcel or parcels wholly within the boundaries of an urbanized area or urban cluster, as designated by the United States Census Bureau.

(c) Subdivision (b) does not apply to a residential or mixed-use housing project if any of the following conditions exist:

(1) The cumulative impact of successive projects of the same type in the same place over time is significant.

(2) There is a reasonable possibility that the project will have a significant effect on the environment due to unusual circumstances.

(3) The project may result in damage to scenic resources, including, but not limited to, trees, historic buildings, rock outcroppings, or similar resources, within a highway officially designated as a state scenic highway.

(4) The project is located on a site which is included on any list compiled pursuant to Section 65962.5 of the Government Code.

(5) The project may cause a substantial adverse change in the significance of a historical resource.

(d) If the lead agency determines that a project is not subject to this division pursuant to this section and it determines to approve or carry out the project, the lead agency shall file a notice with the Office of Planning and Research and with the county clerk in the county in which the project will be located in the manner specified in subdivisions (b) and (c) of Section 21152.

(e) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2025, and as of that date is repealed.

25402.10.

 (a) For the purposes of this section, the following terms have the following meanings:

(1) To “benchmark,” in reference to energy use, means to obtain information on the energy use in an entire building for a specific period to enable that usage to be tracked or compared against other buildings.

(2) “Covered building” means either or both of the following:

(A) Any building with no residential utility accounts.

(B) Any building with five or more active utility accounts, residential or nonresidential.

(3) “Energy” means electricity, natural gas, steam, or fuel oil sold by a utility to a customer for end uses addressed by the ENERGY STAR Portfolio Manager system.

(4) “ENERGY STAR Portfolio Manager” means the tool developed and maintained by the United States Environmental Protection Agency to track and assess the energy performance of buildings.

(b) On and after January 1, 2016, each utility shall maintain records of the energy usage data of all buildings to which they provide service for at least the most recent 12 complete calendar months.

(c) (1) Subject to the requirements of paragraph (2), beginning no later than January 1, 2017, each utility shall, upon the request and written authorization or secure electronic authorization of the owner, owner’s agent, or operator of a covered building, deliver or otherwise provide aggregated energy usage data for a covered building to the owner, owner’s agent, building operator, or to the owner’s account in the ENERGY STAR Portfolio Manager. The commission may specify additional information to be delivered by utilities to enable building owners to complete benchmarking of the energy use in their buildings and in other systems or formats for information delivery and automation.

(2) The delivery of information by utilities pursuant to this section shall be subject to the following requirements:

(A) For covered buildings with three or more active utility accounts, each utility shall deliver information showing the aggregated energy usage data of all utility customers in the same building for each of the 12 prior months. Notwithstanding any other law, energy usage data aggregated in this manner shall not be deemed customer utility usage information or confidential information by the utility for purposes of delivery to the owner, owner’s agent, or operator of a building. The building owner and utility shall not have any liability for any use or disclosure of aggregated energy usage data delivered as required by this section.

(B) For covered buildings not subject to subparagraph (A), each utility shall deliver the information showing the aggregated energy usage data of all utility customers in each covered building for each of the prior 12 months if the accountholder provides written or electronic consent for the delivery of the accountholder’s energy usage data to the owner, owner’s agent, operator, or utility.

(C) Each utility shall deliver, upload, or otherwise provide aggregated energy usage data within four weeks of receiving a request from an owner, owner’s agent, or operator of a covered building.

(D) Each utility shall make available the covered building energy usage data aggregated at a monthly level unless otherwise specified by the commission.

(E) The building owner and utility shall not have any liability for any use or disclosure by others of usage information delivered as required by this section.

(d) The commission shall adopt regulations providing for the delivery to the commission and public disclosure of benchmarking of energy use for covered buildings, as follows:

(1) This subdivision does not require the owner of a building with 16 or fewer residential utility accounts to collect or deliver energy usage information to the commission.

(2) The commission may do, but is not limited to doing, all of the following in regulations adopted pursuant to this subdivision:

(A) Identify and provide for the collection of the energy usage data for calculations for purpose of benchmarking of energy use.

(B) Identify and provide for the collection of the covered building characteristic information deemed necessary by the commission for the calculations for the purposes of the benchmarking of energy use.

(C) Specify the manner in which certain benchmarking of energy use shall be publicly disclosed.

(D) Determine which covered buildings, in addition to those described in paragraph (1), are not subject to the public disclosure requirement.

(E) Set a schedule to implement the requirements for public disclosure adopted by the commission.

(F) Determine if compliance with a local or county benchmarking program fulfills the commission’s requirements adopted pursuant to this subdivision.

(G) Identify categories of information it receives pursuant to this section that are protected from release under either the California Public Records Act (Chapter 3.5 (commencing with Section 6250) of Division 7 of Title 1 of the Government Code) or the Information Practices Act of 1977 (Chapter 1 (commencing with Section 1798) of Title 1.8 of Part 4 of Division 3 of the Civil Code).

(3) The commission shall determine who will deliver the energy usage data and related information for any covered building to the commission.

(e) The commission may ensure timely and accurate compliance with the data submission requirements of this section by using the enforcement measures identified in Section 25321. An owner of a covered building, or its agents or operators, shall not be liable for any noncompliance due to the failure of a utility to provide the information required for compliance.

(f) For buildings that are not covered buildings, and for customer information that is not aggregated pursuant to subparagraph (A) of paragraph (2) of subdivision (c), the commission may adopt regulations prescribing how utilities shall either obtain the customer’s permission or determine that a building owner has obtained the customer’s permission, for the owner to receive aggregated energy usage data or, where applicable, individual customer usage information, including by use of electronic authorization and in a lease agreement between the owner and the customer.

(g) The reasonable costs of an electrical or gas corporation in delivering electrical or gas usage data pursuant to this section or other information as required under state or federal law or by an order of the commission shall be recoverable in rates evaluated and approved by the Public Utilities Commission.

(h) The reasonable costs of local publicly owned electric utilities in disclosing electrical usage data pursuant to this section may be considered “cost-effective demand-side management services to promote energy efficiency and energy conservation” and thereby reimbursable by their general fund.

(i) (1) For purposes of adopting or revising regulations pursuant to subdivision (d), the commission may include two or more buildings located on a single parcel or adjacent parcels with the same owner of record and with five or more active utility accounts, in aggregate, residential or nonresidential, as a single covered building, as defined in subparagraph (B) of paragraph (2) of subdivision (a).

(2) An electrical or gas utility shall provide to the owner, owner’s agent, or operator of a property containing two or more buildings on a single parcel or adjacent parcels with five or more active utility accounts, in aggregate, residential or nonresidential, upon request of the owner, agent, or operator, aggregate energy usage data on all such buildings in a manner provided pursuant to subdivision (c) as if those buildings are a single covered building as defined in subparagraph (B) of paragraph (2) of subdivision (a).

(j) This section does not prevent a city or county from establishing its own benchmarking program requiring collection, delivery, and disclosure of building information.

32659.1.

 The following terms have the following meanings:

(a) “Account” means the San Diego Rivers Watershed Consortium Program Account established in the San Diego River Conservancy Fund pursuant to subdivision (a) of Section 32659.8.

(b) “Consortium watershed area” means lands located within the watersheds of the Otay River, the Sweetwater River, and the parts of the Tijuana River within the state, from the headwaters of each river to the Pacific Ocean.

(c) “Program” means the San Diego Rivers Watershed Consortium Program established pursuant to this chapter.

32659.4.

 The conservancy shall establish the following advisory panels:

(a) The Otay River Watershed Advisory Panel, comprised of the following members:

(1) A conservancy board member or the member’s designee.

(2) A representative of the City of Chula Vista, appointed by its city council.

(3) A representative of the City of Imperial Beach, appointed by its city council.

(4) A representative of the City of National City, appointed by its city council.

(5) A representative of the City of San Diego, appointed by its city council.

(6) A representative of the County of San Diego, appointed by the Board of Supervisors of the County of San Diego.

(7) A representative of the San Diego Regional Water Quality Control Board, appointed by that board.

(8) A representative of the Department of Parks and Recreation, appointed by the Director of Parks and Recreation.

(9) A representative of the Kumeyaay Diegueño Land Conservancy, appointed by that conservancy.

(10) A representative of a university or college in the San Diego area, appointed by the president of the university or college.

(11) A representative of the San Diego Unified Port District, appointed by the governing board of the port district.

(b) The Sweetwater River Watershed Advisory Panel, comprised of the following members:

(1) A conservancy board member or the member’s designee.

(2) A representative of the City of La Mesa, appointed by its city council.

(3) A representative of the City of Lemon Grove, appointed by its city council.

(4) A representative of the City of Chula Vista, appointed by its city council.

(5) A representative of the City of San Diego, appointed by its city council.

(6) A representative of the County of San Diego, appointed by the Board of Supervisors of the County of San Diego.

(7) A representative of the San Diego Regional Water Quality Control Board, appointed by that board.

(8) A representative of the Department of Parks and Recreation, appointed by the Director of Parks and Recreation.

(9) A representative of the Kumeyaay Diegueño Land Conservancy, appointed by the governing board of that conservancy.

(10) A representative of a university or college in the San Diego area, appointed by the president of the university or college.

(11) A representative of the San Diego Unified Port District, appointed by the governing board of the port district.

(12) A representative of the City of National City, appointed by its city council.

(13) A representative of the Sweetwater Authority, appointed by the authority.

(c) The Tijuana River Watershed Advisory Panel, comprised of the following members:

(1) A conservancy board member, or the member’s designee.

(2) A representative of the City of Imperial Beach, appointed by its city council.

(3) A representative of the City of San Diego, appointed by its city council.

(4) A representative of the County of San Diego, appointed by the Board of Supervisors of San Diego County.

(5) A representative of the San Diego Regional Water Quality Control Board, appointed by that board.

(6) A representative of the Department of Parks and Recreation, appointed by the Director of Parks and Recreation.

(7) A representative of the Kumeyaay Diegueño Land Conservancy, appointed by that conservancy.

(8) A representative of a university or college in the San Diego area, appointed by the president of the university or college.

(9) A representative of the San Diego Unified Port District, appointed by the governing board of the port district.

35651.

 The council shall use one million dollars ($1,000,000) of the amount appropriated to it in Item 0540-101-0001 of Section 2.0 of the Budget Act of 2018 (Chapter 29 of the Statutes of 2018) for whale and sea turtle entanglement to fund the transition program established pursuant to Section 8583 of the Fish and Game Code. The council shall enter into an agreement with the fiscal agent described in Section 8583 of the Fish and Game Code to provide funds to the fiscal agent for permittees who participate in the transition program. If the amount described in this section is not necessary due to the number of participants who have indicated an intention to participate in the transition program pursuant to Section 8583 of the Fish and Game Code, the council may redirect the remaining funds to other purposes related to whale and sea turtle entanglement.

42030.

 For purposes of this chapter, the following terms have the following meanings:

(a) “Authorized collection site” means a location where an authorized collector operates a secure collection receptacle for collecting covered products.

(b) “Authorized collector” means a person or entity that has entered into an agreement with a program operator to collect covered drugs, including, but not limited to, any of the following:

(1) A person or entity that is registered with the United States Drug Enforcement Administration and that qualifies under federal law to modify that registration to collect controlled substances for the purpose of destruction.

(2) A law enforcement agency.

(3) A retail pharmacy that offers drug take-back services in compliance with Article 9.1 (commencing with Section 1776) of Title 16 of the California Code of Regulations.

(c) “Controlled substance” means a substance listed under Sections 11053 to 11058, inclusive, of the Health and Safety Code or Section 812 or 813 of Title 21 of the United States Code, or any successor section.

(d) “Cosmetic” means an article, or a component of an article, intended to be rubbed, poured, sprinkled, sprayed, introduced into, or otherwise applied to the human body for cleansing, beautifying, promoting attractiveness, or altering the appearance. “Cosmetic” includes articles with or without expiration dates.

(e) (1) “Covered drug” means a drug, including a brand name or generic drug, sold, offered for sale, or dispensed in the State of California in any form, including, but not limited to, any of the following:

(A) Prescription and nonprescription drugs approved by the United States Food and Drug Administration pursuant to Section 505 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (21 U.S.C. Sec. 355) or Section 351 of the federal Public Health Service Act (42 U.S.C. Sec. 262).

(B) A drug marketed pursuant to an over-the-counter drug monograph.

(C) A drug in a medical device, or a combination product containing a drug and a medical device.

(2) “Covered drug” does not include any of the following:

(A) Vitamins or supplements.

(B) Herbal-based remedies and homeopathic drugs, products, or remedies.

(C) Cosmetics, soap, with or without germicidal agents, laundry detergent, bleach, household cleaning products, shampoos, sunscreens, toothpaste, lip balm, antiperspirants, or any other personal care product that is regulated as both a cosmetic and a nonprescription drug under the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (21 U.S.C. Sec. 301 et seq.).

(D) A drug for which a pharmaceutical product stewardship program or drug takeback program is provided in the state as part of a United States Food and Drug Administration managed risk evaluation and mitigation strategy under 21 U.S.C. Sec. 355-1.

(E) Biological drug products, as defined by 42 U.S.C. Sec. 262(i)(1), including those products currently approved in the state under a new drug application that will be deemed to be licensed under Section 351 of the Public Health Service Act (42 U.S.C. Sec. 262) pursuant to Section 7002(e) of the federal Biologics Price Competition and Innovation Act of 2009 (Public Law 111-148).

(F) A medical device, or a component part or accessory of a medical device, if it does not contain a covered drug.

(G) Drugs that are used for animal medicines, including, but not limited to, parasiticide products for animals.

(H) Dialysate drugs or other saline solutions required to perform kidney dialysis.

(f) (1) (A) “Covered entity” means the manufacturer of covered products that are sold in or into the state.

(B) If no entity that meets the definition in subparagraph (A) is in the state, “covered entity” means the distributor of covered products that are sold in or into the state that is licensed as a wholesaler, as defined in Section 4043 of the Business and Professions Code, but does not include a warehouse of a retail pharmacy chain that is licensed as a wholesaler if it engages only in intracompany transfers between any division, affiliate, subsidiary, parent, or other entity under complete common ownership and control.

(C) If no entity that meets the definition in subparagraph (A) or (B) is in the state, “covered entity” means a repackager, as defined in Section 4044 of the Business and Professions Code, of covered products that are sold in or into the state.

(D) If no entity that meets the definition in subparagraph (A), (B), or (C) is in the state, “covered entity” means the owner or licensee of a trademark or brand under which covered products are sold in or into the state, regardless of whether the trademark is registered.

(E) If no entity that meets the definition in subparagraph (A), (B), (C), or (D) is in the state, “covered entity” means the importer of the covered products that are sold in or into the state.

(2) The department shall adopt regulations on the process for determining what entity is a covered entity following the priority order set forth in paragraph (1).

(g) “Covered product” means a covered drug or home-generated sharps waste.

(h) “Department” means the Department of Resources Recycling and Recovery, and any successor agency.

(i) “Distributor” means a wholesaler, as that term is defined in Section 4043 of the Business and Professions Code.

(j) “Drug” means any of the following:

(1) An article recognized in the official United States Pharmacopoeia, the official National Formulary, the official Homeopathic Pharmacopoeia of the United States, or any supplement of the formulary or those pharmacopoeias.

(2) A substance intended for use in the diagnosis, cure, mitigation, treatment, or prevention of disease in humans or other animals.

(3) A substance, other than food, intended to affect the structure or any function of the body of humans or other animals.

(4) A substance intended for use as a component of any substance specified in this subdivision.

(k) “Generic drug” means a drug that is chemically identical or bioequivalent to a brand name drug in dosage form, safety, strengths, route of administration, quality, performance, characteristics, and intended use, though inactive ingredients may vary.

(l) (1) “Home-generated sharps waste” has the same meaning as defined in Section 117671 of the Health and Safety Code.

(2) “Home-generated sharps waste” does not include either of the following:

(A) Components manufactured for use with external ambulatory insulin pump therapy systems or continuous glucose monitoring systems, including, but not limited to, insulin infusion sets, glucose sensors that are sterile goods indicated for single subcutaneous use, sterile drug delivery channels indicated for single subcutaneous use, and injection ports.

(B) A biological product, as defined in Section 262(i)(1) of Title 42 of the United States Code, including a combination product, as defined in Section 3.2(e) of Title 21 of the Code of Federal Regulations.

(m) “Mail-back program” means a method of collecting covered products from ultimate users by using prepaid, preaddressed mailing envelopes as described in Section 1776.2 of Article 9.1 of Division 17 of Title 16 of the California Code of Regulations.

(n) “Nonprescription drug” means any drug that may be lawfully sold without a prescription.

(o) “Pharmacy” has the same meaning as defined in Section 4037 of the Business and Professions Code.

(p) “Prescription drug” means a drug, including, but not limited to, a controlled substance, that is required under federal or state law to be dispensed with a prescription, or is restricted to use by practitioners only.

(q) “Program operator” means a covered entity, or stewardship organization on behalf of a group of covered entities, that is responsible for operating a stewardship program in accordance with this chapter.

(r) “Proprietary information” means information that is all of the following:

(1) Submitted pursuant to this chapter.

(2) A trade secret, or commercial or financial information, that is privileged or confidential, and is identified as such by the entity providing the information to the department.

(3) Not required to be disclosed under any other law or any regulation affecting a covered product or covered entity.

(s) “Retail pharmacy” means an independent pharmacy, a supermarket pharmacy, a chain pharmacy, or a mass merchandiser pharmacy possessing a license from the state board to operate a pharmacy.

(t) “Retail pharmacy chain” means a retail pharmacy with five or more stores in the state.

(u) “Sharps” means hypodermic needles, pen needles, intravenous needles, lancets, and other devices that are used to penetrate the skin for the delivery of medications.

(v) “State board” means the California State Board of Pharmacy.

(w) “Stewardship organization” means an organization exempt from taxation under Section 501(c)(3) of the federal Internal Revenue Code of 1986 (21 U.S.C. Sec. 501(c)(3)) that is established by a group of covered entities in accordance with this chapter to develop, implement, and administer a stewardship program established pursuant to this chapter.

(x) “Stewardship plan,” or “plan” means the plan for collecting and properly managing covered products that is developed by a covered entity or stewardship organization pursuant to this chapter.

(y) “Stewardship program” means a stewardship program for the collection, transportation, and disposal of covered products.

(z) “Ultimate user” means a state resident or other nonbusiness entity and includes a person who has lawfully obtained, and who possesses, a covered product, including a controlled substance, for the person’s own use or for the use of a member of the person’s household. “Ultimate user” does not include a needle exchange program established under Section 121349 of the Health and Safety Code, or a medical waste generator, as defined in Section 117705 of the Health and Safety Code.

42031.

 (a) (1) No later than 90 days after the effective date of this section, a covered entity shall provide a list of covered products, and a list and description of any drugs or sharps that are not covered products, that it sells or offers for sale in the state to the state board.

(2) A covered entity, or a stewardship organization on behalf of a group of covered entities, shall update the lists described in paragraph (1) and provide the updated lists to the state board on or before January 15 of each year or upon request of the department.

(b) No later than 90 days after the effective date of this section, a retail pharmacy that sells a covered product under its own label shall provide written notification to the state board identifying the covered entity from which the retail pharmacy obtains a covered product that the retail pharmacy sells under its store label.

(c) The state board shall verify the information received pursuant to subdivisions (a) and (b) and make it available to the department upon request.

(d) The state board may issue a letter of inquiry to any entity listed in subparagraphs (A) to (E), inclusive, of paragraph (1) of subdivision (f) of Section 42030 requesting a list of all drugs and sharps it distributes in California, regardless of whether the drugs or sharps are covered under this chapter, the name of the manufacturer of such products, and any additional information necessary to carry out this chapter. An entity that is issued a letter of inquiry pursuant to this subdivision shall respond in writing no later than 60 days after receipt of the letter. Responses to those inquiries may be shared with the department, but are otherwise deemed proprietary and exempt from disclosure. If the entity does not believe it is a covered entity for purposes of this chapter, it shall submit all of the following to the state board in response to the letter of inquiry:

(1) The basis for the claim that it is not a covered entity.

(2) A list of any drugs and sharps it sells, distributes, repackages, or otherwise offers for sale within the state.

(3) If applicable, the name and contact information of the person or entity from which it obtains a drug or sharp identified pursuant to paragraph (2).

(e) The state board shall obtain and verify and, within 30 days of receipt or upon request by the department, submit to the department a list of drugs and sharps sold or offered for sale in the state excluded from the definition of “covered drugs” pursuant to paragraph (2) of subdivision (e) of Section 42030 or excluded from the definition of “home-generated sharps waste” in subdivision (l) of Section 42030.

(f) Notwithstanding Section 42036.4, information submitted by the state board to the department under this chapter may include proprietary information.

(g) The state board shall notify the department if any covered entity or stewardship organization is in violation of this section for purposes of enforcement by the department.

42031.4.

 (a) Except as specified in subdivision (d) of Section 42035, a covered entity is not in compliance with this chapter and is subject to penalties pursuant to Article 6 (commencing with Section 42035) if, commencing one year from the adoption of regulations pursuant to Section 42031.2, a covered product sold or offered for sale by the covered entity is not subject to an approved stewardship plan, which is submitted by the covered entity or by a stewardship organization that includes the covered entity, that has been approved by the department pursuant to Section 42032.

(b) In order to comply with the requirements of this chapter, a covered entity may establish and implement a stewardship program independently, or as part of a group of covered entities through membership in a stewardship organization exempt from taxation under Section 501(c)(3) of the federal Internal Revenue Code of 1986 (21 U.S.C. Sec. 501(c)(3)).

42035.2.

 (a) (1) The department may impose an administrative penalty on any covered entity, program operator, stewardship organization, or authorized collector that sells, offers for sale, or provides a covered product in violation of this chapter.

(2) The amount of the administrative penalty imposed pursuant to this subdivision shall not exceed ten thousand dollars ($10,000) per day unless the violation is intentional, knowing, or reckless, in which case the administrative penalty shall not exceed fifty thousand dollars ($50,000) per day.

(b) The department shall not impose a penalty on a program operator pursuant to this section for failure to comply with this chapter if the program operator demonstrates it received false or misleading information that contributed to its failure to comply, including, for a stewardship organization, from a participating covered entity.

(c) The department shall deposit all penalties collected pursuant to this section in the Pharmaceutical and Sharps Stewardship Penalty Account, which is hereby created in the Pharmaceutical and Sharps Stewardship Fund established in Section 42034.2. Upon appropriation by the Legislature, moneys in the Pharmaceutical and Sharps Stewardship Penalty Account may be expended by the department on activities including, but not limited to, the promotion of safe handling and disposal of covered products, grants for related purposes, and the administration and enforcement of this chapter.

42370.2.

 (a) (1) On or before January 1, 2021, the department shall adopt regulations to establish a process, and develop criteria, for determining the types of food service packaging that are reusable, recyclable, or compostable.

(2) The department shall adopt the regulations in consultation with the Department of General Services, the Department of Rehabilitation, the Department of Parks and Recreation, the Ocean Protection Council, the Department of Toxic Substances Control, and any other appropriate state and local agencies.

(3) As part of the regulatory process, the department shall seek input and feedback from stakeholders, including, but not limited to, food service packaging manufacturers, environmental and public health organizations, and food service facilities.

(b) (1) The regulations adopted pursuant to subdivision (a) shall be used for determining the types of food service packaging that may be included on the list developed pursuant to Section 42370.3.

(2) The regulations shall also specify how the list shall be maintained and updated, in accordance with subdivision (b) of Section 42370.3.

(3) If determined practicable by the department, the department may establish a process to authorize regional use of food service packaging that is consistent with the requirements and considerations of this section.

(c) For purposes of determining if a type of food service packaging is reusable pursuant to subdivision (a), the director shall consider, at a minimum, all of the following criteria:

(1) Whether the packaging is conventionally disposed of after a single use.

(2) Whether the packaging is sufficiently durable and washable to allow for multiple uses.

(d) For purposes of determining if a type of food service packaging is recyclable pursuant to subdivision (a), the director shall consider, at a minimum, all of the following criteria:

(1) Whether the type of food service packaging is eligible to be labeled as “recyclable” in accordance with the uniform standards contained in Article 7 (commencing with Section 17580) of Chapter 1 of Part 3 of Division 7 of the Business and Professions Code.

(2) Whether the type of food service packaging is regularly collected, separated, and cleansed for recycling by recycling service providers.

(3) Whether the type of food service packaging is regularly sorted and aggregated into defined streams for recycling processes.

(4) Whether the type of food service packaging is regularly processed and reclaimed or recycled with commercial recycling processes.

(5) Whether the food service packaging material regularly becomes feedstock that is used in the production of new products.

(6) Whether the food service packaging material is recycled in sufficient quantity, and is of sufficient quality, to maintain a market value.

(e) For purposes of determining if a type of food service packaging is compostable pursuant to subdivision (a), the director shall consider, at a minimum, all of the following criteria:

(1) Whether the food service packaging will, in a safe and timely manner, break down or otherwise become part of usable compost that can be composted in a public or private aerobic compost facility designed for and capable of processing postconsumer food waste and food-soiled paper.

(2) Whether food service packaging made from plastic is certified to meet the ASTM standard specification identified in either subparagraph (A) or (C) of paragraph (1) of subdivision (b) of Section 42356 and adopted in accordance with Section 42356.1, if applicable.

(3) Whether the food service packaging is regularly collected and accepted for processing at public and private compost facilities.

(4) Whether the type of food service packaging is eligible to be labeled as “compostable” in accordance with the uniform standards contained in Article 7 (commencing with Section 17580) of Chapter 1 of Part 3 of Division 7 of the Business and Professions Code.

(f) (1) In developing regulations pursuant to subdivision (a), the department may consult with local governments and representatives of the solid waste industry, the recycling industry, the compost industry, and food service packaging manufacturers to determine if a type of food service packaging is recyclable, reusable, or compostable.

(2) Local governments, solid waste facilities, recycling facilities, and composting facilities shall provide information requested by the department pursuant to paragraph (1) to the department.

(g) In developing regulations pursuant to subdivision (a), the department may take into account potential impacts on litter, public health, and wildlife. In evaluating these impacts, the department may consider any of the following:

(1) Information on the volume of food service packaging litter obtained from state entities or organizations that regularly conduct litter cleanup activities.

(2) Litter reduction policies that would assist in compliance with the State Water Resources Control Board’s Statewide Trash Policy and the Ocean Protection Council’s Ocean Litter Prevention Strategy.

(3) Whether the Department of Toxic Substances Control has identified as a priority product a chemical used in the manufacture of a type of food service packaging pursuant to Chapter 55 (commencing with Section 69501) of Division 4.5 of Title 22 of the California Code of Regulations.

(4) Existing scientific information available from the United States Food and Drug Administration and the Office of Environmental Health Hazard Assessment pertaining to the specific chemical used in the manufacture of a type of food service packaging.

(5) Information on the impacts that improperly disposed of food service packaging may have on wildlife, as well as policy recommendations, including waste collection infrastructure improvements, that could be implemented at state facilities to reduce the impact on wildlife.

(h) The department may convene a stakeholder group to assist the department in implementing this section that consists of, but is not limited to, litter prevention organizations, environmental organizations, and trade associations representing food service packaging manufacturers or suppliers.

42370.3.

 (a) The department shall develop a list of approved types of food service packaging that may be used by food service facilities and publish the list on its internet website within 90 days of the Office of Administrative Law approving the regulations adopted by the department pursuant to Section 42370.2. The department shall include on the list only a type of food service packaging that is reusable, recyclable, or compostable, as determined by the regulations adopted by the department pursuant to Section 42370.2.

(b) The department shall regularly, but no less than once every five years, evaluate the list of approved types of food service packaging to determine whether each type of approved food service packaging is reusable, recyclable, or compostable. After evaluation, the department may amend the list to remove or add a type of food service packaging based on whether it is reusable, recyclable, or compostable. The department shall post any updates to the list on its internet website.

(c) A manufacturer that seeks to have included on the list a type of food service packaging or material may be required by the department to submit data for purposes of the department’s evaluation of whether to include the type of food service packaging or material on the list.

(d) Development of, publication of, and updates made to the list pursuant to this section are exempt from Chapter 3.5 (commencing with Section 11340) of Part 1 of Division 3 of Title 2 of the Government Code.

42450.5.

 (a) For purposes of this section, the following definitions apply:

(1) “Automobile dismantler” has the same definition as in Section 220 of the Vehicle Code.

(2) “Motor vehicle” has the same definition as in Section 415 of the Vehicle Code.

(3) “Vehicle manufacturer” has the same definition as in Section 672 of the Vehicle Code.

(b) On or before April 1, 2019, the Secretary for Environmental Protection shall convene the Lithium-Ion Car Battery Recycling Advisory Group to review, and advise the Legislature on, policies pertaining to the recovery and recycling of lithium-ion vehicle batteries sold with motor vehicles in the state. Until April 1, 2022, the advisory group shall meet at least quarterly. The advisory group shall consult with universities and research institutions that have conducted research in the area of battery recycling, with manufacturers of electric and hybrid vehicles, and with the recycling industry. The Secretary for Environmental Protection shall appoint at least one member to the advisory group from each of the following:

(1) The Department of Resources Recycling and Recovery.

(2) The Department of Toxic Substances Control.

(3) A vehicle manufacturer.

(4) An organization that represents one or more vehicle manufacturers.

(5) An electronic waste recycler or an organization that represents one or more electronic waste recyclers.

(6) An automotive repair dealer or an organization that represents one or more automotive repair dealers.

(7) An automobile dismantler or an organization that represents one or more automobile dismantlers.

(8) An environmental organization that specializes in waste reduction and recycling.

(9) A representative of the energy storage industry.

(10) A lithium-ion vehicle battery manufacturer.

(11) A standards-developing organization that has a focus on automotive engineering.

(c) On or before April 1, 2022, the Lithium-Ion Car Battery Recycling Advisory Group shall submit policy recommendations to the Legislature, in compliance with Section 9795 of the Government Code, aimed at ensuring that as close to 100 percent as possible of lithium-ion vehicle batteries in the state are reused or recycled at end-of-life in a safe and cost-effective manner. The policy recommendations shall reflect entire life-cycle considerations for lithium-ion vehicle batteries, including, but not limited to, opportunities for and barriers to the reuse of those batteries as energy storage systems after they are removed from the vehicle, best management considerations for those batteries at end-of-life, and the overall effect of different management practices on the environment. In developing the policy recommendations, the advisory group shall consider both in-state and out-of-state options for the recycling of lithium-ion vehicle batteries.

(d)  This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2027, and as of that date is repealed.

80114.

 (a) Of the amount made available pursuant to Section 80110, two hundred million dollars ($200,000,000) is available to the Natural Resources Agency for implementation of voluntary agreements that provide multibenefit water quality, water supply, and watershed protection and restoration for the watersheds of the state to achieve the objectives of integrating regulatory and voluntary efforts, implementing an updated State Water Resources Control Board’s San Francisco Bay/Sacramento-San Joaquin Delta Estuary Water Quality Control Plan, and ensuring ecological benefits. Expenditure of funds provided in this section shall be in accordance with the following:

(1) For the purposes of this section, watershed restoration includes activities to fund wetland habitat, salmon, steelhead, and fishery benefits, improve and restore river health, modernize stream crossings, culverts, and bridges, reconnect historical flood plains, install or improve fish screens, provide fish passages, restore river channels, restore or enhance riparian, aquatic, and terrestrial habitat, improve ecological functions, acquire from willing sellers conservation easements for riparian buffer strips, improve local watershed management, predation management, hatchery management, and remove sediment or trash.

(2) For purposes of this section, funds may be used for projects that measurably enhance streamflows at a time and location necessary to provide fisheries or ecosystem benefits or improvements that improve upon existing flow conditions. Project types that may be eligible include, but are not limited to, water transactions such as lease, purchase, or exchange, change of use petitions to benefit fish and wildlife, surface storage to be used to enhance streamflow, forbearance of water rights, changes in water management, groundwater storage and conjunctive use, habitat restoration projects that reshape the stream hydrograph, water efficiency generally, irrigation efficiency and water infrastructure improvements that save water and enable reshaping of the stream hydrograph, reconnecting flood flows with restored flood plains, and reservoir reoperations both at existing and new storage sites.

(b) The funds authorized by this section are available for direct expenditures and local assistance grants by the Natural Resources Agency, in consultation with the Department of Fish and Wildlife, that satisfy all of the following:

(1) Implement voluntary agreements executed by the Department of Fish and Wildlife with federal and state agencies, local government, water districts and agencies, and nongovernmental organizations that improve ecological flows and habitat for species, create water supply and regulatory certainty for water users, and foster a collaborative approach to facilitate implementation of the State Water Resources Control Board’s Bay-Delta Water Quality Control Plan.

(2) Implement a voluntary agreement submitted by the Department of Fish and Wildlife to the State Water Resources Control Board on or before June 1, 2018, for consideration.

(3) Implement a voluntary agreement that is of statewide significance, restores natural aquatic or riparian functions or wetlands habitat for birds and aquatic species, protects or promotes the restoration of endangered or threatened species, enhances the reliability of water supplies on a regional or interregional basis, and provides significant regional or statewide economic benefits.

(c) Funds provided by this section shall not be expended to pay the costs of the design, construction, operation, mitigation, or maintenance of Delta conveyance facilities.

(d) If the Department of Fish and Wildlife submits a voluntary agreement that satisfies paragraph (2) of subdivision (b), unencumbered funds available pursuant to this section to implement that voluntary agreement shall no longer be available 15 years after the date the State Water Resources Control Board approves the submitted agreement, at which point funds remaining available pursuant to this section shall become available to the Natural Resources Agency for the purposes of Sections 79732 and 79736 of the Water Code. If no voluntary agreements are submitted on or before June 1, 2018, any remaining funds shall be available to the Natural Resources Agency for the purposes of Sections 79732 and 79736 of the Water Code. The Secretary of the Natural Resources Agency shall ensure an annual reporting of the funds pursuant to Section 80012.

365.1.

 (a) Except as expressly authorized by this section, and subject to the limitations in subdivisions (b) and (c), the right of retail end-use customers pursuant to this chapter to acquire service from other providers is suspended until the Legislature, by statute, lifts the suspension or otherwise authorizes direct transactions. For purposes of this section, “other provider” means any person, corporation, or other entity that is authorized to provide electric service within the service territory of an electrical corporation pursuant to this chapter, and includes an aggregator, broker, or marketer, as defined in Section 331, and an electric service provider, as defined in Section 218.3. “Other provider” does not include a community choice aggregator, as defined in Section 331.1, and the limitations in this section do not apply to the sale of electricity by “other providers” to a community choice aggregator for resale to community choice aggregation electricity consumers pursuant to Section 366.2.

(b) The commission shall allow individual retail nonresidential end-use customers to acquire electric service from other providers in each electrical corporation’s distribution service territory, up to a maximum allowable total kilowatthours annual limit. The maximum allowable annual limit shall be established by the commission for each electrical corporation at the maximum total kilowatthours supplied by all other providers to distribution customers of that electrical corporation during any sequential 12-month period between April 1, 1998, and the effective date of this section. Within six months of the effective date of this section, or by July 1, 2010, whichever is sooner, the commission shall adopt and implement a reopening schedule that commences immediately and will phase in the allowable amount of increased kilowatthours over a period of not less than three years, and not more than five years, raising the allowable limit of kilowatthours supplied by other providers in each electrical corporation’s distribution service territory from the number of kilowatthours provided by other providers as of the effective date of this section, to the maximum allowable annual limit for that electrical corporation’s distribution service territory. The commission shall review and, if appropriate, modify its currently effective rules governing direct transactions, but that review shall not delay the start of the phase-in schedule.

(c) Once the commission has authorized additional direct transactions pursuant to subdivision (b), it shall do both of the following:

(1) Ensure that other providers are subject to the same requirements that are applicable to the state’s three largest electrical corporations under any programs or rules adopted by the commission to implement the resource adequacy provisions of Section 380, the renewables portfolio standard provisions of Article 16 (commencing with Section 399.11), and the requirements for the electricity sector adopted by the State Air Resources Board pursuant to the California Global Warming Solutions Act of 2006 (Division 25.5 (commencing with Section 38500) of the Health and Safety Code). This requirement applies notwithstanding any prior decision of the commission to the contrary.

(2) (A) Ensure that, in the event that the commission authorizes, in the situation of a contract with a third party, or orders, in the situation of utility-owned generation, an electrical corporation to obtain generation resources that the commission determines are needed to meet system or local area reliability needs for the benefit of all customers in the electrical corporation’s distribution service territory, the net capacity costs of those generation resources are allocated on a fully nonbypassable basis consistent with departing load provisions as determined by the commission, to all of the following:

(i) Bundled service customers of the electrical corporation.

(ii) Customers that purchase electricity through a direct transaction with other providers.

(iii) Customers of community choice aggregators.

(B) If the commission authorizes or orders an electrical corporation to obtain generation resources pursuant to subparagraph (A), the commission shall ensure that those resources meet a system or local reliability need in a manner that benefits all customers of the electrical corporation. The commission shall allocate the costs of those generation resources to ratepayers in a manner that is fair and equitable to all customers, whether they receive electric service from the electrical corporation, a community choice aggregator, or an electric service provider.

(C) The resource adequacy benefits of generation resources acquired by an electrical corporation pursuant to subparagraph (A) shall be allocated to all customers who pay their net capacity costs. Net capacity costs shall be determined by subtracting the energy and ancillary services value of the resource from the total costs paid by the electrical corporation pursuant to a contract with a third party or the annual revenue requirement for the resource if the electrical corporation directly owns the resource. An energy auction shall not be required as a condition for applying this allocation, but may be allowed as a means to establish the energy and ancillary services value of the resource for purposes of determining the net costs of capacity to be recovered from customers pursuant to this paragraph, and the allocation of the net capacity costs of contracts with third parties shall be allowed for the terms of those contracts.

(D) It is the intent of the Legislature, in enacting this paragraph, to provide additional guidance to the commission with respect to the implementation of subdivision (g) of Section 380, as well as to ensure that the customers to whom the net costs and benefits of capacity are allocated are not required to pay for the cost of electricity they do not consume.

(d) (1) If the commission approves a centralized resource adequacy mechanism pursuant to subdivisions (h) and (i) of Section 380, upon the implementation of the centralized resource adequacy mechanism the requirements of paragraph (2) of subdivision (c) shall be suspended. If the commission later orders that electrical corporations cease procuring capacity through a centralized resource adequacy mechanism, the requirements of paragraph (2) of subdivision (c) shall again apply.

(2) If the use of a centralized resource adequacy mechanism is authorized by the commission and has been implemented as set forth in paragraph (1), the net capacity costs of generation resources that the commission determines are required to meet urgent system or urgent local grid reliability needs, and that the commission authorizes to be procured outside of the Section 380 or Section 454.5 processes, shall be recovered according to the provisions of paragraph (2) of subdivision (c).

(3) This subdivision does not supplant the resource adequacy requirements of Section 380 or the resource procurement procedures established in Section 454.5.

(e) On or before June 1, 2019, the commission shall issue an order regarding direct transactions that provides as follows:

(1) Increase the maximum allowable total kilowatthours annual limit by 4,000 gigawatthours and apportion that increase among the service territories of the electrical corporations.

(2) All residential and nonresidential customer accounts that are on direct access as of January 1, 2019, remain authorized to participate in direct transactions.

(f) (1) On or before June 1, 2020, the commission shall provide recommendations to the Legislature on implementing a further direct transactions reopening schedule, including, but not limited to, the phase-in period over which the further direct transactions shall occur for all remaining nonresidential customer accounts in each electrical corporation’s service territory.

(2) In developing the recommendations pursuant to paragraph (1), the commission shall find all of the following:

(A) The recommendations are consistent with the state’s greenhouse gas emission reduction goals.

(B) The recommendations do not increase emissions of criteria air pollutants and toxic air contaminants.

(C) The recommendations ensure electrical system reliability.

(D) The recommendations do not cause undue shifting of costs to bundled service customers of an electrical corporation or to direct transaction customers.

(3) (A) The recommendations shall be provided in compliance with Section 9795 of the Government Code.

(B) Pursuant to Section 10231.5 of the Government Code, this subdivision is inoperative on June 1, 2024.

381.2.

 (a) (1) The commission shall investigate the ability of electrical corporations and gas corporations to provide various energy efficiency financing options to their customers for the purposes of implementing the program developed pursuant to Section 25943 of the Public Resources Code.

(2) It is the intent of the Legislature that the commission implement this section by establishing applicable rules, within a reasonable period of time and in an open process, that are clear and operate on a prospective basis.

(b) Recognizing the already underway 2015 commission work to adopt efficiency potential and goals, the Energy Commission work on its 2015 energy demand forecast, and the need to determine how to incorporate meter-based performance into determinations of goals, portfolio cost-effectiveness, and authorized budgets, the commission, in a separate or existing proceeding, shall, by September 1, 2016, authorize electrical corporations or gas corporations to provide financial incentives, rebates, technical assistance, and support to their customers to increase the energy efficiency of existing buildings based on all estimated energy savings and energy usage reductions, taking into consideration the overall reduction in normalized metered energy consumption as a measure of energy savings. Those programs shall include energy usage reductions resulting from the adoption of a measure or installation of equipment required for modifications to existing buildings to bring them into conformity with, or to cause them to exceed, the requirements of Title 24 of the California Code of Regulations, as well as operational, behavioral, and retrocommissioning activities reasonably expected to produce multiyear savings. The commission shall authorize an electrical corporation or gas corporation to count all energy savings achieved through the authorized programs created by this subdivision, unless determined otherwise, toward overall energy efficiency goals or targets established by the commission. The commission may adjust the energy efficiency goals or targets of an electrical corporation or gas corporation to reflect this change in savings estimation consistent with this subdivision and subdivision (d).

(c) Effective January 1, 2016, electrical corporations and gas corporations are authorized to implement the provisions of subdivision (b) for high opportunity projects or programs. The commission shall provide expedited authorization of high opportunity projects and programs to apply the savings baseline provisions in subdivision (b).

(d) In furtherance of subdivision (b), the commission, in consultation with the Energy Commission, shall consider all of the following:

(1) The results of any interagency baseline assessment.

(2) Any available results from electrical corporation and gas corporation baseline pilot studies ordered in commission Decision 14-10-046 (October 24, 2014), Decision Establishing Energy Efficiency Savings Goals and Approving 2015 Energy Efficiency Programs and Budgets.

(3) Information necessary to ensure consistency with the energy forecast and planning functions of the Energy Commission and the Independent System Operator.

(e) The commission may direct electrical corporations and gas corporations to make filings that are necessary to ensure coordination with the energy forecast and planning functions of the Energy Commission and the Independent System Operator.

(f) The commission shall prioritize energy efficiency activities consistent with Sections 454.55 and 454.56.

(g) (1) This subdivision imposes the operative requirements pursuant to this section for custom projects and other custom programs for industrial, agricultural, commercial, residential, and public sector customers. This subdivision shall become operative on July 1, 2019, and applies only to those programs and projects.

(A) The commission shall authorize electrical corporations and gas corporations to provide financial incentives, rebates, technical assistance, and support to their customers to increase the energy efficiency of industrial, agricultural, commercial, residential, and public sector customers based on nationally recognized measurement and verification standards, such as the International Performance Measurement and Verification Protocol.

(B) All energy savings achieved through the programs authorized pursuant to this subdivision shall count toward the overall energy efficiency goals or targets established by the commission for an electrical corporation, gas corporation, or program administrator.

(C) The commission may adjust the energy efficiency goals or targets of an electrical corporation or gas corporation to reflect a change in the forecast energy savings consistent with this subdivision and subdivision (d).

(2) The commission shall develop and maintain rules for custom energy efficiency projects that include eligibility criteria and other metrics for determining whether a project is eligible for funding pursuant to the program.

(A) The commission shall review and circulate for public review and comment statewide eligibility criteria or metrics at least 30 days prior to changes, including posting on the commission’s internet website.

(B) After the initial 30-day period for public review and comment, any changes to the initial proposed eligibility criteria or metrics shall be circulated for public review for not less than 15 days prior to final adoption.

(C) Once eligibility criteria or metrics are adopted, any proposed revision shall be circulated for public review and comment for not less than 30 days prior to a revision. For these purposes, grammatical corrections or other nonsubstantive modifications are not a revision and may be made when the need for the correction or modification is discovered.

(D) Statewide eligibility criteria or metrics shall operate only on a prospective basis, shall be applied uniformly and consistently by each electrical corporation and gas corporation, and shall not be applied retroactively to any pending or approved applications.

(E) Any delay in the adoption of eligibility criteria or metrics past July 1, 2019, shall not be the basis for denial of any application nor a basis to suspend the program.

(3) (A) The rules adopted by the commission for custom energy efficiency projects shall require each electrical corporation and gas corporation to maintain a custom measure project archive. The commission shall develop and maintain requirements for what information is to be included in the custom measure project archive, including information required to support the applications of customers’ custom energy efficiency projects.

(B) (i) Upon being notified of the filing of a new application, or that a proposed project has moved from the preapplication stage to the application stage, the commission shall make a determination of whether the application has been selected for review within 15 days and notify the electrical corporation or gas corporation of its decision to review.

(ii) The electrical corporation or gas corporation shall make the project application supporting documentation available to the commission for review within 15 business days of the commission review selection date. The commission shall develop and maintain requirements for what information is to be included in the custom measure project archive for those customer projects selected for review.

(iii) The commission shall, within 15 days of the submission of a project to the custom measure project archive, promptly notify an electrical corporation or gas corporation of any deficiency in the information supporting an application.

(iv) The review of a proposed project shall be concluded within 30 business days from when the date a project’s documentation is received by the commission, unless the commission determines it was provided incomplete or inaccurate supporting information from the electrical corporation or gas corporation, and notifies the electrical corporation and gas corporation of the need for additional review time. The 30 business days will restart from the time complete and accurate documentation, as noted in the notification of deficiencies, is submitted by the electrical corporation or gas corporation. The electrical corporation or gas corporation shall notify the customer applicant within 48 hours of any delays as a result of incomplete or inaccurate supporting project information, or if the commission needs additional review time.

(C) The commission shall notify the electrical corporation or gas corporation of the specific deficiencies in the information supporting an application, including each basis as to why the project is inconsistent with the eligibility criteria and metrics, which may include failure to adequately define the project, make specific recommendations for the conditions under which the project would be approved, and, if the application fails to adequately define the project, identify aspects of the project that require further definition.

(D) If, as a result of the review, the commission rejects the proposed project or requests modification of the project, the commission shall notify the electrical corporation or gas corporation of the reasons for the rejection or request for modification, including each basis as to why the project is rejected or modification is requested, and make specific recommendations for the conditions under which the project would be approved. The electrical corporation or gas corporation shall promptly inform the applicant as to the reasons why the project was rejected and the specific recommendations for the conditions under which the project would be approved.

(E) The commission shall not reject a proposed project or request modification of a project on the basis of inconsistency with eligibility criteria or metrics that were not in effect at the time the project application was submitted.

(F) If any party to the project is unsatisfied with the commission’s directions for the project, a dispute resolution process may be initiated by that party. The commission shall adopt rules for the conduct of the dispute resolution process.

(G) If a project is not selected by the commission for review within the period determined pursuant to subparagraph (B), or if a project has not received written direction from the commission within the period specified in clause (iv) of subparagraph (B), the commission shall be deemed to have waived review of the project and the project may proceed as if it had been approved by the commission, but the project is subject to the review of the electrical or gas corporation.

(4) (A) For projects that were not reviewed and did not receive written documentation, as specified in subparagraph (G) of paragraph (3), an electrical corporation or gas corporation may rely on its project application review process to determine the forecast energy savings values for the project based on rules adopted by the commission, and base the final customer incentive payment and contractor pay-for-performance payment on postinstallation measurement and verification results.

(B) The commission may employ postinstallation review of a project to determine if the project was carried out consistent with the application and to obtain information pertaining to whether the eligibility criteria or metrics should be revised.

(5) Except as described in paragraph (2), this subdivision does not limit the commission’s existing authority to evaluate projects or programs for the purpose of prospectively adjusting the projects or programs for industrial and agricultural processes, facilities, systems, and equipment.

399.12.5.

 (a) Notwithstanding subdivision (e) of Section 399.12, a small hydroelectric generation facility that satisfies the criteria for an eligible renewable energy resource pursuant to Section 399.12 shall not lose its eligibility if efficiency improvements undertaken after January 1, 2008, cause the generating capacity of the facility to exceed 30 megawatts, and the efficiency improvements do not result in an adverse impact on instream beneficial uses or cause a change in the volume or timing of streamflow. The entire generating capacity of the facility shall be eligible.

(b) Notwithstanding subdivision (e) of Section 399.12, the incremental increase in the amount of electricity generated from a hydroelectric generation facility as a result of efficiency improvements at the facility, is electricity from an eligible renewable energy resource, without regard to the electrical output of the facility, if all of the following conditions are met:

(1) The incremental increase is the result of efficiency improvements from a retrofit that do not result in an adverse impact on instream beneficial uses or cause a change in the volume or timing of streamflow.

(2) The hydroelectric generation facility meets one of the following certification mechanisms:

(A) The hydroelectric generation facility has, within the immediately preceding 15 years, received certification from the State Water Resources Control Board pursuant to Section 401 of the federal Clean Water Act (33 U.S.C. Sec. 1341), or has received certification from a regional board to which the state board has delegated authority to issue certification, unless the facility is not subject to certification because there is no potential for discharge into waters of the United States.

(B) If the hydroelectric facility is not located in California, the certification pursuant to Section 401 of the federal Clean Water Act (33 U.S.C. Sec. 1341) may be received from the applicable state board or agency or from a regional board to which the state board has delegated authority to issue the certification.

(C) If the hydroelectric generation facility is the Rock Creek Powerhouse, Federal Energy Regulatory Commission Project Number 1962, the efficiency improvements have received any necessary incremental certification from the State Water Resources Control Board.

(3) The hydroelectric generation facility is owned by a retail seller or a local publicly owned electric utility, was operational prior to January 1, 2007, the efficiency improvements are initiated on or after January 1, 2008, the efficiency improvements are not the result of routine maintenance activities, as determined by the Energy Commission, and the efficiency improvements were not included in any resource plan sponsored by the facility owner prior to January 1, 2008.

(4) All of the incremental increase in electricity resulting from the efficiency improvements are demonstrated to result from a long-term financial commitment by the retail seller or local publicly owned electric utility. For purposes of this paragraph, “long-term financial commitment” means either new ownership investment in the facility by the retail seller or local publicly owned electric utility or a new or renewed contract with a term of 10 or more years, which includes procurement of the incremental generation.

(c) The incremental increase in the amount of electricity generated from a hydroelectric generation facility as a result of efficiency improvements at the facility are not eligible for supplemental energy payments pursuant to the Renewable Energy Resources Program (Chapter 8.6 (commencing with Section 25740) of Division 15 of the Public Resources Code), or a successor program.

(d) Notwithstanding subdivision (e) of Section 399.12 and subdivisions (a) and (b), a hydroelectric generation facility that is an eligible renewable energy resource pursuant to this article as of January 1, 2010, shall not lose its eligibility if the facility causes a change in the volume or timing of streamflow required by license conditions approved pursuant to the Federal Power Act (Chapter 12 (commencing with Section 791a) of Title 16 of the United States Code) on or after January 1, 2010.

748.6.

 Beginning with the fiscal year commencing July 1, 2019, and ending with the fiscal year ending June 30, 2023, the commission shall annually allocate fifty million dollars ($50,000,000) of the revenues, including any accrued interest, received by a gas corporation as a result of the direct allocation of greenhouse gas emissions allowances provided to gas corporations as part of a market-based compliance mechanism adopted pursuant to subdivision (c) of Section 38562 of the Health and Safety Code to fund the Building Initiative for Low-Emissions Development (BUILD) Program (Article 12 (commencing with Section 921)) and the Technology and Equipment for Clean Heating (TECH) Initiative (Article 13 (commencing with Section 922)).

777.

 (a) This section applies if there is a landlord-tenant relationship between the residential occupants and the owner, manager, or operator of the dwelling.

(b) If an electrical, gas, heat, or water corporation furnishes individually metered residential service to residential occupants of a detached single-family dwelling, a multiunit residential structure, mobilehome park, or permanent residential structure in a labor camp, as defined in Section 17008 of the Health and Safety Code, and the owner, manager, or operator of the dwelling, structure, or park is the customer of record, the corporation shall make every good faith effort to inform the residential occupants, by means of written notice, when the account is in arrears, that service will be terminated at least 10 days prior to termination. The written notice shall further inform the residential occupants that they have the right to become customers, to whom the service will then be billed, without being required to pay any amount which may be due on the delinquent account. The notice shall be in English and in the languages listed in Section 1632 of the Civil Code.

(c) The corporation is not required to make service available to the residential occupants unless each residential occupant agrees to the terms and conditions of service and meets the requirements of law and the corporation’s rules and tariffs. However, if one or more of the residential occupants are willing and able to assume responsibility for the subsequent charges to the account to the satisfaction of the corporation, or if there is a physical means, legally available to the corporation, of selectively terminating service to those residential occupants who have not met the requirements of the corporation’s rules and tariffs, the corporation shall make service available to those residential occupants who have met those requirements.

(d) If prior service for a period of time is a condition for establishing credit with the corporation, residence and proof of prompt payment of rent or other credit obligation acceptable to the corporation for that period of time is a satisfactory equivalent.

(e) Any residential occupant who becomes a customer of the corporation pursuant to this section whose periodic payments, such as rental payments, include charges for residential electrical, gas, heat, or water service, where those charges are not separately stated, may deduct from the periodic payment each payment period all reasonable charges paid to the corporation for those services during the preceding payment period.

(f) In the case of a detached single-family dwelling, the corporation may do any of the following:

(1) Give notice of termination at least seven days prior to the proposed termination.

(2) In order for the amount due on the delinquent account to be waived, require an occupant who becomes a customer to verify that the delinquent account customer of record is or was the landlord, manager, or agent of the dwelling. Verification may include, but is not limited to, a lease or rental agreement, rent receipts, a government document indicating that the occupant is renting the property, or information disclosed pursuant to Section 1962 of the Civil Code.

(g) This section shall become operative on July 1, 2010.

779.1.

 (a) Every electrical, gas, heat, or water corporation shall allow every residential customer at least 19 days from the date of mailing its bill for services, postage prepaid, for payment of the charges demanded. A corporation subject to this section shall not terminate residential service for nonpayment of a delinquent account unless the corporation first gives notice of the delinquency and impending termination, at least 10 days prior to the proposed termination, by means of a notice mailed, postage prepaid, to the customer to whom the service is billed, not earlier than 19 days from the date of mailing the corporation’s bill for services, and the 10-day period shall not commence until five days after the mailing of the notice.

(b) Every corporation shall make a reasonable attempt to contact an adult person residing at the premises of the customer by telephone or personal contact at least 24 hours prior to any termination of service, except that, whenever telephone or personal contact cannot be accomplished, the corporation shall give, either by mail or in person, a notice of termination of service at least 48 hours prior to termination.

(c) Every corporation shall make available to its residential customers who are 65 years of age or older, or who are dependent adults as defined in Section 15610.23 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, a third-party notification service, whereby the corporation will attempt to notify a person designated by the customer to receive notification when the customer’s account is past due and subject to termination. The notification shall include information on what is required to prevent termination of service. The residential customer shall make a request for third-party notification on a form provided by the corporation, and shall include the written consent of the designated third party. The third-party notification does not obligate the third party to pay the overdue charges, nor shall it prevent or delay termination of service.

(d) Every notice of termination of service pursuant to subdivision (a) or (b) shall include all of the following information:

(1) The name and address of the customer whose account is delinquent.

(2) The amount of the delinquency.

(3) The date by which payment or arrangements for payment is required in order to avoid termination.

(4) The procedure by which the customer may initiate a complaint or request an investigation concerning service or charges.

(5) The procedure by which the customer may request amortization of the unpaid charges.

(6) The procedure for the customer to obtain information on the availability of financial assistance, including private, local, state, or federal sources, if applicable.

(7) The telephone number of a representative of the corporation who can provide additional information or institute arrangements for payment.

(8) The telephone number of the commission to which inquiries by the customer may be directed.

All written notices shall be in a clear and legible format.

(e) Any residential customer whose complaint or request for an investigation has resulted in an adverse determination by the corporation may appeal the determination to the commission. Any subsequent appeal of the dispute or complaint to the commission is not subject to this section.

(f) If a residential customer fails to comply with an amortization agreement, the corporation shall not terminate service without giving notice to the customer at least 48 hours prior to termination of the conditions the customer is required to meet to avoid termination, but this notice does not entitle the customer to further investigation by the corporation.

(g) A termination of service shall not be effected without compliance with this section. Any service wrongfully terminated shall be restored without charge for the restoration of service, and a notation thereof shall be mailed to the customer at the customer’s billing address.

878.5.

 The commission shall adopt a portability freeze rule for the lifeline program by January 15, 2017. The commission shall consider including all of the following in the rule:

(a) A 60-day duration of the portability freeze.

(b) A period of time when a subscriber would be able to terminate lifeline service without penalty, similar to that established in Section 4.13.5 of commission Decision 14-01-036 (January 16, 2014), Decision Adopting Revisions to Modernize and Expand the California Lifeline Program.

(c) A requirement that the administrator of the lifeline program provide a telephone corporation providing lifeline service with real-time information concerning whether a subscriber has enrolled with another telephone corporation during the period of the portability freeze adopted by the commission pursuant to this section and, if the subscriber enrolled during this period, the date of enrollment.

1701.3.

 (a) This section applies only to ratesetting cases, except, if the commissioner assigned pursuant to Section 1701.1 has determined that a ratesetting case does not require a hearing, the procedures prescribed by subdivisions (b), (d), (f), and (i) do not apply.

(b) The assigned commissioner shall determine prior to the first hearing whether the commissioner or the assigned administrative law judge shall be designated as the principal hearing officer. The principal hearing officer shall be present for more than one-half of the hearing days. The decision of the principal hearing officer is the proposed decision.

(c) An alternate decision may be issued by the assigned commissioner or the assigned administrative law judge who is not the principal hearing officer. Any alternate decision may be filed with the commission and served upon all parties to the proceeding any time prior to issuance of a final decision by the commission, consistent with the requirements of Section 311.

(d) The commission shall establish a procedure for any party to request the presence of a commissioner at a hearing. The assigned commissioner shall be present at any closing arguments in the case.

(e) The principal hearing officer shall present the proposed decision to the full commission in a public meeting. The alternate decision, if any, shall also be presented to the full commission at that public meeting.

(f) The presentation to the full commission shall contain a record of the number of days of the hearing, the number of days that each commissioner was present, and whether the decision was completed on time.

(g) The commission shall provide by rule for peremptory challenges and challenges for cause of the administrative law judge. Challenges for cause shall include, but not be limited to, financial interests and prejudice. All parties shall be entitled to unlimited peremptory challenges in any case in which the administrative law judge has within the previous 12 months served in any capacity in an advocacy position at the commission, been employed by a regulated public utility, or has represented a party or has been an interested person in the case.

(h) (1) Ex parte communications in ratesetting cases are subject to the disclosure requirements of this article. The commission, by order or ruling, may prohibit ex parte communications in a ratesetting case.

(2) Oral communications may be permitted by a decisionmaker if all parties are given not less than three working days’ notice. Individual ex parte meetings shall not be held during the three business days before the commission’s scheduled vote on the decision.

(3) (A) If an ex parte communication meeting is granted to any party, all other parties, upon request, shall also be granted individual ex parte meetings of a substantially equal period of time and shall be sent a notice of that opportunity at the time the request is granted.

(B) Subparagraph (A) does not apply if the decisionmaker participating in the ex parte communication meeting is a member of the personal staff of a commissioner acting in a policy or legal advisory capacity and no other decisionmaker to whom subparagraph (A) applies is a participant.

(4) Written ex parte communications by any interested person may be permitted if copies of the communication are transmitted to all parties on the same day as the original communication.

(5) Written and oral ex parte communications shall not be part of the evidentiary record of the proceeding.

(6) (A) The commission may establish a “quiet period” during which no oral or written ex parte communications may be permitted and the commission may meet in closed session during that period.

(B) A quiet period may be established only during the following periods:

(i) After a proposed decision or order is issued and is scheduled for a vote.

(ii) After a proposed decision is scheduled for a vote, but is then held and rescheduled for a vote.

(C) The commission shall establish a quiet period during the three business days before the commission’s scheduled vote on a proposed decision.

(D) (i) Any meeting of the commission during a quiet period shall require a minimum of three days’ advance public notice.

(ii) The requirement specified in subparagraph (F) of paragraph (1) of subdivision (b) of Section 11123 of the Government Code does not apply to a meeting of the commission during a quiet period that is held by teleconference.

(i) Any party has the right to present a final oral argument of its case before the commission. Those requests shall be scheduled in a timely manner. A quorum of the commission shall be present for the final oral arguments.

(j) The commission may, in issuing its decision, adopt, modify, or set aside the proposed decision or any part of the decision based on evidence in the record. The final decision of the commission shall be issued not later than 60 days after the issuance of the proposed decision. Under extraordinary circumstances the commission may extend this date for a reasonable period. The 60-day period shall be extended for 30 days if any alternate decision is proposed pursuant to Section 311.

2833.

 (a) The commission shall require a green tariff shared renewables program to be administered by a participating utility in accordance with this section.

(b) Generating facilities participating in a participating utility’s green tariff shared renewables program shall be eligible renewable energy resources with a nameplate rated generating capacity not exceeding 20 megawatts, except for those generating facilities reserved for location in areas identified by the California Environmental Protection Agency as the most impacted and disadvantaged communities pursuant to paragraph (1) of subdivision (d), which shall not exceed one megawatt nameplate rated generating capacity.

(c) A participating utility shall use commission-approved tools and mechanisms to procure additional eligible renewable energy resources for the green tariff shared renewables program from electrical generation facilities that are in addition to those required by the California Renewables Portfolio Standard Program (Article 16 (commencing with Section 399.11) of Chapter 2.3 of Part 1). For purposes of this subdivision, “commission-approved tools and mechanisms” means those procurement methods approved by the commission for an electrical corporation to procure eligible renewable energy resources for purposes of meeting the procurement requirements of the California Renewables Portfolio Standard Program (Article 16 (commencing with Section 399.11) of Chapter 2.3 of Part 1).

(d) A participating utility shall permit customers within the service territory of the utility to purchase electricity pursuant to the tariff approved by the commission to implement the utility’s green tariff shared renewables program, until the utility meets its proportionate share of a statewide limitation of 600 megawatts of customer participation, measured by nameplate rated generating capacity. The proportionate share shall be calculated based on the ratio of each participating utility’s retail sales to total retail sales of electricity by all participating utilities. The commission may place other restrictions on purchases under a green tariff shared renewables program, including restricting participation to a certain level of capacity each year. The following restrictions apply to the statewide 600 megawatt limitation:

(1) (A) One hundred megawatts shall be reserved for facilities that are no larger than one megawatt nameplate rated generating capacity and that are located in areas previously identified by the California Environmental Protection Agency as the most impacted and disadvantaged communities. These communities shall be identified by census tract, and shall be determined to be the most impacted 20 percent based on results from the best available cumulative impact screening methodology designed to identify each of the following:

(i) Areas disproportionately affected by environmental pollution and other hazards that can lead to negative public health effects, exposure, or environmental degradation.

(ii) Areas with socioeconomic vulnerability.

(B) For purposes of this paragraph, “previously identified” means identified prior to commencing construction of the facility.

(2) Not less than 100 megawatts shall be reserved for participation by residential class customers.

(3) Twenty megawatts shall be reserved for the City of Davis.

(e) To the extent possible, a participating utility shall seek to procure eligible renewable energy resources that are located in reasonable proximity to enrolled participants.

(f) A participating utility’s green tariff shared renewables program shall support diverse procurement and the goals of commission General Order 156.

(g) A participating utility’s green tariff shared renewables program shall not allow a customer to subscribe to more than 100 percent of the customer’s electricity demand.

(h) Except as authorized by this subdivision, a participating utility’s green tariff shared renewables program shall not allow a customer to subscribe to more than two megawatts of nameplate generating capacity. This limitation does not apply to a federal, state, or local government, school or school district, county office of education, the California Community Colleges, the California State University, or the University of California.

(i) A participating utility’s green tariff shared renewables program shall not allow any single entity or its affiliates or subsidiaries to subscribe to more than 20 percent of any single calendar year’s total cumulative rated generating capacity.

(j) To the extent possible, a participating utility shall actively market the utility’s green tariff shared renewables program to low-income and minority communities and customers.

(k) Participating customers shall receive bill credits for the generation of a participating eligible renewable energy resource using the class average retail generation cost as established in the participating utility’s approved tariff for the class to which the participating customer belongs, plus a renewables adjustment value representing the difference between the time-of-delivery profile of the eligible renewable energy resource used to serve the participating customer and the class average time-of-delivery profile and the resource adequacy value, if any, of the resource contained in the utility’s green tariff shared renewables program. The renewables adjustment value applicable to a time-of-delivery profile of an eligible renewable energy resource shall be determined according to rules adopted by the commission. For these purposes, “time-of-delivery profile” refers to the daily generating pattern of a participating eligible renewable energy resource over time, the value of which is determined by comparing the generating pattern of that participating eligible renewable energy resource to the demand for electricity over time and other generating resources available to serve that demand.

(l) Participating customers shall pay a renewable generation rate established by the commission, the administrative costs of the participating utility, and any other charges the commission determines are just and reasonable to fully cover the cost of procuring a green tariff shared renewables program’s resources to serve a participating customer’s needs.

(m) A participating customer’s rates shall be debited or credited with any other commission-approved costs or values applicable to the eligible renewable energy resources contained in a participating utility’s green tariff shared renewables program’s portfolio. These additional costs or values shall be applied to new customers when they initially subscribe after the cost or value has been approved by the commission.

(n) Participating customers shall pay all otherwise applicable charges without modification.

(o) A participating utility shall permit a participating customer to subscribe to the program and be provided with a nonbinding estimate of reasonably anticipated bill credits and bill charges, as determined by the commission, for a period of up to 20 years.

(p) A participating utility shall provide support for enhanced community renewables programs to facilitate development of eligible renewable energy resource projects located close to the source of demand.

(q) The commission shall ensure that charges and credits associated with a participating utility’s green tariff shared renewables program are set in a manner that ensures nonparticipant ratepayer indifference for the remaining bundled service, direct access, and community choice aggregation customers and ensures that no costs are shifted from participating customers to nonparticipating ratepayers.

(r) A participating utility shall track and account for all revenues and costs to ensure that the utility recovers the actual costs of the utility’s green tariff shared renewables program and that all costs and revenues are fully transparent and auditable.

(s) Any renewable energy credits associated with electricity procured by a participating utility for the utility’s green tariff shared renewables program and utilized by a participating customer shall be retired by the participating utility on behalf of the participating customer. Those renewable energy credits shall not be further sold, transferred, or otherwise monetized for any purpose. Any renewable energy credits associated with electricity procured by a participating utility for the green tariff shared renewables program, but not utilized by a participating customer, shall be counted toward meeting that participating utility’s renewables portfolio standard.

(t) A participating utility shall, in the event of participant customer attrition or other causes that reduce customer participation or electrical demand below generation levels, apply the excess generation from the eligible renewable energy resources procured through the utility’s green tariff shared renewables program to the utility’s renewable portfolio standard procurement obligations or bank the excess generation for future use to benefit all customers in accordance with the renewables portfolio standard banking and procurement rules approved by the commission.

(u) In calculating its procurement requirements to meet the requirements of the California Renewables Portfolio Standard Program (Article 16 (commencing with Section 399.11) of Chapter 2.3 of Part 1), a participating utility may exclude from total retail sales the kilowatthours generated by an eligible renewable energy resource that is credited to a participating customer pursuant to the utility’s green tariff shared renewables program, commencing with the point in time at which the generating facility achieves commercial operation.

(v) All renewable energy resources procured on behalf of participating customers in the participating utility’s green tariff shared renewables program shall comply with the State Air Resources Board’s Voluntary Renewable Electricity Program. California-eligible greenhouse gas allowances associated with these purchases shall be retired on behalf of participating customers as part of the board’s Voluntary Renewable Electricity Program.

(w) A participating utility shall provide a municipality with aggregated consumption data for participating customers within the municipality’s jurisdiction to allow for reporting on progress toward climate action goals by the municipality. A participating utility shall also publicly disclose, on a geographic basis, consumption data and reductions in emissions of greenhouse gases achieved by participating customers in the utility’s green tariff shared renewables program, on an aggregated basis consistent with privacy protections as specified in Chapter 5 (commencing with Section 8380) of Division 4.1.

(x) This section does not prohibit or restrict a community choice aggregator from offering its own voluntary renewable energy programs to participating customers of the community choice aggregation.

5445.3.

 (a) A participating driver is required to possess either of the following:

(1) A valid driver’s license issued by the State of California.

(2) (A) In the case of a nonresident active duty military member or a nonresident dependent of an active duty military member, a valid driver’s license issued by the other state or territory of the United States in which the member or dependent is a resident.

(B) A transportation network company shall comply with the provisions of Section 5445.2 and obtain and review the driving history report from the state or territory of the United States that issued the individual’s driver’s license before permitting a nonresident active duty military member or a nonresident dependent of an active duty military member to act as a participating driver and shall ensure that the driver satisfies all requirements applicable to participating drivers, including, but not limited to, the regulations of the commission and the applicable requirements of the Vehicle Code.

(b) A transportation network company shall notify all participating drivers of the applicability of the Vehicle Code and of the code’s availability, including, in particular, Sections 23123 and 23123.5 (relating to the hands-free device laws), Section 21760 (the “Three Feet for Safety Act”), and Section 22454 (relating to rules of the road relating to schoolbuses), to all participating drivers, either on the transportation network company’s internet website or on its application.

8371.

 The commission, in consultation with the Energy Commission and the Independent System Operator, shall take all of the following actions by December 1, 2020, to facilitate the commercialization of microgrids for distribution customers of large electrical corporations:

(a) Develop microgrid service standards necessary to meet state and local permitting requirements.

(b) Without shifting costs between ratepayers, develop methods to reduce barriers for microgrid deployment.

(c) Develop guidelines that determine what impact studies are required for microgrids to connect to the electrical corporation grid.

(d) Without shifting costs between ratepayers, develop separate large electrical corporation rates and tariffs, as necessary, to support microgrids, while ensuring that system, public, and worker safety are given the highest priority. The separate rates and tariffs shall not compensate a customer for the use of diesel backup or natural gas generation, except as either of those sources is used pursuant to Section 41514.1 of the Health and Safety Code, or except for natural gas generation that is a distributed energy resource.

(e) Form a working group to codify standards and protocols needed to meet California electrical corporation and Independent System Operator microgrid requirements.

(f) Develop a standard for direct current metering in the commission’s Electric Rule 21 to streamline the interconnection process and lower interconnection costs for direct current microgrid applications.

8380.

 (a) For purposes of this section, “electrical or gas consumption data” means data about a customer’s electrical or natural gas usage that is made available as part of an advanced metering infrastructure, and includes incremental and monthly meter-specific electricity data, to the extent produced by that infrastructure, and the name, account number, and address of the customer.

(b) (1) An electrical corporation or gas corporation shall not share, disclose, or otherwise make accessible to any third party a customer’s electrical or gas consumption data, except as provided in subdivision (e) or upon the consent of the customer. Customer consent may be verified through an electronic signature authorization process pursuant to the Uniform Electronic Transactions Act (Title 2.5 (commencing with Section 1633.1) of Part 2 of Division 3 of the Civil Code).

(2) An electrical corporation or gas corporation shall not sell a customer’s electrical or gas consumption data or any other personally identifiable information for any purpose.

(3) The electrical corporation or gas corporation or its contractors shall not provide an incentive or discount to the customer for accessing the customer’s electrical or gas consumption data without the prior consent of the customer.

(4) An electrical or gas corporation that utilizes an advanced metering infrastructure that allows a customer to access the customer’s electrical and gas consumption data shall ensure that the customer has an option to access that data without being required to agree to the sharing of the customer’s personally identifiable information, including electrical or gas consumption data, with a third party.

(c) If an electrical corporation or gas corporation contracts with a third party for a service that allows a customer to monitor the customer’s electricity or gas usage, and that third party uses the data for a secondary commercial purpose, the contract between the electrical corporation or gas corporation and the third party shall provide that the third party prominently discloses that secondary commercial purpose to the customer and secures the customer’s consent to the use of the customer’s data for that secondary commercial purpose prior to the use of the data.

(d) An electrical corporation or gas corporation shall use reasonable security procedures and practices to protect a customer’s unencrypted electrical or gas consumption data from unauthorized access, destruction, use, modification, or disclosure.

(e) (1) This section does not preclude an electrical corporation or gas corporation from using customer aggregate electrical or gas consumption data for analysis, reporting, or program management if all information has been removed regarding the individual identity of a customer.

(2) This section does not preclude an electrical corporation or gas corporation from disclosing a customer’s electrical or gas consumption data to a third party for system, grid, or operational needs, or the implementation of demand response, energy management, or energy efficiency programs, provided that, for contracts entered into after January 1, 2011, the utility has required by contract that the third party implement and maintain reasonable security procedures and practices appropriate to the nature of the information to protect the personal information from unauthorized access, destruction, use, modification, or disclosure, and prohibits the use of the data for a secondary commercial purpose not related to the primary purpose of the contract without the customer’s prior consent to that use.

(3) This section does not preclude an electrical corporation or gas corporation from disclosing electrical or gas consumption data as required or permitted under state or federal law or by an order of the commission.

(f) If a customer chooses to disclose the customer’s electrical or gas consumption data to a third party that is unaffiliated with, and has no other business relationship with, the electrical or gas corporation, the electrical or gas corporation is not responsible for the security of that data, or its use or misuse.

10010.1.

 (a) A public utility furnishing light, heat, water, or power shall not terminate residential service on account of nonpayment of a delinquent account unless the public utility first gives notice of the delinquency and impending termination, at least 10 days prior to the proposed termination, by means of a notice mailed, postage prepaid, to the customer to whom the service is billed, not earlier than 19 days from the date of mailing the public utility’s bill for services, and the 10-day period shall not commence until five days after the mailing of the notice.

(b) Every public utility shall make a reasonable attempt to contact an adult person residing at the premises of the customer by telephone or personal contact, at least 24 hours prior to any termination of service, except that, whenever telephone or personal contact cannot be accomplished, the public utility shall give, by mail, in person, or by posting in a conspicuous location at the premises, a notice of termination of service, at least 48 hours prior to termination.

(c) Every public utility shall make available to its residential customers who are 65 years of age or older, or who are dependent adults as defined in Section 15610.23 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, a third-party notification service, whereby the public utility will attempt to notify a person designated by the customer to receive notification when the customer’s account is past due and subject to termination. The notification shall include information on what is required to prevent termination of service. The residential customer shall make a request for third-party notification on a form provided by the public utility, and shall include the written consent of the designated third party. The third-party notification does not obligate the third party to pay the overdue charges, nor shall it prevent or delay termination of service.

(d) Every notice of termination of service pursuant to subdivision (a) shall include all of the following information:

(1) The name and address of the customer whose account is delinquent.

(2) The amount of the delinquency.

(3) The date by which payment or arrangements for payment is required in order to avoid termination.

(4) The procedure by which the customer may initiate a complaint or request an investigation concerning service or charges, except that, if the bill for service contains a description of that procedure, the notice pursuant to subdivision (a) is not required to contain that information.

(5) The procedure by which the customer may request amortization of the unpaid charges.

(6) The procedure for the customer to obtain information on the availability of financial assistance, including private, local, state, or federal sources, if applicable.

(7) The telephone number of a representative of the public utility who can provide additional information or institute arrangements for payment.

Every notice of termination of service pursuant to subdivision (b) shall include the items of information in paragraphs (1), (2), (3), (6), and (7).

All written notices shall be in a clear and legible format.

(e) If a residential customer fails to comply with an amortization agreement, the public utility shall not terminate service without giving notice to the customer at least 48 hours prior to termination of the conditions the customer is required to meet to avoid termination, but the notice does not entitle the customer to further investigation by the public utility.

(f) A termination of service shall not be effected without compliance with this section. Any service wrongfully terminated shall be restored without charge for the restoration of service, and a notation thereof shall be mailed to the customer at the customer’s billing address.

12823.1.

 (a) A district furnishing light, heat, water, or power shall not terminate residential service on account of nonpayment of a delinquent account unless the district first gives notice of the delinquency and impending termination, at least 10 days prior to the proposed termination, by means of a notice mailed, postage prepaid, to the customer to whom the service is billed not earlier than 19 days from the date of mailing the district’s bill for services, and the 10-day period shall not commence until five days after the mailing of the notice.

(b) Every district shall make a reasonable attempt to contact an adult person residing at the premises of the customer by telephone or personal contact, at least 24 hours prior to any termination of service, except that, whenever telephone or personal contact cannot be accomplished, the district shall give, by mail, in person, or by posting in a conspicuous location at the premises, a notice of termination of service, at least 48 hours prior to termination.

(c) Every district shall make available to its residential customers who are 65 years of age or older, or who are dependent adults as defined in Section 15610.23 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, a third-party notification service, whereby the district will attempt to notify a person designated by the customer to receive notification when the customer’s account is past due and subject to termination. The notification shall include information on what is required to prevent termination of service. The residential customer shall make a request for third-party notification on a form provided by the district, and shall include the written consent of the designated third party. The third-party notification does not obligate the third party to pay the overdue charges, nor shall it prevent or delay termination of service.

(d) Every notice of termination of service pursuant to subdivision (a) shall include all of the following information:

(1) The name and address of the customer whose account is delinquent.

(2) The amount of the delinquency.

(3) The date by which payment or arrangements for payment is required in order to avoid termination.

(4) The procedure by which the customer may initiate a complaint or request an investigation concerning service or charges, except that, if the bill for service contains a description of that procedure, the notice pursuant to subdivision (a) is not required to contain that information.

(5) The procedure by which the customer may request amortization of the unpaid charges.

(6) The procedure for the customer to obtain information on the availability of financial assistance, including private, local, state, or federal sources, if applicable.

(7) The telephone number of a representative of the district who can provide additional information or institute arrangements for payment.

Every notice of termination of service pursuant to subdivision (b) shall include the items of information in paragraphs (1), (2), (3), (6), and (7).

All written notices shall be in a clear and legible format.

(e) If a residential customer fails to comply with an amortization agreement, the district shall not terminate service without giving notice to the customer at least 48 hours prior to termination of the conditions the customer is required to meet to avoid termination, but the notice does not entitle the customer to further investigation by the district.

(f) A termination of service shall not be effected without compliance with this section. Any service wrongfully terminated shall be restored without charge for the restoration of service, and a notation thereof shall be mailed to the customer at the customer’s billing address.

16482.1.

 (a) A district furnishing light, heat, water, or power, or means for the disposition of garbage, sewage, or refuse matter, shall not terminate residential service on account of nonpayment of a delinquent account unless the district first gives notice of the delinquency and impending termination, at least 10 days prior to the proposed termination, by means of a notice mailed, postage prepaid, to the customer to whom the service is billed, not earlier than 19 days from the date of mailing the district’s bill for services, and the 10-day period shall not commence until five days after the mailing of the notice.

(b) Every district shall make a reasonable, good faith effort to contact an adult person residing at the premises of the customer by telephone or personal contact, at least 48 hours prior to any termination of service, except that, whenever telephone or personal contact cannot be accomplished, the district shall give, by mail, in person, or by posting in a conspicuous location at the premises, a notice of termination of service, at least 48 hours prior to termination.

(c) Every district shall make available to its residential customers who are 65 years of age or older, or who are dependent adults as defined in Section 15610.23 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, a third-party notification service, whereby the district will attempt to notify a person designated by the customer to receive notification when the customer’s account is past due and subject to termination. The notification shall include information on what is required to prevent termination of service. The residential customer shall make a request for third-party notification on a form provided by the district, and shall include the written consent of the designated third party. The third-party notification does not obligate the third party to pay the overdue charges, nor shall it prevent or delay termination of service.

(d) Every notice of termination of service pursuant to subdivision (a) shall include all of the following information:

(1) The name and address of the customer whose account is delinquent.

(2) The amount of the delinquency.

(3) The date by which payment or arrangements for payment is required in order to avoid termination.

(4) The procedure by which the customer may initiate a complaint or request an investigation concerning service or charges, except that, if the bill for service contains a description of that procedure, the notice pursuant to subdivision (a) is not required to contain that information.

(5) The procedure by which the customer may request amortization of the unpaid charges.

(6) The procedure for the customer to obtain information on the availability of financial assistance, including private, local, state, or federal sources, if applicable.

(7) The telephone number of a representative of the district who can provide additional information or institute arrangements for payment.

Every notice of termination of service pursuant to subdivision (b) shall include the items of information in paragraphs (1), (2), (3), (6), and (7).

All written notices shall be in a clear and legible format.

(e) If a residential customer fails to comply with an amortization agreement, the district shall not terminate service without giving notice to the customer at least 48 hours prior to termination of the conditions the customer is required to meet to avoid termination, but this notice does not entitle the customer to further investigation by the district.

(f) A termination of service shall not be effected without compliance with this section. Any service wrongfully terminated shall be restored without charge for the restoration of the service, and a notation thereof shall be mailed to the customer the customer’s billing address.

29010.8.

 (a) The district shall do all of the following to avoid the loss of affordable housing units and to prevent the direct displacement of tenants:

(1) Require that any eligible TOD project that involves the demolition of any of the following types of housing, within five years from the date of approval of the development agreement, shall be subject to a policy that requires the replacement of all of those housing units to the same or lower income levels:

(A) Housing that is subject to a recorded covenant, ordinance, or law that restricts rents or sales prices to levels affordable, as defined in Section 50052.5 or 50053 of the Health and Safety Code, to persons and families of moderate, lower, or very low income, as defined in Section 50079.5, 50093, or 50105 of the Health and Safety Code, respectively.

(B) Housing that is subject to any form of rent or price control through a public entity’s valid exercise of its police power.

(C) Housing that had been occupied by tenants within five years from the date of approval of the development agreement by a primary tenant who was low income and did not leave voluntarily.

(2) As a condition of any development on a parcel within an eligible TOD project area, replacement housing units for those described in paragraph (1) shall be subject to recorded affordability restrictions. In the case of the demolition of a rental unit, a replacement unit shall be a rental unit with restrictions for at least 55 years, with a rent level set at the same level as the previous restrictions or, if no rent restrictions were in place, at rent affordable, as defined in Section 50053 of the Health and Safety Code, to the tenant who most recently occupied the unit, or, if the income level of the most recent tenant cannot be determined, at rent affordable to lower income households, as defined in Section 50079.5 of the Health and Safety Code.

(3) Prohibit the demolition of any unit occupied by lower income tenants unless the district or the TOD developer has offered, in writing, the tenant a commensurate or better replacement affordable housing unit that is available for occupancy by the displaced tenant within one-half mile of the same district station at a rent that does not exceed the tenant’s previous rent.

(4) Require that new units shall not be occupied sooner than the date that replacement affordable housing units are available to all eligible tenants that wish to be moved into replacement units pursuant to paragraph (3).

(5) Provide relocation assistance to lower income tenants directly displaced from housing units by an eligible TOD project pursuant to Chapter 16 (commencing with Section 7260) of Division 7 of Title 1 of the Government Code.

(6) Develop a strategy, in coordination with local jurisdictions, to do both of the following:

(A) Increase affordable housing options and incentivize tenant protections for very low and low-income residents within and around an eligible TOD project area, particularly in communities of concern, as defined in MTC’s regional transportation plan, where there is potential for residential displacement due to changing market and development conditions. The strategy should specifically address mitigations for the direct and indirect impacts from the demolition of any existing housing units.

(B) Deliver housing for essential workers within and around TOD projects, especially for very low, low-, and moderate-income workers.

(b) An eligible TOD project shall do both of the following:

(1) (A) Where housing is proposed, restrict at least 20 percent of the residential housing units for occupancy by very low and low-income households and subject to a recorded affordability restriction for at least 55 years in the case of rental units and 45 years in the case of owner-occupied units, in addition to the replacement affordable housing units described in paragraph (3) of subdivision (a), with a priority on residential units for very low and low-income households.

(B) If a local jurisdiction’s inclusionary housing requirement mandates a higher percentage of affordable units or a deeper level of affordability than that described in subparagraph (A), then that jurisdiction’s affordability percentage requirements shall apply in place of the requirements in subparagraph (A).

(C) The district shall develop and implement an approach to evaluating affordable housing proposals that will consider a proposal’s quantity and depth of affordability, and the proposal’s validity and feasibility with respect to the requirements of this section.

(2) Comply with the labor requirements of Section 65913.4 of the Government Code and any other applicable district labor policies, including the district’s policy of requiring project stabilization agreements pursuant to district Resolution 5182 (November 17, 2011), In the Matter of a Policy Requiring Project Stabilization Agreements (PSA) with Local Hire Provisions on Transit-Oriented Development (TOD) Projects.

(c) On district-owned land within the district’s boundaries, the district shall ensure that a total of 30 percent of housing units are affordable, with priority given to very low and low-income households. The district shall submit a biennial report to the Department of Housing and Community Development stating the percentage of units that are restricted as affordable units, by level of affordability, for all district TOD projects.

(d) The district may exempt specific TOD projects from the application of TOD zoning standards when the project is in the approval process with a local jurisdiction before imposition of the TOD zoning standards adopted pursuant to subdivision (a) of Section 29010.6.

(e) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2029, and as of that date is repealed.

99175.

 (a) A public entity that operates, or contracts for the operation of, a commuter rail system shall ensure that each train has an automated external defibrillator (AED) as part of its safety equipment subject to the requirements in Section 1797.196 of the Health and Safety Code. As used in this subdivision, “commuter rail system” does not include intercity passenger rail services, including state-funded intercity passenger rail services managed under an interagency transfer agreement by the LOSSAN Rail Corridor Agency, the San Joaquin Joint Powers Authority, or the Capitol Corridor Joint Powers Authority, and does not include light rail or rapid transit services managed by local agencies.

(b) An affected public entity may provide training for their employees on the use of the AEDs as part of their regularly scheduled safety or other training sessions.

(c) (1) An affected public entity shall install AEDs pursuant to this section by July 1, 2020.

(2) The Peninsula Corridor Joint Powers Board shall be exempt from paragraph (1) and shall instead ensure that trainsets procured as part of the Caltrain Electrification Project are equipped with AEDs.

(d) (1) Upon completion of the installation of AEDs, the public entity shall transmit confirmation of its compliance in writing to the Public Utilities Commission.

(2) If an affected public entity is in compliance with the requirements of this section when it becomes effective, it shall notify the Public Utilities Commission pursuant to paragraph (1).

(e) An affected public entity that acquires an AED for emergency care pursuant to this section shall not be liable for any civil damages resulting from any acts or omissions in the rendering of the emergency care by use of an AED if the public entity has complied with paragraph (1) of subdivision (b) of Section 1797.196 of the Health and Safety Code.

102352.

 (a) Any transactions and use tax ordinance adopted pursuant to this article shall be operative on the first day of the first calendar quarter commencing more than 150 days after adoption of the ordinance.

(b) (1) Prior to the operative date of the ordinance, the district shall contract with the California Department of Tax and Fee Administration to perform all functions incident to the administration and operation of the ordinance. The costs to be covered by the contract may also include services of the types described in Section 7272 of the Revenue and Taxation Code for preparatory work up to the operative date of the ordinance. Any disputes as to the amount of the costs shall be resolved in the same manner as provided in that section.

(2) Notwithstanding Section 7272 of the Revenue and Taxation Code, the maximum amount of preparatory costs incurred may exceed those costs as described in paragraph (1) if the increased amount reflects necessary preparatory costs.

(c) Within 45 days from the date the ordinance is approved by the voters, the district shall provide the California Department of Tax and Fee Administration with a complete alphabetical list of all streets within the affected unincorporated area under the jurisdiction of the district pursuant to Section 102052.5, which shall include beginning and ending street numbers, and shall maintain that list on its internet website. The district shall also provide a legal description and a map or plat, that both describe the boundaries of the applicable unincorporated territory within the district pursuant to Section 102052.5.

38.9.

 (a) On or before January 1, 2023, the Legislative Analyst’s Office shall provide to the Assembly Committee on Revenue and Taxation, the Senate Committee on Governance and Finance, and the public a report evaluating the economic effects and administration of the tax credits allowed pursuant to Sections 6902.5, as amended by Chapter 413 of the Statutes of 2014, 17053.95, and 23695. In researching the reports, the Legislative Analyst’s Office may do all of the following:

(1) Request and receive all information provided to the California Film Commission pursuant to subdivision (g) of Sections 17053.95 and 23695.

(2) Request and receive all information provided to the Franchise Tax Board relating to the sale or assignment of credits pursuant to subdivision (c) of Sections 17053.95 and 23695.

(3) Request and receive all information provided to the board pursuant to subdivisions (c) and (g) of Section 6902.5, as amended by Chapter 413 of the Statutes of 2014.

(b) The California Film Commission, the board, the Franchise Tax Board, the Employment Development Department, and all other relevant state agencies shall provide additional information, as specified by the Legislative Analyst’s Office, as needed to research the reports required by this section.

(c) (1) The information received by the Legislative Analyst’s Office pursuant to this section shall be considered confidential taxpayer information subject to Sections 7056, 7056.5, and 19542 of this code and Section 1094 of the Unemployment Insurance Code, and shall be subject to the appropriate confidentiality requirements of the participating state agency.

(2) The Legislative Analyst’s Office may publish statistics in conjunction with the reports required by this section that are derived from information provided to the Legislative Analyst’s Office pursuant to this section, if the published statistics are classified to prevent the identification of particular taxpayers, reports, and tax returns and the publication of the percentage of dividends paid by a corporation that is deductible by the recipient under Part 11 (commencing with Section 23001) of Division 2.

6369.7.

 (a) On and after January 1, 2019, and before January 1, 2025, there are exempted from the taxes imposed by this part the gross receipts from the sale of, and the storage, use, or other consumption in this state of, building materials and supplies purchased by a qualified person for use by that qualified person in the construction of a qualified facility.

(b) For the purposes of this section, the following definitions apply:

(1) (A) “Building materials and supplies” includes any machinery, equipment, materials, accessories, appliances, contrivances, furniture, fixtures, and all technical equipment or other tangible personal property of any other nature or description that meet all of the following:

(i) Are necessary to construct and equip a qualified facility.

(ii) Become part of the completed facility.

(iii) Are transferred to the United States Department of Defense or the United States Department of Veterans Affairs as a gift described in paragraph (3).

(B) “Building materials and supplies” shall not include any tools or construction equipment other than those specified in subparagraph (A) that a qualified person uses in construction activities, specifically including construction of a qualified facility.

(2) “Qualified facility” means either of the following:

(A) A medical facility, or a temporary residential facility for families of patients receiving care, including either or both inpatient and outpatient care, at a medical facility, located on a United States military base in California.

(B) A United States Department of Veterans Affairs medical center, or a temporary residential facility for families of patients receiving care at or as part of a United States Department of Veterans Affairs medical center, located in California.

(3) “Qualified nonprofit organization” means an organization exempt from taxation pursuant to Section 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code that constructs a qualified facility as a gift to the United States Department of Defense pursuant to Section 2601 of Title 10 of the United States Code or the United States Department of Veterans Affairs pursuant to Section 8301 of Title 38 of the United States Code.

(4) “Qualified person” means either or both of the following:

(A) A qualified nonprofit organization.

(B) A contractor, subcontractor, or builder working under contract with a qualified nonprofit organization to construct a qualified facility.

(c) The exemption provided by this section shall only apply to sales and purchases that occur after the date the United States Department of Defense or the United States Department of Veterans Affairs accepts the offer of the qualified nonprofit organization to construct the qualified facility and on or before the date the United States Department of Defense or the United States Department of Veterans Affairs accepts the qualified facility.

(d) (1) An exemption shall not be allowed under this section with respect to sales by, or purchases from, a retailer engaged in business in this state or from a retailer that is authorized by the California Department of Tax and Fee Administration, under the rules and regulations as it may prescribe, to collect the tax and that is, for the purposes of this part relating to the use tax, regarded as a retailer engaged in business in this state, unless the purchaser furnishes the retailer with an exemption certificate completed in accordance with any instructions or regulations as the California Department of Tax and Fee Administration may prescribe and the retailer retains a copy of the exemption certificate in its records and furnishes the copy of the exemption certificate to the California Department of Tax and Fee Administration upon request.

(2) If a purchaser furnishes the retailer with a copy of an exemption certificate pursuant to paragraph (1), but uses materials or fixtures purchased with the exemption certificate in a manner not qualifying for the exemption, the purchaser is liable for payment of sales tax, with applicable interest, as if the purchaser were a retailer making a retail sale of the materials or fixtures at the time the property is so used, and the cost of the materials or fixtures to the purchaser shall be deemed the gross receipts from that retail sale.

17026.

 This part applies to the taxable income of taxpayers received or accrued on or after January 1, 1935.

17053.5.

 (a) (1) For a qualified renter, there shall be allowed a credit against the renter’s “net tax,” as defined in Section 17039. The amount of the credit shall be as follows:

(A) For spouses filing joint returns, heads of household, and surviving spouses, as defined in Section 17046, the credit shall be equal to one hundred twenty dollars ($120) if adjusted gross income is fifty thousand dollars ($50,000) or less.

(B) For other individuals, the credit shall be equal to sixty dollars ($60) if adjusted gross income is twenty-five thousand dollars ($25,000) or less.

(2) Except as provided in subdivision (b), spouses shall receive but one credit under this section. If the spouses file separate returns, the credit may be taken by either or equally divided between them, except as follows:

(A) If one spouse was a resident for the entire taxable year and the other spouse was a nonresident for part or all of the taxable year, the resident spouse shall be allowed one-half the credit allowed to married persons and the nonresident spouse shall be permitted one-half the credit allowed to married persons, prorated as provided in subdivision (e).

(B) If both spouses were nonresidents for part of the taxable year, the credit allowed to married persons shall be divided equally between them subject to the proration provided in subdivision (e).

(b) For spouses, if each spouse maintained a separate place of residence and resided in this state during the entire taxable year, each spouse will be allowed one-half the full credit allowed to married persons provided in subdivision (a).

(c) For purposes of this section, a “qualified renter” means an individual who satisfies both of the following:

(1) Was a resident of this state, as defined in Section 17014.

(2) Rented and occupied premises in this state which constituted the individual’s principal place of residence during at least 50 percent of the taxable year.

(d) “Qualified renter” does not include any of the following:

(1) An individual who for more than 50 percent of the taxable year rented and occupied premises that were exempt from property taxes, except that an individual, otherwise qualified, is deemed a qualified renter if the individual or the individual’s landlord pays possessory interest taxes, or the owner of those premises makes payments in lieu of property taxes that are substantially equivalent to property taxes paid on properties of comparable market value.

(2) An individual whose principal place of residence for more than 50 percent of the taxable year is with another person who claimed that individual as a dependent for income tax purposes.

(3) An individual who has been granted or whose spouse has been granted the homeowners’ property tax exemption during the taxable year. This paragraph does not apply to an individual whose spouse has been granted the homeowners’ property tax exemption if each spouse maintained a separate residence for the entire taxable year.

(e) An otherwise qualified renter who is a nonresident for any portion of the taxable year shall claim the credits set forth in subdivision (a) at the rate of one-twelfth of those credits for each full month that individual resided within this state during the taxable year.

(f) A person claiming the credit provided in this section shall, as part of that claim, and under penalty of perjury, furnish that information as the Franchise Tax Board prescribes on a form supplied by the board.

(g) The credit provided in this section shall be claimed on returns in the form as the Franchise Tax Board may from time to time prescribe.

(h) For purposes of this section, “premises” means a house or a dwelling unit used to provide living accommodations in a building or structure and the land incidental thereto, but does not include land only, unless the dwelling unit is a mobilehome. The credit is not allowed for any taxable year for the rental of land upon which a mobilehome is located if the mobilehome has been granted a homeowners’ exemption under Section 218 in that year.

(i) This section shall become operative on January 1, 1998, and applies to any taxable year beginning on or after January 1, 1998.

(j) For each taxable year beginning on or after January 1, 1999, the Franchise Tax Board shall recompute the adjusted gross income amounts set forth in subdivision (a). The computation shall be made as follows:

(1) The Department of Industrial Relations shall transmit annually to the Franchise Tax Board the percentage change in the California Consumer Price Index for all items from June of the prior calendar year to June of the current year, no later than August 1 of the current calendar year.

(2) The Franchise Tax Board shall compute an inflation adjustment factor by adding 100 percent to the portion of the percentage change figure which is furnished pursuant to paragraph (1) and dividing the result by 100.

(3) The Franchise Tax Board shall multiply the amount in subparagraph (B) of paragraph (1) of subdivision (a) for the preceding taxable year by the inflation adjustment factor determined in paragraph (2), and round off the resulting products to the nearest one dollar ($1).

(4) In computing the amounts pursuant to this subdivision, the amounts provided in subparagraph (A) of paragraph (1) of subdivision (a) shall be twice the amount provided in subparagraph (B) of paragraph (1) of subdivision (a).

18910.

 (a) An individual may designate on the personal income tax return that a contribution in excess of the tax liability, if any, be made to the Schools Not Prisons Voluntary Tax Contribution Fund, which is established by Section 18911. That designation is to be used as a voluntary contribution on the tax return.

(b) The contributions shall be in full dollar amounts and may be made individually by each signatory on a joint return.

(c) A designation shall be made for any taxable year on the original return for that taxable year and once made is irrevocable. If payments and credits reported on the return, together with any other credits associated with the taxpayer’s account, do not exceed the taxpayer’s tax liability, the return shall be treated as though no designation has been made.

(d) The Franchise Tax Board shall revise the form of the return to include a space labeled the “Schools Not Prisons Voluntary Tax Contribution Fund” to allow for the designation permitted. The form shall also include in the instructions information that the contribution may be in the amount of one dollar ($1) or more and that the contribution shall be used to fund academic and career readiness programs that seek to break the school-to-prison pipeline. For purposes of this section, the “school-to-prison pipeline” is the process through which pupils are pushed out of schools and into prisons.

(e) A deduction shall be allowed under Article 6 (commencing with Section 17201) of Chapter 3 of Part 10 for any contribution made pursuant to subdivision (a).

(f) Notwithstanding any other law, a voluntary contribution designation for the Schools Not Prisons Voluntary Tax Contribution Fund shall not be added on the personal income tax return until another voluntary contribution designation is removed or space is available, whichever occurs first.

19183.

 (a) (1) A penalty shall be imposed for failure to file correct information returns, as required by this part, and that penalty shall be determined in accordance with Section 6721 of the Internal Revenue Code, relating to failure to file correct information returns.

(2) Section 6721(e) of the Internal Revenue Code, relating to penalty in case of intentional disregard, is modified to the extent that the reference to Section 6041A(b) of the Internal Revenue Code, relating to direct sales of five thousand dollars ($5,000) or more, does not apply.

(3) Section 6721(f)(1) of the Internal Revenue Code is modified to substitute the phrase “For each fifth calendar year beginning after 2014” for the phrase “In the case of any failure relating to a return required to be filed in a calendar year beginning after 2014.”

(b) (1) A penalty shall be imposed for failure to furnish correct payee statements as required by this part, and that penalty shall be determined in accordance with Section 6722 of the Internal Revenue Code, relating to failure to furnish correct payee statements.

(2) Section 6722(c) of the Internal Revenue Code, relating to exception for de minimis failures, is modified to the extent that the references to Sections 6041A(b) and 6041A(e) of the Internal Revenue Code, relating to direct sales of five thousand dollars ($5,000) or more, and statements to be furnished to persons with respect to whom information is required to be furnished, does not apply.

(3) Section 6722(f)(1) of the Internal Revenue Code is modified to substitute the phrase “For each fifth calendar year beginning after 2014” for the phrase “In the case of any failure relating to a return required to be filed in a calendar year beginning after 2014.”

(c) A penalty shall be imposed for failure to comply with other information reporting requirements under this part, and that penalty shall be determined in accordance with Section 6723 of the Internal Revenue Code, relating to failure to comply with other information reporting requirements.

(d) (1) The provisions of Section 6724 of the Internal Revenue Code, relating to waiver; definitions, and special rules, apply, except as otherwise provided.

(2) Section 6724(d)(1) of the Internal Revenue Code, relating to information return, is modified as follows:

(A) The following references are substituted:

(i) Subdivision (a) of Section 18640, in lieu of Section 6044(a)(1) of the Internal Revenue Code.

(ii) Subdivision (a) of Section 18644, in lieu of Section 6050A(a) of the Internal Revenue Code, relating to reports.

(B) References to Sections 4101(d), 6041(b), 6041A(b), 6045(d), 6051(d), and 6053(c)(1) of the Internal Revenue Code do not apply.

(C) The term “information return” also includes both of the following:

(i) The return required by paragraph (1) of subdivision (g) of Section 18662.

(ii) The return required by subdivision (a) of Section 18631.7.

(3) Section 6724(d)(2) of the Internal Revenue Code, relating to payee statement, is modified as follows:

(A) The following references are substituted:

(i) Subdivision (b) of Section 18640, in lieu of Section 6044(e) of the Internal Revenue Code, relating to statements to be furnished to persons with respect to whom information is required.

(ii) Subdivision (b) of Section 18644, in lieu of Section 6050A(b) of the Internal Revenue Code, relating to written statement.

(B) References to Sections 6031(b), 6037(b), 6041A(e), 6045(d), 6051(d), 6053(b), and 6053(c) of the Internal Revenue Code shall not apply.

(C) The term “payee statement” shall also include the statement required by paragraph (2) of subdivision (g) of Section 18662.

(e) In the case of each failure to provide a written explanation as required by Section 402(f) of the Internal Revenue Code, relating to written explanation to recipients of distributions eligible for rollover treatment, at the time prescribed therefor, unless it is shown that the failure is due to reasonable cause and not to willful neglect, there shall be paid, on notice and demand of the Franchise Tax Board and in the same manner as tax, by the person failing to provide that written explanation, an amount equal to ten dollars ($10) for each failure, but the total amount imposed on that person for all those failures during any calendar year shall not exceed five thousand dollars ($5,000).

(f) Any penalty imposed by this part shall be paid on notice and demand by the Franchise Tax Board and in the same manner as tax.

(g) The amendments made to this section by Chapter 359 of the Statutes of 2015 apply to information returns required to be filed on or after January 1, 2016.

30459.2.

 (a) The California Department of Tax and Fee Administration shall release any levy or notice to withhold issued pursuant to this part on any property in the event that the expense of the sale process exceeds the liability for which the levy is made.

(b) (1) (A) The Taxpayers’ Rights Advocate may order the release of any levy or notice to withhold issued pursuant to this part or, within 90 days from the receipt of funds pursuant to a levy or notice to withhold, order the return of any amount up to two thousand three hundred dollars ($2,300) of moneys received, upon the Taxpayers’ Rights Advocate’s finding that the levy or notice to withhold threatens the health or welfare of the taxpayer or the taxpayer’s spouse and dependents or family.

(B) The amount the Taxpayers’ Rights Advocate may return to each taxpayer subject to a levy or notice to withhold, is limited to two thousand three hundred dollars ($2,300), or the adjusted amount as specified in paragraph (2), in any monthly period.

(C) The Taxpayers’ Rights Advocate may order amounts returned in the case of a seizure of property as a result of a jeopardy determination, subject to the amounts set or adjusted pursuant to this section and if the ultimate collection of the amount due is no longer in jeopardy.

(2) (A) The California Department of Tax and Fee Administration shall adjust the two-thousand-three-hundred-dollar ($2,300) amount specified in paragraph (1) as follows:

(i) On or before March 1, 2016, and on or before March 1 each year thereafter, the California Department of Tax and Fee Administration shall multiply the amount applicable for the current fiscal year by the inflation factor adjustment calculated based on the percentage change in the Consumer Price Index, as recorded by the California Department of Industrial Relations for the most recent year available, and the formula set forth in paragraph (2) of subdivision (h) of Section 17041. The resulting amount will be the applicable amount for the succeeding fiscal year only when the applicable amount computed is equal to or exceeds a new operative threshold, as defined in subparagraph (B).

(ii) When the applicable amount equals or exceeds an operative threshold specified in subparagraph (B), the resulting applicable amount, rounded to the nearest multiple of one hundred dollars ($100), shall be operative for purposes of paragraph (1) beginning July 1 of the succeeding fiscal year.

(B) For purposes of this paragraph, “operative threshold” means an amount that exceeds by at least one hundred dollars ($100) the greater of either the amount specified in paragraph (1) or the amount computed pursuant to subparagraph (A) as the operative adjustment to the amount specified in paragraph (1).

(c) The California Department of Tax and Fee Administration shall not sell any seized property until it has first notified the taxpayer in writing of the exemptions from levy under Chapter 4 (commencing with Section 703.010) of Division 2 of Title 9 of Part 2 of the Code of Civil Procedure.

(d) Except as provided in subparagraph (C) of paragraph (1) of subdivision (b), this section does not apply to the seizure of any property as a result of a jeopardy determination.

149.6.

 (a) Notwithstanding Sections 149, 149.7, and 30800, and Section 21655.5 of the Vehicle Code, the Santa Clara Valley Transportation Authority (VTA) created by the Santa Clara Valley Transportation Authority Act (Part 12 (commencing with Section 100000) of Division 10 of the Public Utilities Code) may conduct, administer, and operate a value pricing program on any two of the transportation corridors included in the high-occupancy vehicle lane system in the County of Santa Clara in coordination with the Metropolitan Transportation Commission and consistent with Section 21655.6 of the Vehicle Code.

(b) Notwithstanding Sections 149, 149.7 and 30800, and Section 21655.5 of the Vehicle Code, VTA may conduct, administer, and operate a value pricing program on State Highway Route 101 in San Mateo County in coordination with the City/County Association of Governments of San Mateo County and with the San Mateo County Transportation Authority and consistent with Section 21655.6 of the Vehicle Code.

(c) (1) VTA, under the circumstances described in subdivisions (a) and (b), may direct and authorize the entry and use of those high-occupancy vehicle lanes by single-occupant vehicles for a fee. The fee structure shall be established from time to time by VTA. A high-occupancy vehicle lane may only be operated as a high-occupancy toll (HOT) lane during the hours that the lane is otherwise restricted to use by high-occupancy vehicles.

(2) VTA shall enter into a cooperative agreement with the Bay Area Toll Authority to operate and manage the electronic toll collection system.

(d) With the consent of the department, VTA shall establish appropriate performance measures, such as speed or travel times, for the purpose of ensuring optimal use of the HOT lanes by high-occupancy vehicles without adversely affecting other traffic on the state highway system. Unrestricted access to the lanes by high-occupancy vehicles shall be available at all times, except that those high-occupancy vehicles may be required to have an electronic transponder or other electronic device for enforcement purposes. At least annually, the department shall audit the performance during peak traffic hours and report the results of that audit at meetings of the program management team.

(e) Single-occupant vehicles that are certified or authorized by VTA for entry into, and use of, the high-occupancy vehicle lanes in the County of Santa Clara and San Mateo County are exempt from Section 21655.5 of the Vehicle Code, and the driver shall not be in violation of the Vehicle Code because of that entry and use.

(f) VTA shall carry out a value pricing program established pursuant to this section in cooperation with the department pursuant to an agreement that addresses all matters related to design, construction, maintenance, and operation of state highway system facilities in connection with the value pricing program. An agreement to carry out the program authorized pursuant to subdivision (b) shall be subject to the review and approval by the City/County Association of Governments of San Mateo County and the San Mateo County Transportation Authority.

(g) (1) Agreements between VTA, the department, and the Department of the California Highway Patrol shall identify the respective obligations and liabilities of those entities and assign them responsibilities relating to the program. The agreements entered into pursuant to this section shall be consistent with agreements between the department and the United States Department of Transportation relating to this program. The agreements shall include clear and concise procedures for enforcement by the Department of the California Highway Patrol of laws prohibiting the unauthorized use of the high-occupancy vehicle lanes, which may include the use of video enforcement. The agreements shall provide for reimbursement of the department and the Department of the California Highway Patrol for their costs related to the toll facility.

(2) The revenues generated by the program shall be available to VTA for the direct expenses related to the operation, including collection and enforcement, maintenance, construction, and administration of the program. VTA’s administrative costs in the operation of the program shall not exceed 3 percent of the revenues.

(3) (A) For a value pricing program established pursuant to subdivision (a), all remaining revenue generated by the program after expenditures made pursuant to paragraph (2) shall be used in the corridor from which the revenues were generated exclusively for the preconstruction, construction, and other related costs of high-occupancy vehicle facilities, transportation corridor improvements, and the improvement of transit service, including, but not limited to, support for transit operations pursuant to an expenditure plan adopted by VTA.

(B) For a value pricing program established pursuant to subdivision (b), all remaining revenue generated by the program after expenditures made pursuant to paragraph (2) shall be used in the corridor from which the revenues were generated or used for projects that benefit the corridor for the preconstruction, construction, and other related costs of high-occupancy vehicle facilities, transportation corridor improvements, and the improvement of transit service, including, but not limited to, support for transit operations pursuant to an expenditure plan adopted by the City/County Association of Governments of San Mateo County and the San Mateo County Transportation Authority.

(h) (1) VTA may issue bonds, refunding bonds, or bond anticipation notes, at any time to finance construction and construction-related expenditures necessary to implement a value pricing program established pursuant to subdivision (a) or (b) and construction and construction-related expenditures that are provided for in an expenditure plan adopted pursuant to paragraph (3) of subdivision (g), payable from the revenues generated from the program.

(2) The maximum bonded indebtedness that may be outstanding at any one time shall not exceed an amount that may be serviced from the estimated revenues generated from the program.

(3) The bonds shall bear interest at a rate or rates not exceeding the maximum allowable by law, payable at intervals determined by VTA.

(4) Any bond issued pursuant to this subdivision shall contain on its face a statement to the following effect:

“Neither the full faith and credit nor the taxing power of the State of California is pledged to the payment of principal of, or the interest on, this bond.”

(5) Bonds shall be issued pursuant to a resolution of VTA adopted by a two-thirds vote of its governing board. The resolution shall state all of the following:

(A) The purposes for which the proposed debt is to be incurred.

(B) The estimated cost of accomplishing those purposes.

(C) The amount of the principal of the indebtedness.

(D) The maximum term of the bonds and the interest rate.

(E) The denomination or denominations of the bonds, which shall not be less than five thousand dollars ($5,000).

(F) The form of the bonds, including, without limitation, registered bonds and coupon bonds, to the extent permitted by federal law, the registration, conversion, and exchange privileges, if applicable, and the time when all of, or any part of, the principal becomes due and payable.

(G) Any other matters authorized by law.

(6) The full amount of bonds may be divided into two or more series and different dates of payment fixed for the bonds of each series. A bond shall not be required to mature on its anniversary date.

(i) Not later than three years after VTA first collects revenues from any of the projects described in paragraph (1) of subdivision (c), VTA shall submit a report to the Legislature on its findings, conclusions, and recommendations concerning the demonstration program authorized by this section. The report shall include an analysis of the effect of the HOT lanes on adjacent mixed-flow lanes and any comments submitted by the department and the Department of the California Highway Patrol regarding operation of the lanes.

384.

 (a) Route 84 is from:

(1) Route 1 near San Gregorio to Route 101 at Woodside Road in Redwood City.

(2) Route 101 at Marsh Road in Menlo Park to Route 880.

(3) Route 880 to Route 238.

(4) Route 238 to Route 680 near Scotts Corners via the vicinity of Sunol.

(5) Route 680 near Scotts Corners to Route 580 in Livermore.

(6) Route 580 in Livermore to Route 4 near Brentwood.

(7) Route 12 at Rio Vista to the southerly city limit of the City of West Sacramento.

(b) The relinquished former portion of Route 84 within the City of West Sacramento is not a state highway and is not eligible for adoption under Section 81. For the relinquished former portion of Route 84, the City of West Sacramento shall maintain signs within its jurisdictions directing motorists to the continuation of Route 84.

(c) (1) The commission may relinquish to the City of Fremont the portion of Route 84 within its city limits between Route 880, approximately postmile 6.922, and Route 238 Mission Boulevard, approximately postmile 10.83, upon terms and conditions the commission finds to be in the best interests of the state, if the department and the city enter into an agreement providing for that relinquishment.

(2) A relinquishment under this subdivision shall become effective on the date following the county recorder’s recordation of the relinquishment resolution containing the commission’s approval of the terms and conditions of the relinquishment.

(3) On and after the effective date of the relinquishment, all of the following shall occur:

(A) The relinquished portion of Route 84 shall cease to be a state highway.

(B) The relinquished portion of Route 84 shall be ineligible for future adoption under Section 81.

(C) For the relinquished portion of Route 84, the City of Fremont shall maintain signs within its jurisdiction directing motorists to the continuation of Route 84.

5954.

 (a) For each PACE program that it administers, a program administrator shall submit a report to the public agency no later than February 1 for the activity that occurred between July 1st through December 31st of the previous year, and another report no later than August 1 for the activity that occurred between January 1st through June 30th of that year. Those reports shall contain the following information, along with all methodologies and supporting assumptions or sources relied upon in preparing the report:

(1) The number of PACE assessments funded, by city, county, and ZIP Code.

(2) The aggregate dollar amount of PACE assessments funded, by city, county, and ZIP Code.

(3) The average dollar amount of PACE assessments funded, by city, county, and ZIP Code.

(4) The categories of installed efficiency improvements whether energy or water efficiency, renewable energy, wildfire safety improvements, or seismic improvements, and the percentage of PACE assessments represented by each category type, on a number and dollar basis, by city, county, and ZIP Code.

(5) The definition of default used by the program administrator.

(6) For each delinquent assessment:

(A) The total delinquent amount.

(B) The number and dates of missed payments.

(C) ZIP Code, city, and county in which the underlying property is located.

(7) For each defaulted assessment:

(A) The total defaulted amount.

(B) The number and dates of missed payments.

(C) ZIP Code, city, and county in which the underlying property is located.

(D) The percentage the defaults represent of the total assessments within each ZIP Code.

(E) The total number of parcels defaulted and the number of years in default for each property.

(8) The estimated total amount of energy saved, and the estimated total dollar amount of those savings by property owners by the efficiency improvements installed in the calendar year, by city, county, and ZIP Code. In addition, the report shall state the total number of energy savings improvements, and number of improvements installed that are qualified for the Energy Star program of the United States Environmental Protection Agency, including the overall average efficiency rating of installed units for each product type.

(9) The estimated total amount of renewable energy produced by the efficiency improvements installed in the calendar year, by city, county, and ZIP Code. In addition, the report shall state the total number of renewable energy installations, including the average and median system size.

(10) The estimated total amount of water saved, and the estimated total dollar amount of such savings by property owners, by city, county, and ZIP Code. In addition, the report shall state the total number of water savings improvements, the number of efficiency improvements that are qualified for the WaterSense program of the United States Environmental Protection Agency, including the overall average efficiency rating of installed units for each product type.

(11) The estimated amount of greenhouse gas emissions reductions.

(12) The estimated number of jobs created.

(13) The average and median amount of annual and total PACE assessments based on ZIP Code, by city, county, and ZIP Code.

(14) The number and percentage of homeowners over 60 years old by city, county, and ZIP Code.

(b) All reports submitted pursuant to this section shall include only aggregate data, and shall not include any nonpublic personal information.

(c) A public agency that receives a report pursuant to this section shall make the data publicly available on its internet website.

(d) This section does not limit another governmental or regulatory entity from establishing reporting requirements.

(e) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2029, and as of that date is repealed.

6467.

 In the event there are unpaid assessments levied against public property which are payable as provided in Section 5302.5 of this code, the treasurer shall, simultaneously with the issuance of bonds, if bonds are to be issued in the proceedings, issue certificates representing assessments against public property. A separate certificate shall be issued to represent each assessment against public property. The certificates will provide for payment thereof as provided in Section 5302.5, and each certificate shall read substantially as follows:

certificate of ownership of assessment against public property

Pursuant to the provisions of Sections 5301 and 5302.5 of Division 7, Part 3, Chapter 13 of the Streets and Highways Code of the State of California, (Improvement Act of 1911), and pursuant to proceedings taken by the ____ of the ____, County of ____, State of California, under the provisions of Division ____, of the Streets and Highways Code, the undersigned treasurer of ____ does hereby certify as follows:

1. The ____ of ____ by Resolution of Intention No. ____, passed on the ____ day of ____, 20__, and proceedings subsequent thereto, levied an assessment against property owned by ____ in the sum of ____ dollars ($____).

2. Said assessment was levied on the ____ day of ____, 20__; notice thereof was recorded in the office of the County Recorder of the County of ____, on the ____ day of ____, 20__.

3. Said assessment was levied in an assessment district known and described as “____.”

4. The assessment number of said property, as shown on the assessment diagram and in the assessment roll is No. ____, and the property designated as assessment number ____ and which belongs to ____ is described as follows:

(insert description)

5. Said assessment is payable in not more than ____ (_) annual installments, the first installment of which shall be June 2, 20__, and the last of which will be payable June 2, 20__. Said installments will be in even annual proportions of the whole amount. Payments of principal shall be represented by coupons attached to said certificate.

6. Interest will accrue upon said unpaid amount from the ____ day of ____, 20__, at the rate of ____ percent per annum until the whole of the principal and interest thereon shall have been paid in full. The interest is payable semiannually, by coupon, on the second day of December and June, respectively, of each year a principal payment coupon matures.

7. The officer or board whose duty it is to levy taxes on behalf of the owner of said property hereinabove described, is obligated to include in the next tax levy an amount, in addition to moneys for all other purposes, sufficient to pay ____ (____) or more of the principal of said assessment with interest on the unpaid principal of the assessment to date of payment and is obligated to include in each succeeding tax levy a like ____ (____) amount or more in addition to moneys for all other purposes until the principal of said assessment and all interest on the unpaid portions thereof shall be paid. Said tax levy shall be made notwithstanding that said tax levy exceeds the maximum tax rate that may otherwise be imposed by law.

8. In the event that the officer or board whose duty it is to levy taxes fails to provide for a tax levy to pay and discharge the principal of the assessment and the interest thereon, the owner of this certificate may compel the levy thereof in the manner hereinabove set forth by writ of mandate. No statute of limitations shall bar any right provided for herein to enforce the collection of this assessment and any interest due thereon until four years after the maturity of the last coupon of principal and interest due on this certificate.

9. The owner of this certificate described herein may use mandamus or other appropriate remedy to compel the officer or board whose duty it is to levy taxes for said obligated owner to levy an amount in a given year equal to ____ (____) of said assessment and interest on the unpaid portion thereof and may continue to use mandamus or other remedy to cause a like ____ (____) amount and interest to be levied each year until the whole of said assessment and all interest due has been paid.

10. If an owner of this certificate is successful in any action to compel the levy of a tax under this certificate the owner shall be awarded reasonable attorney fees as fixed by the court and costs and said attorney fees and costs shall be included in the tax levied to pay the same.

11. This certificate together with interest is payable to bearer at the office of the ____ treasurer of the ____ of ____ upon presentation of the coupons representing principal and interest thereon. Upon payment in full it shall be surrendered to the ____ treasurer for cancellation.

In witness whereof, said ____ has caused this certificate to be signed by its treasurer and has caused its clerk to affix thereto its corporate seal all on the ____ day of ____, 20__.

6468.

 In addition to the method of collecting unpaid assessments against publicly owned property in use in the performance of a public function, as provided in Section 5302.5, and in addition to the issuance of the certificate provided in Section 6467, the legislative body may elect to have bonds issued to represent assessments against such publicly owned property as authorized in Section 5302.6 and as authorized in this chapter.

Such bonds shall be substantially in the following form:

This bond is issued under and by virtue of the provisions of Chapter 4.5 (commencing with Section 6468), Part 5, Division 7 of the Streets and Highways Code as a result of proceedings taken by the legislative body of ____ (under the provisions of the Improvement Act of 1911) (under the provisions of the Municipal Improvement Act of 1913) and is payable out of the redemption fund for the payment of bonds issued to represent the unpaid assessments against publicly owned property owned by the City (County) of ____ hereinafter designated.

This bond is issued to represent the cost of certain public improvements benefiting such public property, which property is more fully described as assessment number(s) ____ in an assessment issued by the street superintendent of said ____ and recorded in the superintendent’s office.

Said assessment was levied on the ____ day of ____ 20__, in an assessment district known and described as “____”; notice thereof was recorded in the office of the County Recorder of the County of ____, on the ____ day of ____ 20__.

This bond is one of several bonds of like date, tenor and effect, but differing in amounts and maturities, issued by said city (or county) under said law for the purpose of providing means for paying for the work and improvements described in the resolution of intention in the assessment district proceedings hereinabove referred to, and to represent an unpaid assessment against publicly owned property. It is secured by the moneys in said redemption fund and by the unpaid amount of said assessment against said publicly owned property, and, including principal and interest is payable exclusively from said redemption fund and neither the (here insert city or county) nor any officer thereof is to be liable for payment otherwise.

The officer, officers, or board of the entity assessed whose duty it is to levy taxes, is obligated to include in the tax levy for each and every fiscal year of the period of the bonds of the series of which this bond is a part, an amount, in addition to moneys for all other purposes, sufficient to pay the interest falling due on all bonds outstanding of this series, plus the amount necessary to pay the principal of all bonds falling due each fiscal year of the life of this series of bonds. This levy shall be included each fiscal year during the life of this series of bonds, and until the principal and interest upon all bonds of this series shall be paid in full. The levy shall be in addition to any levy or levies made for all other purposes, and shall be made notwithstanding that the tax levy exceeds the maximum tax rate that may otherwise be imposed by law.

The Treasurer of the City (County) of ____ will on the second day of June 20__, solely out of said redemption fund, pay to the bearer the sum of ____ dollars ($____) with interest thereon from the ____ day of ____ 20__, at the rate of ____ percent per annum, all as herein specified and at the office of the treasurer of said city (county).

The interest is payable semiannually, to wit: on the second day of December and June of each fiscal year after the date of this bond, upon presentation of the proper coupons therefor; provided, that the first of said coupons is for interest to the second day of December, 20__, and thereafter the interest coupons are for the semiannual interest. The term “fiscal year” is defined to mean the period from July 1st to and including June 30th of the year following throughout the life of this series of bonds, the first of which fiscal years shall commence the July 1st following the date of this bond. This bond will continue to bear interest after maturity at the rate above stated; provided, it is presented at maturity and payment thereof is refused upon the sole ground that there is not sufficient moneys in said redemption fund with which to pay same. If it is not presented at maturity, interest thereon will run until maturity.

In the event the officer or board whose duty it is to levy taxes to pay for said bonds fails to provide for a tax levy to pay and discharge the principal of the bonds and the interest thereon, the owner of this bond may compel the levy thereof in the manner hereinafter set forth by writ of mandate. The writ of mandate shall include the right to compel the levy of an amount sufficient to pay principal and interest on all bonds issued to represent the same assessment.

The owner of this bond may use mandamus or other appropriate remedy to compel the officer or board, whose duty it is to levy taxes for said obligated owner, to levy an amount in a given year equal to the amount necessary to pay principal and interest on the unpaid portion of this series of bonds and may continue to use mandamus or other remedy to cause a like amount of principal and interest to be levied each year until the whole of the assessment and this series of bonds and all interest thereon has been paid.

If the owner of this bond is successful in any action to compel the levy of the tax under this bond the owner shall be awarded reasonable attorney fees as fixed by the court, and costs, and said attorney fees and costs shall be included in the tax levied to pay the same.

This bond may be redeemed and paid in advance of maturity upon the second day of December or June in any year by giving notice in the manner provided for giving of notice for redemption of bonds under the provisions of the Improvement Bond Act of 1915, and by paying principal and accrued interest together with a premium equal to ____ percent of the principal.

In witness whereof, said ____ has caused this bond to be signed by its treasurer and by its clerk and has affixed thereto its corporate seal all on the ____ day of ____ 20__.

8652.

 The bonds shall be substantially in the following form:

Under and by virtue of the Improvement Bond Act of 1915, Division 10 (commencing with Section 8500) of the Streets and Highways Code (the “Act”), the City (or County) of ____, County of ____, State of California, (the “City” or “County”) will, out of the redemption fund for the payment of the bonds issued upon the unpaid portion of assessments made for the acquisition, work, and improvements more fully described in proceedings taken pursuant to Resolution of Intention No. ____, adopted by the (legislative body) of the City (or County) of ____ on the ____ day of ____, 20__, (as later amended), pay to ____ or registered assigns, on the maturity date stated above, the principal sum of ____, in lawful money of the United States of America and in like manner will pay interest from the interest payment date next preceding the date on which this bond is authenticated, unless this bond is authenticated and registered as of an interest payment date, in which event it shall bear interest from such interest payment date, or unless this bond is authenticated and registered prior to ____, 20__, (first interest payment date) in which event it shall bear interest from its date, until payment of such principal sum shall have been discharged, at the rate per annum stated above, payable semiannually on March 2 and September 2 in each year commencing on ____, 20__. Both the principal hereof and redemption premium hereon are payable at ____ as Transfer Agent, Registrar, and Paying Agent, in ____, California, and the interest hereon is payable by check or draft mailed to the owner hereof at the owner’s address as it appears on the records of the ____ (issuing agency or registration agent) or at an address that has been filed with the ____ (issuing agency or registration agent) for that purpose, as of the 15th day of the calendar month immediately preceding each interest payment date.

This bond will continue to bear interest after maturity at the rate above stated; provided, it is presented at maturity and payment thereof is refused upon the sole ground that there are not sufficient moneys in said redemption fund with which to pay same. If it is not presented at maturity, interest thereon will run until maturity.

This bond shall not be entitled to any benefit under the Act or the Resolution Authorizing Issuance of Bonds (the “Resolution of Issuance”), or become valid or obligatory for any purpose, until the certificate of authentication and registration hereon endorsed shall have been dated and signed by the ____ (issuing agency or registration agent).

IN WITNESS WHEREOF, the City (or County) of ____ has caused this bond to be signed in facsimile by the Treasurer of the City (or County) and by its Clerk, and has caused its corporate seal to be reproduced in facsimile hereon all as of the ____ day of ____, 20__.

This bond is one of several annual series of bonds of like date, tenor, and effect, but differing in amounts, maturities, and interest rates, issued by the City (or County) of ____ under the Act and the Resolution of Issuance, for the purpose of providing means for paying for the improvements described in the proceedings, and is secured by the moneys in the redemption fund and by the unpaid portion of assessments made for the payment of those improvements, and, including principal and interest, is payable exclusively out of the redemption fund.

This bond is transferable by the registered owner hereof, in person or by the owner’s attorney duly authorized in writing, at the office of ____ (issuing agency or its registration agent), subject to the terms and conditions provided in the Resolution of Issuance, including the payment of certain charges, if any, upon surrender and cancellation of this bond. Upon transfer, a new registered bond or bonds, of any authorized denomination or denominations, of the same maturity, for the same aggregate principal amount, will be issued to the transferee in exchange therefor.

Bonds shall be registered only in the name of an individual (including joint owners), a corporation, a partnership, or a trust.

Neither the issuing agency nor the registration agent shall be required to exchange or to register the transfer of bonds during the 15 days immediately preceding any interest payment date.

The issuing agency and the registration agent may treat the owner hereof as the absolute owner for all purposes, and the issuing agency and the registration agent shall not be affected by any notice to the contrary.

This bond or any portion of it in the amount of five thousand dollars ($5,000), or any integral multiple thereof, may be redeemed and paid in advance of maturity upon the second day of March or September in any year by giving at least 30 days’ notice by registered or certified mail or by personal service to the registered owner hereof at the owner’s address as it appears on the registration books of the ____ (issuing agency or registration agent) by paying principal and accrued interest together with a premium equal to ____ percent of the principal.

This bond is not subject to refunding pursuant to the procedures of Division 11 (commencing with Section 9000) or Division 11.5 (commencing with Section 9500) of the Streets and Highways Code prior to ______, ___. (If applicable).

I hereby certify that the following is a correct copy of the signed legal opinion of _____.

3302.1.

 (a) For purposes of this chapter:

(1) “Disability benefit period” with respect to any individual, means the period of unemployment beginning with the first day an individual establishes a valid claim for family temporary disability insurance benefits to care for a seriously ill family member, or to bond with a minor child during the first year after the birth or placement of the child in connection with foster care or adoption.

(2) Periods of family care leave for the same care recipient within a 12-month period shall be considered one disability benefit period.

(3) Periods of disability for pregnancy, as defined in Section 2608, and periods of family care leave for bonding associated with the birth of that child shall be considered one disability benefit period.

(b) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2021, and as of that date is repealed.

3302.1.

 (a) For purposes of this chapter:

(1) “Covered active duty” means, with respect to a member of the regular Armed Forces of the United States, duty during the deployment of the member with the regular armed forces to a foreign country and, with respect to a member of the reserve components of the Armed Forces of the United States, duty during the deployment of the member of those reserve components to a foreign country under a federal call or order to active duty.

(2) “Disability benefit period” with respect to any individual, means the period of unemployment beginning with the first day an individual establishes a valid claim for family temporary disability insurance benefits to care for a seriously ill family member, to bond with a minor child during the first year after the birth or placement of the child in connection with foster care or adoption, or to participate in a qualifying exigency related to the covered active duty or call to covered active duty of the individual’s spouse, domestic partner, child, or parent in the Armed Forces of the United States.

(A) Periods of family care leave for the same care recipient within a 12-month period shall be considered one disability benefit period.

(B) Periods of disability for pregnancy, as defined in Section 2608, and periods of family care leave for bonding associated with the birth of that child shall be considered one disability benefit period.

(b) This section shall become operative on January 1, 2021.

10200.

 The Legislature finds and declares the following:

(a) California’s economy is being challenged by competition from other states and overseas. In order to meet this challenge, California’s employers, workers, labor organizations, and government need to invest in a skilled and productive workforce, and in developing the skills of frontline workers. For purposes of this section, “frontline worker” means a worker who directly produces or delivers goods or services.

The purpose of this chapter is to establish a strategically designed employment training program to promote a healthy labor market in a growing, competitive economy that shall fund only projects that meet the following criteria:

(1) Foster creation of high-wage, high-skilled jobs, or foster retention of high-wage, high-skilled jobs in manufacturing and other industries that are threatened by out-of-state and global competition, including, but not limited to, those industries in which targeted training resources for California’s small and medium-sized business suppliers will increase the state’s competitiveness to secure federal, private sector, and other nonstate funds. In addition, provide for retraining contracts in companies that make a monetary or in-kind contribution to the funded training enhancements.

(2) Encourage industry-based investment in human resources development that promotes the competitiveness of California industry through productivity and product quality enhancements.

(3) Result in secure jobs for those who successfully complete training. All training shall be customized to the specific requirements of one or more employers or a discrete industry and shall include general skills, including soft skills, that trainees can use in the future.

(4) Supplement, rather than displace, funds available through existing programs conducted by employers and government-funded training programs, such as the Workforce Investment Act of 1998 (29 U.S.C. Sec. 2801 et seq.), the Carl D. Perkins Vocational Education Act (Public Law 98-524), CalWORKs (Chapter 2 (commencing with Section 11200) of Part 3 of Division 9 of the Welfare and Institutions Code), the Enterprise Zone Act (Chapter 12.8 (commencing with Section 7070) of Division 7 of Title 1 of the Government Code), and the McKinney-Vento Homeless Assistance Act (42 U.S.C. Sec. 11301 et seq.), the California Community Colleges Economic Development Program, or apportionment funds allocated to the community colleges, regional occupational centers and programs, or other local educational agencies. In addition, it is further the intention of the Legislature that programs developed pursuant to this chapter shall not replace, parallel, supplant, compete with, or duplicate in any way already existing approved apprenticeship programs.

(b) The Employment Training Panel, in funding projects that meet the requirements of subdivision (a), shall give funding priority to those projects that best meet the following goals:

(1) Result in the growth of the California economy by stimulating exports from the state and the production of goods and services that would otherwise be imported from outside the state.

(2) Train new employees of firms locating or expanding in the state that provide high-skilled, high-wage jobs and are committed to an ongoing investment in the training of frontline workers.

(3) Develop workers with skills that prepare them for the challenges of a high-performance workplace of the future.

(4) Train workers who have been displaced, have received notification of impending layoff, or are subject to displacement, because of a plant closure, workforce reduction, changes in technology, or significantly increasing levels of international and out-of-state competition.

(5) Are jointly developed by business management and worker representatives.

(6) Develop career ladders for workers.

(7) Promote the retention and expansion of the state’s manufacturing workforce.

(c) The program established through this chapter is to be coordinated with all existing employment training programs and economic development programs, including, but not limited to, programs such as the Workforce Investment Act of 1998 (29 U.S.C. Sec. 2801 et seq.), the California Community Colleges, the regional occupational programs, vocational education programs, joint labor-management training programs, and related programs under the Employment Development Department and the Governor’s Office of Business and Economic Development, and the Business, Consumer Services, and Housing Agency.

1808.4.

 (a) For all of the following persons, the person’s home address that appears in a record of the department is confidential if the person requests the confidentiality of that information:

(1) Attorney General.

(2) State Public Defender.

(3) A Member of the Legislature.

(4) An active or retired judge or court commissioner.

(5) A district attorney.

(6) A public defender.

(7) An attorney employed by the Department of Justice, the office of the State Public Defender, or a county office of the district attorney or public defender.

(8) A city attorney, city prosecutor, or an attorney who submits verification from their public employer that the attorney represents the city in matters that routinely place the attorney in personal contact with persons under investigation for, charged with, or convicted of, committing criminal acts, if that attorney is employed by a city attorney or city prosecutor.

(9) A nonsworn police dispatcher.

(10) A child abuse investigator or social worker, working in child protective services within a social services department.

(11) An active or retired peace officer, as defined in Chapter 4.5 (commencing with Section 830) of Title 3 of Part 2 of the Penal Code.

(12) An employee of the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation, Division of Juvenile Facilities, or the Prison Industry Authority specified in Sections 20403 and 20405 of the Government Code.

(13) A nonsworn employee of a city police department, a county sheriff’s office, the Department of the California Highway Patrol, a federal, state, or local detention facility, or a local juvenile hall, camp, ranch, or home, who submits agency verification that, in the normal course of the employee’s employment, the employee controls or supervises inmates or is required to have a prisoner in the employee’s care or custody.

(14) A county counsel assigned to child abuse cases.

(15) An investigator employed by the Department of Justice, a county district attorney, or a county public defender.

(16) A member of a city council.

(17) A member of a board of supervisors.

(18) A federal prosecutor, criminal investigator, or National Park Service Ranger working in this state.

(19) An active or retired city enforcement officer engaged in the enforcement of the Vehicle Code or municipal parking ordinances.

(20) An employee of a trial court.

(21) A psychiatric social worker employed by a county.

(22) A police or sheriff department employee designated by the chief of police of the department or the sheriff of the county as being in a sensitive position. A designation pursuant to this paragraph shall, for purposes of this section, remain in effect for three years subject to additional designations that, for purposes of this section, shall remain in effect for additional three-year periods.

(23) A state employee in one of the following classifications:

(A) Licensing-Registration Examiner, Department of Motor Vehicles.

(B) Motor Carrier Specialist I, Department of the California Highway Patrol.

(C) Museum Security Officer and Supervising Museum Security Officer.

(D) Licensing Program Analyst, State Department of Social Services.

(24) (A) The spouse or child of a person listed in paragraphs (1) to (23), inclusive, regardless of the spouse’s or child’s place of residence.

(B) The surviving spouse or child of a peace officer, as defined in Chapter 4.5 (commencing with Section 830) of Title 3 of Part 2 of the Penal Code, if the peace officer died in the line of duty.

(C) The surviving spouse or child of a judge or court commissioner, if the judge or court commissioner died in the performance of their duties.

(D) (i) Subparagraphs (A), (B), and (C) do not apply if the person listed in those subparagraphs was convicted of a crime and is on active parole or probation.

(ii) For requests made on or after January 1, 2011, the person requesting confidentiality for their spouse or child listed in subparagraph (A), (B), or (C) shall declare, at the time of the request for confidentiality, whether the spouse or child has been convicted of a crime and is on active parole or probation.

(iii) Neither the listed person’s employer nor the department shall be required to verify, or be responsible for verifying, that a person listed in subparagraph (A), (B), or (C) was convicted of a crime and is on active parole or probation.

(E) (i) The department shall discontinue holding a home address confidential pursuant to this subdivision for a person specified in subparagraph (A), (B), or (C) who is the child or spouse of a person described in paragraph (4), (9), (11), (13), or (22) if the child or spouse is convicted of a felony in this state or is convicted of an offense in another jurisdiction that, if committed in California, would be a felony.

(ii) The department shall comply with this subparagraph upon receiving notice of a disqualifying conviction from the agency that employs or formerly employed the parent or spouse of the convicted person, or as soon as the department otherwise becomes aware of the disqualifying conviction.

(b) The confidential home address of a person listed in subdivision (a) shall not be disclosed, except to any of the following:

(1) A court.

(2) A law enforcement agency.

(3) The State Board of Equalization.

(4) An attorney in a civil or criminal action that demonstrates to a court the need for the home address, if the disclosure is made pursuant to a subpoena.

(5) A governmental agency to which, under any law, information is required to be furnished from records maintained by the department.

(c) (1) A record of the department containing a confidential home address shall be open to public inspection, as provided in Section 1808, if the address is completely obliterated or otherwise removed from the record.

(2) Following termination of office or employment, a confidential home address shall be withheld from public inspection for three years, unless the termination is the result of conviction of a criminal offense. If the termination or separation is the result of the filing of a criminal complaint, a confidential home address shall be withheld from public inspection during the time in which the terminated individual may file an appeal from termination, while an appeal from termination is ongoing, and until the appeal process is exhausted, after which confidentiality shall be at the discretion of the employing agency if the termination or separation is upheld. Upon reinstatement to an office or employment, the protections of this section are available.

(3) With respect to a retired peace officer, the peace officer’s home address shall be withheld from public inspection permanently upon request of confidentiality at the time the information would otherwise be opened. The home address of the surviving spouse or child listed in subparagraph (B) of paragraph (24) of subdivision (a) shall be withheld from public inspection for three years following the death of the peace officer.

(4) The department shall inform a person who requests a confidential home address what agency the individual whose address was requested is employed by or the court at which the judge or court commissioner presides.

(5) With respect to a retired judge or court commissioner, the retired judge or court commissioner’s home address shall be withheld from public inspection permanently upon request of confidentiality at the time the information would otherwise be opened. The home address of the surviving spouse or child listed in subparagraph (C) of paragraph (24) of subdivision (a) shall be withheld from public inspection for three years following the death of the judge or court commissioner.

(d) A violation of subdivision (a) by the disclosure of the confidential home address of a peace officer, as specified in paragraph (11) of subdivision (a), a nonsworn employee of the city police department or county sheriff’s office, a judge or court commissioner, as specified in paragraph (4) of subdivision (a), or the spouses or children of these persons, including, but not limited to, the surviving spouse or child listed in subparagraph (B) or (C) of paragraph (24) of subdivision (a), that results in bodily injury to the peace officer, employee of the city police department or county sheriff’s office, judge or court commissioner, or the spouses or children of these persons is a felony.

21212.

 (a) A person under 18 years of age shall not operate a bicycle, a nonmotorized scooter, or a skateboard, nor wear in-line or roller skates, nor ride upon a bicycle, a nonmotorized scooter, or a skateboard as a passenger, upon a street, bikeway, as defined in Section 890.4 of the Streets and Highways Code, or any other public bicycle path or trail unless that person is wearing a properly fitted and fastened bicycle helmet that meets the standards of either the American Society for Testing and Materials (ASTM) or the United States Consumer Product Safety Commission (CPSC), or standards subsequently established by those entities. This requirement also applies to a person who rides upon a bicycle while in a restraining seat that is attached to the bicycle or in a trailer towed by the bicycle.

(b) A helmet sold or offered for sale for use by operators and passengers of bicycles, nonmotorized scooters, skateboards, or in-line or roller skates shall be conspicuously labeled in accordance with the standard described in subdivision (a), which shall constitute the manufacturer’s certification that the helmet conforms to the applicable safety standards.

(c) A person shall not sell, or offer for sale, for use by an operator or passenger of a bicycle, nonmotorized scooter, skateboard, or in-line or roller skates any safety helmet that is not of a type meeting requirements established by this section.

(d) A charge under this section shall be dismissed when the person charged alleges in court, under oath, that the charge against the person is the first charge against that person under this section, unless it is otherwise established in court that the charge is not the first charge against the person.

(e) (1) Except as provided in subdivision (d), a violation of this section is an infraction punishable by a fine of not more than twenty-five dollars ($25).

(2) The parent or legal guardian having control or custody of an unemancipated minor whose conduct violates this section shall be jointly and severally liable with the minor for the amount of the fine imposed pursuant to this subdivision.

(f) A record of the action shall not be transmitted to the court and a fee shall not be imposed pursuant to Section 40611 upon a citation for not wearing a properly fitted and fastened bicycle helmet pursuant to subdivision (a) if the parent or legal guardian of the person described in subdivision (a) delivers proof to the issuing agency within 120 days after the citation was issued that the person has a helmet meeting the requirements specified in subdivision (a) and the person has completed a local bicycle safety course or a related safety course, if one is available, as prescribed by authorities in the local jurisdiction.

(g) Notwithstanding Section 1463 of the Penal Code or any other law, the fines collected for a violation of this section shall be allocated as follows:

(1) Seventy-two and one-half percent of the amount collected shall be deposited in a special account of the county health department, to be used for bicycle, nonmotorized scooter, skateboard, and in-line and roller skate safety education and for assisting low-income families in obtaining approved bicycle helmets for persons under 18 years of age, either on a loan or purchase basis. The county may contract for the implementation of this program, which, to the extent practicable, shall be operated in conjunction with the child passenger restraint program pursuant to Section 27360.

(2) Two and one-half percent of the amount collected shall be deposited in the county treasury to be used by the county to administer the program described in paragraph (1).

(3) If the violation occurred within a city, 25 percent of the amount collected shall be transferred to, and deposited in, the treasury of that city. If the violation occurred in an unincorporated area, this 25 percent shall be deposited and used pursuant to paragraph (1).

23222.

 (a) A person shall not have in their possession on their person, while driving a motor vehicle upon a highway or on lands, as described in subdivision (c) of Section 23220, any bottle, can, or other receptacle, containing any alcoholic beverage which has been opened, or a seal broken, or the contents of which have been partially removed.

(b) (1) Except as authorized by law, every person who has in their possession on their person, while driving a motor vehicle upon a highway or on lands, as described in subdivision (c) of Section 23220, any receptacle containing any cannabis or cannabis products, as defined by Section 11018.1 of the Health and Safety Code, which has been opened or has a seal broken, or loose cannabis flower not in a container, is guilty of an infraction punishable by a fine of not more than one hundred dollars ($100).

(2) Paragraph (1) does not apply to a person who has a receptacle containing cannabis or cannabis products that has been opened, has a seal broken, or the contents of which have been partially removed, or to a person who has loose cannabis flower not in a container, if the receptacle or loose cannabis flower not in a container is in the trunk of the vehicle.

(c) Subdivision (b) does not apply to a qualified patient or person with an identification card, as defined in Section 11362.7 of the Health and Safety Code, if both of the following apply:

(1) The person is carrying a current identification card or a physician’s recommendation.

(2) The cannabis or cannabis product is contained in a container or receptacle that is either sealed, resealed, or closed.

23223.

 (a) A driver shall not have in the driver’s possession, while in a motor vehicle upon a highway or on lands, as described in subdivision (c) of Section 23220, any bottle, can, or other receptacle, containing any alcoholic beverage that has been opened, or a seal broken, or the contents of which have been partially removed.

(b) A passenger shall not have in the passenger’s possession, while in a motor vehicle upon a highway or on lands, as described in subdivision (c) of Section 23220, any bottle, can, or other receptacle containing any alcoholic beverage that has been opened or a seal broken, or the contents of which have been partially removed.

23225.

 (a) (1) It is unlawful for the registered owner of any motor vehicle to keep in a motor vehicle, when the vehicle is upon any highway or on lands, as described in subdivision (c) of Section 23220, any bottle, can, or other receptacle containing any alcoholic beverage that has been opened, or a seal broken, or the contents of which have been partially removed, unless the container is kept in the trunk of the vehicle.

(2) If the vehicle is not equipped with a trunk and is not an off-highway motor vehicle subject to identification, as defined in Section 38012, the bottle, can, or other receptacle described in paragraph (1) shall be kept in some other area of the vehicle that is not normally occupied by the driver or passengers. For the purposes of this paragraph, a utility compartment or glove compartment shall be deemed to be within the area occupied by the driver and passengers.

(3) If the vehicle is not equipped with a trunk and is an off-highway motor vehicle subject to identification, as defined in subdivision (a) of Section 38012, the bottle, can, or other receptacle described in paragraph (1) shall be kept in a locked container. As used in this paragraph, “locked container” means a secure container that is fully enclosed and locked by a padlock, key lock, combination lock, or similar locking device.

(b) Subdivision (a) is also applicable to a driver of a motor vehicle if the registered owner is not present in the vehicle.

(c) This section shall not apply to the living quarters of a housecar or camper.

23226.

 (a) It is unlawful for any driver to keep in the passenger compartment of a motor vehicle, when the vehicle is upon any highway or on lands, as described in subdivision (c) of Section 23220, any bottle, can, or other receptacle containing any alcoholic beverage that has been opened, or a seal broken, or the contents of which have been partially removed.

(b) It is unlawful for any passenger to keep in the passenger compartment of a motor vehicle, when the vehicle is upon any highway or on lands, as described in subdivision (c) of Section 23220, any bottle, can, or other receptacle containing any alcoholic beverage that has been opened or a seal broken, or the contents of which have been partially removed.

(c) This section does not apply to the living quarters of a housecar or camper.

40254.

 (a) If a vehicle is found, by automated devices, visual observation, or otherwise, to have evaded tolls on a toll road or toll bridge, and subdivision (d) of Section 40250 does not apply, an issuing agency or a processing agency, as the case may be, shall, within 21 days of the violation, forward to the registered owner a notice of toll evasion violation setting forth the violation, including reference to the section violated, the approximate time thereof, and the location where the violation occurred. If accurate information concerning the identity and address of the registered owner is not available to the processing agency within 21 days of the violation, the processing agency shall have an additional 45 calendar days to obtain such information and forward the notice of toll evasion violation. If the registered owner is a repeat violator, the processing agency shall forward the notice of toll evasion violation within 90 calendar days of the violation. “Repeat violator” means any registered owner for whom more than five violations have been issued pursuant to this section in any calendar month within the preceding 12-month period. The notice of toll evasion violation shall also set forth, if applicable, all of the following:

(1) The vehicle license plate number.

(2) If practicable, the registration expiration date and the make of the vehicle.

(3) If a vehicle is found, by automated devices, to have evaded the toll through failure to meet occupancy requirements in a high-occupancy toll lane, a copy of photographic evidence on which the determination was based.

(4) A clear and concise explanation of the procedures for contesting the violation and appealing an adverse decision pursuant to Sections 40255 and 40256.

(b) After the authorized person has notified the processing agency of a toll evasion violation, the processing agency shall prepare and forward the notice of violation to the registered owner of the vehicle cited for the violation. Any person, including the authorized person and any member of the person’s department or agency, or any peace officer who, with intent to prejudice, damage, or defraud, is found guilty of altering, concealing, modifying, nullifying, or destroying, or causing to be altered, concealed, modified, nullified, or destroyed, the face of the original or any copy of a notice that was retained by the authorized person before it is filed with the processing agency or with a person authorized to receive the deposit of the toll evasion violation is guilty of a misdemeanor.

(c) If, after a copy of the notice of toll evasion violation has been sent to the registered owner, the issuing person determines that, due to a failure of proof of apparent violation, the notice of toll evasion violation should be dismissed, the issuing agency may recommend, in writing, that the charges be dismissed. The recommendation shall cite the reasons for the recommendation and shall be filed with the processing agency.

(d) If the processing agency makes a finding that there are grounds for dismissal, the notice of toll evasion violation shall be canceled pursuant to Section 40255.

(e) A personal relationship with any law enforcement officer, public official, law enforcement agency, processing agency, or toll operating agency or entity shall not be grounds for dismissal of the violation.

(f) The processing agency shall use its best efforts to obtain accurate information concerning the identity and address of the registered owner for the purpose of forwarding a notice of toll evasion violation pursuant to subdivision (a).

40282.

 (a) As part of the pilot program, the Judicial Council, through its delegates, shall develop an online tool for adjudicating infraction violations.

(b) A pilot court shall offer online adjudication of traffic infractions, including allowing a defendant to request an ability-to-pay determination and at least three of the following provisions:

(1) Agree to post and forfeit bail.

(2) Request to forfeit bail in installments pursuant to Section 40510.5.

(3) Request an online trial.

(4) Request a continuance.

(5) Request a date to appear in court.

(c) The online tool shall recommend a reduction of 50 percent or more of the total amount due, as defined in subdivision (d) of Section 40283, for all defendants who are in receipt of CalFresh benefits as provided in Chapter 10 (commencing with Section 18900) of Part 6 of Division 9 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, or who have established an inability to pay pursuant to subdivision (a) of Section 40284. The court shall make express findings if it deviates from the online tool recommendation by ordering a defendant to pay an amount greater than the recommendation under this subdivision.

(d) The online tool shall recommend a payment of no more than twenty-five dollars ($25) per month for a defendant who is eligible for a reduction pursuant to subdivision (c) and requests an installment plan.

(e) The online tool shall provide information in Spanish, English, and any other languages the court chooses.

(f) As feasible, pilot courts shall notify defendants of the result of the ability-to-pay determination within 30 days.

(g) A pilot court shall not compel a defendant to use the online tool.

40288.

 (a) The Judicial Council may adopt rules and forms as may be necessary or appropriate to implement this chapter.

(b) On January 1, 2020, and January 1, 2021, the Judicial Council shall report to the Legislature on the implementation of the pilot program. These reports shall include, but are not limited to, the following:

(1) Demographic information on defendants using the online tool, as reported by the defendant, including, but not limited to, income level, public benefits status, and ZIP Code.

(2) Information on all violations processed by the tool, including initial fine and fee totals, adjusted fines and fees as recommended by the online system, and the final judicial order.

(3) Number of individuals using each of the activities authorized pursuant to Section 40282.

(4) Information on the implementation of the pilot program in each of the courts, including any local practices or policies adopted pursuant to the pilot program.

(c) No later than June 30, 2022, the Judicial Council shall provide to the Legislature an evaluation of the pilot program. Where possible, the report shall compare court data and practices in the pilot counties as of June 30, 2018, to data collect during the pilot program. The report shall include the data collected for the report in subdivision (b) and the following information:

(1) An estimate of the costs of the online pilot program to the state and participating courts.

(2) The total amount of initial fines and fees assessed.

(3) The total amount of adjusted fines and fees recommended by the online tool.

(4) The total amount of fines and fees ordered.

(5) Of the total amount of fines and fees ordered, the total amount collected.

(6) A comparison of the number of users of the online pilot program with total traffic infraction filings in participating courts.

(7) Monthly payment plan arrangements ordered and payment plan adherence.

(8) Findings from a survey of judicial officers, defendants, and court staff, designed to assess ease of use and satisfaction with results.

(9) An assessment of the overall effectiveness of the program, including implementation challenges and recommendations for improving them.

(d) The reports to be submitted pursuant to subdivisions (b) and (c) shall be submitted in compliance with Section 9795 of the Government Code.

(e) This chapter shall remain in effect only until June 30, 2022, and as of January 1, 2023, is repealed, unless a later enacted statute that is enacted before January 1, 2023, deletes or extends that date.

1058.5.

 (a) This section applies to any emergency regulation adopted by the board for which the board makes both of the following findings:

(1) The emergency regulation is adopted to prevent the waste, unreasonable use, unreasonable method of use, or unreasonable method of diversion, of water, to promote water recycling or water conservation, to require curtailment of diversions when water is not available under the diverter’s priority of right, or in furtherance of any of the foregoing, to require reporting of diversion or use or the preparation of monitoring reports.

(2) The emergency regulation is adopted in response to conditions which exist, or are threatened, in a critically dry year immediately preceded by two or more consecutive below normal, dry, or critically dry years or during a period for which the Governor has issued a proclamation of a state of emergency under the California Emergency Services Act (Chapter 7 (commencing with Section 8550) of Division 1 of Title 2 of the Government Code) based on drought conditions.

(b) Notwithstanding Sections 11346.1 and 11349.6 of the Government Code, any findings of emergency adopted by the board, in connection with the adoption of an emergency regulation under this section, are not subject to review by the Office of Administrative Law.

(c) An emergency regulation adopted by the board under this section may remain in effect for up to one year, as determined by the board, and is deemed repealed immediately upon a finding by the board that due to changed conditions it is no longer necessary for the regulation to remain in effect. An emergency regulation adopted by the board under this section may be renewed if the board determines that the conditions specified in paragraph (2) of subdivision (a) are still in effect.

(d) In addition to any other applicable civil or criminal penalties, any person or entity that violates a regulation adopted by the board pursuant to this section is guilty of an infraction punishable by a fine of up to five hundred dollars ($500) for each day in which the violation occurs.

(e) (1) Notwithstanding subdivision (b) of Section 1551 or subdivision (e) of Section 1848, a civil liability imposed under Chapter 12 (commencing with Section 1825) of Part 2 of Division 2 by the board or a court for a violation of an emergency conservation regulation adopted pursuant to this section shall be deposited, and separately accounted for, in the Water Rights Fund. Funds deposited in accordance with this subdivision shall be available, upon appropriation, for water conservation activities and programs.

(2) For purposes of this subdivision, an “emergency conservation regulation” means an emergency regulation that requires an end user of water, a water retailer, or a water wholesaler to conserve water or report to the board on water conservation. Water conservation includes restrictions or limitations on particular uses of water or a reduction in the amount of water used or served, but does not include curtailment of diversions when water is not available under the diverter’s priority of right or reporting requirements related to curtailments.

1111.

 (a) The Administrative Hearings Office shall include attorneys qualified to act as hearing officers in adjudicative proceedings involving water rights matters. The hearing officers shall have qualifications equivalent to those of administrative law judges and knowledge and experience in water law.

(b) The board shall designate a hearing officer to serve as the presiding hearing officer.

(c) The presiding hearing officer shall have authority to supervise the Administrative Hearings Office, including, but not limited to, the authority to do all of the following:

(1) Hire personnel, including technical experts.

(2) Assign matters to hearing officers.

(3) Reassign matters as convenience and necessity require.

(4) Serve as a hearing officer.

6606.

 (a) The commission shall do all of the following:

(1) Serve as a representative to the public for the purposes of providing public input and receiving information from the dam operator.

(2) Act as a unified voice from the communities surrounding Oroville Dam to provide public feedback, advice, and best practices to the dam operator.

(3) Publish a report at least once every three years that provides all of the following:

(A) An overview of ongoing maintenance and improvements made at the dam and its site.

(B) A register of communications received by the commission from the department and other parties.