Enrolled  July 14, 2023
Passed  IN  Senate  July 13, 2023
Passed  IN  Assembly  April 17, 2023

CALIFORNIA LEGISLATURE— 2023–2024 REGULAR SESSION

Assembly Bill
No. 1754


Introduced by Committee on Judiciary (Assembly Members Maienschein (Chair), Connolly, Dixon, Haney, Kalra, Pacheco, Papan, Reyes, and Robert Rivas)

March 02, 2023


An act to amend Sections 2270, 2530.2, 2533.6, 2570.3, 2786, 10083.2, 10166.07, and 18975 of the Business and Professions Code, to amend Sections 47, 1749.8, 1749.8.1, 1788.18, 1798.99.31, 2924f, and 3273.50 of the Civil Code, to amend Sections 98, 377.34, 681.030, 683.110, 685.010 and 1002 of the Code of Civil Procedure, to amend Sections 1151 and 13401 of the Corporations Code, to amend Sections 8902, 17250.62, 20091, 41329, 41490, 41585, 42238.01, 42238.5, 45301, 47605, 47605.6, 48432.5, 51461, 51747, 52073.3, 52511, 53071, 53076.1 54692, 67102.5, 67329.51, 67385.7, 71093, 78212.5, 94146, 94150, and 94151 of the Education Code, to amend Sections 2194, 2196, 7300, 12303, 13312, and 21575 of the Elections Code, to amend Section 1227 of the Evidence Code, to amend Sections 7571, 7572, and 17552 of the Family Code, to amend Sections 6539.8, 6588.7, 7906, 7929.011, 8586.5, 8588.9, 8594.13, 8699, 9902, 11019.81, 11188, 12100.63, 12100.101, 12100.103, 12100.163, 14560, 14838.1, 16429.10, 19402, 20825.14, 21024, 26666.5, 51010, 53087.9, 54953, 54954.2, 61105, 65585, 65850.52, 65852.24, 65912.113, 65912.123, 65913.4, and 68645.2 of, and to amend and renumber Section 8654.2 of, the Government Code, to amend Sections 1418.22, 1568.23, 1568.28, 1568.271, 1568.295, 1596.955, 1748, 11361.9, 18941.17, 25173.7, 25205.2, 25214.8.11.2, 25214.8.11.6, 25269.2, 25403.1, 25404, 25501, 38561.3, 39741.5, 44225, 44287, 50199.23, 50254, 50720.2, 53559, 105250.5, 105254, 127501.4, 127502.5, 127507.2, 128736, 150204.5, and 150204.6 of the Health and Safety Code, to amend Sections 1156.35, 1410, 1471, 1472, 1771.4, 2671, 2783, 3073.1, 4610, 4903.6, and 6409.6 of, and to amend and renumber Section 5414.3 of, the Labor Code, to amend Sections 146e, 236.14, 236.15, 653.29, 679.12, 680, 832.7, 1001.81, 1170, 1170.02, 1172.1, 1172.2, 1203.425, 1385, 1465.9, 11105, 11163.5, 13680, and 13683 of the Penal Code, to amend Section 854 of the Probate Code, to amend Section 20146 of the Public Contract Code, to amend Sections 2207, 5580, 5581, 9084, 21080.58, 21168.6.9, 25545, 25545.1, 25545.3.5, 25545.5, 25793, 25794.1, 35160, 42041, 42051, 42051.1, 42053, 42057, 42060, 42060.5, 42061, 42064.01, 42081, 42420.1, 42420.3, 42422.1, 42422.5, 42425.1, 42463, 42465, 42476, 42479 of, and to amend and renumber Section 25454.7.2 of, the Public Resources Code, to amend Sections 5900 and 125222 of the Public Utilities Code, to amend Sections 214.15.1, 327, 6377, 10783.2, 12206, 17053.80, 19586, 23628, and 34019 of, and to amend and renumber Section 17131.12 of, the Revenue and Taxation Code, to amend Section 894 of the Streets and Highways Code, to amend Sections 22, 5204, 12811, 23301.5, 40000.11, and 40225 of the Vehicle Code, to amend Sections 12687.5 and 80710 of the Water Code, and to amend Sections 726, 1732.9, 3200, 5275, 5346, 6609.1, 8257, 10850, 11454.5, 11495.15, 14197.45, 16501.1, and 18929 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, relating to maintenance of the codes.


LEGISLATIVE COUNSEL'S DIGEST


AB 1754, Committee on Judiciary. Maintenance of the codes.
Existing law directs the Legislative Counsel to advise the Legislature from time to time as to legislation necessary to maintain the codes.
This bill would make nonsubstantive changes in various provisions of the law to effectuate the recommendations made by the Legislative Counsel to the Legislature.
Vote: MAJORITY   Appropriation: NO   Fiscal Committee: NO   Local Program: NO  

The people of the State of California do enact as follows:


SECTION 1.

 Section 2270 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:

2270.
 (a) It shall constitute unprofessional conduct for a physician and surgeon to disseminate misinformation or disinformation related to COVID-19, including false or misleading information regarding the nature and risks of the virus, its prevention and treatment, and the development, safety, and effectiveness of COVID-19 vaccines.
(b) For purposes of this section, the following definitions shall apply:
(1) “Board” means the Medical Board of California or the Osteopathic Medical Board of California, as applicable.
(2) “Disinformation” means misinformation that the licensee deliberately disseminated with malicious intent or an intent to mislead.
(3) “Disseminate” means the conveyance of information from the licensee to a patient under the licensee’s care in the form of treatment or advice.
(4) “Misinformation” means false information that is contradicted by contemporary scientific consensus contrary to the standard of care.
(5) “Physician and surgeon” means a person licensed by the Medical Board of California or the Osteopathic Medical Board of California under Chapter 5 (commencing with Section 2000).
(c) Section 2314 shall not apply to this section.

SEC. 2.

 Section 2530.2 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:

2530.2.
 As used in this chapter, unless the context otherwise requires:
(a) “Board” means the Speech-Language Pathology and Audiology and Hearing Aid Dispensers Board.
(b) “Person” means any individual, partnership, corporation, limited liability company, or other organization or combination thereof, except that only individuals can be licensed under this chapter.
(c) A “speech-language pathologist” is a person who practices speech-language pathology.
(d) The practice of speech-language pathology means all of the following:
(1) The application of principles, methods, instrumental procedures, and noninstrumental procedures for measurement, testing, screening, evaluation, identification, prediction, and counseling related to the development and disorders of speech, voice, language, or swallowing.
(2) The application of principles and methods for preventing, planning, directing, conducting, and supervising programs for habilitating, rehabilitating, ameliorating, managing, or modifying disorders of speech, voice, language, or swallowing in individuals or groups of individuals.
(3) Conducting hearing screenings.
(4) Performing suctioning in connection with the scope of practice described in paragraphs (1) and (2), after compliance with a medical facility’s training protocols on suctioning procedures.
(e) (1) Instrumental procedures referred to in subdivision (d) are the use of rigid and flexible endoscopes to observe the pharyngeal and laryngeal areas of the throat in order to observe, collect data, and measure the parameters of communication and swallowing as well as to guide communication and swallowing assessment and therapy. Passage of these instruments without the presence of a physician and surgeon is subject to paragraph (2).
(2) Nothing in this subdivision shall be construed as a diagnosis. Any observation of an abnormality shall be referred to a physician and surgeon.
(f) A licensed speech-language pathologist shall not perform a flexible fiber optic transnasal endoscopic procedure unless they have received written verification from one otolaryngologist certified by the American Board of Otolaryngology that the speech-language pathologist has performed a minimum of 25 supervised flexible fiber optic transnasal endoscopic procedures and they are competent to perform these procedures. Of these 25 procedures, the first 10 procedures shall be supervised by a licensed physician and surgeon who performs nasal endoscopy as part of their practice and the subsequent 15 procedures shall be supervised by either a licensed physician and surgeon who performs nasal endoscopy as part of their practice or by another licensed speech-language pathologist that is verified as competent in performing flexible fiber optic transnasal endoscopic procedures. The speech-language pathologist shall have this written verification on file and readily available for inspection upon request by the board. A speech-language pathologist with a verification on file shall pass a flexible fiber optic transnasal endoscopic instrument only upon the orders of a licensed physician and surgeon. The order by a physician and surgeon is deemed to allow a speech-language pathologist with verification, in accordance with this paragraph, to perform fiber optic transnasal endoscopic procedures at a location based on the patient’s medical needs that complies with procedures specified in paragraph (1) of subdivision (g).
(g) (1) A licensed speech-language pathologist shall only perform flexible endoscopic procedures described in subdivision (e) in the following settings that requires the facility to have protocols for emergency medical backup procedures, including a physician and surgeon or other appropriate medical professionals being readily available.
(A) A clinic, as defined in Section 1200 of the Health and Safety Code.
(B) A facility described in Chapter 2.5 (commencing with Section 1440) of Division 2 of the Health and Safety Code.
(C) A health facility, as defined in Section 1250 of the Health and Safety Code.
(D) A hospice facility licensed pursuant to Chapter 8.5 (commencing with Section 1745) of Division 2 of the Health and Safety Code.
(E) A medical group practice, including a professional medical corporation, as defined in Section 2406, another form of corporation controlled by physicians and surgeons, a medical partnership, a medical foundation exempt from licensure, or another lawfully organized group of physicians and surgeons that provides health care services.
(2) A licensed speech-language pathologist performing flexible fiber optic transnasal endoscopic procedures on patients who have contraindications to the procedure shall consult and document clearance with the physician and surgeon that the licensed speech-language pathologist can safely perform the procedure. For purposes of this paragraph, contraindications for these procedures may include, but are not limited to, cases of bilateral obstruction of nasal passages, refractory epistaxis, cardiac disorder with acute risk of vasovagal episode and bradycardia, history of vasovagal episodes, facial trauma, recent trauma to the nasal cavity, or surrounding tissue and structures secondary to surgery or injury, severe bleeding disorders, severe movement disorders, severe agitation, and inability to cooperate with the examination.
(h) “Speech-language pathology aide” means any person meeting the minimum requirements established by the board, who works directly under the supervision of a speech-language pathologist.
(i) (1) “Speech-language pathology assistant” means a person who meets the academic and supervised training requirements set forth by the board and who is approved by the board to assist in the provision of speech-language pathology under the direction and supervision of a speech-language pathologist who shall be responsible for the extent, kind, and quality of the services provided by the speech-language pathology assistant.
(2) The supervising speech-language pathologist employed or contracted for by a public school may hold a valid and current license issued by the board, a valid, current, and professional clear clinical or rehabilitative services credential in language, speech, and hearing issued by the Commission on Teacher Credentialing, or other credential authorizing service in language, speech, and hearing issued by the Commission on Teacher Credentialing that is not issued on the basis of an emergency permit or waiver of requirements. For purposes of this paragraph, a “clear” credential is a credential that is not issued pursuant to a waiver or emergency permit and is as otherwise defined by the Commission on Teacher Credentialing. Nothing in this section referring to credentialed supervising speech-language pathologists expands existing exemptions from licensing pursuant to Section 2530.5.
(j) An “audiologist” is one who practices audiology.
(k) “The practice of audiology” means the application of principles, methods, and procedures of measurement, testing, appraisal, prediction, consultation, counseling, and instruction related to auditory, vestibular, and related functions and the modification of communicative disorders involving speech, language, auditory behavior, or other aberrant behavior resulting from auditory dysfunction; and the planning, directing, conducting, supervising, or participating in programs of identification of auditory disorders, hearing conservation, cerumen removal, aural habilitation, and rehabilitation, including hearing aid recommendation and evaluation procedures, including, but not limited to, specifying amplification requirements and evaluation of the results thereof, auditory training, and speech reading, and the selling of hearing aids.
(l) A “dispensing audiologist” is a person who is authorized to sell hearing aids pursuant to their audiology license.
(m) “Audiology aide” means any person meeting the minimum requirements established by the board who works directly under the supervision of an audiologist. The board may by regulation exempt certain functions performed by an industrial audiology aide from supervision provided that their employer has established a set of procedures or protocols that the aide shall follow in performing these functions.
(n) “Medical board” means the Medical Board of California.
(o) A “hearing screening” performed by a speech-language pathologist means a binary puretone screening at a preset intensity level for the purpose of determining if the screened individuals are in need of further medical or audiological evaluation.
(p) “Cerumen removal” means the nonroutine removal of cerumen within the cartilaginous ear canal necessary for access in performance of audiological procedures that shall occur under physician and surgeon supervision. Cerumen removal, as provided by this section, shall only be performed by a licensed audiologist. Physician and surgeon supervision shall not be construed to require the physical presence of the physician, but shall include all of the following:
(1) Collaboration on the development of written standardized protocols. The protocols shall include a requirement that the supervised audiologist immediately refer to an appropriate physician any trauma, including skin tears, bleeding, or other pathology of the ear discovered in the process of cerumen removal as defined in this subdivision.
(2) Approval by the supervising physician of the written standardized protocol.
(3) The supervising physician shall be within the general vicinity, as provided by the physician-audiologist protocol, of the supervised audiologist and available by telephone contact at the time of cerumen removal.
(4) A licensed physician and surgeon may not simultaneously supervise more than two audiologists for purposes of cerumen removal.

SEC. 3.

 Section 2533.6 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:

2533.6.
 (a) A person whose license has been revoked or suspended, or who has been placed on probation, may petition the Speech-Language Pathology and Audiology and Hearing Aid Dispensers Board for reinstatement or modification of penalty, including modification or termination of probation, after a period of not less than the following minimum period of time has elapsed from the effective date of the decision ordering that disciplinary action:
(1) At least three years for reinstatement of a license revoked for unprofessional conduct, except that the board may, for good cause shown, specify in a revocation order that a petition for reinstatement may be filed after two years.
(2) At least two years for early termination or one year for modification of a condition of probation of three years or more.
(3) At least one year for reinstatement of a license revoked for mental or physical illness, or for modification of a condition, or termination of probation of less than three years.
(b) The petition shall be on a form provided by the board and shall state any facts and information as may be required by the board, including, but not limited to, proof of compliance with the terms and conditions of the underlying disciplinary order. The petition shall be verified by the petitioner who shall file an original and sufficient copies of the petition, together with any supporting documents, for the members of the board, the administrative law judge, and the Attorney General.
(c) The petition may be heard by the board, with the matter presided over by an administrative law judge. After a hearing on the petition, the administrative law judge shall provide a decision as determined by the board which shall be acted upon in accordance with the Administrative Procedure Act.
(d) The board or the administrative law judge hearing the petition may consider all activities of the petitioner since the disciplinary action was taken, the offense for which the petitioner was disciplined, the petitioner’s activities during the time the license was in good standing, and the petitioner’s rehabilitative efforts, general reputation for truth, and professional ability. The hearing may be continued, as the board or the administrative law judge finds necessary.
(e) The administrative law judge when hearing a petition for reinstating a license, or modifying a penalty, may recommend the imposition of any terms and conditions deemed necessary.
(f) No petition shall be considered while the petitioner is under sentence for any criminal offense, including any period during which the petitioner is on court-imposed probation or parole. No petition shall be considered while there is an accusation or petition to revoke probation pending against the petitioner. The board may deny, without a hearing or argument, any petition filed pursuant to this section within a period of two years from the effective date of the prior decision following a hearing under this section.
(g) The board may deny, without a hearing or argument, any petition for termination or modification of probation filed pursuant to this section for any of the following:
(1) The petitioner has failed to comply with the terms and conditions of the disciplinary order.
(2) The board is conducting an investigation of the petitioner while they are on probation.
(3) The petitioner has a subsequent arrest that is substantially related to the qualifications, functions, or duties of the licensee or registrant and this arrest occurred while on probation.
(4) The petitioner’s probation with the board is currently tolled.
(h) Nothing in this section shall be deemed to alter Sections 822 and 823.

SEC. 4.

 Section 2570.3 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:

2570.3.
 (a) A person shall not practice occupational therapy or hold themselves out as an occupational therapist or as being able to practice occupational therapy, or to render occupational therapy services in this state unless the person is licensed as an occupational therapist under the provisions of this chapter. A person shall not hold themselves out as an occupational therapy assistant or work as an occupational therapy assistant under the supervision of an occupational therapist unless the person is licensed as an occupational therapy assistant under this chapter.
(b) Only an individual may be licensed under this chapter.
(c) This chapter does not authorize an occupational therapist to practice physical therapy, as defined in Section 2620; speech-language pathology or audiology, as defined in Section 2530.2; nursing, as defined in Section 2725; psychology, as defined in Section 2903; marriage and family therapy, as defined in Section 4980.02; clinical social work, as defined in Section 4996.9; professional clinical counseling, as defined in Section 4999.20; educational psychology, as defined in Section 4989.14; or spinal manipulation or other forms of healing, except as authorized by this section.
(d) An occupational therapist may provide advanced practices if the occupational therapist has the knowledge, skill, and ability to do so and has demonstrated to the satisfaction of the board that the occupational therapist has met educational training and competency requirements. These advanced practices include the following:
(1) Hand therapy.
(2) The use of physical agent modalities.
(3) Swallowing assessment, evaluation, or intervention.
(e) An occupational therapist providing hand therapy services shall demonstrate to the satisfaction of the board that the occupational therapist has completed education and training in all of the following areas:
(1) Anatomy of the upper extremity and how it is altered by pathology.
(2) Histology as it relates to tissue healing and the effects of immobilization and mobilization on connective tissue.
(3) Muscle, sensory, vascular, and connective tissue physiology.
(4) Kinesiology of the upper extremity, such as biomechanical principles of pulleys, intrinsic and extrinsic muscle function, internal forces of muscles, and the effects of external forces.
(5) The effects of temperature and electrical currents on nerve and connective tissue.
(6) Surgical procedures of the upper extremity and their postoperative course.
(f) An occupational therapist using physical agent modalities shall demonstrate to the satisfaction of the board that the occupational therapist has completed education and training in all of the following areas:
(1) Anatomy and physiology of muscle, sensory, vascular, and connective tissue in response to the application of physical agent modalities.
(2) Principles of chemistry and physics related to the selected modality.
(3) Physiological, neurophysiological, and electrophysiological changes that occur as a result of the application of a modality.
(4) Guidelines for the preparation of the client, including education about the process and possible outcomes of treatment.
(5) Safety rules and precautions related to the selected modality.
(6) Methods for documenting immediate and long-term effects of treatment.
(7) Characteristics of the equipment, including safe operation, adjustment, indications of malfunction, and care.
(g) An occupational therapist in the process of achieving the education, training, and competency requirements established by the board for providing hand therapy or using physical agent modalities may practice these techniques under the supervision of an occupational therapist who has already met the requirements established by the board, a physical therapist, or a physician and surgeon.
(h) The board shall develop and adopt regulations regarding the educational training and competency requirements for advanced practices in collaboration with the Speech-Language Pathology and Audiology and Hearing Aid Dispensers Board, the Board of Registered Nursing, and the Physical Therapy Board of California.
(i) This chapter does not authorize an occupational therapist to seek reimbursement for services other than for the practice of occupational therapy as defined in this chapter.
(j) “Supervision of an occupational therapy assistant” means that the responsible occupational therapist shall at all times be responsible for all occupational therapy services provided to the client. The occupational therapist who is responsible for appropriate supervision shall formulate and document in each client’s record, with the occupational therapist’s signature, the goals and plan for that client, and shall make sure that the occupational therapy assistant assigned to that client functions under appropriate supervision. As part of the responsible occupational therapist’s appropriate supervision, the occupational therapist shall conduct at least weekly review and inspection of all aspects of occupational therapy services by the occupational therapy assistant.
(1) The supervising occupational therapist has the continuing responsibility to follow the progress of each client, provide direct care to the client, and to ensure that the occupational therapy assistant does not function autonomously.
(2) An occupational therapist shall not supervise more occupational therapy assistants, at any one time, than can be appropriately supervised in the opinion of the board. Three occupational therapy assistants shall be the maximum number of occupational therapy assistants supervised by an occupational therapist at any one time, but the board may permit the supervision of a greater number by an occupational therapist if, in the opinion of the board, there would be adequate supervision and the public’s health and safety would be served. In no case shall the total number of occupational therapy assistants exceed three times the number of occupational therapists regularly employed by a facility at any one time.

SEC. 5.

 Section 2786 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:

2786.
 (a) (1) An approved school of nursing, or an approved nursing program, is one that has been approved by the board, gives the course of instruction approved by the board, covering not fewer than two academic years, is affiliated or conducted in connection with one or more hospitals, and is an institution of higher education. For purposes of this section, “institution of higher education” includes, but is not limited to, community colleges offering an associate of arts or associate of science degree and private postsecondary institutions offering an associate of arts, associate of science, or baccalaureate degree or an entry-level master’s degree, and is an institution that is not subject to the California Private Postsecondary Education Act of 2009 (Chapter 8 (commencing with Section 94800) of Part 59 of Division 10 of Title 3 of the Education Code).
(2) An approved school of nursing or nursing program shall meet a minimum of 500 direct patient care clinical hours in a board-approved clinical setting with a minimum of 30 hours of supervised direct patient care clinical hours dedicated to each nursing area specified by the board.
(A) Additional clinical hours required by the program for nursing education preparation in each nursing area as specified by the board shall be identified and documented in the curriculum plan for each area.
(B) An approved school of nursing or nursing program shall not be required to track the minimum clinical hours by individual students.
(3) An approved school of nursing or nursing program may cover fewer than two academic years if approved to provide a course of instruction that prepares a licensed vocational nurse licensed under the Vocational Nursing Practice Act (commencing with Section 2840) for a license under this chapter.
(b) A school of nursing that is affiliated with an institution that is subject to the California Private Postsecondary Education Act of 2009 (Chapter 8 (commencing with Section 94800) of Part 59 of Division 10 of Title 3 of the Education Code), may be approved by the board to grant an associate of arts or associate of science degree to individuals who graduate from the school of nursing or to grant a baccalaureate degree in nursing with successful completion of an additional course of study as approved by the board and the institution involved.
(c) (1) The board shall determine by regulation the required subjects of instruction to be completed in an approved school of nursing for licensure as a registered nurse and shall include the minimum units of theory and clinical experience necessary to achieve essential clinical competency at the entry level of the registered nurse. The board’s regulations shall be designed to require all schools to provide clinical instruction in all phases of the educational process, except as necessary to accommodate military education and experience as specified in Section 2786.1.
(2) Notwithstanding paragraph (1), whenever an agency or facility used by an approved nursing program for direct patient care clinical practice is no longer available or sufficient, the director of the approved nursing program may submit to a board nursing education consultant a request that the approved nursing program allow theory to precede clinical practice if all of the following conditions are met:
(A) No alternative agency or facility located within 25 miles of the impacted approved nursing program, campus, or location, as applicable, has a sufficient number of open placements that are available and accessible to the approved nursing program for direct patient care clinical practice hours in the same subject matter area. An approved program shall not be required to submit more than required under subparagraph (A) of paragraph (3) of subdivision (a) of Section 2786.3.
(B) Clinical practice takes place in the academic term immediately following theory.
(C) Theory is taught concurrently with clinical practice not in direct patient care if no direct patient care experiences are available.
(3) (A) The board shall annually collect, analyze, and report information related to the number of clinical placement slots that are available and the location of those clinical placement slots within the state, including, but not limited to, information concerning the total number of placement slots a clinical facility can accommodate and how many slots the programs that use the facility will need.
(B) The board shall utilize data from available regional or individual institution databases.
(C) The board shall place the annual report on its internet website.
(d) The board shall perform or cause to be performed an analysis of the practice of the registered nurse no less than every five years. Results of the analysis shall be utilized to assist in the determination of the required subjects of instruction, validation of the licensing examination, and assessment of the current practice of nursing.
(e) (1) The executive officer shall develop a uniform method for evaluating requests and granting approvals pursuant to this section.
(2) The executive officer may revise the uniform method developed pursuant to this subdivision, as necessary. The development or revision of the uniform method shall be exempt from the requirements of the Administrative Procedure Act (Chapter 3.5 (commencing with Section 11340) of Part 1 of Title 2 of the Government Code).
(3) The board’s nursing education consultants shall use the uniform method to evaluate requests and grant approvals pursuant to this section.
(4) The board shall post the approved method and any revisions on the board’s website.
(f) (1) Graduation requirements for an approved school of nursing, or an approved nursing program, shall include one hour of direct participation in an implicit bias training which shall include all of the following:
(A) Identification of previous or current unconscious biases and misinformation.
(B) Identification of personal, interpersonal, institutional, structural, and cultural barriers to inclusion.
(C) Corrective measures to decrease implicit bias at the interpersonal and institutional levels, including ongoing policies and practices for that purpose.
(D) Information on the effects, including, but not limited to, ongoing personal effects, of historical and contemporary exclusion and oppression of minority communities.
(E) Information about cultural identity across racial or ethnic groups.
(F) Information about communicating more effectively across identities, including racial, ethnic, religious, and gender identities.
(G) Discussion on power dynamics and organizational decisionmaking.
(H) Discussion on health inequities within the perinatal care field, including information on how implicit bias impacts maternal and infant health outcomes.
(I) Perspectives of diverse, local constituency groups and experts on particular racial, identity, cultural, and provider-community relations issues in the community.
(J) Information on reproductive justice.
(2) This subdivision shall not be construed to do any of the following:
(A) Affect the requirements for licensure under this chapter.
(B) Require a curriculum revision.
(C) Affect licensure by endorsement under this chapter.

SEC. 6.

 Section 10083.2 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:

10083.2.
 (a) (1) The commissioner shall provide information on the internet regarding the status of every license issued by the department in accordance with the California Public Records Act (Division 10 (commencing with Section 7920.000) of Title 1 of the Government Code) and the Information Practices Act of 1977 (Chapter 1 (commencing with Section 1798) of Title 1.8 of Part 4 of Division 3 of the Civil Code).
(2) The public information to be provided on the internet shall include information on suspensions and revocations of licenses issued by the department and accusations filed pursuant to the Administrative Procedure Act (Chapter 3.5 (commencing with Section 11340) of Part 1 of Division 3 of Title 2 of the Government Code) relative to persons or businesses subject to licensure or regulation by the department.
(3) The public information shall not include personal information, including home telephone number, date of birth, or social security number. The commissioner shall disclose a licensee’s address of record. However, the commissioner shall allow a licensee to provide a post office box number or other alternate address, instead of the licensee’s home address, as the address of record. This section shall not preclude the commissioner from also requiring a licensee who has provided a post office box number or other alternative mailing address as the licensee’s address of record to provide a physical business address or residence address only for the department’s internal administrative use and not for disclosure as the licensee’s address of record or disclosure on the internet.
(4) The public information shall also include whether a licensee is an associate licensee within the meaning of subdivision (a) of Section 2079.13 of the Civil Code and, if the associate licensee is a broker, identify each responsible broker with whom the licensee is contractually associated as described in Section 10032 of this code or Section 2079.13 of the Civil Code.
(b) For purposes of this section, “internet” has the meaning set forth in paragraph (6) of subdivision (f) of Section 17538.
(c) Upon petition by a licensee accompanied by a fee sufficient to defray costs associated with consideration of a petition, the commissioner may remove from the posting of discipline described in subdivision (a) an item that has been posted on the department’s internet website for no less than 10 years and for which the licensee provides evidence of rehabilitation indicating that the notice is no longer required in order to prevent a credible risk to members of the public utilizing licensed activity of the licensee. In evaluating a petition, the commissioner shall take into consideration other violations that present a credible risk to the members of the public since the posting of discipline requested for removal.
(d) The department may develop, through regulations, the amount of the fee and the minimum information to be included in a licensee’s petition, including, but not limited to, a written justification and evidence of rehabilitation pursuant to Section 482.
(e) “Posted” for purposes of this section is defined as the date of disciplinary action taken by the department.
(f) The department shall maintain a list of all licensees whose disciplinary records are altered as a result of a petition approved under subdivision (c). The department shall make the list accessible to other licensing bodies. The department shall update and provide the list to other licensing bodies as often as it modifies the records displayed on its internet website in response to petitions approved under subdivision (c).

SEC. 7.

 Section 10166.07 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:

10166.07.
 (a) A real estate broker who acts pursuant to Section 10131.1 or subdivision (d) or (e) of Section 10131, and who makes, arranges, or services one or more loans in a calendar year that are secured by real property containing one to four residential units, shall annually file a business activities report, within 90 days after the end of the broker’s fiscal year or within any additional time as the commissioner may allow for filing for good cause. The report shall contain within its scope all of the following information for the fiscal year, relative to the business activities of the broker and those of any other brokers and real estate salespersons acting under that broker’s supervision:
(1) Name and license number of the supervising broker and names and license numbers of the real estate brokers and salespersons under that broker’s supervision. The report shall include brokers and salespersons who were under the supervising broker’s supervision for all or part of the year.
(2) A list of the real estate-related activities in which the supervising broker and the brokers and salespersons under the supervising broker’s supervision engaged during the prior year. This listing shall identify all of the following:
(A) Activities relating to mortgages, including arranging, making, or servicing.
(B) Other activities performed under the real estate broker’s or salesperson’s license.
(C) Activities performed under related licenses, including, but not limited to, a license to engage as a finance lender or a finance broker under the California Financing Law (Division 9 (commencing with Section 22000) of the Financial Code), or a license to engage as a residential mortgage lender or residential mortgage loan servicer under the California Residential Mortgage Lending Act (Division 20 (commencing with Section 50000) of the Financial Code).
(3) A list of the forms of media used by the broker and those under the broker’s supervision to advertise to the public, including print, radio, television, the internet, or other means.
(4) For fixed rate loans made, brokered, or serviced, all of the following:
(A) The total number, aggregate principal amount, lowest interest rate, highest interest rate, and a list of the institutional lenders of record. If the loan was funded by any lender other than an institutional lender, the broker shall categorize the loan as privately funded.
(B) The total number and aggregate principal amount of covered loans, as defined in Section 4970 of the Financial Code.
(C) The total number and aggregate principal amount of loans for which Department of Real Estate form RE Form 885 or an equivalent is required.
(5) For adjustable rate loans made, brokered, or serviced, all of the following:
(A) The total number, aggregate principal amount, lowest beginning interest rate, highest beginning interest rate, highest margin, and a list of the institutional lenders of record. If the loan was funded by any lender other than an institutional lender, the broker shall categorize the loan as privately funded.
(B) The total number and aggregate principal amount of covered loans, as defined in Section 4970 of the Financial Code.
(C) The total number and aggregate principal amount of loans for which Department of Real Estate form RE Form 885 or an equivalent is required.
(6) For all loans made, brokered, or serviced, the total number and aggregate principal amount of loans funded by institutional lenders, and the total number and aggregate principal amount of loans funded by private lenders.
(7) For all loans made, brokered, or serviced, the total number and aggregate principal amount of loans that included a prepayment penalty, the minimum prepayment penalty length, the maximum prepayment penalty length, and the number of loans with prepayment penalties whose length exceeded the length of time before the borrower’s loan payment amount could increase.
(8) For all loans brokered, the total compensation received by the broker, including yield spread premiums, commissions, and rebates, but excluding compensation used to pay fees for third-party services on behalf of the borrower.
(9) For all mortgage loans made or brokered, the total number of loans for which a mortgage loan disclosure statement was provided in a language other than English, and the number of forms provided per language other than English.
(10) For all mortgage loans serviced, the total amount of funds advanced to be applied toward a payment to protect the security of the note being serviced.
(11) For purposes of this section, an institutional lender has the meaning specified in paragraph (1) of subdivision (c) of Section 10232.
(b) A broker subject to this section and Section 10232.2 may file consolidated reports that include all of the information required under this section and Section 10232.2. Those consolidated reports shall clearly indicate that they are intended to satisfy the requirements of both sections.
(c) If a broker subject to this section fails to timely file the report required under this section, the commissioner may cause an examination and report to be made and may charge the broker one and one-half times the cost of making the examination and report. In determining the hourly cost incurred by the commissioner for conducting an examination and preparing the report, the commissioner may use the estimated average hourly cost for all department audit staff performing audits of real estate brokers. If a broker fails to pay the commissioner’s cost within 60 days of the mailing of a notice of billing, the commissioner may suspend the broker’s license or deny renewal of that license. The suspension or denial shall remain in effect until the billed amount is paid or the broker’s right to renew a license has expired. The commissioner may maintain an action for the recovery of the billed amount in any court of competent jurisdiction.
(d) The report described in this section is exempted from any requirement of public disclosure by subdivision (b) of Section 7929.000 of the Government Code.
(e) The commissioner may waive the requirement to submit certain information described in paragraphs (1) to (10), inclusive, of subdivision (a) if the commissioner determines that this information is duplicative of information required by the Nationwide Multistate Licensing System and Registry, pursuant to Section 10166.08.

SEC. 8.

 Section 18975 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:

18975.
 (a) An administrator, employee, or regular volunteer of a youth service organization shall complete training in child abuse and neglect identification and training in child abuse and neglect reporting. The training requirements may be met by completing the online mandated reporter training provided by the Office of Child Abuse Prevention in the State Department of Social Services.
(b) (1) An administrator, employee, or regular volunteer of a youth service organization shall undergo a background check pursuant to Section 11105.3 of the Penal Code to identify and exclude any persons with a history of child abuse.
(2) Until January 1, 2024, paragraph (1) shall not apply to a youth service organization that, prior to January 1, 2022, did not require administrators, employees, or regular volunteers to undergo background checks pursuant to Section 11105.3 of the Penal Code.
(c) A youth service organization shall develop and implement child abuse prevention policies and procedures, including, but not limited to, both of the following:
(1) Policies to ensure reporting of suspected incidents of child abuse to persons or entities outside of the organization, including the reporting required pursuant to Section 11165.9 of the Penal Code.
(2) (A) Policies requiring, to the greatest extent possible, the presence of at least two mandated reporters whenever administrators, employees, or volunteers are in contact with, or supervising, children.
(B) This paragraph shall not apply to an organization that provides one-to-one mentoring to youth that has adopted and implemented the policies described in paragraph (1) and has adopted and implemented policies to ensure comprehensive screening of volunteers, training of volunteers and parents or guardians, and regular contact with volunteers and parents or guardians.
(d) Before writing liability insurance for a youth service organization in this state, an insurer may request information demonstrating compliance with this section from the youth service organization as a part of the insurer’s loss control program.
(e) For purposes of this section:
(1) “Regular volunteer” means a volunteer with the youth service organization who is 18 years of age or older and who has direct contact with, or supervision of, children for more than 16 hours per month or 32 hours per year.
(2) “Youth service organization” means an organization that employs or utilizes the services of persons who, due to their relationship with the organization, are mandated reporters pursuant to paragraph (7) of subdivision (a) of Section 11165.7 of the Penal Code.

SEC. 9.

 Section 47 of the Civil Code is amended to read:

47.
 A privileged publication or broadcast is one made:
(a) In the proper discharge of an official duty.
(b) In any (1) legislative proceeding, (2) judicial proceeding, (3) in any other official proceeding authorized by law, or (4) in the initiation or course of any other proceeding authorized by law and reviewable pursuant to Chapter 2 (commencing with Section 1084) of Title 1 of Part 3 of the Code of Civil Procedure, except as follows:
(1) An allegation or averment contained in any pleading or affidavit filed in an action for marital dissolution or legal separation made of or concerning a person by or against whom no affirmative relief is prayed in the action shall not be a privileged publication or broadcast as to the person making the allegation or averment within the meaning of this section unless the pleading is verified or affidavit sworn to, and is made without malice, by one having reasonable and probable cause for believing the truth of the allegation or averment and unless the allegation or averment is material and relevant to the issues in the action.
(2) This subdivision does not make privileged any communication made in furtherance of an act of intentional destruction or alteration of physical evidence undertaken for the purpose of depriving a party to litigation of the use of that evidence, whether or not the content of the communication is the subject of a subsequent publication or broadcast which is privileged pursuant to this section. As used in this paragraph, “physical evidence” means evidence specified in Section 250 of the Evidence Code or evidence that is property of any type specified in Chapter 14 (commencing with Section 2031.010) of Title 4 of Part 4 of the Code of Civil Procedure.
(3) This subdivision does not make privileged any communication made in a judicial proceeding knowingly concealing the existence of an insurance policy or policies.
(4) A recorded lis pendens is not a privileged publication unless it identifies an action previously filed with a court of competent jurisdiction which affects the title or right of possession of real property, as authorized or required by law.
(5) This subdivision does not make privileged any communication between a person and a law enforcement agency in which the person makes a false report that another person has committed, or is in the act of committing, a criminal act or is engaged in an activity requiring law enforcement intervention, knowing that the report is false, or with reckless disregard for the truth or falsity of the report.
(c) In a communication, without malice, to a person interested therein, (1) by one who is also interested, or (2) by one who stands in such a relation to the person interested as to afford a reasonable ground for supposing the motive for the communication to be innocent, or (3) who is requested by the person interested to give the information. This subdivision applies to and includes a communication concerning the job performance or qualifications of an applicant for employment, based upon credible evidence, made without malice, by a current or former employer of the applicant to, and upon request of, one whom the employer reasonably believes is a prospective employer of the applicant. This subdivision applies to and includes a complaint of sexual harassment by an employee, without malice, to an employer based upon credible evidence and communications between the employer and interested persons, without malice, regarding a complaint of sexual harassment. This subdivision authorizes a current or former employer, or the employer’s agent, to answer, without malice, whether or not the employer would rehire a current or former employee and whether the decision to not rehire is based upon the employer’s determination that the former employee engaged in sexual harassment. This subdivision does not apply to a communication concerning the speech or activities of an applicant for employment if the speech or activities are constitutionally protected, or otherwise protected by Section 527.3 of the Code of Civil Procedure or any other provision of law.
(d) (1) By a fair and true report in, or a communication to, a public journal, of (A) a judicial, (B) legislative, or (C) other public official proceeding, or (D) of anything said in the course thereof, or (E) of a verified charge or complaint made by any person to a public official, upon which complaint a warrant has been issued.
(2) Paragraph (1) does not make privileged any communication to a public journal that does any of the following:
(A) Violates Rule 3.6 of the State Bar Rules of Professional Conduct.
(B) Breaches a court order.
(C) Violates a requirement of confidentiality imposed by law.
(e) By a fair and true report of (1) the proceedings of a public meeting, if the meeting was lawfully convened for a lawful purpose and open to the public, or (2) the publication of the matter complained of was for the public benefit.

SEC. 10.

 Section 1749.8 of the Civil Code is amended to read:

1749.8.
 For purposes of this title:
(a) “Consumer product” means tangible personal property that is distributed in commerce and normally used for personal, family, or household purposes, including property intended to be attached to or installed in real property regardless of whether it is actually attached or installed.
(b) (1) “High-volume third-party seller” means a third-party seller who, in any continuous 12-month period during the previous 24 months, has entered into 200 or more discrete transactions through an online marketplace for the sale of new or unused consumer products to buyers located in California resulting in the accumulation of an aggregate total of five thousand dollars ($5,000) or more in gross revenues.
(2) The number of discrete transactions referenced in paragraph (1) includes only those transactions through the online marketplace for which payment is processed by the online marketplace directly or through its payment processor.
(c) “Online marketplace” means a consumer-directed, electronically accessed platform for which all of the following are true:
(1) The platform includes features that allow for, facilitate, or enable third-party sellers to engage in the sale, purchase, payment, storage, shipping, or delivery of a consumer product in this state.
(2) The features described in paragraph (1) are used by third-party sellers.
(3) The platform has a contractual relationship with consumers governing their use of the platform to purchase consumer products.
(d) “Third-party seller” means a person or entity, independent of an online marketplace, who sells, offers to sell, or contracts with an online marketplace to sell a consumer product in the state by or through an online marketplace.
(e) “Verify” means to confirm that information provided to an online marketplace pursuant to this title is accurate. Methods of confirmation include the use of one or more methods that enable the online marketplace to reliably determine that the information and documents are valid, correspond to the seller or an individual acting on the seller’s behalf, are not misappropriated, and are not falsified.

SEC. 11.

 Section 1749.8.1 of the Civil Code is amended to read:

1749.8.1.
 (a) An online marketplace shall require each high-volume third-party seller on the online marketplace to provide, not later than 10 days after qualifying as a high-volume third-party seller, all of the following information to the online marketplace:
(1) (A) A bank account number, or, if the high-volume third-party seller does not have a bank account, the name of the payee for payments issued by the online marketplace to the seller.
(B) The high-volume third-party seller shall provide the information required by this paragraph to one of the following as specified by the online marketplace:
(i) The online marketplace.
(ii) A payment processor or other third party designated by the online marketplace that is required, pursuant to a contract with the online marketplace, to maintain the information in a confidential manner and disclose the information only in response to a court order or to the online marketplace upon its request.
(2) If the high-volume third-party seller is an individual, the individual’s name.
(3) If the high-volume third-party seller is not an individual, one of the following:
(A) A copy of a valid government-issued identification for an individual who has the legal authority to act on behalf of the high-volume third-party seller that includes the individual’s name.
(B) A copy of a valid government record or tax document dated within the past 24 months that includes the business name and physical address of the high-volume third-party seller.
(4) A business tax identification number, or, if the high-volume third-party seller does not have a business tax identification number, a taxpayer identification number.
(5) A valid email address and telephone number for the high-volume third-party seller.
(b) An online marketplace shall verify the information provided pursuant to subdivision (a) within 10 days and shall verify within 10 days any changes to the information that is provided to the marketplace by a high-volume third-party seller. If a high-volume third-party seller provides a copy of a valid government-issued tax document, information contained within the tax document shall be presumed to be verified as of the date of issuance of the record or document.
(c) (1) The online marketplace shall, on at least an annual basis, notify each high-volume third-party seller operating on the online marketplace of the requirement to inform the online marketplace of any changes to the information provided by the seller pursuant to subdivision (a) within 10 days of receiving the notification and shall instruct each high-volume third-party seller, as part of the notification, to electronically certify that the information is accurate and that either that the seller’s information is unchanged or that the seller is providing updated information.
(2) If a high-volume third-party seller does not provide the information or certification required under this section, the online marketplace shall, after providing the seller with written or electronic notice and opportunity to provide the information or certification not later than 10 days after the issuance of the notice, suspend any future sales activity of the seller until the seller provides the information or certification.

SEC. 12.

 Section 1788.18 of the Civil Code is amended to read:

1788.18.
 (a) Upon receipt from a debtor of all of the following, a debt collector shall cease collection activities until completion of the review provided in subdivision (d):
(1) A copy of a Federal Trade Commission (FTC) identity theft report, completed and signed by the debtor. The debtor may choose, instead, to send a copy of a police report filed by the debtor alleging that the debtor is the victim of an identity theft crime, including, but not limited to, a violation of Section 530.5 of the Penal Code, for the specific debt being collected by the debt collector; however, the debt collector shall not also require a police report if the debtor submits an FTC identity theft report.
(2) The debtor’s written statement that the debtor claims to be the victim of identity theft with respect to the specific debt being collected by the debt collector.
(b) The written statement described in paragraph (2) of subdivision (a) shall consist of any of the following:
(1) A written statement that contains the content of the Identity Theft Victim’s Fraudulent Account Information Request offered to the public by the California Office of Privacy Protection.
(2) A written statement that certifies that the representations are true, correct, and contain no material omissions of fact to the best knowledge and belief of the person submitting the certification. A person submitting the certification who declares as true any material matter pursuant to this subdivision that they know to be false is guilty of a misdemeanor. The statement shall contain or be accompanied by the following, to the extent that an item listed below is relevant to the debtor’s allegation of identity theft with respect to the debt in question:
(A) A statement that the debtor is a victim of identity theft.
(B) A copy of the debtor’s driver’s license or identification card, as issued by the state.
(C) Any other identification document that supports the statement of identity theft.
(D) Specific facts supporting the claim of identity theft, if available.
(E) Any explanation showing that the debtor did not incur the debt.
(F) Any available correspondence disputing the debt after transaction information has been provided to the debtor.
(G) Documentation of the residence of the debtor at the time of the alleged debt. This may include copies of bills and statements, such as utility bills, tax statements, or other statements from businesses sent to the debtor, showing that the debtor lived at another residence at the time the debt was incurred.
(H) A telephone number for contacting the debtor concerning any additional information or questions, or direction that further communications to the debtor be in writing only, with the mailing address specified in the statement.
(I) To the extent the debtor has information concerning who may have incurred the debt, the identification of any person whom the debtor believes is responsible.
(J) An express statement that the debtor did not authorize the use of the debtor’s name or personal information for incurring the debt.
(K) The certification required pursuant to this paragraph shall be sufficient if it is in substantially the following form:
“I certify the representations made are true, correct, and
contain no material omissions of fact.
_____ (Date and Place) _____ _____ (Signature) _____ ”
(c) If a debtor notifies a debt collector orally that they are a victim of identity theft, the debt collector shall notify the debtor, orally or in writing, that the debtor’s claim must be in writing. If a debtor notifies a debt collector in writing that they are a victim of identity theft, but omits information required pursuant to subdivision (a) or, if applicable, the certification required pursuant to paragraph (3) of subdivision (b), if the debt collector does not cease collection activities, the debt collector shall provide written notice to the debtor of the additional information that is required, or the certification required pursuant to paragraph (3) of subdivision (b), as applicable, or send the debtor a copy of the Federal Trade Commission’s identity theft form.
(d) Within 10 business days of receiving the complete statement and information described in subdivision (a), the debt collector shall, if it furnished adverse information about the debtor to a consumer credit reporting agency, notify the consumer credit reporting agency that the account is disputed, and initiate a review considering all of the information provided by the debtor and other information available to the debt collector in its file or from the creditor. The debt collector shall send notice of its determination to the debtor no later than 10 business days after concluding the review. The debt collector may recommence debt collection activities only upon making a good faith determination that the information does not establish that the debtor is not responsible for the specific debt in question. The debt collector’s determination shall be made in a manner consistent with the provisions of Section 1692(a) of Title 15 of the United States Code, as incorporated by Section 1788.17 of this code. The debt collector shall notify the debtor in writing of that determination and the basis for that determination before proceeding with any further collection activities. The debt collector’s determination shall be based on all of the information provided by the debtor and other information available to the debt collector in its file or from the creditor.
(e) No inference or presumption that the debt is valid or invalid, or that the debtor is liable or not liable for the debt, shall arise if the debt collector decides after the review described in subdivision (d) to cease or recommence the debt collection activities. The exercise or nonexercise of rights under this section is not a waiver of any other right or defense of the debtor or debt collector.
(f) The statement and supporting documents that comply with subdivision (a) may also satisfy, to the extent those documents meet the requirements of, the notice requirement of paragraph (5) of subdivision (c) of Section 1798.93.
(g) A debt collector who ceases collection activities under this section and does not recommence those collection activities shall do all of the following:
(1) If the debt collector has furnished adverse information to a consumer credit reporting agency, notify the agency to delete that information no later than 10 business days after making its determination.
(2) Notify the creditor no later than 10 business days after making its determination that debt collection activities have been terminated based upon the debtor’s claim of identity theft.
(h) A debt collector who has possession of documents that the debtor is entitled to request from a creditor pursuant to Section 530.8 of the Penal Code is authorized to provide those documents to the debtor.
(i) Notwithstanding subdivision (h) of Section 1788.2, for the purposes of this section, “debtor” means a natural person, firm, association, organization, partnership, business trust, company, corporation, or limited liability company from which a debt collector seeks to collect a debt that is due and owing or alleged to be due and owing from the person or entity. The remedies provided by this title shall apply equally to violations of this section.

SEC. 13.

 Section 1798.99.31 of the Civil Code is amended to read:

1798.99.31.
 (a) A business that provides an online service, product, or feature likely to be accessed by children shall take all of the following actions:
(1) (A) Before any new online services, products, or features are offered to the public, complete a Data Protection Impact Assessment for any online service, product, or feature likely to be accessed by children and maintain documentation of this assessment as long as the online service, product, or feature is likely to be accessed by children. A business shall biennially review all Data Protection Impact Assessments.
(B) The Data Protection Impact Assessment required by this paragraph shall identify the purpose of the online service, product, or feature, how it uses children’s personal information, and the risks of material detriment to children that arise from the data management practices of the business. The Data Protection Impact Assessment shall address, to the extent applicable, all of the following:
(i) Whether the design of the online product, service, or feature could harm children, including by exposing children to harmful, or potentially harmful, content on the online product, service, or feature.
(ii) Whether the design of the online product, service, or feature could lead to children experiencing or being targeted by harmful, or potentially harmful, contacts on the online product, service, or feature.
(iii) Whether the design of the online product, service, or feature could permit children to witness, participate in, or be subject to harmful, or potentially harmful, conduct on the online product, service, or feature.
(iv) Whether the design of the online product, service, or feature could allow children to be party to or exploited by a harmful, or potentially harmful, contact on the online product, service, or feature.
(v) Whether algorithms used by the online product, service, or feature could harm children.
(vi) Whether targeted advertising systems used by the online product, service, or feature could harm children.
(vii) Whether and how the online product, service, or feature uses system design features to increase, sustain, or extend use of the online product, service, or feature by children, including the automatic playing of media, rewards for time spent, and notifications.
(viii) Whether, how, and for what purpose the online product, service, or feature collects or processes sensitive personal information of children.
(2) Document any risk of material detriment to children that arises from the data management practices of the business identified in the Data Protection Impact Assessment required by paragraph (1) and create a timed plan to mitigate or eliminate the risk before the online service, product, or feature is accessed by children.
(3) Within three business days of a written request by the Attorney General, provide to the Attorney General a list of all Data Protection Impact Assessments the business has completed.
(4) (A) For any Data Protection Impact Assessment completed pursuant to paragraph (1), make the Data Protection Impact Assessment available, within five business days, to the Attorney General pursuant to a written request.
(B) Notwithstanding any other law, a Data Protection Impact Assessment is protected as confidential and shall be exempt from public disclosure, including under the California Public Records Act (Division 10 (commencing with Section 7920.000) of Title 1 of the Government Code).
(C) To the extent any information contained in a Data Protection Impact Assessment disclosed to the Attorney General includes information subject to attorney-client privilege or work product protection, disclosure pursuant to this paragraph shall not constitute a waiver of that privilege or protection.
(5) Estimate the age of child users with a reasonable level of certainty appropriate to the risks that arise from the data management practices of the business or apply the privacy and data protections afforded to children to all consumers.
(6) Configure all default privacy settings provided to children by the online service, product, or feature to settings that offer a high level of privacy, unless the business can demonstrate a compelling reason that a different setting is in the best interests of children.
(7) Provide any privacy information, terms of service, policies, and community standards concisely, prominently, and using clear language suited to the age of children likely to access that online service, product, or feature.
(8) If the online service, product, or feature allows the child’s parent, guardian, or any other consumer to monitor the child’s online activity or track the child’s location, provide an obvious signal to the child when the child is being monitored or tracked.
(9) Enforce published terms, policies, and community standards established by the business, including, but not limited to, privacy policies and those concerning children.
(10) Provide prominent, accessible, and responsive tools to help children, or, if applicable, their parents or guardians, exercise their privacy rights and report concerns.
(b) A business that provides an online service, product, or feature likely to be accessed by children shall not take any of the following actions:
(1) Use the personal information of any child in a way that the business knows, or has reason to know, is materially detrimental to the physical health, mental health, or well-being of a child.
(2) Profile a child by default unless both of the following criteria are met:
(A) The business can demonstrate it has appropriate safeguards in place to protect children.
(B) Either of the following is true:
(i) Profiling is necessary to provide the online service, product, or feature requested and only with respect to the aspects of the online service, product, or feature with which the child is actively and knowingly engaged.
(ii) The business can demonstrate a compelling reason that profiling is in the best interests of children.
(3) Collect, sell, share, or retain any personal information that is not necessary to provide an online service, product, or feature with which a child is actively and knowingly engaged, or as described in paragraphs (1) to (4), inclusive, of subdivision (a) of Section 1798.145, unless the business can demonstrate a compelling reason that the collecting, selling, sharing, or retaining of the personal information is in the best interests of children likely to access the online service, product, or feature.
(4) If the end user is a child, use personal information for any reason other than a reason for which that personal information was collected, unless the business can demonstrate a compelling reason that use of the personal information is in the best interests of children.
(5) Collect, sell, or share any precise geolocation information of children by default unless the collection of that precise geolocation information is strictly necessary for the business to provide the service, product, or feature requested and then only for the limited time that the collection of precise geolocation information is necessary to provide the service, product, or feature.
(6) Collect any precise geolocation information of a child without providing an obvious sign to the child for the duration of that collection that precise geolocation information is being collected.
(7) Use dark patterns to lead or encourage children to provide personal information beyond what is reasonably expected to provide that online service, product, or feature to forego privacy protections, or to take any action that the business knows, or has reason to know, is materially detrimental to the child’s physical health, mental health, or well-being.
(8) Use any personal information collected to estimate age or age range for any other purpose or retain that personal information longer than necessary to estimate age. Age assurance shall be proportionate to the risks and data practice of an online service, product, or feature.
(c) (1) A Data Protection Impact Assessment conducted by a business for the purpose of compliance with any other law complies with this section if the Data Protection Impact Assessment meets the requirements of this title.
(2) A single Data Protection Impact Assessment may contain multiple similar processing operations that present similar risks only if each relevant online service, product, or feature is addressed.
(d) This section shall become operative on July 1, 2024.

SEC. 14.

 Section 2924f of the Civil Code, as amended by Section 3 of Chapter 642 of the Statutes of 2022, is amended to read:

2924f.
 (a) As used in this section and Sections 2924g and 2924h, “property” means real property or a leasehold estate therein, and “calendar week” means Monday through Saturday, inclusive.
(b) (1) Except as provided in subdivision (c), before any sale of property can be made under the power of sale contained in any deed of trust or mortgage, or any resale resulting from a rescission for a failure of consideration pursuant to subdivision (c) of Section 2924h, notice of the sale thereof shall be given by posting a written notice of the time of sale and of the street address and the specific place at the street address where the sale will be held, and describing the property to be sold, at least 20 days before the date of sale in one public place in the city where the property is to be sold, if the property is to be sold in a city, or, if not, then in one public place in the county seat of the county where the property is to be sold, and publishing a copy once a week for three consecutive calendar weeks.
(2) The first publication to be at least 20 days before the date of sale, in a newspaper of general circulation published in the public notice district in which the property or some part thereof is situated, or in case no newspaper of general circulation is published in the public notice district, in a newspaper of general circulation published in the county in which the property or some part thereof is situated, or in case no newspaper of general circulation is published in the public notice district or county, as the case may be, in a newspaper of general circulation published in the county in this state that is contiguous to the county in which the property or some part thereof is situated and has, by comparison with all similarly contiguous counties, the highest population based upon total county population as determined by the most recent federal decennial census published by the Bureau of the Census. For the purposes of this section, publication of notice in a public notice district is governed by Chapter 1.1 (commencing with Section 6080) of Division 7 of Title 1 of the Government Code.
(3) A copy of the notice of sale shall also be posted in a conspicuous place on the property to be sold at least 20 days before the date of sale, where possible and where not restricted for any reason. If the property is a single-family residence the posting shall be on a door of the residence, but, if not possible or restricted, then the notice shall be posted in a conspicuous place on the property; however, if access is denied because a common entrance to the property is restricted by a guard gate or similar impediment, the property may be posted at that guard gate or similar impediment to any development community.
(4) The notice of sale shall conform to the minimum requirements of Section 6043 of the Government Code and be recorded with the county recorder of the county in which the property or some part thereof is situated at least 20 days prior to the date of sale.
(5) The notice of sale shall contain the name, street address in this state, which may reflect an agent of the trustee, and either a toll-free telephone number or telephone number in this state of the trustee, and the name of the original trustor, and also shall contain the statement required by paragraph (3) of subdivision (c). In addition to any other description of the property, the notice shall describe the property by giving its street address, if any, or other common designation, if any, and a county assessor’s parcel number; but if the property has no street address or other common designation, the notice shall contain a legal description of the property, the name and address of the beneficiary at whose request the sale is to be conducted, and a statement that directions may be obtained pursuant to a written request submitted to the beneficiary within 10 days from the first publication of the notice. Directions shall be deemed reasonably sufficient to locate the property if information as to the location of the property is given by reference to the direction and approximate distance from the nearest crossroads, frontage road, or access road. If a legal description or a county assessor’s parcel number and either a street address or another common designation of the property is given, the validity of the notice and the validity of the sale shall not be affected by the fact that the street address, other common designation, name and address of the beneficiary, or the directions obtained therefrom are erroneous or that the street address, other common designation, name and address of the beneficiary, or directions obtained therefrom are omitted.
(6) The term “newspaper of general circulation,” as used in this section, has the same meaning as defined in Article 1 (commencing with Section 6000) of Chapter 1 of Division 7 of Title 1 of the Government Code.
(7) The notice of sale shall contain a statement of the total amount of the unpaid balance of the obligation secured by the property to be sold and reasonably estimated costs, expenses, advances at the time of the initial publication of the notice of sale, and, if republished pursuant to a cancellation of a cash equivalent pursuant to subdivision (d) of Section 2924h, a reference of that fact; provided, that the trustee shall incur no liability for any good faith error in stating the proper amount, including any amount provided in good faith by or on behalf of the beneficiary. An inaccurate statement of this amount shall not affect the validity of any sale to a bona fide purchaser for value, nor shall the failure to post the notice of sale on a door as provided by this subdivision affect the validity of any sale to a bona fide purchaser for value.
(8) (A) On and after April 1, 2012, if the deed of trust or mortgage containing a power of sale is secured by real property containing from one to four single-family residences, the notice of sale shall contain substantially the following language, in addition to the language required pursuant to paragraphs (1) to (7), inclusive:

NOTICE TO POTENTIAL BIDDERS: If you are considering bidding on this property lien, you should understand that there are risks involved in bidding at a trustee auction. You will be bidding on a lien, not on the property itself. Placing the highest bid at a trustee auction does not automatically entitle you to free and clear ownership of the property. You should also be aware that the lien being auctioned off may be a junior lien. If you are the highest bidder at the auction, you are or may be responsible for paying off all liens senior to the lien being auctioned off, before you can receive clear title to the property. You are encouraged to investigate the existence, priority, and size of outstanding liens that may exist on this property by contacting the county recorder’s office or a title insurance company, either of which may charge you a fee for this information. If you consult either of these resources, you should be aware that the same lender may hold more than one mortgage or deed of trust on the property.

NOTICE TO PROPERTY OWNER: The sale date shown on this notice of sale may be postponed one or more times by the mortgagee, beneficiary, trustee, or a court, pursuant to Section 2924g of the California Civil Code. The law requires that information about trustee sale postponements be made available to you and to the public, as a courtesy to those not present at the sale. If you wish to learn whether your sale date has been postponed, and, if applicable, the rescheduled time and date for the sale of this property, you may call [telephone number for information regarding the trustee’s sale] or visit this internet website [internet website address for information regarding the sale of this property], using the file number assigned to this case [case file number]. Information about postponements that are very short in duration or that occur close in time to the scheduled sale may not immediately be reflected in the telephone information or on the internet website. The best way to verify postponement information is to attend the scheduled sale.

NOTICE TO TENANT: You may have a right to purchase this property after the trustee auction pursuant to Section 2924m of the California Civil Code. If you are an “eligible tenant buyer,” you can purchase the property if you match the last and highest bid placed at the trustee auction. If you are an “eligible bidder,” you may be able to purchase the property if you exceed the last and highest bid placed at the trustee auction. There are three steps to exercising this right of purchase. First, 48 hours after the date of the trustee sale, you can call [telephone number for information regarding the trustee’s sale], or visit this internet website [internet website address for information regarding the sale of this property], using the file number assigned to this case [case file number] to find the date on which the trustee’s sale was held, the amount of the last and highest bid, and the address of the trustee. Second, you must send a written notice of intent to place a bid so that the trustee receives it no more than 15 days after the trustee’s sale. Third, you must submit a bid so that the trustee receives it no more than 45 days after the trustee’s sale. If you think you may qualify as an “eligible tenant buyer” or “eligible bidder,” you should consider contacting an attorney or appropriate real estate professional immediately for advice regarding this potential right to purchase.

(B) A mortgagee, beneficiary, trustee, or authorized agent shall make a good faith effort to provide up-to-date information regarding sale dates and postponements to persons who wish this information. This information shall be made available free of charge. It may be made available via an internet website, a telephone recording that is accessible 24 hours a day, seven days a week, or through any other means that allows 24 hours a day, seven days a week, no-cost access to updated information. A disruption of any of these methods of providing sale date and postponement information to allow for reasonable maintenance or due to a service outage shall not be deemed to be a violation of the good faith standard.
(C) Except as provided in subparagraph (B), nothing in the wording of the notices required by subparagraph (A) is intended to modify or create any substantive rights or obligations for any person providing, or specified in, either of the required notices. Failure to comply with subparagraph (A) or (B) shall not invalidate any sale that would otherwise be valid under this section.
(D) Information provided pursuant to subparagraph (A) does not constitute the public declaration required by subdivision (d) of Section 2924g.
(E) For purposes of a property subject to this paragraph and of satisfying the requirements of Section 2924m, a trustee or an authorized agent shall maintain an internet website and a telephone number to provide information on applicable properties to persons who wish the information. In addition to any other information required by subparagraph (B), a trustee or an authorized agent shall provide information regarding the sale date, amount of the last and highest bid, and the trustee’s address, to be accessible using the file number assigned to the case and listed on the NOTICE TO TENANT required by subparagraph (A). This information shall be made available free of charge and shall be available 24 hours a day, seven days a week.
(9) If the sale of the property is to be a unified sale as provided in subparagraph (B) of paragraph (1) of subdivision (a) of Section 9604 of the Commercial Code, the notice of sale shall also contain a description of the personal property or fixtures to be sold. In the case where it is contemplated that all of the personal property or fixtures are to be sold, the description in the notice of the personal property or fixtures shall be sufficient if it is the same as the description of the personal property or fixtures contained in the agreement creating the security interest in or encumbrance on the personal property or fixtures or the filed financing statement relating to the personal property or fixtures. In all other cases, the description in the notice shall be sufficient if it would be a sufficient description of the personal property or fixtures under Section 9108 of the Commercial Code. Inclusion of a reference to or a description of personal property or fixtures in a notice of sale hereunder shall not constitute an election by the secured party to conduct a unified sale pursuant to subparagraph (B) of paragraph (1) of subdivision (a) of Section 9604 of the Commercial Code, shall not obligate the secured party to conduct a unified sale pursuant to subparagraph (B) of paragraph (1) of subdivision (a) of Section 9604 of the Commercial Code, and in no way shall render defective or noncomplying either that notice or a sale pursuant to that notice by reason of the fact that the sale includes none or less than all of the personal property or fixtures referred to or described in the notice. This paragraph shall not otherwise affect the obligations or duties of a secured party under the Commercial Code.
(c) (1) This subdivision applies only to deeds of trust or mortgages which contain a power of sale and which are secured by real property containing a single-family, owner-occupied residence, where the obligation secured by the deed of trust or mortgage is contained in a contract for goods or services subject to the provisions of the Unruh Act (Chapter 1 (commencing with Section 1801) of Title 2 of Part 4 of Division 3).
(2) Except as otherwise expressly set forth in this subdivision, all other provisions of law relating to the exercise of a power of sale shall govern the exercise of a power of sale contained in a deed of trust or mortgage described in paragraph (1).
(3) If any default of the obligation secured by a deed of trust or mortgage described in paragraph (1) has not been cured within 30 days after the recordation of the notice of default, the trustee or mortgagee shall mail to the trustor or mortgagor, at their last known address, a copy of the following statement:
YOU ARE IN DEFAULT UNDER A
,
(Deed of trust or mortgage)
DATED ____. UNLESS YOU TAKE ACTION TO PROTECT
YOUR PROPERTY, IT MAY BE SOLD AT A PUBLIC SALE.
IF YOU NEED AN EXPLANATION OF THE NATURE OF THE
PROCEEDING AGAINST YOU, YOU SHOULD CONTACT
A LAWYER.
(4) All sales of real property pursuant to a power of sale contained in any deed of trust or mortgage described in paragraph (1) shall be held in the county where the residence is located and shall be made to the person making the highest offer. The trustee may receive offers during the 10-day period immediately prior to the date of sale and if any offer is accepted in writing by both the trustor or mortgagor and the beneficiary or mortgagee prior to the time set for sale, the sale shall be postponed to a date certain and prior to which the property may be conveyed by the trustor to the person making the offer according to its terms. The offer is revocable until accepted. The performance of the offer, following acceptance, according to its terms, by a conveyance of the property to the offeror, shall operate to terminate any further proceeding under the notice of sale and it shall be deemed revoked.
(5) In addition to the trustee fee pursuant to Section 2924c, the trustee or mortgagee pursuant to a deed of trust or mortgage subject to this subdivision shall be entitled to charge an additional fee of fifty dollars ($50).
(6) This subdivision applies only to property on which notices of default were filed on or after the effective date of this subdivision.
(d) With respect to residential real property containing no more than four dwelling units, a separate document containing a summary of the notice of sale information in English and the languages described in Section 1632 shall be attached to the notice of sale provided to the mortgagor or trustor pursuant to Section 2923.3.
(e) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2031, and as of that date is repealed, unless a later enacted statute that is enacted before January 1, 2031, deletes or extends that date.

SEC. 15.

 Section 2924f of the Civil Code, as amended by Section 4 of Chapter 642 of the Statutes of 2022, is amended to read:

2924f.
 (a) As used in this section and Sections 2924g and 2924h, “property” means real property or a leasehold estate therein, and “calendar week” means Monday through Saturday, inclusive.
(b) (1) Except as provided in subdivision (c), before any sale of property can be made under the power of sale contained in any deed of trust or mortgage, or any resale resulting from a rescission for a failure of consideration pursuant to subdivision (c) of Section 2924h, notice of the sale thereof shall be given by posting a written notice of the time of sale and of the street address and the specific place at the street address where the sale will be held, and describing the property to be sold, at least 20 days before the date of sale in one public place in the city where the property is to be sold, if the property is to be sold in a city, or, if not, then in one public place in the county seat of the county where the property is to be sold, and publishing a copy once a week for three consecutive calendar weeks.
(2) The first publication to be at least 20 days before the date of sale, in a newspaper of general circulation published in the public notice district in which the property or some part thereof is situated, or in case no newspaper of general circulation is published in the public notice district, in a newspaper of general circulation published in the county in which the property or some part thereof is situated, or in case no newspaper of general circulation is published in the public notice district or county, as the case may be, in a newspaper of general circulation published in the county in this state that is contiguous to the county in which the property or some part thereof is situated and has, by comparison with all similarly contiguous counties, the highest population based upon total county population as determined by the most recent federal decennial census published by the Bureau of the Census. For the purposes of this section, publication of notice in a public notice district is governed by Chapter 1.1 (commencing with Section 6080) of Division 7 of Title 1 of the Government Code.
(3) A copy of the notice of sale shall also be posted in a conspicuous place on the property to be sold at least 20 days before the date of sale, where possible and where not restricted for any reason. If the property is a single-family residence the posting shall be on a door of the residence, but, if not possible or restricted, then the notice shall be posted in a conspicuous place on the property; however, if access is denied because a common entrance to the property is restricted by a guard gate or similar impediment, the property may be posted at that guard gate or similar impediment to any development community.
(4) The notice of sale shall conform to the minimum requirements of Section 6043 of the Government Code and be recorded with the county recorder of the county in which the property or some part thereof is situated at least 20 days prior to the date of sale.
(5) The notice of sale shall contain the name, street address in this state, which may reflect an agent of the trustee, and either a toll-free telephone number or telephone number in this state of the trustee, and the name of the original trustor, and also shall contain the statement required by paragraph (3) of subdivision (c). In addition to any other description of the property, the notice shall describe the property by giving its street address, if any, or other common designation, if any, and a county assessor’s parcel number; but if the property has no street address or other common designation, the notice shall contain a legal description of the property, the name and address of the beneficiary at whose request the sale is to be conducted, and a statement that directions may be obtained pursuant to a written request submitted to the beneficiary within 10 days from the first publication of the notice. Directions shall be deemed reasonably sufficient to locate the property if information as to the location of the property is given by reference to the direction and approximate distance from the nearest crossroads, frontage road, or access road. If a legal description or a county assessor’s parcel number and either a street address or another common designation of the property is given, the validity of the notice and the validity of the sale shall not be affected by the fact that the street address, other common designation, name and address of the beneficiary, or the directions obtained therefrom are erroneous or that the street address, other common designation, name and address of the beneficiary, or directions obtained therefrom are omitted.
(6) The term “newspaper of general circulation,” as used in this section, has the same meaning as defined in Article 1 (commencing with Section 6000) of Chapter 1 of Division 7 of Title 1 of the Government Code.
(7) The notice of sale shall contain a statement of the total amount of the unpaid balance of the obligation secured by the property to be sold and reasonably estimated costs, expenses, advances at the time of the initial publication of the notice of sale, and, if republished pursuant to a cancellation of a cash equivalent pursuant to subdivision (d) of Section 2924h, a reference of that fact; provided, that the trustee shall incur no liability for any good faith error in stating the proper amount, including any amount provided in good faith by or on behalf of the beneficiary. An inaccurate statement of this amount shall not affect the validity of any sale to a bona fide purchaser for value, nor shall the failure to post the notice of sale on a door as provided by this subdivision affect the validity of any sale to a bona fide purchaser for value.
(8) (A) On and after April 1, 2012, if the deed of trust or mortgage containing a power of sale is secured by real property containing from one to four single-family residences, the notice of sale shall contain substantially the following language, in addition to the language required pursuant to paragraphs (1) to (7), inclusive:
NOTICE TO POTENTIAL BIDDERS: If you are considering bidding on this property lien, you should understand that there are risks involved in bidding at a trustee auction. You will be bidding on a lien, not on the property itself. Placing the highest bid at a trustee auction does not automatically entitle you to free and clear ownership of the property. You should also be aware that the lien being auctioned off may be a junior lien. If you are the highest bidder at the auction, you are or may be responsible for paying off all liens senior to the lien being auctioned off, before you can receive clear title to the property. You are encouraged to investigate the existence, priority, and size of outstanding liens that may exist on this property by contacting the county recorder’s office or a title insurance company, either of which may charge you a fee for this information. If you consult either of these resources, you should be aware that the same lender may hold more than one mortgage or deed of trust on the property.
NOTICE TO PROPERTY OWNER: The sale date shown on this notice of sale may be postponed one or more times by the mortgagee, beneficiary, trustee, or a court, pursuant to Section 2924g of the California Civil Code. The law requires that information about trustee sale postponements be made available to you and to the public, as a courtesy to those not present at the sale. If you wish to learn whether your sale date has been postponed, and, if applicable, the rescheduled time and date for the sale of this property, you may call [telephone number for information regarding the trustee’s sale] or visit this internet website [internet website address for information regarding the sale of this property], using the file number assigned to this case [case file number]. Information about postponements that are very short in duration or that occur close in time to the scheduled sale may not immediately be reflected in the telephone information or on the internet website. The best way to verify postponement information is to attend the scheduled sale.
(B) A mortgagee, beneficiary, trustee, or authorized agent shall make a good faith effort to provide up-to-date information regarding sale dates and postponements to persons who wish this information. This information shall be made available free of charge. It may be made available via an internet website, a telephone recording that is accessible 24 hours a day, seven days a week, or through any other means that allows 24 hours a day, seven days a week, no-cost access to updated information. A disruption of any of these methods of providing sale date and postponement information to allow for reasonable maintenance or due to a service outage shall not be deemed to be a violation of the good faith standard.
(C) Except as provided in subparagraph (B), nothing in the wording of the notices required by subparagraph (A) is intended to modify or create any substantive rights or obligations for any person providing, or specified in, either of the required notices. Failure to comply with subparagraph (A) or (B) shall not invalidate any sale that would otherwise be valid under this section.
(D) Information provided pursuant to subparagraph (A) does not constitute the public declaration required by subdivision (d) of Section 2924g.
(9) If the sale of the property is to be a unified sale as provided in subparagraph (B) of paragraph (1) of subdivision (a) of Section 9604 of the Commercial Code, the notice of sale shall also contain a description of the personal property or fixtures to be sold. In the case where it is contemplated that all of the personal property or fixtures are to be sold, the description in the notice of the personal property or fixtures shall be sufficient if it is the same as the description of the personal property or fixtures contained in the agreement creating the security interest in or encumbrance on the personal property or fixtures or the filed financing statement relating to the personal property or fixtures. In all other cases, the description in the notice shall be sufficient if it would be a sufficient description of the personal property or fixtures under Section 9108 of the Commercial Code. Inclusion of a reference to or a description of personal property or fixtures in a notice of sale hereunder shall not constitute an election by the secured party to conduct a unified sale pursuant to subparagraph (B) of paragraph (1) of subdivision (a) of Section 9604 of the Commercial Code, shall not obligate the secured party to conduct a unified sale pursuant to subparagraph (B) of paragraph (1) of subdivision (a) of Section 9604 of the Commercial Code, and in no way shall render defective or noncomplying either that notice or a sale pursuant to that notice by reason of the fact that the sale includes none or less than all of the personal property or fixtures referred to or described in the notice. This paragraph shall not otherwise affect the obligations or duties of a secured party under the Commercial Code.
(c) (1) This subdivision applies only to deeds of trust or mortgages which contain a power of sale and which are secured by real property containing a single-family, owner-occupied residence, where the obligation secured by the deed of trust or mortgage is contained in a contract for goods or services subject to the provisions of the Unruh Act (Chapter 1 (commencing with Section 1801) of Title 2 of Part 4 of Division 3).
(2) Except as otherwise expressly set forth in this subdivision, all other provisions of law relating to the exercise of a power of sale shall govern the exercise of a power of sale contained in a deed of trust or mortgage described in paragraph (1).
(3) If any default of the obligation secured by a deed of trust or mortgage described in paragraph (1) has not been cured within 30 days after the recordation of the notice of default, the trustee or mortgagee shall mail to the trustor or mortgagor, at their last known address, a copy of the following statement:
YOU ARE IN DEFAULT UNDER A
______ ,
(Deed of trust or mortgage)
DATED   ____. UNLESS YOU TAKE ACTION TO PROTECT
YOUR PROPERTY, IT MAY BE SOLD AT A PUBLIC SALE. IF
YOU NEED AN EXPLANATION OF THE NATURE OF THE
PROCEEDING AGAINST YOU, YOU SHOULD CONTACT A
LAWYER.
(4) All sales of real property pursuant to a power of sale contained in any deed of trust or mortgage described in paragraph (1) shall be held in the county where the residence is located and shall be made to the person making the highest offer. The trustee may receive offers during the 10-day period immediately prior to the date of sale and if any offer is accepted in writing by both the trustor or mortgagor and the beneficiary or mortgagee prior to the time set for sale, the sale shall be postponed to a date certain and prior to which the property may be conveyed by the trustor to the person making the offer according to its terms. The offer is revocable until accepted. The performance of the offer, following acceptance, according to its terms, by a conveyance of the property to the offeror, shall operate to terminate any further proceeding under the notice of sale and it shall be deemed revoked.
(5) In addition to the trustee fee pursuant to Section 2924c, the trustee or mortgagee pursuant to a deed of trust or mortgage subject to this subdivision shall be entitled to charge an additional fee of fifty dollars ($50).
(6) This subdivision applies only to property on which notices of default were filed on or after the effective date of this subdivision.
(d) With respect to residential real property containing no more than four dwelling units, a separate document containing a summary of the notice of sale information in English and the languages described in Section 1632 shall be attached to the notice of sale provided to the mortgagor or trustor pursuant to Section 2923.3.
(e) This section shall be operative January 1, 2031.

SEC. 16.

 Section 3273.50 of the Civil Code is amended to read:

3273.50.
 As used in this title, the following definitions apply:
(a) “Ammunition” has the same meaning as provided in subdivision (b) of Section 16150 of the Penal Code.
(b) “Firearm” has the same meaning as provided in subdivisions (a) and (b) of Section 16520 of the Penal Code.
(c) “Firearm accessory” means an attachment or device designed or adapted to be inserted into, affixed onto, or used in conjunction with a firearm that is designed, intended, or functions to alter or enhance the firing capabilities of a firearm, the lethality of the firearm, or a shooter’s ability to hold and use a firearm.
(d) “Firearm-related product” means a firearm, ammunition, a firearm precursor part, a firearm component, and a firearm accessory that meets any of the following conditions:
(1) The item is sold, made, or distributed in California.
(2) The item is intended to be sold or distributed in California.
(3) The item is or was possessed in California and it was reasonably foreseeable that the item would be possessed in California.
(e) “Firearm precursor part” has the same meaning as provided in Section 16531 of the Penal Code.
(f) “Firearm industry member” shall mean a person, firm, corporation, company, partnership, society, joint stock company, or any other entity or association engaged in the manufacture, distribution, importation, marketing, wholesale sale, or retail sale of firearm-related products.
(g) “Reasonable controls” means reasonable procedures, acts, or practices that are designed, implemented, and enforced to do the following:
(1) Prevent the sale or distribution of a firearm-related product to a straw purchaser, a firearm trafficker, a person prohibited from possessing a firearm under state or federal law, or a person who the firearm industry member has reasonable cause to believe is at substantial risk of using a firearm-related product to harm themselves or another or of possessing or using a firearm-related product unlawfully.
(2) Prevent the loss or theft of a firearm-related product from the firearm industry member.
(3) Ensure that the firearm industry member complies with all provisions of California and federal law and does not otherwise promote the unlawful manufacture, sale, possession, marketing, or use of a firearm-related product.

SEC. 17.

 Section 98 of the Code of Civil Procedure is amended to read:

98.
 A party may, in lieu of presenting direct testimony, offer the prepared testimony of relevant witnesses in the form of affidavits or declarations under penalty of perjury. The prepared testimony may include, but need not be limited to, the opinions of expert witnesses, and testimony which authenticates documentary evidence. To the extent the contents of the prepared testimony would have been admissible were the witness to testify orally thereto, the prepared testimony shall be received as evidence in the case, provided that either of the following applies:
(a) A copy has been served on the party against whom it is offered at least 30 days prior to the trial, together with a current address of the affiant that is within 150 miles of the place of trial, and the affiant is available for service of process at that place for a reasonable period of time, during the 20 days immediately prior to trial.
(b) The statement is in the form of all or part of a deposition in the case, and the party against whom it is offered had an opportunity to participate in the deposition.
The court shall determine whether the affidavit or declaration shall be read into the record in lieu of oral testimony or admitted as a documentary exhibit.

SEC. 18.

 Section 377.34 of the Code of Civil Procedure is amended to read:

377.34.
 (a) In an action or proceeding by a decedent’s personal representative or successor in interest on the decedent’s cause of action, the damages recoverable are limited to the loss or damage that the decedent sustained or incurred before death, including any penalties or punitive or exemplary damages that the decedent would have been entitled to recover had the decedent lived, and do not include damages for pain, suffering, or disfigurement.
(b) Notwithstanding subdivision (a), in an action or proceeding by a decedent’s personal representative or successor in interest on the decedent’s cause of action, the damages recoverable may include damages for pain, suffering, or disfigurement if the action or proceeding was granted a preference pursuant to Section 36 before January 1, 2022, or was filed on or after January 1, 2022, and before January 1, 2026.
(c) A plaintiff who recovers damages pursuant to subdivision (b) between January 1, 2022, and January 1, 2025, inclusive, shall, within 60 days after obtaining a judgment, consent judgment, or court-approved settlement agreement entitling the plaintiff to the damages, submit to the Judicial Council a copy of the judgment, consent judgment, or court-approved settlement agreement, along with a cover sheet detailing all of the following information:
(1) The date the action was filed.
(2) The date of the final disposition of the action.
(3) The amount and type of damages awarded, including economic damages and damages for pain, suffering, or disfigurement.
(d) (1) On or before January 1, 2025, the Judicial Council shall transmit to the Legislature a report detailing the information received pursuant to subdivision (c) for all judgments, consent judgments, or court-approved settlement agreements rendered from January 1, 2022, to July 31, 2024, inclusive, in which damages were recovered pursuant to subdivision (b). The report shall comply with Section 9795 of the Government Code.
(2) This subdivision shall become inoperative on January 1, 2029, pursuant to Section 10231.5 of the Government Code.
(e) Nothing in this section alters Section 3333.2 of the Civil Code.
(f) Nothing in this section affects claims brought pursuant to Chapter 11 (commencing with Section 15600) of Part 3 of Division 9 of the Welfare and Institutions Code.

SEC. 19.

 Section 681.030 of the Code of Civil Procedure is amended to read:

681.030.
 (a) The Judicial Council may provide by rule for the practice and procedure in proceedings under this title.
(b) The Judicial Council may prescribe the form of the applications, notices, orders, writs, and other papers to be used under this title. The Judicial Council may prescribe forms in languages other than English. The timely completion and return of a Judicial Council form prescribed in a language other than English has the same force and effect as the timely completion and return of an English language form.
(c) The Judicial Council shall prepare a form containing all of the following:
(1) A list of each of the federal and this state’s exemptions from enforcement of a money judgment against a natural person.
(2) A citation to the relevant statute of the United States or this state which creates each of the exemptions.
(3) Information on how to obtain the list of exemption amounts published pursuant to subdivision (f) of Section 703.150.

SEC. 20.

 Section 683.110 of the Code of Civil Procedure is amended to read:

683.110.
 (a) The period of enforceability of a money judgment or a judgment for possession or sale of property may be extended by renewal of the judgment as provided in this article.
(b) A judgment shall not be renewed under this article if the application for renewal is filed within five years from the time the judgment was previously renewed under this article.
(c) Notwithstanding subdivision (a), a judgment creditor may renew the period of enforceability of the following types of money judgments only once pursuant to subdivision (c) of Section 683.120:
(1) A judgment on a claim related to medical expenses if the principal amount of the money judgment remaining unsatisfied against a debtor is under two hundred thousand dollars ($200,000).
(2) A judgment on a claim related to personal debt if the principal amount of the money judgment remaining unsatisfied against a debtor is under fifty thousand dollars ($50,000).
(d) For purposes of this section, the following definitions apply:
(1) “Debtor” means a natural person from whom money is due or owing or alleged to be due or owing.
(2) “Due or owing” does not include debts incurred due to or obtained by tortious or fraudulent conduct or judgments for unpaid wages, damages, or penalties owed to an employee.
(3) “Personal debt” means money due or owing or alleged to be due or owing from a natural person arising out of a transaction in which the money, property, insurance, or services which are the subject of the transaction are primarily for the debtor’s personal, family, or household purposes.

SEC. 21.

 Section 685.010 of the Code of Civil Procedure is amended to read:

685.010.
 (a) (1) Except as provided in paragraph (2), interest accrues at the rate of 10 percent per annum on the principal amount of a money judgment remaining unsatisfied.
(2) (A) For judgments entered on or after January 1, 2023, or where an application for renewal of judgment is filed on or after January 1, 2023, interest accrues at the rate of 5 percent per annum on the principal amount of a money judgment remaining unsatisfied in the following cases:
(i) The principal amount of a money judgment of under two hundred thousand dollars ($200,000) remaining unsatisfied against a debtor for a claim related to medical expenses.
(ii) The principal amount of a money judgment of under fifty thousand dollars ($50,000) remaining unsatisfied against a debtor for a claim related to personal debt.
(B) The claims specified in subparagraph (A) include, but are not limited to, a claim based on any of the following transactions:
(i) An agreement governing the use of a credit card as defined in subdivision (a) of Section 1747.02 of the Civil Code.
(ii) A conditional sale contract as defined in subdivision (a) of Section 2981 of the Civil Code.
(iii) A deferred deposit transaction as defined in subdivision (a) of Section 23001 of the Financial Code.
(C) For purposes of this paragraph, the following definitions apply:
(i) “Debtor” means a natural person from whom money is due or owing or alleged to be due or owing.
(ii) “Due or owing” does not include debts incurred due to or obtained by tortious or fraudulent conduct or judgments for unpaid wages, damages, or penalties owed to an employee.
(iii) “Personal debt” means money due or owing or alleged to be due or owing from a natural person arising out of a transaction in which the money, property, insurance, or services which are the subject of the transaction are primarily for the debtor’s personal, family, or household purposes.
(b) The Legislature reserves the right to change the rate of interest provided in subdivision (a) at any time, regardless of the date of entry of the judgment or the date any obligation upon which the judgment is based was incurred. A change in the rate of interest may be made applicable only to the interest that accrues after the operative date of the statute that changes the rate.

SEC. 22.

 Section 1002 of the Code of Civil Procedure is amended to read:

1002.
 (a) Notwithstanding any other law, a provision within a settlement agreement that prevents the disclosure of factual information related to the action is prohibited in any civil action the factual foundation for which establishes a cause of action for civil damages for any of the following:
(1) An act that may be prosecuted as a felony sex offense.
(2) An act of childhood sexual assault, as defined in Section 340.1.
(3) An act of sexual exploitation of a minor, as defined in Section 11165.1 of the Penal Code, or conduct prohibited with respect to a minor pursuant to Section 311.1, 311.5, or 311.6 of the Penal Code.
(4) An act of sexual assault, as defined in paragraphs (1) to (8), inclusive, of subdivision (e) of Section 15610.63 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, against an elder or dependent adult, as defined in Sections 15610.23 and 15610.27 of the Welfare and Institutions Code.
(b) Notwithstanding any other law, in a civil action described in paragraphs (1) to (4), inclusive, of subdivision (a), a court shall not enter, by stipulation or otherwise, an order that restricts the disclosure of information in a manner that conflicts with subdivision (a).
(c) Subdivisions (a) and (b) do not preclude an agreement preventing the disclosure of any medical information or personal identifying information, as defined in subdivision (b) of Section 530.55 of the Penal Code, regarding the victim of the offense listed in subdivision (a) or of any information revealing the nature of the relationship between the victim and the defendant. This subdivision shall not be construed to limit the right of a crime victim to disclose this information.
(d) Except as authorized by subdivision (c), a provision within a settlement agreement that prevents the disclosure of factual information related to the action described in subdivision (a) that is entered into on or after January 1, 2017, is void as a matter of law and against public policy.
(e) An attorney’s failure to comply with the requirements of this section by demanding that a provision be included in a settlement agreement that prevents the disclosure of factual information related to the action described in subdivision (a) that is not otherwise authorized by subdivision (c) as a condition of settlement, or advising a client to sign an agreement that includes such a provision, may be grounds for professional discipline and the State Bar of California shall investigate and take appropriate action in any such case brought to its attention.

SEC. 23.

 Section 1151 of the Corporations Code is amended to read:

1151.
 (a) A corporation may be converted into a domestic other business entity, foreign other business entity, or foreign corporation pursuant to this chapter if, pursuant to the proposed conversion, (1) each share of the same class or series of the converting corporation shall, unless all the shareholders of the class or series consent, be treated equally with respect to any cash, rights, securities, or other property to be received by, or any obligations or restrictions to be imposed on, the holder of that share, and (2) nonredeemable common shares of the converting corporation shall be converted only into nonredeemable equity securities of the converted entity unless all of the shareholders of the class consent; provided, however, that clause (1) shall not restrict the ability of the shareholders of a converting corporation to appoint one or more managers, if the converted entity is a limited liability company, or one or more general partners, if the converted entity is a limited partnership, in the plan of conversion or in the converted entity’s governing documents.
(b) Notwithstanding this section, the conversion of a corporation into a domestic other business entity, foreign other business entity, or foreign corporation may be effected only if both of the following conditions are met:
(1) The law under which the converted entity will exist expressly permits the formation of that entity pursuant to a conversion.
(2) The corporation complies with any and all other requirements of any other law that applies to conversion to the converted entity.

SEC. 24.

 Section 13401 of the Corporations Code is amended to read:

13401.
 As used in this part:
(a) “Professional services” means any type of professional services that may be lawfully rendered only pursuant to a license, certification, or registration authorized by the Business and Professions Code, the Chiropractic Act, or the Osteopathic Act.
(b) “Professional corporation” means a corporation organized under the General Corporation Law or pursuant to subdivision (b) of Section 13406 that is engaged in rendering professional services in a single profession, except as otherwise authorized in Section 13401.5, pursuant to a certificate of registration issued by the governmental agency regulating the profession as herein provided and that in its practice or business designates itself as a professional or other corporation as may be required by statute. However, any professional corporation or foreign professional corporation rendering professional services by persons duly licensed by the Medical Board of California or any examining committee under the jurisdiction of the board, the Podiatric Medical Board of California, the Osteopathic Medical Board of California, the Dental Board of California, the Dental Hygiene Board of California, the California State Board of Pharmacy, the Veterinary Medical Board, the California Architects Board, the Court Reporters Board of California, the Board of Behavioral Sciences, the Speech-Language Pathology and Audiology and Hearing Aid Dispensers Board, the Board of Registered Nursing, the State Board of Optometry, or the California Board of Occupational Therapy shall not be required to obtain a certificate of registration in order to render those professional services.
(c) “Foreign professional corporation” means a corporation organized under the laws of a state of the United States other than this state that is engaged in a profession of a type for which there is authorization in the Business and Professions Code for the performance of professional services by a foreign professional corporation.
(d) “Licensed person” means any natural person who is duly licensed under the provisions of the Business and Professions Code, the Chiropractic Act, or the Osteopathic Act to render the same professional services as are or will be rendered by the professional corporation or foreign professional corporation of which the person is, or intends to become, an officer, director, shareholder, or employee.
(e) “Disqualified person” means a licensed person who for any reason becomes legally disqualified (temporarily or permanently) to render the professional services that the particular professional corporation or foreign professional corporation of which they are an officer, director, shareholder, or employee is or was rendering.

SEC. 25.

 Section 8902 of the Education Code is amended to read:

8902.
 (a) The Legislature finds and declares all of the following:
(1) The COVID-19 pandemic has continued to exacerbate conditions associated with poverty, including food insecurity, housing and employment instability, and inadequate health care.
(2) Community schools offer unique models to more efficiently and effectively provide trauma-informed integrated educational, health, and mental health services to pupils with a wide range of needs that have been affected by the COVID-19 pandemic.
(3) Additional investment in community schools that provide integrated pupil supports, community partnerships, and expanded learning opportunities will help address the trauma and loss of learning that have resulted from the COVID-19 pandemic. Statewide investment in community schools, supported by local networks designed to coordinate services and resources, are critical to realize whole-child education.
(b) For the 2021–22 fiscal year, the sum of two billion eight hundred thirty-six million six hundred sixty thousand dollars ($2,836,660,000) is hereby appropriated from the General Fund to the Superintendent to administer the California Community Schools Partnership Program, established by Section 117 of Chapter 24 of the Statutes of 2020, as amended by Section 63 of Chapter 110 of the Statutes of 2020, in the manner and for the purposes set forth in this section. These funds shall be used in accordance with the California Community Schools Framework, as adopted by the state board. These funds shall not be used for punitive disciplinary practices or the engagement of campus law enforcement. These funds shall be available for encumbrance or expenditure until June 30, 2031. The funds shall be distributed as follows:
(1) At least two billion six hundred ninety-four million eight hundred twenty-seven thousand dollars ($2,694,827,000) shall be allocated to establish new, and expand existing, community schools supported by local educational agencies or consortiums that help coordinate services and manage learning networks for these schools.
(2) Up to one hundred forty-one million eight hundred thirty-three thousand dollars ($141,833,000) shall be allocated to contract with local educational agencies to create a network of at least five regional technical assistance centers, pursuant to subdivision (j), to provide support and assistance to local educational agencies, or consortiums, and community schools through the 2027–28 school year. Regional technical assistance center responsibilities shall include all of the following:
(A) Outreach and technical assistance to potential applicants as needed before or after awarding a grant under the program.
(B) Development of community school resources, sharing of best practices, and data collection and use.
(C) Development of optional centralized planning templates to support interagency planning and the leveraging of funding for the community school initiative, including, but not limited to, funding from the Expanded Learning Opportunities Program, the California state preschool program, Universal Transitional Kindergarten, universal meal programs, health and mental health supports for pupils and staff, the local control funding formula, and any other available local, state, or federal funds that may facilitate and sustain the community school initiative.
(D) Facilitation of peer support networks for qualifying entities and county offices of education to support community engagement and the provision of supports within a multitiered system of support leading to positive and equitable pupil academic and well-being outcomes, as well as positive school climate outcomes, for both state and local measures identified in the local educational agency’s local control and accountability plan.
(3) (A) Up to one hundred forty million dollars ($140,000,000) shall be allocated to county offices of education serving at least two qualifying entities receiving grant funding pursuant to subdivision (g) or (h) to coordinate county-level governmental, nonprofit community-based organizations, and other external partnerships to support community school implementation at grant recipients in their county. This shall include designating a county-level community schools liaison to coordinate with the department and technical assistance centers in capacity building, resource connection, and continuous improvement activities consistent with supporting grant recipients in their county in implementation of community schools, as specified in subdivisions (g) and (h). County office of education grant award amounts under this paragraph shall be determined based on the number of community schools funded pursuant to this chapter, and the number of pupils served in those schools, using an allocation formula determined by the Superintendent, and provide at least two hundred thousand dollars ($200,000) and up to five hundred thousand dollars ($500,000) annually, for seven years, for each qualifying county office of education. These funds are separate from any funds county offices of education receive pursuant to paragraph (3) of subdivision (h) for serving as qualifying entities to a network of community schools.
(B) County offices of education receiving funds pursuant to this paragraph shall support centralized grant recipient communications with county-level governmental partners and funding sources, which may include, but not be limited to, pupil support and health care service billing and billing practices technical assistance.
(C) County offices of education receiving funds pursuant to this paragraph shall support local educational agency planning and use of pupil and campus data for integrating community school, expanded learning, early childhood education, county behavioral health, educator professional development, and other state-funded initiatives integral to the four pillars of a community school approach as described in subdivision (b) of Section 8901, which may be part of the qualifying entity’s local control and accountability plan process pursuant to Section 47606.5, 52060, or 52066, as applicable.
(c) On or before November 15, 2021, the Superintendent, with the approval of the state board, shall update as necessary, the application process and administration plan for the selection of grant recipients under the program, which may include prioritization for awards. After November 15, 2021, the Superintendent shall update the state board on an annual basis regarding the administration of this chapter and present to the state board any proposed changes to the application process and administration plan.
(d) The Superintendent shall award, subject to the approval of the state board, grants on a competitive basis to qualifying entities for planning grants for new community schools, implementation grants for new community schools or for the expansion or continuation of existing community schools, and extension grants, as provided, to representative qualifying entities in northern, central, and southern California, and in urban, suburban, and rural areas.
(e) A qualifying entity seeking a grant under this chapter shall submit an application to the Superintendent at a time and in a manner, and with any appropriate information, as the Superintendent may reasonably require. Each grant application submitted shall include all of the following:
(1) A description and documentation of how the participating community and cooperating agencies have been and will be engaged in the community school model.
(2) A description of all of the programs and services to be provided at the schoolsite, at a site near or adjacent to the school, or virtually.
(3) A description of all direct and indirect resources to be used for the community school program, and the agencies responsible for the implementation of the program.
(4) Provisions for data collection and recordkeeping, including records of the population served, the components of the service, the outcomes of the service, and costs, including all of the following:
(A) Direct costs.
(B) Indirect costs.
(C) Costs to other agencies.
(D) Cost savings.
(f) The Superintendent shall prioritize grant funding to qualifying entities who meet all of the following:
(1) Serve pupils in schools or a partner school or schools in which at least 80 percent of the pupil population are unduplicated pupils.
(2) Demonstrate a need for expanded access to integrated services, including those disproportionately impacted by the COVID-19 pandemic.
(3) Involve pupils, parents, certificated and classified school staff, and cooperating agency personnel in the process of identifying the needs of pupils and families, and in the planning of support services to be offered.
(4) Commit to providing trauma-informed health, mental health, and social services for pupils within a multitiered system of support at the schoolsite, or an adjacent location, and partner with other schools, school districts, county agencies, or nongovernmental organizations.
(5) For qualifying entities that serve elementary school pupils, or for schools where there is a demonstrated need for childcare, including, but not limited to, programs for pregnant and parenting teens, commit to providing early care and education services for children from birth to five years of age, inclusive, through one or more local educational agencies or community-based organizations.
(6) Identify a cooperating agency collaboration process, including cosignatories, a mechanism for sharing governance, which may include a plan to use existing or create shared decisionmaking teams that include pupils, families, educators, and community-based organizations, and for integrating or redirecting existing resources and other school support services.
(7) Plan to support a network of site-based community schools at schoolsites that have the capacity to ensure that services, professional development, and engagement can occur on schoolsite, or at an adjacent location, with the support of community-based organizations and other relevant providers, for all relevant stakeholders.
(8) Identify a plan to sustain community school services after grant expiration, including by maximizing reimbursement for services from available sources, including, but not limited to, the Local Educational Agency Medi-Cal Billing Option Program, School-Based Medi-Cal Administrative Activities program, and reimbursable mental health specialty care services provided under the federal Early and Periodic Screening, Diagnosis and Treatment program (42 U.S.C. Sec. 1396d(a)(4)(B)).
(g) (1) Of the amount identified in paragraph (1) of subdivision (b), including all other funds appropriated for this program in the Budget Act of 2021, at least 10 percent shall be available for planning grants of up to two hundred thousand dollars ($200,000) per qualifying entity, and shall be allocated in the 2021–22 and 2022–23 fiscal years, for up to a two-year planning grant period, for local educational agencies with no existing community schools. The planning grant may be used for any of the following purposes:
(A) Staffing costs for a community school coordinator.
(B) Conducting a comprehensive school and community needs and asset assessment, including, but not limited to, pupil and community demographics, school climate, integrated support services, expanded learning time, educator, family, pupil, and community engagement, new or existing partnerships with governmental entities or community-based organizations, and available funding sources.
(C) Grant application support, service billing development, and other administrative costs necessary to launch a community school model at scale.
(D) Partnership development and coordination support between the grantee and cooperating agencies.
(E) Providing training and support to local educational agency and cooperating agency personnel to develop best practices for integrating instruction and pupil supports.
(F) Preparing a community school implementation plan for submission to the governing board or body of the local educational agency and to the department.
(2) Any remaining planning grant funding available at the conclusion of the planning grant period shall be made available for implementation grants.
(h) (1) Of the amount identified in paragraph (1) of subdivision (b), including all other funds appropriated for this program in the Budget Act of 2021, up to 70 percent shall be available for implementation grants to qualified entities. Implementation grants shall be at least one hundred thousand dollars ($100,000) and up to five hundred thousand dollars ($500,000) annually per schoolsite for new community schools or for the expansion or continuation of existing community schools that agree to align with the provisions of this chapter. New and existing community schools shall be funded for five years, upon submission to the department of a community school plan and evidence of ongoing progress as part of the annual formative evaluations specified in subdivision (l). The implementation grant may be used for any of the following purposes:
(A) Staffing, including, but not limited to, a community school coordinator, and contractor capacity.
(B) Coordinating and providing support services to pupils and families at or near community schools, including through childcare, expanded learning time before and after school, and during school intersessions.
(C) Providing training and support to local educational agency personnel, and partner agency personnel on integrating school-based pupil supports, social-emotional well-being, trauma-informed practices, and establishing sustainable community school funding sources.
(D) Designing and executing educator, family, pupil, and community engagement strategies.
(E) Ongoing data collection and program evaluations, including at least one measure of growth in individual pupil well-being as measured through pupil surveys or the compilation of screening tool results.
(F) Implementing the sustainability plan described in paragraph (8) of subdivision (f) and updating the plan as necessary.
(G) Securing various long-term funding streams and commitments from partners that will continue to provide financial assistance or other means of support.
(H) Building capacity around sustainability and other efforts to support ongoing community school programming.
(I) Conducting a comprehensive school and community needs and asset assessment to support a continuous improvement process.
(2) The Superintendent shall prioritize new community schools for implementation grants under paragraph (1) and those moneys shall supplement, not supplant, existing services and funds.
(3) A local educational agency grantee may retain up to the lesser of five hundred thousand dollars ($500,000) or 10 percent of the total funds awarded pursuant to this subdivision for its sites each year. These funds shall be used to administer implementation grants locally, manage professional learning and networking, and coordinate services and funding streams for community schools under the local educational agency grantee. Funds retained by the local educational agency grantee to provide direct services to pupils may be retained separately from this administrative set-aside.
(4) The funding under paragraph (3) shall supplement, and not supplant, existing services and funds, and shall be used for ongoing coordination of services, management of the community school, and ongoing data collection and program evaluations.
(5) Implementation grant funds may carry over from year to year and are restricted to permitted uses of the funds.
(6) Qualifying entities that receive implementation grants shall annually report and publicly present their community school plans, including data and outcomes from the prior year, at the schoolsite and at a meeting of the governing board of the school district, county board of education, or the governing body of the charter school. Implementation grant recipients shall publicly post their community school grant application and community schools plan on the local educational agency’s internet website.
(i) (1) All planning and implementation grants awarded under subdivisions (g) and (h) shall be matched by the qualifying entity or its cooperating agencies with a local match equal to one-third of the grant amount. The local match shall be contributed in cash or as services or resources of comparable value, as determined by the department.
(2) The Superintendent shall reserve adequate funding pursuant to this section to preserve capacity for qualifying entities receiving planning grants pursuant to subdivision (g) to receive implementation grants pursuant to subdivision (h) at the end of their planning grant period, if all planning grant requirements are met.
(j) (1) Of the amount identified in paragraph (1) of subdivision (b), at least 20 percent shall be available for the option to extend implementation grants from five years to seven years for ongoing coordination costs to local educational agency implementation grantees of up to one hundred thousand dollars ($100,000) annually per site of an existing community school, and shall be allocated, beginning with the 2025–26 fiscal year, through the 2030–31 fiscal year.
(2) (A) The funding under paragraph (1) shall support the ongoing implementation of the community school initiative’s sustainability plan pursuant to paragraph (8) of subdivision (f) at each schoolsite receiving funding pursuant to subdivision (h). The department may request evidence that the local educational agency grantees have spent implementation grant funding in alignment with their implementation plans and are tracking short-term results of their efforts before awarding implementation grant extensions.
(B) The funding under paragraph (1) shall supplement, not supplant, existing services and funds, and shall be used for ongoing coordination of services, management of the community school, and ongoing data collection and program evaluations.
(3) All grant extensions awarded under paragraph (1) shall be matched by the participating qualifying entity or its cooperating agencies with a local match equal to one dollar ($1) for each dollar ($1) of extension grant funding received. The match shall be contributed in cash or as services or resources of comparable value, as determined by the department.
(k) Of the amount identified in paragraph (2) of subdivision (b), the Superintendent shall contract, subject to the approval of the state board, on a competitive basis with at least five local educational agencies to serve as regional technical assistance centers to provide technical assistance to grant recipients seeking to establish or expand community schools. Preference shall be given to local educational agencies that commit to partner with institutions of higher education or nonprofit community-based organizations. Technical assistance shall, to the extent practicable, be provided in consultation and collaboration with the statewide system of support established pursuant to Section 52059.5, and be made available to share best practices and assist both prospective applicants and grant recipients with tasks, including, but not limited to, all of the following:
(1) Conducting a comprehensive school and community needs and asset assessment.
(2) Improving authentic family and community engagement in the languages spoken in the community.
(3) Creating community partnerships.
(4) Developing sustainable funding sources.
(5) Coordinating services across child-serving agencies and schools.
(6) Accessing and combining funding for services from multiple revenue sources.
(l) Grant recipients and regional technical assistance centers shall commit to providing program and expenditure data to the department, as specified by the Superintendent, and participating in overall program evaluation.
(m) (1) The impact of the grant program in achieving the goals described in this section, including an evaluation of the effectiveness of the opportunities provided, shall be included as part of the annual formative evaluation of the program.
(2) The Superintendent shall use a competitive grant process to contract with an entity to develop and administer annual formative evaluations. The evaluations shall include all of the following:
(A) Outcome data, as specified by the department and the state board, including measures of pupil well-being and engagement, including, but not limited to, pupil attendance and school climate.
(B) An analysis of the nature and kind of services provided and changes made within the schools, areas of progress, and challenges to be addressed to meet the goals of the California Community Schools Partnership Program, including, but not limited to, effective integration of instructional and pupil support services, and support for authentic pupil, educator, and family engagement.
(C) Evidence of best practices and successful strategies for integrating multiple funding sources to meet a local educational agency’s school improvement goals identified in their local control and accountability plan.
(3) (A) The Superintendent shall provide a formative evaluation to the Governor and the appropriate policy and fiscal committees of the Legislature by December 31, 2023, and annually thereafter, ending with a final comprehensive report on or before December 31, 2031.
(B) The annual formative evaluations shall be made publicly available on the department’s internet website.
(C) The annual formative evaluations shall be separate from the comprehensive report that is required to be submitted on December 31, 2025, to the Governor and the appropriate policy and fiscal committees of the Legislature, pursuant to Section 117 of Chapter 110 of the Statutes of 2020.
(D) The final comprehensive report shall be provided to the Governor and the appropriate policy and fiscal committees of the Legislature on the impact of the grant program in achieving the goals described in this section, including an evaluation of the effectiveness of the opportunities provided.
(n) In addition to the amount specified in subdivision (b), the sum of one billion one hundred thirty-two million five hundred fifty-four thousand dollars ($1,132,554,000) is hereby appropriated from the General Fund in the 2022–23 fiscal year to the Superintendent for allocation beginning in the 2023–24 fiscal year for implementation grants and grant extensions consistent with the purposes and requirements of subdivision (b).
(o) (1) For purposes of making the computations required by Section 8 of Article XVI of the California Constitution, the appropriation made by subdivision (b) shall be deemed to be “General Fund revenues appropriated for school districts,” as defined in subdivision (c) of Section 41202, for the 2020–21 fiscal year, and included within the “total allocations to school districts and community college districts from General Fund proceeds of taxes appropriated pursuant to Article XIII B,” as defined in subdivision (e) of Section 41202, for the 2020–21 fiscal year.
(2) For purposes of making the computations required by Section 8 of Article XVI of the California Constitution, the appropriation made by subdivision (n) shall be deemed to be “General Fund revenues appropriated for school districts,” as defined in subdivision (c) of Section 41202, for the 2022–23 fiscal year, and included within the “total allocations to school districts and community college districts from General Fund proceeds of taxes appropriated pursuant to Article XIII B,” as defined in subdivision (e) of Section 41202, for the 2022–23 fiscal year.

SEC. 26.

 Section 17250.62 of the Education Code is amended to read:

17250.62.
 The procurement process for alternative design-build projects shall progress as follows:
(a) (1) The school district shall prepare a set of documents setting forth the scope and estimated price of the project. The documents may include, but are not limited to, the size, type, and desired design character of the project, performance specifications covering the quality of materials, equipment, workmanship, preliminary plans or building layouts, or any other information deemed necessary to describe adequately the school district’s needs. The performance specifications and any plans shall be prepared by a design professional who is duly licensed and registered in California.
(2) The documents shall not include a design-build-operate contract for a project. The documents, however, may include operations during a training or transition period, but shall not include long-term operations for a project.
(b) The school district shall prepare and issue a request for qualifications in order to prequalify, or develop a short list of, the design-build entities whose proposals shall be evaluated for final selection. The request for qualifications shall include, but is not limited to, all of the following elements:
(1) Identification of the basic scope and needs of the project or contract, the expected cost range, the methodology that will be used by the school district to evaluate proposals, the procedure for final selection of the design-build entity, and any other information deemed necessary by the school district to inform interested parties of the contracting opportunity.
(2) Significant factors that the school district reasonably expects to consider in evaluating qualifications, including technical design and construction expertise, acceptable safety record, and all other nonprice-related factors.
(3) A standard template request for statements of qualifications prepared by the school district. In preparing the standard template, the school district may consult with the construction industry, the building trades and surety industry, and other school districts interested in using the authorization provided by this chapter. The template shall require the following information:
(A) If the design-build entity is a privately held corporation, limited liability company, partnership, or joint venture, a listing of all of the shareholders, partners, or members known at the time of statement of qualification submission who will perform work on the project.
(B) Evidence that the members of the design-build team have completed, or demonstrated the experience, competency, capability, and capacity to complete, projects of similar size, scope, or complexity, and that the proposed key personnel have sufficient experience and training to competently manage and complete the design and construction of the project, and a financial statement that ensures that the design-build entity has the capacity to complete the project.
(C) The licenses, registration, and credentials required to design and construct the project, including, but not limited to, information on the revocation or suspension of any license, credential, or registration.
(D) Evidence that establishes that the design-build entity has the capacity to obtain all required payment and performance bonding, liability insurance, and errors and omissions insurance.
(E) Information concerning workers’ compensation experience history and a worker safety program.
(F) If the proposed design-build entity is a corporation, limited liability company, partnership, joint venture, or other legal entity, a copy of the organizational documents or agreement committing to form the organization.
(G) An acceptable safety record. A proposer’s safety record shall be deemed acceptable if its experience modification rate for the most recent three-year period is an average of 1.00 or less, and its average total recordable injury or illness rate and average lost work rate for the most recent three-year period does not exceed the applicable statistical standards for its business category, or if the proposer is a party to an alternative dispute resolution system, as provided for in Section 3201.5 of the Labor Code.
(4) (A) The information required under this subdivision shall be certified under penalty of perjury by the design-build entity and its general partners or joint venture members.
(B) Information required under this subdivision that is not otherwise a public record under the California Public Records Act (Division 10 (commencing with Section 7920.000) of Title 1 of the Government Code) shall not be open to public inspection.
(c) (1) A design-build entity shall not be prequalified or shortlisted unless the entity provides an enforceable commitment to the school district that the entity and its subcontractors at every tier will use a skilled and trained workforce to perform all work on the project or contract that falls within an apprenticeable occupation in the building and construction trades, in accordance with Chapter 2.9 (commencing with Section 2600) of Part 1 of Division 2 of the Public Contract Code.
(2) This subdivision shall not apply if any of the following requirements are met:
(A) The school district has entered into a project labor agreement that will bind all contractors and subcontractors performing work on the project or contract to use a skilled and trained workforce, and the entity agrees to be bound by that project labor agreement.
(B) The project or contract is being performed under the extension or renewal of a project labor agreement that was entered into by the school district before January 1, 2023.
(C) The entity has entered into a project labor agreement that will bind the entity and all its subcontractors at every tier performing the project or contract to use a skilled and trained workforce.
(3) For purposes of this subdivision, “project labor agreement” has the same meaning as in paragraph (1) of subdivision (b) of Section 2500 of the Public Contract Code.
(d) Based on the documents prepared as described in subdivision (a), the school district shall prepare a request for proposals that invites prequalified or shortlisted entities to submit competitive sealed proposals in the manner prescribed by the school district. The request for proposals shall include, but need not be limited to, the following elements:
(1) Identification of the basic scope and needs of the project or contract, the estimated cost of the project, the methodology that will be used by the school district to evaluate proposals, whether the contract will be awarded on the basis of low bid or best value, and any other information deemed necessary by the school district to inform interested parties of the contracting opportunity.
(2) Significant factors that the school district reasonably expects to consider in evaluating proposals, including, but not limited to, cost or price and all nonprice-related factors.
(3) The relative importance or the weight assigned to each of the factors identified in the request for proposals.
(4) Where a best value selection method is used, the school district may reserve the right to request proposal revisions and hold discussions and negotiations with responsive proposers, in which case the school district shall so specify in the request for proposals and shall publish separately or incorporate into the request for proposals applicable procedures to be observed by the school district to ensure that any discussions or negotiations are conducted in good faith.
(e) For those projects using low bid as the final selection method, the competitive bidding process shall result in lump-sum bids by the prequalified or shortlisted design-build entities, and awards shall be made to the design-build entity that is the lowest responsible bidder.
(f) For those projects using best value as a selection method, the alternative design-build competition shall progress as follows:
(1) Competitive proposals shall be evaluated by using only the criteria and selection procedures specifically identified in the request for proposals. The following minimum factors, however, shall be weighted as deemed appropriate by the school district:
(A) The proposing design-build entity’s design cost, general conditions, overhead, and profit as a component of the project price, unless a stipulated sum is specified.
(B) Technical design and construction expertise.
(C) Life-cycle costs over 15 or more years.
(2) Pursuant to subdivision (d), the school district may hold discussions or negotiations with responsive proposers using the process articulated in the school district’s request for proposals.
(3) When the evaluation is complete, the responsive proposers shall be ranked based on a determination of value provided, provided that no more than three proposers are required to be ranked.
(4) The award of the contract shall be made to the responsible design-build entity whose proposal is determined by the school district to have offered the best value to the public.
(5) Notwithstanding any other law, upon issuance of a contract award, the school district shall publicly announce its award, identifying the design-build entity to which the award is made, along with a statement regarding the basis of the award. The contract awarded shall be subject to further negotiation and amendment pursuant to subdivision (c) of Section 17250.65.
(6) The statement regarding the school district’s contract award, described in paragraph (5), and the contract file shall provide sufficient information to satisfy an external audit.
(g) A contract awarded pursuant to this chapter shall be deemed a construction contract within the meaning of Section 17603, and subject to the requirements of Section 20118.4 of the Public Contract Code. For purposes of this section, “original contract price,” as used in Section 20118.4 of the Public Contract Code, means the negotiated price established pursuant to subdivision (c) of Section 17250.65.

SEC. 27.

 Section 20091 of the Education Code is amended to read:

20091.
 To the extent that funding is available for such purposes, the endowment shall establish a competitive grant program to assist and enhance the services of museums in the state that undertake programs and projects that are deeply rooted in and reflective of underserved communities. This program shall give priority to those programs and projects doing any of the following:
(a) Serving pupils and teachers at schools eligible to be served under Part A of Title I of the federal Elementary and Secondary Education Act (20 U.S.C. Sec. 6301 et seq.), as amended by the federal Every Student Succeeds Act (Public Law 114-95).
(b) Serving children in low-income communities.
(c) Supporting museums in engaging or collaborating with underserved communities, including, but not limited to, people with disabilities and low-income families.
(d) Advancing preservation of at-risk cultural and natural collections and historic buildings. For purposes of this subdivision, “at-risk” refers to the potential for loss or deterioration due to forces, including, but not limited to, fires, harmful temperatures, humidity, earthquakes, improper handling, neglect, theft, vandalism, or exposure to water, pests, contaminants, light, or radiation.
(e) Improving access, including, but not limited to, accommodating the access needs of people with disabilities, to historic buildings, cultural sites, or museums.
(f) Supporting the ethical stewardship of culturally sensitive art and artifacts, including, but not limited to, engaging in consultations with California Indian tribes or repatriation.
(g) Educating the public about critical issues affecting Californians.

SEC. 28.

 Section 41329 of the Education Code is amended to read:

41329.
 (a) A school district under financial distress, as defined in subdivision (b), shall do all of the following before approving the closure or consolidation of a school of the school district:
(1) In deciding what schools to close or consolidate, the governing board of the school district shall conduct an equity impact analysis in its consideration of school closures or consolidations. The governing board of the school district shall develop a set of metrics for the development of the equity impact analysis and make those metrics public at a regularly scheduled meeting of the governing board of the school district so that the public can provide input regarding the metrics being used to conduct the analysis. The metrics shall include, but are not limited to, all of the following:
(A) The condition of a school facility.
(B) The operating cost of a school and the associated savings resulting from a closure or consolidation.
(C) The capacity of a school to accommodate excess pupils.
(D) Special programs available at the schools being considered for closure or consolidation and whether those programs will be provided at the same current level at the schools to which pupils will be diverted.
(E) Environmental factors, including, but not limited to, traffic and proximity to freeway access.
(F) Balance of pupil demographics, including race or ethnicity, pupils with disabilities, English learners, foster youth, and homeless youth, in the schools being considered for closure or consolidation, and the resulting demographic balance of pupils after placement in other schools, in order to determine if the decision to close or consolidate will have a disproportionate impact on any particular demographic group.
(G) Transportation needs of pupils.
(H) Aesthetics and the opportunity for blight and negative impact on the surrounding community.
(I) Impact on feeder school attendance patterns with the closure of any particular school and whether the closure will attenuate attendance at other schools or specialized programs as a result.
(2) (A) The governing board of the school district shall provide its recommendations regarding school closures and consolidations to the public at a regularly scheduled meeting and share how it prepared its list and include, at a minimum, all of the following information:
(i) Factors used to identify the list of school closures or consolidations.
(ii) Equity impact analysis findings for each school closure or consolidation.
(iii) Plan for the use of the schools proposed for closure or consolidation once it becomes a vacated facility.
(iv) Criteria used to assign displaced pupils to other schoolsites, or a description of the process of reassignment that will be used by the school district.
(v) Options and timeline for transitioning pupils to their new schools, including improving safe routes to schools and home-to-school transportation needs.
(B) The governing board of the school district shall review and consider the feedback presented at the public meeting and make its decision on any school closures or consolidations at a subsequently scheduled regular meeting.
(C) At the subsequent regularly scheduled meeting, the governing board of the school district shall present its final recommendation for school closures or consolidations, which shall include a review of how public input was incorporated into the final recommendation. Any affirmative action by the governing board of the school district to implement a school closure or consolidation shall be made only after it adopts a resolution concluding that the community engagement process required pursuant to this section has been completed.
(D) (i) Upon an affirmative action by the governing board of the school district to implement a school closure or consolidation, the school district shall provide information to parents and pupils in multiple formats, including, but not limited to, email and paper notifications.
(ii) Notifications to parents shall be translated into their primary language pursuant to Section 48985.
(iii) The information shall include all of the following:
(I) The date of the approved closure or consolidation.
(II) The pupil’s new school assignment, as applicable.
(III) School district resources for pupils and parents to support the pupil’s transition.
(IV) School district contacts for additional information.
(b) For purposes of this section, “financial distress” means a school district with an emergency apportionment pursuant to Article 2 (commencing with Section 41320) or this article, a trustee appointed pursuant to Article 2 (commencing with Section 41320), or an administrator appointed pursuant to this article.
(c) For purposes of this section, “governing board of a school district” includes a trustee appointed pursuant to Article 2 (commencing with Section 41320), or an administrator appointed pursuant to this article.
(d) This section does not apply to a school district’s closure of a school due solely to the unsafe condition of the school’s facilities.
(e) The process outlined pursuant to this section shall not take more than 12 months from the initiation of the equity impact analysis pursuant to paragraph (1) of subdivision (a) to the notification to parents of the final determination of the governing board of the school district pursuant to subparagraph (D) of paragraph (2) of subdivision (a).
(f) This section shall become inoperative on July 1, 2028, and, as of January 1, 2029, is repealed.

SEC. 29.

 Section 41490 of the Education Code is amended to read:

41490.
 (a) For the 2021–22 fiscal year, the sum of fifty million dollars ($50,000,000) is hereby appropriated from the General Fund to the Superintendent to apportion to the Orange County Department of Education in the manner, and for the purposes, set forth in this section. The Orange County Department of Education shall encumber or expend the funds apportioned pursuant to this subdivision on or before June 30, 2026.
(b) The Orange County Department of Education, in consultation with the Superintendent and the executive director of the state board, shall award no less than thirty million dollars ($30,000,000) of the amount appropriated in subdivision (a) as grants to local educational agencies for the purpose of funding schoolwide and districtwide implementation of services or practices aligned to the Multi-Tiered Systems of Support framework developed under the “Scale Up MTSS Statewide” (SUMS) project. The grants shall be awarded to local educational agencies on or before December 15, 2021. Any funds not awarded on or before December 15, 2021, shall be available for the Orange County Department of Education, in consultation with the Superintendent and the executive director of the state board, to award as grants to local educational agencies on or before December 15, 2022.
(1) Grant funds awarded to local educational agencies shall be used to support the implementation of high quality integrated academic, behavioral, and social-emotional learning practices in an integrated multitiered system of support at the schoolwide level, including, but not limited to, all of the following:
(A) Educator and leader training on the foundations of the California Multi-Tiered System of Support framework and practices, as developed by the SUMS project.
(B) Ongoing training and coaching support to schoolsite educators and leaders in deepening the implementation of high leverage practices for integrated academic, behavioral, and social-emotional learning across tiers throughout the school community.
(C) Ongoing training and support to school and local educational agency leaders in aligning practices, policies, and structures to create and sustain a schoolwide and agencywide integrated multitiered system of support.
(D) Establishing school- and local educational agency-level multitiered system of support teams to support implementation efforts.
(2) Grants shall be awarded with priority to local educational agencies serving a high number of unduplicated pupils, as defined in Section 42238.02, that have participated in local educational agency-level training to implement an integrated multitiered system of support.
(3) Local educational agencies receiving funds shall measure and report on implementation fidelity at least annually using the tools and resources developed by the SUMS project. Data shall be reported to the Orange County Department of Education in a form available to the public.
(4) (A) On or before September 30 of each fiscal year until the Orange County Department of Education has fully expended the funds allocated pursuant to this subdivision, the Orange County Department of Education shall submit an annual report to the Superintendent summarizing how it used the funds in the prior fiscal year. The Superintendent shall provide copies of these reports to the appropriate fiscal and policy committees of the Legislature, the Department of Finance, the state board, and the Legislative Analyst’s Office.
(B) A report to be submitted pursuant to subparagraph (A) shall be submitted in compliance with Section 9795 of the Government Code.
(c) (1) The Superintendent shall establish a process, in consultation with and subject to the approval of the executive director of the state board, to select a local educational agency, a local educational agency in partnership with an institution of higher education or nonprofit educational service provider, or a consortia, to partner with the Orange County Department of Education and the Butte County Office of Education to expand the state’s capacity to support local educational agencies’ implementation of social-emotional learning, trauma screening, trauma-informed practices, and culturally relevant, affirming, and sustaining practices. The selected entity, known as a partner entity, shall be selected on or before February 15, 2022. No more than twenty million dollars ($20,000,000) of the amount appropriated in subdivision (a) is available for purposes of this subdivision.
(2) The partner entity shall have demonstrated expertise in developing and delivering high quality professional learning to educators in social-emotional learning, trauma-informed practices, and culturally relevant, affirming, and sustaining practices in a manner that aligns with local multitiered systems of support. The partner entity shall support the Orange County Department of Education and the Butte County Office of Education in offering high quality professional learning to educators and school leaders by performing all of the following functions:
(A) Creating, collecting, and curating resources for educators on social-emotional learning, trauma screening, trauma-informed practices, and culturally relevant, affirming, and sustaining practices.
(B) Providing ongoing training and support in the use of trauma screening tools and mental health service referrals, school climate surveys, and the use of tool and survey data.
(C) Providing grants to local educational agencies to support both of the following:
(i) Convening professional learning communities of educators and school leaders.
(ii) Providing ongoing training and coaching to educators and school leaders.
(3) In performing the work described in this subdivision, the partner entity, in partnership with the Orange County Department of Education and the Butte County Office of Education, shall, to the extent practicable, leverage current research and work related to how educators and school leaders can best address the social-emotional needs of pupils, and consult with experts in the field on matters related to trauma screening and trauma-informed practices.
(4) For purposes of this subdivision, “high quality professional learning” shall include, but not be limited to, professional learning that is content-focused, incorporates active learning using adult learning theory, supports collaboration in job-embedded contexts, uses models and modeling of effective practices, provides coaching and expert support, and offers opportunities for feedback.
(d) A local educational agency that receives a grant pursuant to subdivision (b), or high quality professional learning pursuant to subdivision (c), shall, as a condition of receiving the grant or high quality professional learning, provide to the Orange County Department of Education, the Butte County Office of Education, and the department any available outcome data resulting from the practices implemented, and participate in overall program evaluation.
(e) The Orange County Department of Education may expend up to one million dollars ($1,000,000) of the amount appropriated pursuant to subdivision (a) to support the administration of grants and provide support to the grantees pursuant to Department of Finance approval of an expenditure plan. The Orange County Department of Education shall not expend moneys pursuant to this subdivision sooner than 30 days after the Department of Finance provides written notification of the approval of the expenditure plan to the Joint Legislative Budget Committee.
(f) For purposes of this section, “local educational agency” means a school district, county office of education, or charter school.
(g) For purposes of making the computations required by Section 8 of Article XVI of the California Constitution, the appropriation made by subdivision (a) shall be deemed to be “General Fund revenues appropriated for school districts,” as defined in subdivision (c) of Section 41202, for the 2020–21 fiscal year, and included within the “total allocations to school districts and community college districts from General Fund proceeds of taxes appropriated pursuant to Article XIII B,” as defined in subdivision (e) of Section 41202, for the 2020–21 fiscal year.

SEC. 30.

 Section 41585 of the Education Code is amended to read:

41585.
 (a) Contingent upon an appropriation by the Legislature in the annual Budget Act or another statute, the department, in consultation with the office of the Chancellor of the California Community Colleges, shall, beginning on or before January 1, 2023, administer a competitive grant program to do all of the following:
(1) Enable more local educational agencies to establish either middle college or early college high schools that provide pupils with access to obtain college credits while enrolled in high school.
(2) Provide incentives for local educational agencies to establish dual enrollment course opportunities that are consistent with the requirements of Section 76004.
(3) Enable local educational agencies with existing middle college or early college high schools or College and Career Access Pathways partnerships established pursuant to Section 76004, to couple robust pupil advising and success supports with dual enrollment opportunities and establish outreach campaigns to promote dual enrollment for new or existing middle college or early college high schools or College and Career Access Pathways partnerships established pursuant to Section 76004. For local educational agencies with College and Career Access Pathways partnerships, outreach shall be focused toward families and pupils who may not be college bound or who are underrepresented in higher education.
(b) (1) Of the funds appropriated in support of this grant program, the Superintendent shall provide approved applicants with either or both of the following, as applicable:
(A) A one-time grant of up to two hundred fifty thousand dollars ($250,000) to support the costs to plan for, and start up, a middle college or early college high school that is located on the campus of a local educational agency, a partnering community college, or other location determined by the local partnership, and that is consistent with the specifications of Chapter 14 (commencing with Section 11300) of Part 7 of Division 1 of Title 1.
(B) A one-time grant of up to one hundred thousand dollars ($100,000) to establish a College and Career Access Pathways dual enrollment partnership agreement that is consistent with the requirements of Section 76004 and to enable pupils at the participating high school to access dual enrollment opportunities pursuant to the College and Career Access Pathways partnership agreement.
(2) Nothing shall preclude a local educational agency from using any unexpended funds received for the purposes of subparagraph (A) or (B) of paragraph (1) from using those funds to collaborate with their partner community college to access pupil advising and success support services offered by the partner community college district.
(3) A local educational agency may request grants from either or both of the opportunities specified in subparagraphs (A) and (B) of paragraph (1).
(c) The funds appropriated in the annual Budget Act or other statute for purposes of this section shall be distributed, approximately, in the following manner:
(1) Up to 50 percent shall be available for the purposes of subparagraph (A) of paragraph (1) of subdivision (b).
(2) Up to 50 percent shall be available for the purposes of subparagraph (B) of paragraph (1) of subdivision (b).
(d) (1) A local educational agency seeking a grant under this section shall submit an application to the Superintendent at a time, in a manner, and with any appropriate information, as the Superintendent may reasonably require, including, but not limited to, evidence of an existing or planned partnership with an institution of higher education for the creation of the dual enrollment program.
(2) The Superintendent shall give priority to available grant funds to support applications from local educational agencies that display any of the following characteristics:
(A) Fifty percent or more of the enrolled pupils at the local educational agency are unduplicated pupils, as defined in Section 42238.02.
(B) The local educational agency has a higher than state average dropout rate.
(C) The local educational agency has a higher than state average rate of suspension and a higher than state average rate of expulsion.
(D) The local educational agency has higher than state average rates of child homelessness, foster youth, or justice-involved youth.
(E) The local educational agency has a lower than state average rate of pupils completing all of the A–G courses required to be eligible for admission to the University of California or the California State University.
(3) To ensure funds are disbursed in a timely manner, the Superintendent shall begin disbursing funds for approved applicants on or before December 1, 2023.
(e) (1) It is the intent of the Legislature that courses offered to high school pupils in dual enrollment programs pursuant to this section are part of structured, well-sequenced pathways and count toward postsecondary certificate or degree requirements, and are counted toward high school graduation requirements in equivalent subject areas.
(2) It is the intent of the Legislature that courses offered to high school pupils pursuant to a College and Career Access Pathways partnership agreement established by Section 76004 are part of structured, well-sequenced pathways and consist of transfer-level courses, unless one of the following occurs:
(A) The pupil elects to participate in a degree or certificate pathway that is not met with transfer-level courses.
(B) The pupil, in mathematics, English, or both, in grade 10 or 11, would warrant access to innovative remediation coursework, as determined by the partnering school district, county office of education, or charter school. The pupil may be placed into an innovative remediation course during their first year of participating in the College and Career Access Pathways partnership agreement as an intervention taken to ensure the pupil is on track to satisfactorily complete state and any local graduation requirements, as determined by the school district, county office of education, or charter school, and is prepared for transfer-level coursework at a community college upon graduation.
(f) On or before June 30, 2024, and on or before June 30, 2027, the department shall prepare a summary of how the funds in this section were disbursed and used to further the goals listed in subdivision (a), and shall submit the summary to the Department of Finance, the Joint Legislative Budget Committee, the Senate Committee on Education, the Assembly Committee on Higher Education, and the Assembly Committee on Education. The summary shall include all of the following information:
(1) The number of grants awarded, disaggregated by local educational agency.
(2) A qualitative description of how the funding was used by local educational agencies to accomplish the goals listed in subdivision (a).
(3) The total number of high school pupils by schoolsite enrolled in dual enrollment programs, disaggregated by participation in middle college high school, early college high school, College and Career Access Pathways, and other dual enrollment programs.
(4) The total number of community college courses by course category taken by pupils participating in middle college high school, early college high school, College and Career Access Pathways, and other dual enrollment programs.
(5) The total number of successful course completions by course category, disaggregated by participation in middle college high school, early college high school, College and Career Access Pathways, and other dual enrollment programs.
(6)  Course and program outcomes for pupils who were enrolled in dual enrollment programs, disaggregated by grade level, gender, socioeconomic status, race and ethnicity, and other disproportionately impacted groups.
(g) It is the intent of the Legislature that, upon the implementation of the California Cradle-to-Career Data System established in Section 10860, future data and outcome reporting on dual enrollment programs shall be linked through, and conducted in accordance with, the privacy requirements of the California Cradle-to-Career Data System.
(h) For purposes of this article, “local educational agency” means a school district, charter school, or county office of education.

SEC. 31.

 Section 42238.01 of the Education Code is amended to read:

42238.01.
 For purposes of Section 42238.02, the following definitions shall apply:
(a) (1) “Eligible for free or reduced-price meals” means determined to meet federal income eligibility criteria, either through completing an application for the federal National School Lunch Program or through an alternative household income data collection form, or deemed to be categorically eligible for free or reduced-price meals under the federal National School Lunch Program, as described in Part 245 of Title 7 of the Code of Federal Regulations.
(2) (A) A school participating in a special assistance alternative authorized by Section 11(a)(1) of the federal Richard B. Russell National School Lunch Act (Public Law 113-79), including Provision 2, Provision 3, or the Community Eligibility Provision, may establish a base year for purposes of the local control funding formula by doing either of the following:
(i) Determining the pupils at the school who are eligible for free or reduced-price meals and using each pupil’s eligibility status in that base year to report eligibility for up to each of the following three school years.
(ii) Carrying forward eligibility for pupils eligible for free or reduced-price meals from the school year in which the school applied to use a federal universal school meal provision, and using each pupil’s eligibility status from the application year to report eligibility for up to each of the following three school years.
(B) The school may include between base year eligibility determinations, any newly enrolled pupils who are determined to be eligible for free or reduced-price meals or any current pupils found to be newly eligible for free or reduced-price meals as identified through a local or state direct certification match or another categorical designation.
(3) A school that uses the special assistance alternative shall maintain information on each pupil’s eligibility status and annually submit information on that status in the California Longitudinal Pupil Achievement Data System pursuant to paragraph (2) of subdivision (b) of Section 42238.02 or subparagraph (A) of paragraph (3) of subdivision (b) of Section 2574, as applicable.
(4) For a pupil who transfers to a school using a special assistance alternative and who is transferring between schools within the same school district, documentation supporting eligibility for that pupil for purposes of the local control funding formula may be transferred from the pupil’s old school to the pupil’s new school, as long as the documentation supporting eligibility for that pupil is less than four years old and is updated at least once every four years.
(5) To the extent permitted by federal law, a school may choose to establish a new base year for purposes of the federal National School Lunch Program at the same time the school establishes a new base year for purposes of the local control funding formula. A school may use federal National School Lunch Program application forms to collect household income data as permitted under the federal National School Lunch Program. If the use of federal National School Lunch Program application forms is not permitted, a school shall use alternative household income data collection forms.
(6) An alternative household income data collection form shall be confidential and shall not be shared by the school other than as necessary for purposes of determining funding allocations under the local control funding formula and for assessing the accountability of that funding. An alternative household income data collection form shall contain, at a minimum, all of the following information:
(A) Information sufficient to identify the pupil or pupils.
(B) Information sufficient to determine that the pupil or household meets federal income eligibility criteria sufficient to qualify for either a free or reduced-priced meal under the federal Richard B. Russell National School Lunch Act (Public Law 113-79).
(C) Certification that the information is true and correct by the pupil’s adult household member.
(7) Paragraphs (2) and (4) are effective commencing with the 2014–15 fiscal year.
(b) “Foster youth” means any of the following:
(1) A child who is the subject of a petition filed pursuant to Section 300 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, whether or not the child has been removed from the child’s home by the juvenile court pursuant to Section 319 or 361 of the Welfare and Institutions Code.
(2) A child who is the subject of a petition filed pursuant to Section 602 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, has been removed from the child’s home by the juvenile court pursuant to Section 727 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, and is in foster care as defined by subdivision (d) of Section 727.4 of the Welfare and Institutions Code.
(3) A nonminor under the transition jurisdiction of the juvenile court, as described in Section 450 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, who satisfies all of the following criteria:
(A) The nonminor has attained 18 years of age while under an order of foster care placement by the juvenile court, and is not more than 19 years of age on or after January 1, 2012, not more than 20 years of age on or after January 1, 2013, and not more than 21 years of age, on or after January 1, 2014, and as described in Section 10103.5 of the Welfare and Institutions Code.
(B) The nonminor is in foster care under the placement and care responsibility of the county welfare department, county probation department, Indian tribe, consortium of tribes, or tribal organization that entered into an agreement pursuant to Section 10553.1 of the Welfare and Institutions Code.
(C) The nonminor is participating in a transitional independent living case plan pursuant to Section 475(8) of the federal Social Security Act (42 U.S.C. Sec. 675), as contained in the federal Fostering Connections to Success and Increasing Adoptions Act of 2008 (Public Law 110-351), as described in Section 11403 of the Welfare and Institutions Code.
(4) A dependent child of the court of an Indian tribe, consortium of tribes, or tribal organization who is the subject of a petition filed in the tribal court pursuant to the tribal court’s jurisdiction in accordance with the tribe’s law.
(5) A child who is the subject of a voluntary placement agreement, as defined in subdivision (p) of Section 11400 of the Welfare and Institutions Code.
(c) “Pupils of limited English proficiency” means pupils who do not have the clearly developed English language skills of comprehension, speaking, reading, and writing necessary to receive instruction only in English at a level substantially equivalent to pupils of the same age or grade whose primary language is English. “English learner” shall have the same meaning as provided for in subdivision (a) of Section 306 and as “pupils of limited English proficiency.”

SEC. 32.

 Section 42238.5 of the Education Code is amended to read:

42238.5.
 (a) For purposes of Section 42238, the fiscal year average daily attendance shall be computed pursuant to paragraph (1) or (2).
(1) The second principal apportionment regular average daily attendance for either the current or prior fiscal year, whichever is greater. However, prior fiscal year average daily attendance shall be adjusted for any loss or gain of average daily attendance due to a reorganization or transfer of territory.
(2) Any school district that elects to receive funding pursuant to Article 4 (commencing with Section 42280) shall compute its units of average daily attendance for purposes of Section 42238 by subtracting the amount determined in subparagraph (B) from the amount determined in subparagraph (A).
(A) The units of average daily attendance computed pursuant to paragraph (1).
(B) The units of average daily attendance resulting from pupils attending schools funded pursuant to Article 4 (commencing with Section 42280).
(b) For purposes of this article, regular average daily attendance shall be the base revenue limit average daily attendance, excluding summer school average daily attendance.
(c) For purposes of this section, for the 1998–99 fiscal year only, the prior year average daily attendance shall be the 1997–98 regular average daily attendance, excluding absences excused pursuant to subdivision (b) of Section 46010, as that subdivision read on July 1, 1996.
(d) Commencing with the 2013–14 fiscal year, this section shall be used only for purposes of allocating revenues received pursuant to subparagraph (B) of paragraph (3) of subdivision (e) of Section 36 of Article XIII of the California Constitution.
(e) This section shall become inoperative on July 1, 2033, and, as of January 1, 2034, is repealed.

SEC. 33.

 Section 45301 of the Education Code is amended to read:

45301.
 (a) A person who has served an initial probationary period in a class not to exceed six months or 130 days of paid service, whichever is longer, as prescribed by the rules of the commission shall be deemed to be in the permanent classified service, except that the commission may establish a probationary period in a class not to exceed one year for classes designated by the commission as executive, administrative, or police classes. To receive permanent classified service status, each full-time peace officer and public safety dispatcher employed by a school district operating a dispatch center certified by the Commission on Peace Officer Standards and Training shall serve in a probationary status for a period not less than one year from their date of appointment to that full-time position.
(b) An employee shall not attain permanent status in the classified service until the employee has completed a probationary period in a class. A permanent employee who accepts a promotion and fails to complete the probationary period for that promotional position shall be employed in the classification from which the employee was promoted. In any case the rules of the commission may provide for the exclusion of time while employees are on a leave of absence. The rights of appeal from disciplinary action before attainment of permanent status in the classified service shall be in accordance with Section 45305.
(c) To the extent that this section, as amended by Senate Bill 874 of the 2021–22 Regular Session, conflicts with a provision of a collective bargaining agreement entered into by a public school employer and an exclusive bargaining representative before January 1, 2023, pursuant to Chapter 10.7 (commencing with Section 3540) of Division 4 of Title 1 of the Government Code, the changes made to this section by Senate Bill 874 of the 2021–22 Regular Session shall not apply to the school district until expiration or renewal of that collective bargaining agreement.

SEC. 34.

 Section 47605 of the Education Code is amended to read:

47605.
 (a) (1) Except as set forth in paragraph (2), a petition for the establishment of a charter school within a school district may be circulated by one or more persons seeking to establish the charter school. A petition for the establishment of a charter school shall identify a single charter school that will operate within the geographic boundaries of that school district. A charter school may propose to operate at multiple sites within the school district if each location is identified in the charter school petition. The petition may be submitted to the governing board of the school district for review after either of the following conditions is met:
(A) The petition is signed by a number of parents or legal guardians of pupils that is equivalent to at least one-half of the number of pupils that the charter school estimates will enroll in the charter school for its first year of operation.
(B) The petition is signed by a number of teachers that is equivalent to at least one-half of the number of teachers that the charter school estimates will be employed at the charter school during its first year of operation.
(2) A petition that proposes to convert an existing public school to a charter school that would not be eligible for a loan pursuant to subdivision (c) of Section 41365 may be circulated by one or more persons seeking to establish the charter school. The petition may be submitted to the governing board of the school district for review after the petition is signed by not less than 50 percent of the permanent status teachers currently employed at the public school to be converted.
(3) A petition shall include a prominent statement that a signature on the petition means that the parent or legal guardian is meaningfully interested in having their child or ward attend the charter school, or in the case of a teacher’s signature, means that the teacher is meaningfully interested in teaching at the charter school. The proposed charter shall be attached to the petition.
(4) After receiving approval of its petition, a charter school that proposes to expand operations to one or more additional sites or grade levels shall request a material revision to its charter and shall notify the chartering authority of those additional locations or grade levels. The chartering authority shall consider whether to approve those additional locations or grade levels at an open, public meeting. If the additional locations or grade levels are approved pursuant to the standards and criteria described in subdivision (c), they shall be a material revision to the charter school’s charter.
(5) (A) A charter school that established one site outside the boundaries of the school district, but within the county in which that school district is located before January 1, 2020, may continue to operate that site until the charter school submits a request for the renewal of its charter petition. To continue operating the site, the charter school shall do either of the following:
(i) First, before submitting the request for the renewal of the charter petition, obtain approval in writing from the school district where the site is operating.
(ii) Submit a request for the renewal of the charter petition pursuant to Section 47607 to the school district in which the charter school is located.
(B) If a Presidential declaration of a major disaster or emergency is issued in accordance with the federal Robert T. Stafford Disaster Relief and Emergency Assistance Act (42 U.S.C. Sec. 5121 et seq.) for an area in which a charter schoolsite is located and operating, the charter school, for not more than five years, may relocate that site outside the area subject to the Presidential declaration if the charter school first obtains the written approval of the school district where the site is being relocated to.
(C) Notwithstanding subparagraph (A), if a charter school was relocated from December 31, 2016, to December 31, 2019, inclusive, due to a Presidential declaration of a major disaster or emergency in accordance with the federal Robert T. Stafford Disaster Relief and Emergency Assistance Act (42 U.S.C. Sec. 5121 et seq.), that charter school shall be allowed to return to its original campus location in perpetuity.
(D) (i) A charter school in operation and providing educational services to pupils before October 1, 2019, located on a federally recognized California Indian reservation or rancheria or operated by a federally recognized California Indian tribe shall be exempt from the geographic restrictions of paragraph (1) and subparagraph (A) of this paragraph and the geographic restrictions of subdivision (a) of Section 47605.1.
(ii) The exemption to the geographic restrictions of subdivision (a) of 47605.1 in clause (i) does not apply to nonclassroom-based charter schools operating pursuant to Section 47612.5.
(E) The department shall regard as a continuing charter school for all purposes a charter school that was granted approval of its petition, that was providing educational services to pupils before October 1, 2019, and is authorized by a different chartering authority due to changes to this paragraph that took effect January 1, 2020. This paragraph shall be implemented only to the extent it does not conflict with federal law. In order to prevent any potential conflict with federal law, this paragraph does not apply to covered programs as identified in Section 8101(11) of the federal Elementary and Secondary Education Act of 1965 (20 U.S.C. Sec. 7801) to the extent the affected charter school is the restructured portion of a divided charter school pursuant to Section 47654.
(6) Commencing January 1, 2003, a petition to establish a charter school shall not be approved to serve pupils in a grade level that is not served by the school district of the governing board considering the petition, unless the petition proposes to serve pupils in all of the grade levels served by that school district.
(b) No later than 60 days after receiving a petition, in accordance with subdivision (a), the governing board of the school district shall hold a public hearing on the provisions of the charter, at which time the governing board of the school district shall consider the level of support for the petition by teachers employed by the school district, other employees of the school district, and parents. Following review of the petition and the public hearing, the governing board of the school district shall either grant or deny the charter within 90 days of receipt of the petition, provided, however, that the date may be extended by an additional 30 days if both parties agree to the extension. A petition is deemed received by the governing board of the school district for purposes of commencing the timelines described in this subdivision on the day the petitioner submits a petition to the district office, along with a signed certification that the petitioner deems the petition to be complete. The governing board of the school district shall publish all staff recommendations, including the recommended findings and, if applicable, the certification from the county superintendent of schools prepared pursuant to paragraph (8) of subdivision (c), regarding the petition at least 15 days before the public hearing at which the governing board of the school district will either grant or deny the charter. At the public hearing at which the governing board of the school district will either grant or deny the charter, petitioners shall have equivalent time and procedures to present evidence and testimony to respond to the staff recommendations and findings.
(c) In reviewing petitions for the establishment of charter schools pursuant to this section, the chartering authority shall be guided by the intent of the Legislature that charter schools are and should become an integral part of the California educational system and that the establishment of charter schools should be encouraged. The governing board of the school district shall grant a charter for the operation of a school under this part if it is satisfied that granting the charter is consistent with sound educational practice and with the interests of the community in which the school is proposing to locate. The governing board of the school district shall consider the academic needs of the pupils the school proposes to serve. The governing board of the school district shall not deny a petition for the establishment of a charter school unless it makes written factual findings, specific to the particular petition, setting forth specific facts to support one or more of the following findings:
(1) The charter school presents an unsound educational program for the pupils to be enrolled in the charter school.
(2) The petitioners are demonstrably unlikely to successfully implement the program set forth in the petition.
(3) The petition does not contain the number of signatures required by subdivision (a).
(4) The petition does not contain an affirmation of each of the conditions described in subdivision (e).
(5) The petition does not contain reasonably comprehensive descriptions of all of the following:
(A) (i) The educational program of the charter school, designed, among other things, to identify those whom the charter school is attempting to educate, what it means to be an “educated person” in the 21st century, and how learning best occurs. The goals identified in that program shall include the objective of enabling pupils to become self-motivated, competent, and lifelong learners.
(ii) The annual goals for the charter school for all pupils and for each subgroup of pupils identified pursuant to Section 52052, to be achieved in the state priorities, as described in subdivision (d) of Section 52060, that apply for the grade levels served, and specific annual actions to achieve those goals. A charter petition may identify additional school priorities, the goals for the school priorities, and the specific annual actions to achieve those goals.
(iii) If the proposed charter school will serve high school pupils, the manner in which the charter school will inform parents about the transferability of courses to other public high schools and the eligibility of courses to meet college entrance requirements. Courses offered by the charter school that are accredited by the Western Association of Schools and Colleges may be considered transferable and courses approved by the University of California or the California State University as creditable under the “A to G” admissions criteria may be considered to meet college entrance requirements.
(B) The measurable pupil outcomes identified for use by the charter school. “Pupil outcomes,” for purposes of this part, means the extent to which all pupils of the charter school demonstrate that they have attained the skills, knowledge, and attitudes specified as goals in the charter school’s educational program. Pupil outcomes shall include outcomes that address increases in pupil academic achievement both schoolwide and for all pupil subgroups served by the charter school, as that term is defined in subdivision (a) of Section 52052. The pupil outcomes shall align with the state priorities, as described in subdivision (d) of Section 52060, that apply for the grade levels served by the charter school.
(C) The method by which pupil progress in meeting those pupil outcomes is to be measured. To the extent practicable, the method for measuring pupil outcomes for state priorities shall be consistent with the way information is reported on a school accountability report card.
(D) The governance structure of the charter school, including, but not limited to, the process to be followed by the charter school to ensure parental involvement.
(E) The qualifications to be met by individuals to be employed by the charter school.
(F) The procedures that the charter school will follow to ensure the health and safety of pupils and staff. These procedures shall require all of the following:
(i) That each employee of the charter school furnish the charter school with a criminal record summary as described in Section 44237.
(ii) The development of a school safety plan, which shall include the safety topics listed in subparagraphs (A) to (J), inclusive, of paragraph (2) of subdivision (a) of Section 32282.
(iii) That the school safety plan be reviewed and updated by March 1 of every year by the charter school.
(G) The means by which the charter school will achieve a balance of racial and ethnic pupils, special education pupils, and English learner pupils, including redesignated fluent English proficient pupils, as defined by the evaluation rubrics in Section 52064.5, that is reflective of the general population residing within the territorial jurisdiction of the school district to which the charter petition is submitted. Upon renewal, for a charter school not deemed to be a local educational agency for purposes of special education pursuant to Section 47641, the chartering authority may consider the effect of school placements made by the chartering authority in providing a free and appropriate public education as required by the federal Individuals with Disabilities Education Act (Public Law 101-476), on the balance of pupils with disabilities at the charter school.
(H) Admission policies and procedures, consistent with subdivision (e).
(I) The manner in which annual, independent financial audits shall be conducted, which shall employ generally accepted accounting principles, and the manner in which audit exceptions and deficiencies shall be resolved to the satisfaction of the chartering authority.
(J) The procedures by which pupils can be suspended or expelled from the charter school for disciplinary reasons or otherwise involuntarily removed from the charter school for any reason. These procedures, at a minimum, shall include an explanation of how the charter school will comply with federal and state constitutional procedural and substantive due process requirements that is consistent with all of the following:
(i) For suspensions of fewer than 10 days, provide oral or written notice of the charges against the pupil and, if the pupil denies the charges, an explanation of the evidence that supports the charges and an opportunity for the pupil to present the pupil’s side of the story.
(ii) For suspensions of 10 days or more and all other expulsions for disciplinary reasons, both of the following:
(I) Provide timely, written notice of the charges against the pupil and an explanation of the pupil’s basic rights.
(II) Provide a hearing adjudicated by a neutral officer within a reasonable number of days at which the pupil has a fair opportunity to present testimony, evidence, and witnesses and confront and cross-examine adverse witnesses, and at which the pupil has the right to bring legal counsel or an advocate.
(iii) Contain a clear statement that no pupil shall be involuntarily removed by the charter school for any reason unless the parent or guardian of the pupil has been provided written notice of intent to remove the pupil no less than five schooldays before the effective date of the action. The written notice shall be in the native language of the pupil or the pupil’s parent or guardian, or, if the pupil is a homeless child or youth, or a foster child or youth, in the native language of the homeless or foster child’s educational rights holder. In the case of a foster child or youth, the written notice shall also be provided to the foster child’s attorney and county social worker. If the pupil is an Indian child, as defined in Section 224.1 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, the written notice shall also be provided to the Indian child’s tribal social worker and, if applicable, county social worker. The written notice shall inform the pupil, the pupil’s parent or guardian, the homeless child’s educational rights holder, the foster child’s educational rights holder, attorney, and county social worker, or the Indian child’s tribal social worker and, if applicable, county social worker of the right to initiate the procedures specified in clause (ii) before the effective date of the action. If the pupil’s parent or guardian, the homeless child’s educational rights holder, the foster child’s educational rights holder, attorney, or county social worker, or the Indian child’s tribal social worker or, if applicable, county social worker initiates the procedures specified in clause (ii), the pupil shall remain enrolled and shall not be removed until the charter school issues a final decision. For purposes of this clause, “involuntarily removed” includes disenrolled, dismissed, transferred, or terminated, but does not include suspensions specified in clauses (i) and (ii).
(iv) A foster child’s educational rights holder, attorney, and county social worker and an Indian child’s tribal social worker and, if applicable, county social worker shall have the same rights a parent or guardian of a child has to receive a suspension notice, expulsion notice, manifestation determination notice, involuntary transfer notice, and other documents and related information.
(K) The manner by which staff members of the charter schools will be covered by the State Teachers’ Retirement System, the Public Employees’ Retirement System, or federal social security.
(L) The public school attendance alternatives for pupils residing within the school district who choose not to attend charter schools.
(M) The rights of an employee of the school district upon leaving the employment of the school district to work in a charter school, and of any rights of return to the school district after employment at a charter school.
(N) The procedures to be followed by the charter school and the chartering authority to resolve disputes relating to provisions of the charter.
(O) The procedures to be used if the charter school closes. The procedures shall ensure a final audit of the charter school to determine the disposition of all assets and liabilities of the charter school, including plans for disposing of any net assets and for the maintenance and transfer of pupil records.
(6) The petition does not contain a declaration of whether or not the charter school shall be deemed the exclusive public employer of the employees of the charter school for purposes of Chapter 10.7 (commencing with Section 3540) of Division 4 of Title 1 of the Government Code.
(7) The charter school is demonstrably unlikely to serve the interests of the entire community in which the school is proposing to locate. Analysis of this finding shall include consideration of the fiscal impact of the proposed charter school. A written factual finding under this paragraph shall detail specific facts and circumstances that analyze and consider the following factors:
(A) The extent to which the proposed charter school would substantially undermine existing services, academic offerings, or programmatic offerings.
(B) Whether the proposed charter school would duplicate a program currently offered within the school district and the existing program has sufficient capacity for the pupils proposed to be served within reasonable proximity to where the charter school intends to locate.
(8) The school district is not positioned to absorb the fiscal impact of the proposed charter school. A school district satisfies this paragraph if it has a qualified interim certification pursuant to Section 42131 and the county superintendent of schools, in consultation with the County Office Fiscal Crisis and Management Assistance Team, certifies that approving the charter school would result in the school district having a negative interim certification pursuant to Section 42131, has a negative interim certification pursuant to Section 42131, or is under state receivership. Charter schools proposed in a school district satisfying one of these conditions shall be subject to a rebuttable presumption of denial.
(d) (1) Charter schools shall meet all statewide standards and conduct the pupil assessments required pursuant to Section 60605 and any other statewide standards authorized in statute or pupil assessments applicable to pupils in noncharter public schools.
(2) Charter schools shall, on a regular basis, consult with their parents, legal guardians, and teachers regarding the charter school’s educational programs.
(e) (1) In addition to any other requirement imposed under this part, a charter school shall be nonsectarian in its programs, admission policies, employment practices, and all other operations, shall not charge tuition, and shall not discriminate against a pupil on the basis of the characteristics listed in Section 220. Except as provided in paragraph (2), admission to a charter school shall not be determined according to the place of residence of the pupil, or of that pupil’s parent or legal guardian, within this state, except that an existing public school converting partially or entirely to a charter school under this part shall adopt and maintain a policy giving admission preference to pupils who reside within the former attendance area of that public school.
(2) (A) A charter school shall admit all pupils who wish to attend the charter school.
(B) If the number of pupils who wish to attend the charter school exceeds the charter school’s capacity, attendance, except for existing pupils of the charter school, shall be determined by a public random drawing. Preference shall be extended to pupils currently attending the charter school and pupils who reside in the school district except as provided for in Section 47614.5. Preferences, including, but not limited to, siblings of pupils admitted or attending the charter school and children of the charter school’s teachers, staff, and founders identified in the initial charter, may also be permitted by the chartering authority on an individual charter school basis. Priority order for any preference shall be determined in the charter petition in accordance with all of the following:
(i) Each type of preference shall be approved by the chartering authority at a public hearing.
(ii) Preferences shall be consistent with federal law, the California Constitution, and Section 200.
(iii) Preferences shall not result in limiting enrollment access for pupils with disabilities, academically low-achieving pupils, English learners, neglected or delinquent pupils, homeless pupils, or pupils who are economically disadvantaged, as determined by eligibility for any free or reduced-price meal program, foster youth, or pupils based on nationality, race, ethnicity, or sexual orientation.
(iv) In accordance with Section 49011, preferences shall not require mandatory parental volunteer hours as a criterion for admission or continued enrollment.
(C) In the event of a drawing, the chartering authority shall make reasonable efforts to accommodate the growth of the charter school and shall not take any action to impede the charter school from expanding enrollment to meet pupil demand.
(3) If a pupil is expelled or leaves the charter school without graduating or completing the school year for any reason, the charter school shall notify the superintendent of the school district of the pupil’s last known address within 30 days, and shall, upon request, provide that school district with a copy of the cumulative record of the pupil, including report cards or a transcript of grades, and health information. If the pupil is subsequently expelled or leaves the school district without graduating or completing the school year for any reason, the school district shall provide this information to the charter school within 30 days if the charter school demonstrates that the pupil had been enrolled in the charter school. This paragraph applies only to pupils subject to compulsory full-time education pursuant to Section 48200.
(4) (A) A charter school shall not discourage a pupil from enrolling or seeking to enroll in the charter school for any reason, including, but not limited to, academic performance of the pupil or because the pupil exhibits any of the characteristics described in clause (iii) of subparagraph (B) of paragraph (2).
(B) A charter school shall not request a pupil’s records or require a parent, guardian, or pupil to submit the pupil’s records to the charter school before enrollment.
(C) A charter school shall not encourage a pupil currently attending the charter school to disenroll from the charter school or transfer to another school for any reason, including, but not limited to, academic performance of the pupil or because the pupil exhibits any of the characteristics described in clause (iii) of subparagraph (B) of paragraph (2). This subparagraph shall not apply to actions taken by a charter school pursuant to the procedures described in subparagraph (J) of paragraph (5) of subdivision (c).
(D) The department shall develop a notice of the requirements of this paragraph. This notice shall be posted on a charter school’s internet website. A charter school shall provide a parent or guardian, or a pupil if the pupil is 18 years of age or older, a copy of this notice at all of the following times:
(i) When a parent, guardian, or pupil inquires about enrollment.
(ii) Before conducting an enrollment lottery.
(iii) Before disenrollment of a pupil.
(E) (i) A person who suspects that a charter school has violated this paragraph may file a complaint with the chartering authority.
(ii) The department shall develop a template to be used for filing complaints pursuant to clause (i).
(5) Notwithstanding any other law, a charter school in operation as of July 1, 2019, that operates in partnership with the California National Guard may dismiss a pupil from the charter school for failing to maintain the minimum standards of conduct required by the Military Department.
(f) The governing board of a school district shall not require an employee of the school district to be employed in a charter school.
(g) The governing board of a school district shall not require a pupil enrolled in the school district to attend a charter school.
(h) The governing board of a school district shall require that the petitioner or petitioners provide information regarding the proposed operation and potential effects of the charter school, including, but not limited to, the facilities to be used by the charter school, the manner in which administrative services of the charter school are to be provided, and potential civil liability effects, if any, upon the charter school and upon the school district. The description of the facilities to be used by the charter school shall specify where the charter school intends to locate. The petitioner or petitioners also shall be required to provide financial statements that include a proposed first-year operational budget, including startup costs, and cashflow and financial projections for the first three years of operation. If the school is to be operated by, or as, a nonprofit public benefit corporation, the petitioner shall provide the names and relevant qualifications of all persons whom the petitioner nominates to serve on the governing body of the charter school.
(i) In reviewing petitions for the establishment of charter schools within the school district, the governing board of the school district shall give preference to petitions that demonstrate the capability to provide comprehensive learning experiences to pupils identified by the petitioner or petitioners as academically low achieving pursuant to the standards established by the department under Section 54032, as that section read before July 19, 2006.
(j) Upon the approval of the petition by the governing board of the school district, the petitioner or petitioners shall provide written notice of that approval, including a copy of the petition, to the applicable county superintendent of schools, the department, and the state board.
(k) (1) (A) (i) If the governing board of a school district denies a petition, the petitioner may elect to submit the petition for the establishment of a charter school to the county board of education. The petitioner shall submit the petition to the county board of education within 30 days of a denial by the governing board of the school district. At the same time the petition is submitted to the county board of education, the petitioner shall also provide a copy of the petition to the school district. The county board of education shall review the petition pursuant to subdivisions (b) and (c). If the petition submitted on appeal contains new or different material terms, the county board of education shall immediately remand the petition to the governing board of the school district for reconsideration, which shall grant or deny the petition within 30 days. If the governing board of the school district denies a petition after reconsideration, the petitioner may elect to resubmit the petition for the establishment of a charter school to the county board of education.
(ii) The county board of education shall review the appeal petition pursuant to subdivision (c). If the denial of the petition was made pursuant to paragraph (8) of subdivision (c), the county board of education shall also review the school district’s findings pursuant to paragraph (8) of subdivision (c).
(iii) As used in this subdivision, “material terms” of the petition means the signatures, affirmations, disclosures, documents, and descriptions described in subdivisions (a), (b), (c), and (h), but shall not include minor administrative updates to the petition or related documents due to changes in circumstances based on the passage of time related to fiscal affairs, facilities arrangements, or state law, or to reflect the county board of education as the chartering authority.
(B) If the governing board of a school district denies a petition and the county board of education has jurisdiction over a single school district, the petitioner may elect to submit the petition for the establishment of a charter school to the state board. The state board shall review a petition submitted pursuant to this subparagraph pursuant to subdivision (c). If the denial of a charter petition is reversed by the state board pursuant to this subparagraph, the state board shall designate the governing board of the school district in which the charter school is located as the chartering authority.
(2) If the county board of education denies a petition, the petitioner may appeal that denial to the state board.
(A) The petitioner shall submit the petition to the state board within 30 days of a denial by the county board of education. The petitioner shall include the findings and documentary record from the governing board of the school district and the county board of education and a written submission detailing, with specific citations to the documentary record, how the governing board of the school district or the county board of education, or both, abused their discretion. The governing board of the school district and county board of education shall prepare the documentary record, including transcripts of the public hearing at which the governing board of the school district and county board of education denied the charter, at the request of the petitioner. The documentary record shall be prepared by the governing board of the school district and county board of education no later than 10 business days after the request of the petitioner is made. At the same time the petition and supporting documentation is submitted to the state board, the petitioner shall also provide a copy of the petition and supporting documentation to the school district and the county board of education.
(B) If the appeal contains new or different material terms, as defined in clause (iii) of subparagraph (A) of paragraph (1), the state board shall immediately remand the petition to the governing board of the school district to which the petition was submitted for reconsideration. The governing board of the school district shall grant or deny the petition within 30 days. If the governing board of the school district denies a petition after reconsideration, the petitioner may elect to resubmit the petition to the state board.
(C) Within 30 days of receipt of the appeal submitted to the state board, the governing board of the school district or county board of education may submit a written opposition to the state board detailing, with specific citations to the documentary record, how the governing board of the school district or the county board of education did not abuse its discretion in denying the petition. The governing board of the school district or the county board of education may submit supporting documentation or evidence from the documentary record that was considered by the governing board of the school district or the county board of education.
(D) The state board’s Advisory Commission on Charter Schools shall hold a public hearing to review the appeal and documentary record. Based on its review, the Advisory Commission on Charter Schools shall submit a recommendation to the state board whether there is sufficient evidence to hear the appeal or to summarily deny review of the appeal based on the documentary record. If the Advisory Commission on Charter Schools does not submit a recommendation to the state board, the state board shall consider the appeal, and shall either hear the appeal or summarily deny review of the appeal based on the documentary record at a regular public meeting of the state board.
(E) The state board shall either hear the appeal or summarily deny review of the appeal based on the documentary record. If the state board hears the appeal, the state board may affirm the determination of the governing board of the school district or the county board of education, or both of those determinations, or may reverse only upon a determination that there was an abuse of discretion. If the denial of a charter petition is reversed by the state board, the state board shall designate, in consultation with the petitioner, either the governing board of the school district or the county board of education in which the charter school is located as the chartering authority.
(3) A charter school for which a charter is granted by either the county board of education or the state board based on an appeal pursuant to this subdivision shall qualify fully as a charter school for all funding and other purposes of this part.
(4) A charter school that receives approval of its petition from a county board of education or from the state board on appeal shall be subject to the same requirements concerning geographic location to which it would otherwise be subject if it received approval from the chartering authority to which it originally submitted its petition. A charter petition that is submitted to either a county board of education or to the state board shall meet all otherwise applicable petition requirements, including the identification of the proposed site or sites where the charter school will operate.
(5) Upon the approval of the petition by the county board of education, the petition or petitioners shall provide written notice of that approval, including a copy of the petition, to the governing board of the school district in which the charter school is located, the department, and the state board.
(6) If either the county board of education or the state board fails to act on a petition within 180 days of receipt, the decision of the governing board of the school district to deny the petition shall be subject to judicial review.
(l) (1) Teachers in charter schools shall hold the Commission on Teacher Credentialing certificate, permit, or other document required for the teacher’s certificated assignment. These documents shall be maintained on file at the charter school and are subject to periodic inspection by the chartering authority. A governing body of a direct-funded charter school may use local assignment options authorized in statute and regulations for the purpose of legally assigning certificated teachers, in accordance with all of the requirements of the applicable statutes or regulations in the same manner as a governing board of a school district. A charter school shall have authority to request an emergency permit or a waiver from the Commission on Teacher Credentialing for individuals in the same manner as a school district.
(2) By July 1, 2020, all teachers in charter schools shall obtain a certificate of clearance and satisfy the requirements for professional fitness pursuant to Sections 44339, 44340, and 44341.
(3) The Commission on Teacher Credentialing shall include in the bulletins it issues pursuant to subdivision (k) of Section 44237 to provide notification to local educational agencies of any adverse actions taken against the holders of any commission documents, notice of any adverse actions taken against teachers employed by charter schools, and shall make this bulletin available to all chartering authorities and charter schools in the same manner in which it is made available to local educational agencies.
(m) A charter school shall transmit a copy of its annual, independent financial audit report for the preceding fiscal year, as described in subparagraph (I) of paragraph (5) of subdivision (c), to its chartering authority, the Controller, the county superintendent of schools of the county in which the charter school is sited, unless the county board of education of the county in which the charter school is sited is the chartering authority, and the department by December 15 of each year. This subdivision does not apply if the audit of the charter school is encompassed in the audit of the chartering authority pursuant to Section 41020.
(n) A charter school may encourage parental involvement, but shall notify the parents and guardians of applicant pupils and currently enrolled pupils that parental involvement is not a requirement for acceptance to, or continued enrollment at, the charter school.
(o) The requirements of this section shall not be waived by the state board pursuant to Section 33050 or any other law.

SEC. 35.

 Section 47605.6 of the Education Code is amended to read:

47605.6.
 (a) (1) In addition to the authority provided by Section 47605.5, a county board of education may also approve a petition for the operation of a charter school that operates at one or more sites within the geographic boundaries of the county and that provides instructional services that are not generally provided by a county office of education. A county board of education may approve a countywide charter only if it finds, in addition to the other requirements of this section, that the educational services to be provided by the charter school will offer services to a pupil population that will benefit from those services and that cannot be served as well by a charter school that operates in only one school district in the county. A petition for the establishment of a countywide charter school pursuant to this subdivision may be circulated throughout the county by any one or more persons seeking to establish the charter school. The petition may be submitted to the county board of education for review after either of the following conditions is met:
(A) The petition is signed by a number of parents or guardians of pupils residing within the county that is equivalent to at least one-half of the number of pupils that the charter school estimates will enroll in the school for its first year of operation and each of the school districts where the charter school petitioner proposes to operate a facility has received at least 30 days’ notice of the petitioner’s intent to operate a charter school pursuant to this section.
(B) The petition is signed by a number of teachers that is equivalent to at least one-half of the number of teachers that the charter school estimates will be employed at the school during its first year of operation and each of the school districts where the charter school petitioner proposes to operate a facility has received at least 30 days’ notice of the petitioner’s intent to operate a charter school pursuant to this section.
(2) An existing public school shall not be converted to a charter school in accordance with this section.
(3) After receiving approval of its petition, a charter school that proposes to establish operations at additional sites within the geographic boundaries of the county board of education shall notify the school districts where those sites will be located. The charter school shall also request a material revision of its charter by the county board of education that approved its charter and the county board of education shall consider whether to approve those additional locations at an open, public meeting, held no sooner than 30 days following notification of the school districts where the sites will be located. If approved, the location of the approved sites shall be a material revision of the charter school’s approved charter.
(4) A petition shall include a prominent statement indicating that a signature on the petition means that the parent or guardian is meaningfully interested in having their child or ward attend the charter school, or in the case of a teacher’s signature, means that the teacher is meaningfully interested in teaching at the charter school. The proposed charter shall be attached to the petition.
(b) No later than 60 days after receiving a petition, in accordance with subdivision (a), the county board of education shall hold a public hearing on the provisions of the charter, at which time the county board of education shall consider the level of support for the petition by teachers, parents or guardians, and the school districts where the charter school petitioner proposes to place school facilities. Following review of the petition and the public hearing, the county board of education shall either grant or deny the charter within 90 days of receipt of the petition. However, this date may be extended by an additional 30 days if both parties agree to the extension. A petition is deemed received by the county board of education for purposes of commencing the timelines described in this subdivision when the petitioner submits a petition, in accordance with subparagraph (A) or (B) of paragraph (1) of subdivision (a), to the county office of education. The county board of education shall publish all staff recommendations, including the recommended findings, regarding the petition at least 15 days before the public hearing at which the county board of education will either grant or deny the charter. At the public hearing at which the county board of education will either grant or deny the charter, petitioners shall have equivalent time and procedures to present evidence and testimony to respond to the staff recommendations and findings. A county board of education may impose any additional requirements beyond those required by this section that it considers necessary for the sound operation of a countywide charter school. A county board of education may grant a charter for the operation of a charter school under this part only if it is satisfied that granting the charter is consistent with sound educational practice and that the charter school has reasonable justification for why it could not be established by petition to a school district pursuant to Section 47605. The county board of education shall deny a petition for the establishment of a charter school if it finds one or more of the following:
(1) The charter school presents an unsound educational program for the pupils to be enrolled in the charter school.
(2) The petitioners are demonstrably unlikely to successfully implement the program set forth in the petition.
(3) The petition does not contain the number of signatures required by subdivision (a).
(4) The petition does not contain an affirmation of each of the conditions described in subdivision (e).
(5) The petition does not contain reasonably comprehensive descriptions of all of the following:
(A) (i) The educational program of the charter school, designed, among other things, to identify those pupils whom the charter school is attempting to educate, what it means to be an “educated person” in the 21st century, and how learning best occurs. The goals identified in that program shall include the objective of enabling pupils to become self-motivated, competent, and lifelong learners.
(ii) The annual goals for the charter school for all pupils and for each subgroup of pupils identified pursuant to Section 52052, to be achieved in the state priorities, as described in subdivision (d) of Section 52060, that apply for the grade levels served by the charter school, and specific annual actions to achieve those goals. A charter petition may identify additional school priorities, the goals for the school priorities, and the specific annual actions to achieve those goals.
(iii) If the proposed charter school will enroll high school pupils, the manner in which the charter school will inform parents regarding the transferability of courses to other public high schools. Courses offered by the charter school that are accredited by the Western Association of Schools and Colleges may be considered to be transferable to other public high schools.
(iv) If the proposed charter school will enroll high school pupils, information as to the manner in which the charter school will inform parents as to whether each individual course offered by the charter school meets college entrance requirements. Courses approved by the University of California or the California State University as satisfying their prerequisites for admission may be considered as meeting college entrance requirements for purposes of this clause.
(B) The measurable pupil outcomes identified for use by the charter school. “Pupil outcomes,” for purposes of this part, means the extent to which all pupils of the charter school demonstrate that they have attained the skills, knowledge, and aptitudes specified as goals in the charter school’s educational program. Pupil outcomes shall include outcomes that address increases in pupil academic achievement both schoolwide and for all pupil subgroups served by the charter school, as that term is defined in subdivision (a) of Section 52052. The pupil outcomes shall align with the state priorities, as described in subdivision (d) of Section 52060, that apply for the grade levels served by the charter school.
(C) The method by which pupil progress in meeting those pupil outcomes is to be measured. To the extent practicable, the method for measuring pupil outcomes for state priorities shall be consistent with the way information is reported on a school accountability report card.
(D) The location of each charter school facility that the petitioner proposes to operate.
(E) The governance structure of the charter school, including, but not limited to, the process to be followed by the charter school to ensure parental involvement.
(F) The qualifications to be met by individuals to be employed by the charter school.
(G) The procedures that the charter school will follow to ensure the health and safety of pupils and staff. These procedures shall require all of the following:
(i) That each employee of the charter school furnish the charter school with a criminal record summary as described in Section 44237.
(ii) The development of a school safety plan, which shall include the safety topics listed in subparagraphs (A) to (J), inclusive, of paragraph (2) of subdivision (a) of Section 32282.
(iii) That the school safety plan be reviewed and updated by March 1 of every year by the charter school.
(H) The means by which the charter school will achieve a balance of racial and ethnic pupils, special education pupils, and English learner pupils, including redesignated fluent English proficient pupils as defined by the evaluation rubrics in Section 52064.5, that is reflective of the general population residing within the territorial jurisdiction of the county board of education to which the charter petition is submitted. Upon renewal, for a charter school not deemed to be a local educational agency for purposes of special education pursuant to Section 47641, the chartering authority may consider the effect of school placements made by the chartering authority in providing a free and appropriate public education as required by the federal Individuals with Disabilities Education Act (Public Law 101-476), on the balance of pupils with disabilities at the charter school.
(I) The manner in which annual, independent financial audits shall be conducted, in accordance with regulations established by the state board, and the manner in which audit exceptions and deficiencies shall be resolved.
(J) The procedures by which pupils can be suspended or expelled from the charter school for disciplinary reasons or otherwise involuntarily removed from the charter school for any reason. These procedures, at a minimum, shall include an explanation of how the charter school will comply with federal and state constitutional procedural and substantive due process requirements that is consistent with all of the following:
(i) For suspensions of fewer than 10 days, provide oral or written notice of the charges against the pupil and, if the pupil denies the charges, an explanation of the evidence that supports the charges and an opportunity for the pupil to present the pupil’s side of the story.
(ii) For suspensions of 10 days or more and all other expulsions for disciplinary reasons, both of the following:
(I) Provide timely, written notice of the charges against the pupil and an explanation of the pupil’s basic rights.
(II) Provide a hearing adjudicated by a neutral officer within a reasonable number of days at which the pupil has a fair opportunity to present testimony, evidence, and witnesses and confront and cross-examine adverse witnesses, and at which the pupil has the right to bring legal counsel or an advocate.
(iii) Contain a clear statement that no pupil shall be involuntarily removed by the charter school for any reason unless the parent or guardian of the pupil has been provided written notice of intent to remove the pupil no less than five schooldays before the effective date of the action. The written notice shall be in the native language of the pupil or the pupil’s parent or guardian, or, if the pupil is a homeless child or youth, or a foster child or youth, in the native language of the homeless or foster child’s educational rights holder. In the case of a foster child or youth, the written notice shall also be provided to the foster child’s attorney and county social worker. If the pupil is an Indian child, as defined in Section 224.1 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, the written notice shall also be provided to the Indian child’s tribal social worker and, if applicable, county social worker. The written notice shall inform the pupil, the pupil’s parent or guardian, the homeless child’s educational rights holder, the foster child’s educational rights holder, attorney, and county social worker, or the Indian child’s tribal social worker and, if applicable, county social worker of the right to initiate the procedures specified in clause (ii) before the effective date of the action. If the pupil’s parent or guardian, the homeless child’s educational rights holder, the foster child’s educational rights holder, attorney, or county social worker, or the Indian child’s tribal social worker or, if applicable, county social worker initiates the procedures specified in clause (ii), the pupil shall remain enrolled and shall not be removed until the charter school issues a final decision. For purposes of this clause, “involuntarily removed” includes disenrolled, dismissed, transferred, or terminated, but does not include suspensions specified in clauses (i) and (ii).
(iv) A foster child’s educational rights holder, attorney, and county social worker and an Indian child’s tribal social worker and, if applicable, county social worker shall have the same rights a parent or guardian of a child has to receive a suspension notice, expulsion notice, manifestation determination notice, involuntary transfer notice, and other documents and related information.
(K) The manner by which staff members of the charter school will be covered by the State Teachers’ Retirement System, the Public Employees’ Retirement System, or federal social security.
(L) The procedures to be followed by the charter school and the county board of education to resolve disputes relating to provisions of the charter.
(M) Admission policy and procedures, consistent with subdivision (e).
(N) The public school attendance alternatives for pupils residing within the county who choose not to attend the charter school.
(O) The rights of an employee of the county office of education, upon leaving the employment of the county office of education, to be employed by the charter school, and any rights of return to the county office of education that an employee may have upon leaving the employment of the charter school.
(P) The procedures to be used if the charter school closes. The procedures shall ensure a final audit of the charter school to determine the disposition of all assets and liabilities of the charter school, including plans for disposing of any net assets and for the maintenance and transfer of public records.
(6) A declaration of whether or not the charter school shall be deemed the exclusive public school employer of the employees of the charter school for purposes of the Educational Employment Relations Act (Chapter 10.7 (commencing with Section 3540) of Division 4 of Title 1 of the Government Code).
(7) Any other basis that the county board of education finds justifies the denial of the petition.
(c) A county board of education that approves a petition for the operation of a countywide charter may, as a condition of charter approval, enter into an agreement with a third party, at the expense of the charter school, to oversee, monitor, and report to the county board of education on the operations of the charter school. The county board of education may prescribe the aspects of the charter school’s operations to be monitored by the third party and may prescribe appropriate requirements regarding the reporting of information concerning the operations of the charter school to the county board of education.
(d) (1) Charter schools shall meet all statewide standards and conduct the pupil assessments required pursuant to Section 60605 and any other statewide standards authorized in statute or pupil assessments applicable to pupils in noncharter public schools.
(2) Charter schools shall on a regular basis consult with their parents and teachers regarding the charter school’s educational programs.
(e) (1) In addition to any other requirement imposed under this part, a charter school shall be nonsectarian in its programs, admission policies, employment practices, and all other operations, shall not charge tuition, and shall not discriminate against any pupil on the basis of ethnicity, national origin, gender, gender identity, gender expression, or disability. Except as provided in paragraph (2), admission to a charter school shall not be determined according to the place of residence of the pupil, or of the pupil’s parent or guardian, within this state.
(2) (A) A charter school shall admit all pupils who wish to attend the charter school.
(B) If the number of pupils who wish to attend the charter school exceeds the charter school’s capacity, attendance, except for existing pupils of the charter school, shall be determined by a public random drawing. Preference shall be extended to pupils currently attending the charter school and pupils who reside in the county except as provided for in Section 47614.5. Preferences, including, but not limited to, siblings of pupils admitted or attending the charter school and children of the charter school’s teachers, staff, and founders identified in the initial charter, may also be permitted by the chartering authority on an individual charter school basis. Priority order for any preference shall be determined in the charter petition in accordance with all of the following:
(i) Each type of preference shall be approved by the chartering authority at a public hearing.
(ii) Preferences shall be consistent with federal law, the California Constitution, and Section 200.
(iii) Preferences shall not result in limiting enrollment access for pupils with disabilities, academically low-achieving pupils, English learners, neglected or delinquent pupils, homeless pupils, or pupils who are economically disadvantaged, as determined by eligibility for any free or reduced-price meal program, foster youth, or pupils based on nationality, race, ethnicity, or sexual orientation.
(iv) In accordance with Section 49011, preferences shall not require mandatory parental volunteer hours as a criterion for admission or continued enrollment.
(C) In the event of a drawing, the county board of education shall make reasonable efforts to accommodate the growth of the charter school and in no event shall take any action to impede the charter school from expanding enrollment to meet pupil demand.
(3) If a pupil is expelled or leaves the charter school without graduating or completing the school year for any reason, the charter school shall notify the superintendent of the school district of the pupil’s last known address within 30 days and shall, upon request, provide that school district with a copy of the cumulative record of the pupil, including report cards or a transcript of grades, and health information. If the pupil is subsequently expelled or leaves the school district without graduating or completing the school year for any reason, the school district shall provide this information to the charter school within 30 days if the charter school demonstrates that the pupil had been enrolled in the charter school. This paragraph applies only to pupils subject to compulsory full-time education pursuant to Section 48200.
(4) (A) A charter school shall not discourage a pupil from enrolling or seeking to enroll in the charter school for any reason, including, but not limited to, academic performance of the pupil or because the pupil exhibits any of the characteristics described in clause (iii) of subparagraph (B) of paragraph (2).
(B) A charter school shall not request a pupil’s records or require a parent, guardian, or pupil to submit the pupil’s records to the charter school before enrollment.
(C) A charter school shall not encourage a pupil currently attending the charter school to disenroll from the charter school or transfer to another school for any reason, including, but not limited to, academic performance of the pupil or because the pupil exhibits any of the characteristics described in clause (iii) of subparagraph (B) of paragraph (2). This subparagraph shall not apply to actions taken by a charter school pursuant to the procedures described in subparagraph (J) of paragraph (5) of subdivision (b).
(D) The department shall develop a notice of the requirements of this paragraph. This notice shall be posted on a charter school’s internet website. A charter school shall provide a parent or guardian, or a pupil if the pupil is 18 years of age or older, a copy of this notice at all of the following times:
(i) When a parent, guardian, or pupil inquires about enrollment.
(ii) Before conducting an enrollment lottery.
(iii) Before disenrollment of a pupil.
(E) (i) A person who suspects that a charter school has violated this paragraph may file a complaint with the chartering authority.
(ii) The department shall develop a template to be used for filing complaints pursuant to clause (i).
(5) Notwithstanding any other law, a charter school in operation as of July 1, 2019, that operates in partnership with the California National Guard may dismiss a pupil from the charter school for failing to maintain the minimum standards of conduct required by the Military Department.
(f) The county board of education shall not require an employee of the county or a school district to be employed in a charter school.
(g) The county board of education shall not require a pupil enrolled in a county program to attend a charter school.
(h) The county board of education shall require that the petitioner or petitioners provide information regarding the proposed operation and potential effects of the charter school, including, but not limited to, the facilities to be used by the charter school, the manner in which administrative services of the charter school are to be provided, and potential civil liability effects, if any, upon the charter school, any school district where the charter school may operate, and upon the county board of education. The petitioner or petitioners shall also be required to provide financial statements that include a proposed first-year operational budget, including startup costs, and cashflow and financial projections for the first three years of operation. If the charter school is to be operated by, or as, a nonprofit public benefit corporation, the petitioner shall provide the names and relevant qualifications of all persons whom the petitioner nominates to serve on the governing body of the charter school.
(i) In reviewing petitions for the establishment of charter schools within the county, the county board of education shall give preference to petitions that demonstrate the capability to provide comprehensive learning experiences to pupils identified by the petitioner or petitioners as academically low achieving pursuant to the standards established by the department under Section 54032, as that section read before July 19, 2006.
(j) Upon the approval of the petition by the county board of education, the petitioner or petitioners shall provide written notice of that approval, including a copy of the petition, to the school districts within the county, the Superintendent, and the state board.
(k) If a county board of education denies a petition, the petitioner shall not elect to submit the petition for the establishment of the charter school to the state board.
(l) (1) Teachers in charter schools shall be required to hold the Commission on Teacher Credentialing certificate, permit, or other document required for the teacher’s certificated assignment. These documents shall be maintained on file at the charter school and shall be subject to periodic inspection by the chartering authority. A governing body of a direct-funded charter school may use local assignment options authorized in statute and regulations for the purpose of legally assigning certificated teachers, in accordance with all of the requirements of the applicable statutes or regulations in the same manner as a governing board of a school district. A charter school shall have authority to request an emergency permit or a waiver from the Commission on Teacher Credentialing for individuals in the same manner as a school district.
(2) The Commission on Teacher Credentialing shall include in the bulletins it issues pursuant to subdivision (k) of Section 44237 to provide notification to local educational agencies of any adverse actions taken against the holders of any commission documents, notice of any adverse actions taken against teachers employed by charter schools. The Commission on Teacher Credentialing shall make this bulletin available to all chartering authorities and charter schools in the same manner in which it is made available to local educational agencies.
(m) A charter school shall transmit a copy of its annual, independent, financial audit report for the preceding fiscal year, as described in subparagraph (I) of paragraph (5) of subdivision (b), to the county office of education, the Controller, and the department by December 15 of each year. This subdivision does not apply if the audit of the charter school is encompassed in the audit of the chartering authority pursuant to Section 41020.
(n) A charter school may encourage parental involvement but shall notify the parents and guardians of applicant pupils and currently enrolled pupils that parental involvement is not a requirement for acceptance to, or continued enrollment at, the charter school.
(o) The requirements of this section shall not be waived by the state board pursuant to Section 33050 or any other law.

SEC. 36.

 Section 48432.5 of the Education Code is amended to read:

48432.5.
 (a) The governing board of each high school or unified school district that assigns pupils to continuation schools shall adopt rules and regulations governing procedures for the involuntary transfer of pupils to continuation schools.
(b) The rules and regulations shall provide that written notice be given to the pupil and the pupil’s parent or guardian or, if the pupil is a foster child, the foster child’s educational rights holder, attorney, and county social worker, or, if the pupil is an Indian child, as defined in Section 224.1 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, the Indian child’s tribal social worker and, if applicable, county social worker informing them of the opportunity to request a meeting with a designee of the district superintendent of schools before the transfer.
(c) At the meeting, the pupil, the pupil’s parent or guardian, or, if applicable, the foster child’s educational rights holder, attorney, and county social worker, or, if applicable, the Indian child’s tribal social worker or, if applicable, county social worker shall be informed of the specific facts and reasons for the proposed transfer and shall have the opportunity to inspect all documents relied upon, question any evidence and witnesses presented, and present evidence on the pupil’s behalf. The pupil may designate one or more representatives and witnesses to be present with the pupil at the meeting.
(d) A decision to transfer the pupil involuntarily shall be based on a finding that the pupil committed an act enumerated in Section 48900, or has been habitually truant or irregular in attendance from instruction upon which the pupil is lawfully required to attend.
(e) The decision to transfer shall be in writing, stating the facts and reasons for the decision, and sent to the pupil and the pupil’s parent or guardian or, if applicable, the foster child’s educational rights holder, attorney, and county social worker, or, if applicable, the Indian child’s tribal social worker and, if applicable, county social worker. It shall indicate whether the decision is subject to periodic review and the periodic review procedure.
(f) The persons involved in the final decision to make an involuntary transfer of a pupil to a continuation school shall not be a member of the staff of the school in which the pupil is enrolled at the time that the decision is made.
(g) A pupil, with the concurrence of a designee of the district superintendent of schools, may transfer voluntarily to a continuation school in order to receive special attention such as individualized instruction.
(h) Involuntary transfer to a continuation school shall be imposed only when other means fail to bring about pupil improvement; provided that a pupil may be involuntarily transferred the first time the pupil commits an act enumerated in Section 48900 if the principal determines that the pupil’s presence causes a danger to persons or property or threatens to disrupt the instructional process.
(i) An involuntary transfer to a continuation school shall not extend beyond the end of the semester following the semester during which the acts leading directly to the involuntary transfer occurred unless the governing board of the school district adopts a procedure for yearly review of the involuntary transfer conducted pursuant to this section at the request of the pupil, the pupil’s parent or guardian, or, if applicable, the foster child’s educational rights holder, attorney, or county social worker, or, if applicable, the Indian child’s tribal social worker or, if applicable, county social worker.
(j) A pupil who has voluntarily transferred to a continuation school shall have the right to return to the regular high school at the beginning of the following school year and, with the consent of a designee of the district superintendent of schools, may return at any time.

SEC. 37.

 Section 51461 of the Education Code is amended to read:

51461.
 (a) The State Seal of Biliteracy certifies attainment of a high level of proficiency by a graduating high school pupil in one or more languages, in addition to English, and certifies that the graduate meets all of the following criteria:
(1) Completion of all English language arts requirements for graduation with an overall grade point average of 2.0 or above in those classes.
(2) Passing the California Assessment of Student Performance and Progress for English language arts, or any successor test, administered in grade 11, at or above the “standard met” achievement level, or at the achievement level determined by the Superintendent for any successor test.
(3) Proficiency in one or more languages other than English, demonstrated through one of the following methods:
(A) Passing a world language Advanced Placement examination with a score of 3 or higher or an International Baccalaureate examination with a score of 4 or higher.
(B) Successful completion of a four-year high school course of study in a world language, attaining an overall grade point average of 3.0 or above in that course of study, and oral proficiency in the language comparable to that required pursuant to subparagraph (A).
(C) (i) If no Advanced Placement examination or off-the-shelf language test exists and the school district can certify to the Superintendent that the test meets the rigor of a four-year high school course of study in that world language, passing a school district language examination that, at a minimum, assesses speaking, reading, and writing in a language other than English at the proficient level or higher. If a school district offers a language examination in a language in which an Advanced Placement examination or off-the-shelf language test exists, the school district language examination shall be approved by the Superintendent for the purpose of determining proficiency in a language other than English.
(ii) Notwithstanding clause (i), a pupil who seeks to qualify for the State Seal of Biliteracy through a language that is not characterized by listening, speaking, or reading, or for which there is no written system, shall pass an assessment on the modalities that characterize communication in that language at the proficient level or higher.
(D) Passing the SAT II world language examination with a score of 600 or higher.
(b) If the primary language of a pupil in any of grades 9 to 12, inclusive, is other than English, the pupil shall do both of the following in order to qualify for the State Seal of Biliteracy:
(1) Attain the level demonstrating English language proficiency on the English Language Proficiency Assessments for California, or any successor English language proficiency assessment, in transitional kindergarten, kindergarten, or any of grades 1 to 12, inclusive.
(2) Meet the requirements of subdivision (a).
(c) For languages in which an Advanced Placement test is not available, the Superintendent may provide a listing of equivalent summative tests that school districts may use in place of an Advanced Placement test for purposes of subparagraph (A) of paragraph (3) of subdivision (a). A school district may provide the Superintendent with a list of equivalent summative tests that the school district uses in place of an Advanced Placement test for purposes of subparagraph (A) of paragraph (3) of subdivision (a). The Superintendent may use lists received from school districts in developing the Superintendent’s list of equivalent summative tests.
(d) Notwithstanding subdivisions (a) and (b), for those pupils on track to graduate in 2020 or 2021, who were unable to take the assessments identified in paragraph (1) of subdivision (b), or who did not receive a letter grade in English language arts to satisfy paragraph (1) of subdivision (a), the Superintendent may provide alternatives to demonstrating attainment of a high level of proficiency in one or more languages in addition to English. For pupils who are on track to graduate in 2021 and were unable to take the assessment identified in paragraph (2) of subdivision (a), the Superintendent may waive the requirement to pass that assessment.
(e) For purposes of this article, “world language” has the same meaning as defined in Section 91.
(f) Notwithstanding subdivision (a), for those pupils on track to graduate in 2022 and who were unable to take the assessment identified in paragraph (2) of subdivision (a), the Superintendent may use the assessments identified in Section 121 of Chapter 44 of the Statutes of 2021 to determine whether a pupil obtained the achievement level on a grade 11 English language arts assessment for the purposes of paragraph (2) of subdivision (a).

SEC. 38.

 Section 51747 of the Education Code is amended to read:

51747.
 A local educational agency shall not be eligible to receive apportionments for independent study by pupils, regardless of age, unless it has adopted written policies, and has implemented those policies, pursuant to rules and regulations adopted by the Superintendent, that include, but are not limited to, all of the following:
(a) The maximum length of time, by grade level and type of program, that may elapse between the time an independent study assignment is made and the date by which the pupil must complete the assigned work.
(b) (1) The level of satisfactory educational progress and the number of missed assignments that will be allowed before an evaluation is conducted to determine whether it is in the best interests of the pupil to remain in independent study, or whether the pupil should return to the regular school program. A written record of the findings of any evaluation made pursuant to this subdivision shall be treated as a mandatory interim pupil record. The record shall be maintained for a period of three years from the date of the evaluation and, if the pupil transfers to another California public school, the record shall be forwarded to that school.
(2) Satisfactory educational progress shall be determined based on all of the following indicators:
(A) The pupil’s achievement and engagement in the independent study program, as indicated by the pupil’s performance on applicable pupil-level measures of pupil achievement and pupil engagement set forth in paragraphs (4) and (5) of subdivision (d) of Section 52060.
(B) The completion of assignments, assessments, or other indicators that evidence that the pupil is working on assignments.
(C) Learning required concepts, as determined by the supervising teacher.
(D) Progressing toward successful completion of the course of study or individual course, as determined by the supervising teacher.
(c) The provision of content aligned to grade level standards that is substantially equivalent to in-person instruction. For high schools, this shall include access to all courses offered by the local educational agency for graduation and approved by the University of California or the California State University as creditable under the A–G admissions criteria.
(d) Procedures for tiered reengagement strategies for all pupils who are not generating attendance for more than 10 percent of required minimum instructional time over four continuous weeks of a local educational agency’s approved instructional calendar, pupils found not participatory in synchronous instructional offerings pursuant to Section 51747.5 for more than 50 percent of the scheduled times of synchronous instruction in a school month as applicable by grade span, or pupils who are in violation of the written agreement pursuant to subdivision (g). These procedures shall include local programs intended to address chronic absenteeism, as applicable, with at least all of the following:
(1) Verification of current contact information for each enrolled pupil.
(2) Notification to parents or guardians of lack of participation within one school day of the recording of a nonattendance day or lack of participation.
(3) A plan for outreach from the school to determine pupil needs, including connection with health and social services as necessary.
(4) A clear standard for requiring a pupil-parent-educator conference to review a pupil’s written agreement, and reconsider the independent study program’s impact on the pupil’s achievement and well-being, consistent with the policies adopted pursuant to paragraph (4) of subdivision (g).
(e) (1) For pupils in transitional kindergarten and grades 1 to 3, inclusive, a plan to provide opportunities for daily synchronous instruction for all pupils throughout the school year.
(2) For pupils in grades 4 to 8, inclusive, a plan to provide opportunities for both daily live interaction and at least weekly synchronous instruction for all pupils throughout the school year.
(3) For pupils in grades 9 to 12, inclusive, a plan to provide opportunities for at least weekly synchronous instruction for all pupils throughout the school year.
(f) A plan to transition pupils whose families wish to return to in-person instruction from independent study expeditiously, and, in no case, later than five instructional days.
(g) A requirement that a current written agreement for each independent study pupil shall be maintained on file, including, but not limited to, all of the following:
(1) The manner, time, frequency, and place for submitting a pupil’s assignments, for reporting the pupil’s academic progress, and for communicating with a pupil’s parent or guardian regarding a pupil’s academic progress.
(2) The objectives and methods of study for the pupil’s work, and the methods used to evaluate that work.
(3) The specific resources, including materials and personnel, that will be made available to the pupil. These resources shall include confirming or providing access to all pupils to the connectivity and devices adequate to participate in the educational program and complete assigned work.
(4) A statement of the policies adopted pursuant to subdivisions (a) and (b) regarding the maximum length of time allowed between the assignment and the completion of a pupil’s assigned work, the level of satisfactory educational progress, and the number of missed assignments allowed before an evaluation of whether or not the pupil should be allowed to continue in independent study.
(5) The duration of the independent study agreement, including the beginning and ending dates for the pupil’s participation in independent study under the agreement. No independent study agreement shall be valid for any period longer than one school year.
(6) A statement of the number of course credits or, for the elementary grades, other measures of academic accomplishment appropriate to the agreement, to be earned by the pupil upon completion.
(7) A statement detailing the academic and other supports that will be provided to address the needs of pupils who are not performing at grade level, or need support in other areas, such as English learners, individuals with exceptional needs in order to be consistent with the pupil’s individualized education program or plan pursuant to Section 504 of the federal Rehabilitation Act of 1973 (29 U.S.C. Sec. 794), pupils in foster care or experiencing homelessness, and pupils requiring mental health supports.
(8) The inclusion of a statement in each independent study agreement that independent study is an optional educational alternative in which no pupil may be required to participate. In the case of a pupil who is referred or assigned to any school, class, or program pursuant to Section 48915 or 48917, the agreement also shall include the statement that instruction may be provided to the pupil through independent study only if the pupil is offered the alternative of classroom instruction.
(9) (A) For a pupil participating in an independent study program that is scheduled for more than 14 school days, each written agreement shall be signed, before the commencement of independent study, by the pupil, the pupil’s parent, legal guardian, or caregiver, if the pupil is less than 18 years of age, the certificated employee who has been designated as having responsibility for the general supervision of independent study, and the certificated employee designated as having responsibility for the special education programming of the pupil, as applicable. Beginning in the 2022–23 school year, for a pupil participating in an independent study program that is scheduled for less than 15 school days, each written agreement shall be signed within 10 school days of the commencement of the first day of the pupil’s enrollment in independent study, by the pupil, the pupil’s parent, legal guardian, or caregiver, if the pupil is less than 18 years of age, the certificated employee who has been designated as having responsibility for the general supervision of independent study, and the certificated employee designated as having responsibility for the special education programming of the pupil, as applicable. For purposes of this paragraph “caregiver” means a person who has met the requirements of Part 1.5 (commencing with Section 6550) of Division 11 of the Family Code.
(B) Signed written agreements, supplemental agreements, assignment records, work samples, and attendance records assessing time value of work or evidence that an instructional activity occurred may be maintained as an electronic file.
(C) For purposes of this section, an electronic file includes a computer or electronic stored image of an original document, including, but not limited to, portable document format (PDF), JPEG, or other digital image file type, that may be sent via fax machine, email, or other electronic means.
(D) Either an original document or an electronic file of the original document is allowable documentation for auditing purposes.
(E) Written agreements may be signed using an electronic signature that complies with state and federal standards, as determined by the department, that may be a marking that is either computer generated or produced by electronic means and is intended by the signatory to have the same effect as a handwritten signature. The use of an electronic signature shall have the same force and effect as the use of a manual signature if the requirements for digital signatures and their acceptable technology, as provided in Section 16.5 of the Government Code and in Chapter 10 (commencing with Section 22000) of Division 7 of Title 2 of the California Code of Regulations, are satisfied.
(F) Notwithstanding subparagraph (A), for the 2021–22 school year only, a local educational agency shall obtain a signed written agreement for an independent study program of any length of time from the pupil, or the pupil’s parent or legal guardian if the pupil is less than 18 years of age, the certificated employee who has been designated as having responsibility for the general supervision of independent study, and the certificated employee designated as having responsibility for the special education programming of the pupil, as applicable, no later than 30 days after the first day of instruction in an independent study program or October 15, whichever date comes later. This subparagraph does not relieve a local educational agency from the obligation to comply with the requirements of this article, as amended by the act adding this subparagraph, upon commencement of instruction for a participating pupil in the 2021–22 school year.
(h) (1) For the 2021–22 school year only, school districts and county offices of education shall notify the parents and guardians of all enrolled pupils of their options to enroll their child in in-person instruction or independent study during the 2021–22 school year. This notice shall include written information on the local educational agency’s internet website, including, but not limited to, the right to request a pupil-parent-educator conference meeting before enrollment pursuant to this section, pupil rights regarding procedures for enrolling, disenrolling, and reenrolling in independent study, and the synchronous and asynchronous instructional time that a pupil will have access to as part of independent study. If 15 percent or more of the pupils enrolled in a local educational agency that provides instruction in transitional kindergarten, kindergarten, or any of grades 1 to 12, inclusive, speak a single primary language other than English, as determined from the census data submitted to the department pursuant to Section 52164 in the preceding year, the written information shall, in addition to being written in English, be written in the primary language.
(2) Before signing a written agreement pursuant to this section, the parent or guardian of a pupil may request that the local educational agency conduct a telephone, videoconference, or in-person pupil-parent-educator conference or other school meeting during which the pupil, parent or guardian, and, if requested by the pupil or parent, an education advocate, may ask questions about the educational options, including which curriculum offerings and nonacademic supports will be available to the pupil in independent study, before making the decision about enrollment or disenrollment in the various options for learning.
(i) Subdivisions (d), (e), and (f) shall not apply to pupils that participate in an independent study program for fewer than 15 schooldays in a school year and pupils enrolled in a comprehensive school for classroom-based instruction who, under the care of appropriately licensed professionals, participate in independent study due to necessary medical treatments or inpatient treatment for mental health care or substance abuse. Local educational agencies shall obtain evidence from appropriately licensed professionals of the need for pupils to participate in independent study pursuant to this subdivision.
(j) (1) Notwithstanding paragraph (8) of subdivision (g) of this section, paragraph (1) of subdivision (e) of Section 46300, and subdivision (d) of Section 51745, for the 2021–22 school year only, a local educational agency shall be eligible to receive apportionments for independent study for pupils that are subject to quarantine for exposure to, or infection with, COVID-19 pursuant to local or state health guidance, and the pupil cannot participate in classroom-based instruction due to the quarantine, and for school closures due to COVID-19 pursuant to subdivision (c) of Section 41422. Local educational agencies shall receive apportionment for these pupils for all schooldays that they participate in and meet all other apportionment requirements of independent study while in quarantine or during a school closure.
(2) Notwithstanding Section 47612.5, for the 2021–22 fiscal year, a classroom-based charter school that provides an independent study program pursuant to this article for pupils that are subject to quarantine for exposure to, or infection with, COVID-19 pursuant to local or state health guidance, and the pupil cannot participate in classroom-based instruction due to the quarantine, shall not attribute quarantine-based independent study average daily attendance required pursuant to law for a nonclassroom-based charter school pursuant to Section 47612.5 and shall not be required to submit a request for a funding determination as a result of providing independent study to quarantined pupils.
(3) This subdivision shall apply only to pupils participating in independent study due to quarantine who do not have the option of in-person instruction, and only for the period of quarantine mandated pursuant to state or local health guidance or order. This subdivision shall not apply to classroom-based charter schools offering independent study to pupils whose parents or guardians have requested independent study pursuant to subdivision (a) of Section 51745.
(k) Commencing with the 2021–22 fiscal year Guide for Annual Audits of K–12 Local Education Agencies and State Compliance Reporting, the Controller shall incorporate verification of the adoption of the policies required pursuant to this section, including loss of apportionment for independent study for local educational agencies found to be noncompliant, unless compliance verification for those policies is already included in the audit guide.
(l) The provisions of this section are not subject to waiver by the state board, by the Superintendent, or under any provision of Part 26.8 (commencing with Section 47600).

SEC. 39.

 Section 52073.3 of the Education Code is amended to read:

52073.3.
 (a) The Legislature finds and declares all of the following:
(1) Without capacity in California’s public school system to conduct meaningful interestholder engagement, especially as it relates to the local control and accountability plan development process, pupils, families, and communities may not be able to hold school districts accountable for decisions that affect pupil outcomes.
(2) The statewide system of support established pursuant to Section 52059.5 should include expertise and resources to help school districts improve in their ability to engage interestholders meaningfully.
(3) Through an important investment made through the Budget Act of 2018, the statewide system of support has grown to include the Community Engagement Initiative, which was established for the purpose of all of the following:
(A) Building capacity in communities and school districts to have difficult conversations with each other and build trust, with a focus on improving outcomes for pupils.
(B) Identifying effective models of community engagement and metrics to evaluate those models.
(C) Developing effective peer-to-peer partnerships between school districts and county offices of education, utilizing the existing professional learning networks structure administered by the California Collaborative for Educational Excellence, to deepen community engagement using lessons learned from the work identified in subparagraph (A) and the models identified in subparagraph (B).
(D) Scaling up the work identified in subparagraphs (A), (B), and (C) to improve community engagement statewide and incorporate practices that prove effective toward school district and county office of education continuous improvement efforts.
(4) Through the Community Engagement Initiative, local educational agencies have been able to create authentic partnerships among pupils, families, school districts, and communities that nurture relationships, build trust, ensure cultural, racial, and linguistic equity, and lead to transformative pupil outcomes.
(5) While the initial investment in the Community Engagement Initiative was an important initial foray into building local educational agency engagement capacity, work remains to strengthen engagement statewide and further address the gaps in local capacity for meaningful community engagement.
(b) The Community Engagement Initiative Expansion, or the Expansion, is hereby established for all of the following purposes:
(1) Increasing and enhancing the emphasis on the engagement of pupils, families, and communities in all aspects of the Community Engagement Initiative.
(2) Expanding the use of the Community Engagement Initiative’s identified metrics to create a common definition and clear standards for meaningful engagement at the local and state levels.
(3) Developing an in-depth training series on meaningful pupil, family, and community engagement and engaging local educational agencies and schoolsite staff in those trainings to build the knowledge, skillsets, and commitment of key staff in improving pupil, family, and community engagement.
(4) Increasing the capacity of the California Collaborative for Educational Excellence and the lead agency selected pursuant to subdivision (c) to scale up the initiative and improve alignment with the statewide system of support.
(c) (1) By May 1, 2023, the department and the California Collaborative for Educational Excellence, with approval from the executive director of the state board, shall select an expert community engagement lead agency, consistent with Section 52073.1, to coadminister the Expansion with the California Collaborative for Educational Excellence.
(2) The lead agency selected for the Expansion shall demonstrate a willingness and capacity to do all of the following:
(A) Develop and disseminate expertise in community engagement.
(B) Work collaboratively with the California Collaborative for Educational Excellence and a diverse group of education interestholders.
(C) Communicate regularly with the department, the California Collaborative for Educational Excellence, and the lead agencies specified in Section 52073 through the formal process established pursuant to subparagraph (B) of paragraph (2) of subdivision (a) of Section 52073.
(D) Document the outcomes of the activities authorized by this section through the duration of the Expansion and, in partnership with the California Collaborative for Educational Excellence and the Expansion participants, develop resources based on the experiences and conclusions of the Community Engagement Initiative’s participants and the Expansion’s participants from their specific contexts that are broadly applicable and actionable statewide.
(E) Play a leadership role in disseminating the information specified in subparagraph (D) throughout the statewide system of support established pursuant to Section 52059.5 and serve as a resource to local educational agencies and community interestholders in applying that information to their local context.
(d) (1) The California Collaborative for Educational Excellence and the lead agency selected pursuant to subdivision (c) shall create a common definition and clear metrics for effective, equitable community engagement that draw upon the metrics developed pursuant to paragraph (3) of subdivision (f) Section 140 of Chapter 32 of the Statutes of 2018.
(2) The metrics shall mirror the original purpose of the Community Engagement Initiative, which is to engage underrepresented pupils, families, and communities, build trust and have authentic and productive conversations, and link engagement to efforts that improve student outcomes.
(e) (1) On or before December 1, 2023, the California Collaborative for Educational Excellence and the lead agency selected pursuant to subdivision (c) shall develop an in-depth training series and resources on meaningful pupil, family, and community engagement.
(2) The developed training series and resources shall be able to accomplish, at a minimum, all of the following:
(A) Develop professional development through train-the-trainer models or online training modules that are scaffolded to support the continued professional development and deeper expertise of educators.
(B) Provide technical assistance to local educational agencies.
(C) Develop a network of educators, especially those selected to participate in previous community engagement professional learning networks pursuant to Section 140 of Chapter 32 of the Statutes of 2018, who can provide coaching and training to other local educational agencies.
(3) The developed training series and resources shall include content on areas, including, but not limited to, all of the following:
(A) How to have conversations on complex issues such as race, language, disability, understanding community expertise, and sharing power.
(B) Engaging local educational agency and schoolsite staff in those trainings to build the knowledge, skillsets, and commitment of key staff in improving pupil, family, and community engagement.
(C) Focusing on and centering the voices of pupils, families, and communities in decisionmaking processes.
(D) Protocols for facilitating professional learning networks to help other communities and school districts improve and deepen their interactions, including the Community Engagement Initiative Protocol Toolkit, developed and tested by community engagement professional learning networks convened pursuant to Section 140 of Chapter 32 of the Statutes of 2018.
(E) Metrics for measuring increases in community engagement, including the metrics developed pursuant to subdivision (d).
(F) How to leverage the Community Engagement Initiative for transformational school investments and authentic pupil, family, community, and educator engagement, including, but not limited to, local control and accountability plans, expanded learning opportunity programs, and California Community School Partnership Act grants.
(4) The training series and resources shall be made publicly available, at no cost to local educational agencies statewide.
(5) The California Collaborative for Educational Excellence shall periodically update the trainings and resources, as needed, based on the findings of future community engagement professional learning networks and other research.
(f) For the 2022–23 fiscal year to the 2026–27 fiscal year, inclusive, the California Collaborative for Educational Excellence and the lead agency selected pursuant to subdivision (c) shall convene 30 community engagement professional learning networks. Each of these professional learning networks shall be similar in composition to the teams described in subdivision (d) of Section 140 of Chapter 32 of the Statutes of 2018. These teams shall be willing to do all of the following:
(1) Participate in the professional learning network for no less than two years.
(2) Engage in open dialogue on issues related to improving local pupil outcomes.
(3) Partner with other communities and school districts on improving community engagement.
(g) For the 2022–23 fiscal year, each of the professional learning networks created pursuant to subdivision (f) shall include as cofacilitators members of a team that participated in the initial community engagement professional learning networks established pursuant to subdivisions (e) and (g) of Section 140 of Chapter 32 of the Statutes of 2018.
(h) Beginning on July 1, 2024, the professional learning networks created pursuant to subdivision (f) may also include as cofacilitators members of a team that participated in the initial community engagement professional learning networks established pursuant to subdivision (k) of Section 140 of Chapter 32 of the Statutes of 2018.
(i) Each of the professional learning networks established pursuant to subdivision (f) shall do both of the following:
(1) Deepen the community engagement of the school districts and communities participating in each professional learning network, including by engaging with the Community Engagement Protocol Toolkit developed by the community engagement professional learning networks established pursuant to Section 140 of Chapter 32 of the Statutes of 2018.
(2) Use the metrics developed pursuant to paragraph (3) of subdivision (f) of Section 140 of Chapter 32 of the Statutes of 2018 to measure changes in community engagement in each of the participating communities and school districts.
(j) By June 30, 2027, the California Collaborative for Educational Excellence and the lead agency selected pursuant to subdivision (c) shall submit a report to the executive director of the state board, the Superintendent, the executive director of the California Collaborative for Educational Excellence, each of the lead agencies identified pursuant to Section 52073, and the chairpersons of each of the appropriate policy and fiscal committees of the Legislature. The report shall include all of the following:
(1) A description of best practices for improving community engagement identified by the professional learning networks established under the Community Engagement Initiative and the Expansion, and any changes in the understanding of best practices throughout the duration of the Expansion.
(2) Using the definition and metrics identified pursuant to subdivision (d), an analysis of the impact of the work done by each team through the professional learning networks on their home communities and school districts.
(3) Feedback to improve the community engagement professional learning network protocol and metrics, and additional activities or resources that would assist in continued development of capacity within local educational agencies and local communities for conducting meaningful interestholder engagement.
(k) For the 2022–23 fiscal year, the sum of one hundred million dollars ($100,000,000) is hereby appropriated from the General Fund to the Superintendent for allocation to the California Collaborative for Educational Excellence to expand and strengthen the Community Engagement Initiative pursuant to this section. The administrative agent of the California Collaborative for Educational Excellence, pursuant to policy and program direction from the governing board of the California Collaborative for Educational Excellence, shall develop the budget for the Community Engagement Initiative Expansion, subject to approval by the Department of Finance. Of the amount appropriated in this subdivision, five million dollars ($5,000,000) shall be allocated to the administrative agent of the California Collaborative for Educational Excellence for costs associated with administering this program. All funds appropriated pursuant to this subdivision shall be available for encumbrance until June 30, 2029.
(l) For purposes of making the computations required by Section 8 of Article XVI of the California Constitution, the appropriation made by subdivision (k) shall be deemed to be “General Fund revenues appropriated for school districts,” as defined in subdivision (c) of Section 41202, for the 2021–22 fiscal year, and included within the “total allocations to school districts and community college districts from General Fund proceeds of taxes appropriated pursuant to Article XIII B,” as defined in subdivision (e) of Section 41202, for the 2021–22 fiscal year.

SEC. 40.

 Section 52511 of the Education Code is amended to read:

52511.
 Whenever the governing board of a school district maintaining an adult school or classes for adults is unable to maintain the school or classes in the school district because of its inability to secure a teacher or teachers, or because of lack of facilities, the governing board of the school district may, with the approval of the county superintendent of schools and the Superintendent, maintain the school or classes of the school district elsewhere than within the school district or contract for instruction of the students in an adult school or classes with the governing board of another school district.

SEC. 41.

 Section 53071 of the Education Code is amended to read:

53071.
 The department shall administer this program as a competitive grant program. An applicant shall demonstrate all of the following to be considered for a grant award:
(a) (1) A proportional dollar-for-dollar match as follows for any funding that an applicant is determined to be eligible to receive under the allocation formula established pursuant to Section 53076:
(A) For the fiscal year beginning July 1, 2015, one dollar ($1) for every one dollar ($1) received from this program.
(B) For the fiscal year beginning July 1, 2016, one dollar and fifty cents ($1.50) for every one dollar ($1) received from this program.
(C) For the fiscal year beginning July 1, 2017, two dollars ($2) for every one dollar ($1) received from this program.
(D) (i) For the fiscal year beginning July 1, 2018, and each fiscal year thereafter, two dollars ($2) for every one dollar ($1) received from this program.
(ii) Beginning July 1, 2021, the proportional dollar-for-dollar match shall be encumbered in the fiscal year for which an applicant is applying to receive a grant under the program.
(2) In the event an applicant is unable to fully match the amount of funding that the allocation formula determines that they are eligible to receive, the applicant’s award shall be reduced to the amount necessary for the applicant to meet the requirements of this subdivision. Under no circumstances shall an applicant be awarded an amount higher than the amount that the allocation formula determines them to be eligible to receive under the program.
(3) That local match may include funding from school district and charter school local control funding formula apportionments pursuant to Section 42238.02, the federal Strengthening Career and Technical Education for the 21st Century Act (Perkins V) (Public Law 115-224), the California Partnership Academies, the Agricultural Career Technical Education Incentive Grant, or any other allowable source except as provided in paragraph (4).
(4) That local match shall not include funding from the K–12 component of the Strong Workforce Program established pursuant to Section 88827 or the Career Technical Education Facilities Program established pursuant to Section 17078.72.
(5) An applicant’s matching funds shall be used to support the program or programs for which the applicant was awarded a grant.
(b) A three-year plan for continued financial and administrative support of career technical education programs that demonstrates a financial commitment of no less than the amount expended on those programs in the previous fiscal year. The plan, at a minimum, shall include the identification of available funding within an applicant’s current or projected budget to continue to support career technical education programs and a written commitment to do so. If an applicant consisting of more than one school district, county office of education, charter school, or regional occupational center or program operated by a joint powers authority or county office of education, or any combination of these entities, is applying for grant funding from this program, identification of available funding and a written commitment shall be demonstrated by each participating constituent entity.
(c) The applicant, or the applicant’s career technical education program, as applicable, meets all of the following minimum eligibility standards:
(1) Offers high quality curriculum and instruction aligned with the California Career Technical Education Model Curriculum Standards, including, but not limited to, providing a coherent sequence of career technical education courses that enable pupils to transition to postsecondary education programs that lead to a career pathway or attain employment or industry certification upon graduation from high school, including programs that integrate academic and career technical education and that offer the opportunity for participants to prepare for postsecondary enrollment and to earn postsecondary credits through Advanced Placement courses, International Baccalaureate courses, or by formal agreement with a postsecondary partner to provide dual enrollment opportunities.
(2) Provides pupils with quality career exploration, guidance, and a continuum of work-based learning opportunities aligned with academic coursework, which may include paid internships.
(3) Provides pupil support services, including counseling and leadership development, to address pupils’ social, emotional, career, and academic needs.
(4) Provides for system alignment, coherence, and articulation, including ongoing and structural regional or local partnerships with postsecondary educational institutions, documented through formal written agreements allowing for dual enrollment opportunities.
(5) Forms ongoing and meaningful industry and labor partnerships, evidenced by written agreements and through participation on advisory committees and collaboration with business and labor organizations to provide opportunities for pupils to gain access to preapprenticeships, internships, industry certifications, and work-based learning opportunities as well as opportunities for industry to provide input to the career technical education programs and curriculum.
(6) Provides opportunities for pupils to participate in after school, extended day, and out-of-school internships, competitions, leadership development opportunities, career and technical education student organizations, and other work-based learning opportunities.
(7) Reflects regional or local labor market demands, and focuses on current or emerging high-skill, high-wage, or high-demand occupations, and is informed by the regional plan of the local Strong Workforce Program consortium.
(8) Leads to an industry-recognized credential or certificate, or appropriate postsecondary education or training, employment, or a postsecondary degree.
(9) Is staffed by skilled teachers or faculty, and provides professional development opportunities for any teachers or faculty members supporting pupils in those programs.
(10) Provides opportunities for pupils who are individuals with exceptional needs to participate in all programs.
(11) (A) Reports data to the Superintendent, no later than November 1 of each fiscal year, as a program participation requirement, to allow for an evaluation of the program.
(B) Data reported pursuant to this paragraph shall include, but not be limited to, the quality indicators described in the California State Plan for Career Technical Education required by the federal Strengthening Career and Technical Education for the 21st Century Act (Perkins V), and each of the following metrics:
(i) The high school graduation rate.
(ii) The number of pupils completing career technical education coursework.
(iii) The number of pupils meeting academic and career-readiness standards as defined in the College/Career Indicator associated with the California School Dashboard.
(iv) The number of pupils obtaining an industry-recognized credential, certificate, license, or other measure of technical skill attainment.
(v) The number of former pupils employed and the types of businesses in which they are employed.
(vi) The number of former pupils enrolled in each of the following:
(I) A postsecondary educational institution.
(II) A state apprenticeship program.
(III) A form of job training other than a state apprenticeship program.
(C) No later than November 30 of each fiscal year, the California Workforce Pathways Joint Advisory Committee, established pursuant to Section 12053, shall review the data metrics specified in subparagraph (B) and make recommendations to the Department of Finance, the Governor, and the appropriate policy and fiscal committees of the Legislature as to both of the following topics:
(i) Whether these data metrics remain the most appropriate metrics to measure and evaluate program outcomes for both new and renewal applicants.
(ii) Whether other metrics should be included.
(D) The department shall make the data reported pursuant to subparagraph (B) available to the office of the Chancellor of the California Community Colleges, in the manner and form requested by the office of the Chancellor of the California Community Colleges, on or before December 30 of each fiscal year to ensure that data is included in the California Community Colleges LaunchBoard data platform.

SEC. 42.

 Section 53076.1 of the Education Code is amended to read:

53076.1.
 The Controller shall include instructions in the audit guide required by Section 14502.1 that include procedures for determining that a grant recipient has met the proportional dollar-for-dollar match requirements specified in subdivision (a) of Section 53071. The processes identified in subdivision (d) of Section 41344 or subdivision (d) of Section 41344.1 shall not apply to this audit procedure.

SEC. 43.

 Section 54692 of the Education Code is amended to read:

54692.
 In order to be eligible to receive funding pursuant to this article, a school district shall provide all of the following:
(a) An amount equal to a 100-percent match of all funds received pursuant to this article in the form of direct and in-kind support provided by the district.
(b) An amount equal to a 100-percent match of all funds received pursuant to this article in the form of direct and in-kind support provided by participating companies or other private sector organizations.
(c) An assurance that state funds provided by the partnership academies program shall be used only for the development, operation, and support of partnership academies.
(d) An assurance that each academy will be established as a “school within a school.” Academy teachers shall work as a team in planning, teaching, and troubleshooting program activities. Classes in the academy program shall be limited to academy pupils as specified in subdivision (e). Each participating school district shall establish an advisory committee consisting of individuals involved in academy operations, including school district and school administrators, lead teachers, and representatives of the private sector.
(e) Assurance that each academy pupil will be provided with the following:
(1) Instruction in at least three academic subjects each regular school term that prepares the pupil for a regular high school diploma, and, where possible and appropriate, to meet the subject requirements for admission to the California State University and the University of California. These subjects should contribute to an understanding of the occupational field of the academy.
(2) Career technical education or science, technology, engineering, and mathematics (STEM) courses offered at each grade level at the academy that are part of an occupational course sequence that targets comprehensive skills and that does the following:
(A) Provides career technical education or STEM courses in high skill occupations of regional and local economic need.
(B) Focuses on occupations requiring comprehensive skills leading to higher than entry-level wages, or the possibility of significant wage increases after a few years on the job, or both.
(C) Provides a sequence of courses that build upon each other in knowledge, skill development, and experience, and ends in a capstone course that includes an internship component.
(D) Prepares pupils for employment and postsecondary education. Sequenced courses shall be linked to certificate and degree programs in the region, where possible.
(E) Whenever possible, prepares pupils for industry-recognized certifications.
(F) Whenever possible and appropriate, offers career technical education or STEM courses that also meet the subject requirements for admission to the California State University and the University of California.
(3) A class schedule that limits the attendance to the classes required in paragraphs (1) and (2) to pupils of the academy. Whenever possible, these classes should be block scheduled in a cluster to provide flexibility to academy teachers. During the 12th grade the number of academic classes may vary.
(4) A mentor from the business community during the pupil’s 11th grade year.
(5) An employer-based internship or work experience that occurs in the summer following the 11th grade or during 12th grade year.
(6) Additional motivational activities with private sector involvement to encourage academic and occupational preparation.
(f) Assurance that academy teachers have a common planning period to interchange pupil and educational information. A second planning period should be provided for the lead teacher in addition to the normal planning period for full-time teachers and be supported as a part of the school district’s matching funds, whenever practical.

SEC. 44.

 Section 67102.5 of the Education Code is amended to read:

67102.5.
 (a) On or before January 1, 2024, CSAAVE shall establish regulations requiring postsecondary educational institutions to provide the following information to CSAAVE as part of an application for approval or renewal:
(1) The institution’s most recent cohort default rate as reported to the United States Department of Education.
(2) For institutions other than the University of California, the California State University, and the California Community Colleges, evidence that the institution meets financial responsibility requirements that shall be established by CSAAVE.
(3) Evidence of the institution’s accreditation status.
(4) Whether a student, former student, or public prosecutor has filed a lawsuit against the institution for fraud, misrepresentation, or deceit within five years before the institution’s application for approval or renewal, including both pending and resolved lawsuits.
(5) If the institution makes an implied or express representation that it prepares students to work in a profession, occupation, trade, or career field requiring licensure or certification by the state, the following information shall also be disclosed:
(A) Whether the institution has obtained a required approval by the appropriate state licensing or certifying agency for the profession, occupation, trade, or career field.
(B) Whether the institution meets all requirements necessary to allow a student to lawfully obtain a state license or certificate.
(C) The license or certificate passage rate for each program.
(D) An employment market assessment for nondegree programs.
(b) To the extent that a School Performance Fact Sheet accepted by the Bureau for Private Postsecondary Education pursuant to Section 94910, documents submitted to the United States Department of Education, documents submitted to the United States Department of Veterans Affairs, or previously submitted applications to CSAAVE contain information required by this section or a CSAAVE application, the institution may provide, as part of the application, a copy of the information previously submitted or a reference, including, but not limited to, an internet website link, to the fact sheet or documents.

SEC. 45.

 Section 67329.51 of the Education Code is amended to read:

67329.51.
 (a) For projects financed pursuant to this chapter, participating colleges and universities and participating nonprofit entities shall do all of the following:
(1) At least seven days before issuing a bid solicitation for the project, send a notice of the solicitation that describes the project to the following entities within the jurisdiction of the proposed project site:
(A) Any bona fide labor organization representing workers in the building and construction trades who may perform work necessary to complete the project.
(B) Any organization representing contractors that may perform work necessary to complete the project.
(2) Ensure that all contractors and subcontractors performing work on the project will be required to pay prevailing wages for any proposed construction, alteration, or repair in accordance with Chapter 1 (commencing with Section 1720) of Part 7 of Division 2 of the Labor Code. All of the following shall occur:
(A) The participating college or university or participating nonprofit entity shall ensure that the prevailing wage requirement is included in all contracts for the performance of all construction work.
(B) All contractors and subcontractors shall pay to all construction workers employed in the execution of the work at least the general prevailing rate of per diem wages, except that apprentices registered in programs approved by the Chief of the Division of Apprenticeship Standards may be paid at least the applicable apprentice prevailing rate.
(C) Except as provided in subparagraph (E), all contractors and subcontractors shall maintain and verify payroll records pursuant to Section 1776 of the Labor Code, and make those records available for inspection and copying as provided therein.
(D) Except as provided in subparagraph (E), the obligation of the contractors and subcontractors to pay prevailing wages may be enforced by the Labor Commissioner through the issuance of a civil wage and penalty assessment pursuant to Section 1741 of the Labor Code, which may be reviewed pursuant to Section 1742 of the Labor Code, within 18 months after the completion of the development, or by an underpaid worker through an administrative complaint or civil action, or by a joint labor-management committee though a civil action under Section 1771.2 of the Labor Code. If a civil wage and penalty assessment is issued, the contractor, subcontractor, and surety on a bond or bonds issued to secure the payment of wages covered by the assessment shall be liable for liquidated damages pursuant to Section 1742.1 of the Labor Code.
(E) Subparagraphs (C) and (D) shall not apply if all contractors and subcontractors performing work on the development are subject to a multicraft building trades project labor agreement that requires the payment of prevailing wages to all construction workers employed in the execution of the development and provides for enforcement of that obligation through an arbitration procedure. For purposes of this subparagraph, “project labor agreement” has the same meaning as set forth in paragraph (1) of subdivision (b) of Section 2500 of the Public Contract Code.
(3) For projects financed pursuant to this chapter with onsite construction, alteration, or repair costs totaling twenty-five million dollars ($25,000,000) or more, seek bids containing an enforceable commitment that all contractors and subcontractors performing work on the project will use a skilled and trained workforce to perform any rehabilitation, construction, or alterations work on the project that falls within an apprenticeable occupation in the building and construction trades.
(4) For the purpose of establishing a bidder pool of eligible contractors and subcontractors that satisfy the skilled and trained workforce requirements, establish a process to prequalify prime contractors and subcontractors, including, but not limited to, electrical, mechanical, and plumbing subcontractors. This process shall include, but is not limited to, all of the following requirements:
(A) The participating college or university or participating nonprofit entity shall only accept bids from prime contractors that have been prequalified and listed as eligible contractors.
(B) If the participating college or university or participating nonprofit entity receives at least two bids from prequalified prime contractors, the contract shall be awarded to the lowest qualified bidder and the participating college or university or participating nonprofit entity shall certify to the authority that a skilled and trained workforce will be used to perform all construction work on the development.
(C) If the participating college or university or participating nonprofit entity receives fewer than two bids from prequalified prime contractors, the contract may be rebid and awarded to the lowest responsive bidder without the skilled and trained workforce requirement applying to the prime contractor’s scope of work.
(D) Prime contractors shall only accept bids and list subcontractors from the prequalified list. If the prime contractor receives bids from at least 2 subcontractors in each tier listed on the prequalified list, the prime contractor shall require that the contract for that tier or scope of work will require a skilled and trained workforce.
(E) If the prime contractor fails to receive at least 2 bids from subcontractors listed on the prequalified list in any tier, the prime contractor will not require that a skilled and trained workforce be used for that scope of work, and may list subcontractors that do not appear on the prequalified list.
(F) The participating college or university or participating nonprofit entity shall establish minimum qualifications that are, to the maximum extent possible, quantifiable and objective. Only criterion, and minimum thresholds for any criterion, that are reasonably necessary to ensure that any bidder awarded a project can successfully complete the proposed scope shall be used by the project proponent.
(G) All bids submitted by prime contractors and subcontractors shall be sealed, opened in a public process that is open to all bidders and other interested parties, and listed on the participating college’s or university’s or participating nonprofit entity’s internet website.
(H) The Subletting and Subcontracting Fair Practices Act established pursuant to Chapter 4 (commencing with Section 4100) of Part 1 of Division 2 of the Public Contract Code shall apply.
(5) (A) Except as provided in subparagraph (B), provide to the authority on a monthly basis while the development or contract is being performed a report demonstrating compliance with Chapter 2.9 (commencing with Section 2600) of Part 1 of Division 2 of the Public Contract Code. A monthly report provided to the authority pursuant to this subparagraph shall be a public record under the California Public Records Act (Division 10 (commencing with Section 7920.000) of Title 1 of the Government Code) and shall be open to public inspection. A participating college or university or participating nonprofit entity that fails to provide a monthly report demonstrating compliance with Chapter 2.9 (commencing with Section 2600) of Part 1 of Division 2 of the Public Contract Code shall be subject to a civil penalty of ten thousand dollars ($10,000) per month for each month for which the report has not been provided. Any contractor or subcontractor that fails to use a skilled and trained workforce shall be subject to a civil penalty of two hundred dollars ($200) per day for each worker employed in contravention of the skilled and trained workforce requirement. Penalties may be assessed by the Labor Commissioner within 18 months of completion of the development using the same procedures for issuance of civil wage and penalty assessments pursuant to Section 1741 of the Labor Code, and may be reviewed pursuant to the same procedures in Section 1742 of the Labor Code. Penalties shall be paid to the State Public Works Enforcement Fund.
(B) Subparagraph (A) shall not apply if all contractors and subcontractors performing work on the development are subject to a multicraft building trades project labor agreement that requires compliance with the skilled and trained workforce requirement and provides for enforcement of that obligation through an arbitration procedure. For purposes of this subparagraph, “project labor agreement” has the same meaning as set forth in paragraph (1) of subdivision (b) of Section 2500 of the Public Contract Code.
(6) Notify the Department of Industrial Relations within five calendar days of the contract award.
(b) For purposes of this section, “skilled and trained workforce” has the same meaning as provided in Chapter 2.9 (commencing with Section 2600) of Part 1 of Division 2 of the Public Contract Code.

SEC. 46.

 Section 67385.7 of the Education Code is amended to read:

67385.7.
 (a) The governing board of each community college district and the Trustees of the California State University shall, and the Regents of the University of California are requested to, in collaboration with campus-based and community-based victim advocacy organizations, provide, as part of established campus orientations, educational and preventive information about sexual violence to students at all campuses of their respective segments. For a campus with an existing on-campus orientation program, this information shall be provided, in addition to the sexual harassment information required to be provided pursuant to subdivision (e) of Section 66281.5, during the regular orientation for incoming students.
(b) (1) Each campus of the California Community Colleges and the California State University shall post educational and preventive information on sexual violence and sexual harassment on its campus internet website.
(2) Each campus of an independent institution of higher education, a private postsecondary educational institution, and the University of California is requested to post educational and preventive information on sexual violence and sexual harassment on its campus internet website.
(c) The educational and preventive information provided pursuant to this section shall include, but not necessarily be limited to, all of the following:
(1) Common facts and myths about the causes of sexual violence and sexual harassment.
(2) What constitutes sexual violence and sexual harassment, including information on how to file internal administrative complaints with the institution of higher education and how to file criminal charges with local law enforcement officials.
(3) The availability of, and contact information for, campus and community resources for students who are victims of sexual violence and sexual harassment.
(4) Methods of encouraging peer support for victims and the imposition of sanctions on offenders.
(5) Information regarding campus, criminal, and civil consequences of committing acts of sexual violence and sexual harassment.
(d) (1) Beginning on September 1, 2024, and each year thereafter, the California Community Colleges, the California State University, independent institutions of higher education that receive state financial assistance, and private postsecondary educational institutions that receive state financial assistance shall, and the University of California is requested to, annually train its students on sexual violence and sexual harassment.
(2) Beginning on September 1, 2024, and each year thereafter, students attending the California Community Colleges shall complete their annual training within six months of the beginning of the academic year.
(3) The annual training for students established in paragraph (1) shall cover all of the following topics:
(A) Common facts and myths about the causes of sexual violence and sexual harassment.
(B) What constitutes sexual violence and sexual harassment, including information on how to file internal administrative complaints with the institution of higher education and how to file criminal charges with local law enforcement officials.
(C) The availability of, and contact information for, campus and community resources for students who are victims of sexual violence and sexual harassment.
(D) Methods of encouraging peer support for victims and the imposition of sanctions on offenders.
(E) Information regarding campus, criminal, and civil consequences of committing acts of sexual violence and sexual harassment.
(F) The contact information of a Title IX coordinator or a similar position.
(G) As referenced in subparagraph (B) of paragraph (6) of subdivision (b) of Section 66281.8, statistics on the prevalence of sexual harassment and sexual violence in the educational setting, and the differing rates at which students experience sexual harassment and sexual assault in the educational setting based on their race, sexual orientation, disability, gender, and gender identity.
(e) This section does not prevent the California Community Colleges, the California State University, independent institutions of higher education, private postsecondary educational institutions, and the University of California from incorporating the training developed pursuant to subdivision (d) from being integrated into existing trainings as referenced in subdivision (a).
(f) A community college district may authorize students to self-certify that they have completed training developed pursuant to this section.
(g) As used in this section, the following terms have the following meanings:
(1) “Independent institutions of higher education” has the same meaning as that term is defined in Section 66010.
(2) “Private postsecondary educational institution” has the same meaning as that term is defined in Section 94858.
(3) “Sexual violence” and “sexual harassment” have the same meaning as those terms are defined in Section 66262.5.
(4) “Training” or “train” includes, but is not limited to, in-person, remote, or video instruction. “Training” or “train” shall not include instruction that is only provided through written materials.
(h) Campuses of the California Community Colleges and the California State University shall, and campuses of the University of California are requested to, develop policies to encourage students to report any campus crimes involving sexual violence to the appropriate campus authorities.
(i) Campuses are urged to adopt policies to eliminate barriers for victims who come forward to report sexual assaults, and to advise students regarding these policies. These policies may include, but are not necessarily limited to, exempting the victim from campus sanctions for being in violation of any campus policies, including alcohol or substance abuse policies or other policies of the campus, at the time of the incident.
(j) The Board of Governors of the California Community Colleges and the Trustees of the California State University shall, and the Regents of the University of California are requested to, develop and adopt regulations setting forth procedures for the implementation of this section by campuses in their respective segments.

SEC. 47.

 Section 71093 of the Education Code is amended to read:

71093.
 Notwithstanding any other law:
(a) The board of governors may authorize the chancellor to suspend the authority of the Board of Trustees of the Compton Community College District, or of any of the members of that board, to exercise any powers or responsibilities or to take any official actions with respect to the management of the district, including any of the district’s assets, contracts, expenditures, facilities, funds, personnel, or property. The board of governors may authorize suspension for a period up to five years from the effective date of Assembly Bill 318 of the 2005–06 Regular Session, plus a period lasting until the chancellor, the Fiscal Crisis and Management Assistance Team, the Director of Finance, and the Governor concur with the special trustee that the district has, for two consecutive academic years, met the requirements of the comprehensive assessment conducted, and the recovery plan prepared, pursuant to Section 41329.59.
(b) A suspension authorized by this section becomes effective immediately upon the delivery of a document to the administrative offices of the Compton Community College District that sets forth the finding of the chancellor that a suspension pursuant to this section is necessary for the establishment of fiscal integrity and security in that district.
(c) (1) If and when the chancellor suspends the authority of the Board of Trustees of the Compton Community College District or any of its members pursuant to this section, the chancellor may appoint a special trustee as provided in paragraph (3) of subdivision (c) of Section 84040, at district expense, to manage the district. The chancellor is authorized to assume, and delegate to the special trustee, those powers and duties of the Board of Trustees of the Compton Community College District that the chancellor determines, with the approval of the board of governors, are necessary for the management of that district. The Board of Trustees of the Compton Community College District may not exercise any of the duties or powers assumed by the chancellor under this section.
(2) The chancellor may appoint as a special trustee under this section a person who has served in a similar capacity. A special trustee appointed under this section shall serve at the pleasure of the chancellor.
(3) Notwithstanding any other law, in order to facilitate the appointment of the special trustee, the chancellor is exempt, for purposes of this section, from the requirements of Article 6 (commencing with Section 999) of Chapter 6 of Division 4 of the Military and Veterans Code and Part 2 (commencing with Section 10100) of Division 2 of the Public Contract Code.
(d) (1) Notwithstanding any other law, at any time that this section is in effect, the chancellor is authorized to assume, and delegate to the special trustee, those powers and duties of the Compton Community College District Personnel Commission that the chancellor determines are necessary for the management of the personnel functions of the Compton Community College District. The personnel commission may not exercise any of the powers or duties assumed by the chancellor.
(2) (A) If and when the suspension of the authority of the Board of Trustees of the Compton Community College District has ended pursuant to subdivision (a), the board of trustees shall assume those powers and duties of the Compton Community College District Personnel Commission that the board of trustees determines are necessary for the management of the personnel functions of the Compton Community College District. The personnel commission shall not exercise any of the powers or duties assumed by the board of trustees.
(B) Subparagraph (A) shall remain in effect until one calendar year after the Compton Community College District has repaid to the state the emergency apportionment funding pursuant to Section 41329.58.
(C) Beginning one calendar year after the Compton Community College District has made its final payment to the state for the emergency apportionment funding pursuant to Section 41329.58, the Compton Community College District Personnel Commission shall be reinstated to exercise the powers and duties necessary for the management of the personnel functions of the Compton Community College District.
(3) (A) Beginning in the year in which the Compton Community College District has repaid the emergency apportionment pursuant to Section 41329.58, the Board of Trustees of the Compton Community College District shall establish the Compton Community College District Personnel Commission in an advisory capacity. Members of the personnel commission shall be appointed pursuant to subparagraph (B). The personnel commission shall advise the board of trustees on the powers and duties assumed by the board of trustees pursuant to subparagraph (A) of paragraph (2).
(B) One member of the Compton Community College District Personnel Commission shall be appointed by the Board of Trustees of the Compton Community College District. One member of the personnel commission shall be nominated by the classified employees of the Compton Community College District and appointed by the board of trustees. Those two members shall, in turn, appoint the third member of the personnel commission.
(C) As used in this section, “classified employees” means an exclusive representative that represents the largest number of noncertificated employees in a unit or units within the Compton Community College District. If there is no exclusive representative within the district, the board of trustees shall, by written rule, prescribe the method by which the recommendation is to be made by the district’s classified employees.
(4) On or before September 15 the year after the Board of Trustees of the Compton Community College District establishes the Compton Community College District Personnel Commission in an advisory capacity pursuant to paragraph (3), the personnel commission shall provide a report of duties fulfilled in its advisory role to the board of trustees and shall make the report available to the public on the internet website of the Compton Community College District.
(5) Beginning on or before September 15, 2023, and annually thereafter, the Compton Community College District shall provide to the Department of Finance, the Assembly Budget Subcommittee on Education Finance, and the Senate Budget Subcommittee on Education an update on its repayment of the emergency apportionment funding pursuant to Section 41329.58. The update shall include the principal loan balance, annual loan payment, and the loan repayment schedule.
(e) Notwithstanding any other law, if the special trustee has been a member of the State Teachers’ Retirement System or the Public Employees’ Retirement System at any time before appointment, the special trustee shall, for the period of service as special trustee, be a member of the system to which the special trustee belonged, unless the special trustee elects, in writing, not to be a member. If the special trustee chooses to be a member, the special trustee shall be placed on the payroll of the district, or the payroll of another local educational agency or other entity that the district has an exchange agreement with pursuant to Section 87422 or other applicable laws, for the purpose of providing appropriate contributions to the applicable retirement system.
(f) The special trustee appointed pursuant to this section is authorized to do all of the following:
(1) Implement substantial changes in the fiscal policies and practices of the Compton Community College District.
(2) Revise the academic program of the Compton Community College District to reflect realistic income projections in response to the dramatic effect of the changes in fiscal policies and practices upon program quality.
(3) Encourage all members of the college community to accept a fair share of the burden of the full recovery of the Compton Community College District in the five operational areas of finance, academics, personnel, facilities, and governance.
(4) Enter into agreements on behalf of the Compton Community College District and, subject to any contractual and statutory obligation of the Compton Community College District, change any existing district rules, regulations, policies, or practices as necessary for the effective implementation of the recovery plan. Any agreement authorized by this section shall be binding upon the district for the term of the agreement, notwithstanding the removal of the special trustee for any reason or the reinstatement of any powers or responsibilities of the board of trustees. No agreement authorized by this paragraph shall materially impair the security and other interests of the holders of any bonds issued pursuant to Article 9 (commencing with Section 63049.67) of Chapter 2 of Division 1 of Title 6.7 of the Government Code.
(5) Appoint an advisory committee to advise the special trustee with respect to the management of the Compton Community College District and the establishment and implementation of the arrangements for provision of services by a partner district pursuant to Article 5 (commencing with Section 74292) of Chapter 5 of Part 46. This advisory committee may include residents of the communities served by the Compton Community College District, and any outside experts deemed appropriate by the special trustee. No member of the advisory committee shall receive any compensation or benefits for their services as a member of the advisory committee.
(g) In the event of a vacancy in the special trustee position, the chancellor shall temporarily assume all of the powers and duties of the special trustee until another special trustee can be appointed pursuant to this section.

SEC. 48.

 Section 78212.5 of the Education Code is amended to read:

78212.5.
 It is the intent of the Legislature that, pursuant to Sections 78213 and 78213.1, all of the following are satisfied:
(a) All United States high school graduate students and those who have received a high school equivalency certificate, regardless of background or special population status, who plan to pursue a certificate, degree, or transfer program offered by the California Community Colleges, shall be directly placed into, and, when beginning coursework in English or mathematics, shall be enrolled in, transfer-level English and mathematics courses if their program requires mathematics or English.
(b) California community colleges shall place and enroll students into transfer-level mathematics or English coursework that satisfies a requirement of the student’s intended certificate or associate degree or a requirement for transfer within their intended major.
(c) When the California State University and University of California systems require mathematics or English prerequisites, both of the following apply:
(1) Community colleges shall determine the methods of fulfilling the prerequisite, whether it be through high school coursework, completion of corequisite coursework or concurrent support activity, credit by examination, credit for prior learning, or multiple measures placement into, or completion of, a course with the same or higher prerequisite.
(2) The California State University shall, and the University of California is requested to, work collaboratively with the California Community Colleges to maintain articulation of courses successfully completed at the California Community Colleges.
(d) California community colleges create the largest opportunities possible for access to transfer-level courses, ensure the greatest enrollment possible into those courses, and provide students the support they need to perform well and be successful in completing those courses.
(e) In order to protect the rights of students with disabilities to fully benefit from participation in postsecondary educational programs, students with documented disabilities shall retain access to educational assistance classes, as described in Section 56028 of Title 5 of the California Code of Regulations, that are offered to students who otherwise would not be able to benefit from general college classes even with appropriate academic adjustments, auxiliary aids, and services.
(f) Notwithstanding this article, community colleges remain responsible for implementing state and federal laws pertaining to funding and providing services to students with disabilities, including, but not limited to, Chapter 14 (commencing with Section 67300) of Part 40 of Division 5, the federal Rehabilitation Act of 1973 (29 U.S.C. Sec. 701 et seq.), as amended, and the federal Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990 (42 U.S.C. Sec. 12101 et seq.), as amended.

SEC. 49.

 Section 94146 of the Education Code is amended to read:

94146.
 (a) Bonds issued under this chapter shall not be deemed to constitute a debt or liability of the state or of any political subdivision of the state, or a pledge of the faith and credit of the state or of any political subdivision other than the authority, but shall be payable solely from the funds herein provided. All bonds shall contain a statement to the effect that neither the State of California nor the authority shall be obligated to pay the bond or the interest on the bond except from revenues of the authority, and that neither the faith and credit nor the taxing power of the state or of any political subdivision of the state is pledged to the payment of the principal of, or the interest on, the bonds.
(b) The issuance of bonds under this chapter shall not directly, indirectly, or contingently obligate the state or any political subdivision of the state to levy or to pledge any form of taxation whatever therefor or to make an appropriation for payment of the bonds. This section shall not prevent or be construed to prevent the authority from pledging its full faith and credit, or the full faith and credit of a participating private college, participating nonprofit entity, or university applicant, to the payment of bonds or issue of bonds authorized pursuant to this chapter.

SEC. 50.

 Section 94150 of the Education Code is amended to read:

94150.
 (a) The authority may issue bonds of the authority for the purpose of refunding any bonds or notes of the authority then outstanding, including the payment of any redemption premium thereon and any interest accrued or to accrue to the earliest date of redemption or subsequent date of redemption, purchase or maturity of the bonds, to be refunded and, if deemed advisable by the authority, for the additional purpose of paying all or any part of the cost of working capital or constructing and acquiring additions, improvements, extensions, or enlargements of a project or any portion of a project.
(b) The proceeds of any bonds issued for the purpose of refunding outstanding bonds may, in the discretion of the authority, be applied to the purchase, retirement at maturity, or redemption before maturity of any outstanding bonds either on their earliest redemption date or dates, any subsequent redemption date or dates, upon their purchase or maturity, or paid to a third person to assume the authority’s obligation to make the payments, and may, pending that application, be placed in escrow to be applied to the purchase, retirement at maturity, or redemption on the date or dates determined by the authority.
(c) Any proceeds placed in escrow may, pending their use, be invested and reinvested in obligations or securities authorized by resolutions of the authority, payable or maturing at the time or times as are appropriate to assure the prompt payment of the principal, interest, and redemption premium, if any, of the outstanding bonds to be refunded at maturity or redemption of the bonds to be refunded either at their earliest redemption date or dates or any subsequent redemption date or dates. The interest, income and profits, if any, earned or realized on any such investment may also be applied to the payment of the outstanding bonds to be refunded or to the payment of interest on the refunding bonds. After the terms of the escrow have been fully satisfied and carried out, any balance of the proceeds and interest, income and profits, if any, earned or realized on the investments thereof may be returned to the authority for use by the authority.
(d) The portion of the proceeds of any bonds issued for the additional purpose of paying all or any part of the cost of working capital or constructing and acquiring additions, improvements, extensions, or enlargements of a project may be invested and reinvested in obligations or securities authorized by resolution of the authority, maturing not later than the time or times when the proceeds will be needed for the purpose of paying all or any part of the cost. The interest, income, and profits, if any, earned or realized on the investment may be applied to the payment of all or any part of the cost or may be used by the authority in any lawful manner.
(e) All of those refunding bonds are subject to this chapter in the same manner and to the same extent as other bonds issued pursuant to this chapter.

SEC. 51.

 Section 94151 of the Education Code is amended to read:

94151.
 (a) The authority may loan funds to a participating institution or university applicant and to provide for the issuance of bonds for the purpose of refinancing working capital or projects not originally funded pursuant to this chapter, such refinancing to include the repayment of costs, as defined in Section 94110, incurred for projects by the participating institution or university applicant and that have a completion date after December 29, 1969.
(b) For purposes of this section, “completion date” means, in the case of construction or renovation of a project, the date on which the notice of completion is filed, and, in the case of the acquisition of a project, the date of such acquisition.
(c) All such bonds shall be subject to this chapter in the same manner and to the same extent as other bonds issued pursuant to this chapter.

SEC. 52.

 Section 2194 of the Elections Code is amended to read:

2194.
 (a) Except as provided in Section 2194.1, the affidavit of voter registration information identified in Section 7924.000 of the Government Code:
(1) Shall be confidential and shall not appear on any computer terminal, list, affidavit, duplicate affidavit, or other medium routinely available to the public at the county elections official’s office.
(2) Shall not be used for any personal, private, or commercial purpose, including, but not limited to:
(A) The harassment of any voter or voter’s household.
(B) The advertising, solicitation, sale, or marketing of products or services to any voter or voter’s household.
(C) Reproduction in print, broadcast visual or audio, or display on the internet or any computer terminal unless pursuant to paragraph (3).
(3) Shall be provided with respect to any voter, subject to the provisions of Sections 2166, 2166.5, 2166.7, and 2188, to any candidate for federal, state, or local office, to any committee for or against any initiative or referendum measure for which legal publication is made, and to any person for election, scholarly, journalistic, or political purposes, or for governmental purposes, as determined by the Secretary of State.
(4) May be used by the Secretary of State for the purpose of educating voters pursuant to Section 12173 of the Government Code.
(b) (1) Notwithstanding any other law, the California driver’s license number, the California identification card number, the social security number, and any other unique identifier used by the State of California for purposes of voter identification shown on the affidavit of voter registration of a registered voter, or added to voter registration records to comply with the requirements of the federal Help America Vote Act of 2002 (52 U.S.C. Sec. 20901 et seq.), are confidential and shall not be disclosed to any person.
(2) Notwithstanding any other law, the signature of the voter shown on the affidavit of voter registration or an image thereof is confidential and shall not be disclosed to any person, except as provided in subdivision (c).
(c) (1) The home address or signature of any voter shall be released whenever the person’s vote is challenged pursuant to Sections 15105 to 15108, inclusive, or Article 3 (commencing with Section 14240) of Chapter 3 of Division 14. The address or signature shall be released only to the challenger, to elections officials, and to other persons as necessary to make, defend against, or adjudicate the challenge.
(2) An elections official shall permit a person to view the signature of a voter for the purpose of determining whether the signature compares with a signature on an affidavit of registration or an image thereof or a petition, but shall not permit a signature to be copied.
(d) A governmental entity, or officer or employee thereof, shall not be held civilly liable as a result of disclosure of the information referred to in this section, unless by a showing of gross negligence or willfulness.
(e) For the purposes of this section, “voter’s household” is defined as the voter’s place of residence or mailing address or any persons who reside at the place of residence or use the mailing address as supplied on the affidavit of registration pursuant to paragraphs (3) and (4) of subdivision (a) of Section 2150.
(f) Notwithstanding any other law, information regarding voters who did not sign a vote by mail ballot identification envelope or whose signature on the vote by mail ballot identification envelope did not compare with the voter’s signature on file shall be treated as confidential voter registration information pursuant to this section and Section 7924.000 of the Government Code. This information shall not be disclosed to any person except as provided in this section. Any disclosure of this information shall be accompanied by a notice to the recipient regarding Sections 18109 and 18540. Voter information provided pursuant to this subdivision shall be updated daily, include the name of the voter, and be provided in a searchable electronic format.

SEC. 53.

 Section 2196 of the Elections Code is amended to read:

2196.
 (a) (1) Notwithstanding any other law, a person who is qualified to register to vote and who has a valid California driver’s license or state identification card may submit an affidavit of voter registration electronically on the Secretary of State’s internet website.
(2) An affidavit submitted pursuant to this section is effective upon receipt of the affidavit by the Secretary of State if the affidavit is received on or before the last day to register for an election to be held in the precinct of the person submitting the affidavit.
(3) The affiant shall affirmatively attest to the truth of the information provided in the affidavit.
(4) The affidavit shall contain, before or at the time that the applicant affirmatively assents to the use of the applicant’s signature pursuant to paragraph (5), a statement that the county elections official shall compare the affiant’s signature appearing on an identification envelope for the return of a vote by mail ballot cast in a future election with the signatures appearing in the voter’s registration record, including the signature appearing on the applicant’s driver’s license or state identification card.
(5) For voter registration purposes, the applicant shall affirmatively assent to the use of the applicant’s signature from the applicant’s driver’s license or state identification card.
(6) For each electronic affidavit, the Secretary of State shall obtain an electronic copy of the applicant’s signature from the applicant’s driver’s license or state identification card directly from the Department of Motor Vehicles.
(7) The Secretary of State shall require a person who submits an affidavit pursuant to this section to submit all of the following:
(A) The number from the person’s California driver’s license or state identification card.
(B) The person’s date of birth.
(C) The last four digits of the person’s social security number.
(D) Any other information the Secretary of State deems necessary to establish the identity of the affiant.
(8) Upon submission of an affidavit pursuant to this section, the electronic voter registration system shall provide for immediate verification of both of the following:
(A) That the applicant has a California driver’s license or state identification card and that the number for that driver’s license or identification card provided by the applicant matches the number for that person’s driver’s license or identification card that is on file with the Department of Motor Vehicles.
(B) That the date of birth provided by the applicant matches the date of birth for that person that is on file with the Department of Motor Vehicles.
(9) The Secretary of State shall employ security measures to ensure the accuracy and integrity of affidavits of voter registration submitted electronically pursuant to this section.
(b) The Department of Motor Vehicles shall use the electronic voter registration system required by this section to comply with its duties and responsibilities as a voter registration agency pursuant to the federal National Voter Registration Act of 1993 (52 U.S.C. Sec. 20501 et seq.).
(c) The Department of Motor Vehicles and the Secretary of State shall maintain a process and the infrastructure to allow the electronic copy of the applicant’s signature and other information required under this section that is in the possession of the department to be transferred to the Secretary of State and to the county election management systems to allow a person who is qualified to register to vote in California to register to vote under this section.
(d) If an applicant cannot electronically submit the information required pursuant to paragraph (7) of subdivision (a), the applicant shall nevertheless be able to complete the affidavit of voter registration electronically on the Secretary of State’s internet website, print a hard copy of the completed affidavit, and mail or deliver the hard copy of the completed affidavit to the Secretary of State or the appropriate county elections official.

SEC. 54.

 Section 7300 of the Elections Code is amended to read:

7300.
 (a) In each year of the general election at which electors of President and Vice President of the United States are to be chosen, the Republican nominees for Governor, Lieutenant Governor, Treasurer, Controller, Attorney General, and Secretary of State, the Republican nominees for United States Senator at the last two United States senatorial elections, the Assembly Republican leader, the Senate Republican leader, all elected officers of the Republican State Central Committee, the National Committeeman and National Committeewoman, the President of the Republican County Central Committee Chairmen’s Association, and the chairperson or president of each Republican volunteer organization officially recognized by the Republican State Central Committee shall act as presidential electors, except that Senators, Representatives, and persons holding an office of trust or profit of the United States shall not act as electors. Each of those persons acting as electors pursuant to this subdivision shall also designate an alternate elector for the purposes of Chapter 1.2 (commencing with Section 6911) of Part 2 of Division 6 and notify the chairperson of the Republican State Central Committee of the name, residence address, and business address of the alternate elector.
(b) The remaining presidential elector positions, and any vacant positions, shall be filled by appointment of the chairperson of the Republican State Central Committee in accordance with the bylaws of the committee. The chairperson shall also appoint an alternate elector for each elector appointed by the chairperson. The name, residence address, and business address of each appointee and each alternate elector described in this subdivision and subdivision (a) shall be filed with the Secretary of State by October 1 of the presidential election year. The Republican State Central Committee shall adopt bylaws implementing this section.

SEC. 55.

 Section 12303 of the Elections Code is amended to read:

12303.
 (a) A person who cannot read or write the English language is not eligible to act as a member of any precinct board.
(b) It is the intent of the Legislature that non-English-speaking citizens, like all other citizens, should be encouraged to vote. Therefore, appropriate efforts should be made to minimize obstacles to non-English-speaking citizens voting without assistance.
(c) (1) Where the elections official finds that citizens described in subdivision (b) approximate 3 percent or more of the voting-age residents of a precinct, or if interested citizens or organizations provided information that the elections official believes indicates a need for voting assistance for qualified citizens described in subdivision (b), the elections official shall make reasonable efforts to recruit elections officials who are fluent in a language used by citizens described in subdivision (b) and in English. This recruitment shall be conducted through the cooperation of interested citizens and organizations and through voluntarily donated public service notices in the media, including newspapers, radio, television, and the internet, particularly those media that serve the non-English-speaking citizens described in subdivision (b).
(2) (A) Within 150 days following each statewide general election, the county elections official shall report to the Secretary of State the number of individuals recruited to serve as members of precinct boards, including the number of individuals recruited who are fluent in each language required to be represented under Section 14201 and Section 203 of the federal Voting Rights Act of 1965 (52 U.S.C. Sec. 10101 et seq.). The Secretary of State shall issue uniform standard reporting guidelines.
(B) The Secretary of State shall post all county reports received under subparagraph (A) on the Secretary of State’s internet website within 180 days following each statewide general election.
(3) At each polling place, a member of the precinct board shall identify the languages spoken by the member, other than English, by wearing a name tag, button, sticker, lanyard, or other mechanism, as determined by the county elections official. The text indicating the language skills of the member of the precinct board shall be in the non-English language or languages spoken by that member.
(d) At least 14 days before an election, the elections official shall prepare and make available to the public a list of the precincts to which officials were appointed pursuant to this section, including on the county elections official’s internet website, and the language or languages other than English in which they will provide assistance.

SEC. 56.

 Section 13312 of the Elections Code is amended to read:

13312.
 (a) Each county voter information guide prepared pursuant to subdivision (b) of Section 13307 shall contain a notice in the heading of the first page, not smaller than 10-point type, that specifies both of the following:
(1) That the county voter information guide does not contain a complete list of candidates and that a complete list of candidates appears on the sample ballot (if any candidate is not listed in the county voter information guide).
(2) That each candidate’s statement in the county voter information guide is volunteered by the candidate and (if printed at the candidate’s expense) is printed at the candidate’s expense.
(b) If a local agency has authorized each candidate for nonpartisan elective office to prepare a candidate’s statement for the purpose of electronic distribution pursuant to subdivision (c) of Section 13307, and if a candidate has submitted a statement for that purpose, the notice required by subdivision (a) shall specify that additional statements are available on the internet website of the elections official and shall include the internet website address at which the statements may be viewed.

SEC. 57.

 Section 21575 of the Elections Code is amended to read:

21575.
 A commission member shall be ineligible for a period of five years beginning from the date of appointment to hold elective public office at the federal, state, county, or city level in this state. A commission member shall be ineligible for a period of three years beginning from the date of appointment to hold appointive federal, state, or local office; to serve as paid staff for, or as a paid consultant to, the Board of Equalization, Congress, the Legislature, or any individual legislator; or to register as a federal, state, or local lobbyist in this state.

SEC. 58.

 Section 1227 of the Evidence Code is amended to read:

1227.
 Evidence of a statement by the deceased is not made inadmissible by the hearsay rule if offered against the plaintiff in an action for wrongful death brought under Article 6 (commencing with Section 377.60) of Chapter 4 of Title 3 of Part 2 of the Code of Civil Procedure.

SEC. 59.

 Section 7571 of the Family Code is amended to read:

7571.
 (a) On and after January 1, 1995, upon the event of a live birth, prior to an unmarried mother or a mother who gave birth to a child conceived through assisted reproduction leaving a hospital, the person responsible for registering live births under Section 102405 of the Health and Safety Code shall provide to the woman giving birth and shall attempt to provide, at the place of birth, to the person identified by the woman giving birth as either the only possible genetic parent other than the woman who gave birth or the intended parent of a child conceived through assisted reproduction, a voluntary declaration of parentage together with the written materials described in Section 7572. Staff in the hospital shall witness the signatures of parents signing a voluntary declaration of parentage and shall forward the signed declaration to the Department of Child Support Services within 20 days of the date the declaration was signed. A copy of the declaration shall be made available to each of the attesting parents.
(b) A health care provider shall not be subject to civil, criminal, or administrative liability for a negligent act or omission relative to the accuracy of the information provided or for filing the declaration with the appropriate state or local agencies.
(c) The local child support agency shall pay the sum of ten dollars ($10) to birthing hospitals and other entities that provide prenatal services for each completed declaration of parentage that is filed with the Department of Child Support Services, provided that the local child support agency and the hospital or other entity providing prenatal services has entered into a written agreement that specifies the terms and conditions for the payment as required by federal law.
(d) If the declaration is not registered by the person responsible for registering live births at the hospital, it may be completed by the attesting parents, notarized, and mailed to the Department of Child Support Services at any time after the child’s birth.
(e) Prenatal clinics shall offer prospective parents the opportunity to sign a voluntary declaration of parentage. In order to be paid for their services as provided in subdivision (c), prenatal clinics must ensure that the form is witnessed and forwarded to the Department of Child Support Services within 20 days of the date the declaration was signed.
(f) Declarations shall be made available without charge at all local child support agency offices, offices of local registrars of births and deaths, courts, and county welfare departments within this state. Staff in these offices shall witness the signatures of parents wishing to sign a voluntary declaration of parentage and shall be responsible for forwarding the signed declaration to the Department of Child Support Services within 20 days of the date the declaration was signed.
(g) The Department of Child Support Services, at its option, may pay the sum of ten dollars ($10) to local registrars of births and deaths, county welfare departments, or courts for each completed declaration of parentage that is witnessed by staff in these offices and filed with the Department of Child Support Services. In order to receive payment, the Department of Child Support Services and the entity shall enter into a written agreement that specifies the terms and conditions for payment as required by federal law. The Department of Child Support Services shall study the effect of the ten dollar ($10) payment on obtaining completed voluntary declaration of parentage forms.
(h) The Department of Child Support Services and local child support agencies shall publicize the availability of the declarations. The local child support agency shall make the declaration, together with the written materials described in subdivision (a) of Section 7572, available upon request to any parent and any agency or organization that is required to offer parents the opportunity to sign a voluntary declaration of parentage. The local child support agency shall also provide qualified staff to answer parents’ questions regarding the declaration and the process of establishing parentage.
(i) Copies of the declaration and any rescissions filed with the Department of Child Support Services shall be made available only to the parents, the child, the local child support agency, the county welfare department, the county counsel, the State Department of Public Health, and the courts.
(j) Publicly funded or licensed health clinics, pediatric offices, Head Start programs, child care centers, social services providers, prisons, and schools may offer parents the opportunity to sign a voluntary declaration of parentage. In order to be paid for their services as provided in subdivision (c), publicly funded or licensed health clinics, pediatric offices, Head Start programs, child care centers, social services providers, prisons, and schools shall ensure that the form is witnessed and forwarded to the Department of Child Support Services.
(k) An agency or organization required to offer parents the opportunity to sign a voluntary declaration of parentage shall also identify parents who are willing to sign but were unavailable when the child was born. The organization shall then contact these parents within 10 days and again offer the parent the opportunity to sign a voluntary declaration of parentage.
(l) This section shall become operative on January 1, 2020.

SEC. 60.

 Section 7572 of the Family Code is amended to read:

7572.
 (a) The Department of Child Support Services, in consultation with the State Department of Health Care Services, the California Association of Hospitals and Health Systems, and other affected health provider organizations, shall work cooperatively to develop written materials to assist providers and parents in complying with this chapter. These written materials shall be updated periodically by the Department of Child Support Services to reflect changes in law, procedures, or public need.
(b) The written materials for unmarried parents or parents of a child conceived through assisted reproduction that shall be attached to the form specified in Section 7574 and shall contain the following information:
(1) A signed voluntary declaration of parentage that is filed with the Department of Child Support Services legally establishes parentage.
(2) The legal rights and obligations of both parents and the child that result from the establishment of parentage.
(3) An alleged father’s constitutional rights to have the issue of parentage decided by a court; to notice of any hearing on the issue of parentage; to have an opportunity to present the alleged father’s case to the court, including the right to present and cross-examine witnesses; to be represented by an attorney; and to have an attorney appointed if the alleged father cannot afford one in a parentage action filed by a local child support agency.
(4) That by signing the voluntary declaration of parentage, the father is voluntarily waiving the father’s constitutional rights.
(c) Parents shall also be given oral notice of the rights and responsibilities specified in subdivision (b). Oral notice may be accomplished through the use of audio- or video-recorded programs developed by the Department of Child Support Services to the extent permitted by federal law.
(d) The Department of Child Support Services shall, free of charge, make available to hospitals, clinics, and other places of birth all informational and training materials for the program under this chapter, as well as the declaration of parentage form. The Department of Child Support Services shall make training available to every participating hospital, clinic, local registrar of births and deaths, and other place of birth no later than June 30, 1999.
(e) The Department of Child Support Services may adopt regulations, including emergency regulations, necessary to implement this chapter.

SEC. 61.

 Section 17552 of the Family Code is amended to read:

17552.
 (a) (1) The State Department of Social Services, in consultation with the Department of Child Support Services, shall promulgate regulations by which the county child welfare department, in any case of separation or desertion of a parent or parents from a child that results in foster care assistance payments under Section 11400 of, or a voluntary placement under Section 11401.1 of, or the payments for a minor child placed in the same home as a minor or nonminor dependent parent under Section 11401.4 of, the Welfare and Institutions Code, or CalWORKs payments to a caretaker relative of a child who comes within the jurisdiction of the juvenile court under Section 300, 601, or 602 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, who has been removed from the parental home and placed with the caretaker relative by court order, and who is under the supervision of the county child welfare agency or probation department under Section 11250 of, or Kin-GAP payments under Article 4.5 (commencing with Section 11360) or Article 4.7 (commencing with Section 11385) of, or aid under subdivision (b) of Section 10101 of, the Welfare and Institutions Code, shall determine whether it is in the best interests of the child or nonminor to have the case referred to the local child support agency for child support services. If reunification services are not offered or are terminated, the case may be referred to the local child support agency, unless the child’s permanent plan is legal guardianship with a relative who is receiving Kin-GAP and the payment of support by the parent may compromise the stability of the current placement with the related guardian, or the permanent plan is transitional foster care for the nonminor under Section 11403 of the Welfare and Institutions Code. In making the determination, the department regulations shall provide the factors the county child welfare department shall consider, including:
(A) Whether the payment of support by the parent will pose a barrier to the proposed reunification, in that the payment of support will compromise the parent’s ability to meet the requirements of the parent’s reunification plan.
(B) Whether the payment of support by the parent will pose a barrier to the proposed reunification in that the payment of support will compromise the parent’s current or future ability to meet the financial needs of the child.
(2) The department’s regulations shall require the county welfare department, in making the determination pursuant to paragraph (1), to presume that the payment of support by the parent is likely to pose a barrier to the proposed reunification.
(b) The department regulations shall provide that, when the county child welfare department determines that it is not in the best interest of the child to seek a support order against the parent, the county child welfare department shall refrain from referring the case to the local child support agency. The regulations shall define those circumstances in which it is not in the best interest of the child to refer the case to the local child support agency. The regulations shall include the presumption described in paragraph (2) of subdivision (a) that the payment of support by the parent is likely to pose a barrier to the proposed reunification.
(c) The department regulations shall provide, when the county child welfare department determines that it is not in the child’s best interest to have the case referred to the local child support agency, the county child welfare department shall review that determination periodically to coincide with the redetermination of AFDC-FC eligibility under Section 11401.5 of, or the CalWORKs eligibility under Section 11265 of, or Kin-GAP eligibility under Article 4.5 (commencing with Section 11360) or Article 4.7 (commencing with Section 11385) of Chapter 2 of Part 3 of Division 9 of, the Welfare and Institutions Code, and shall refer the child’s case to the local child support agency upon a determination that, due to a change in the child’s circumstances, it is no longer contrary to the child’s best interest to have the case referred to the local child support agency.
(d) Notwithstanding any other law, a nonminor dependent, as described in subdivision (v) of Section 11400 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, who is over 19 years of age, is not a child for purposes of referral to the local child support agency for collection or enforcement of child support.
(e) Notwithstanding any other law, a minor or a nonminor dependent, as defined in subdivision (v) of Section 11400 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, who has a minor child placed in the same licensed or approved facility pursuant to Section 11401.4 of the Welfare and Institutions Code is not a parent for purposes of referral to the local child support agency for collection or enforcement of child support.
(f) The State Department of Social Services shall revise its regulations to implement the changes made by the act that added this subdivision on or before October 1, 2023.

SEC. 62.

 Section 6539.8 of the Government Code is amended to read:

6539.8.
 (a) (1) Notwithstanding any other law, the Cities of Burbank, Glendale, and Pasadena may enter into a joint powers agreement pursuant to this chapter to create and operate a joint powers agency to fund housing to assist the homeless population and persons and families of extremely low, very low, low, and moderate income, as defined in Section 50093 of the Health and Safety Code within those jurisdictions.
(2) The joint powers agency created pursuant to this section shall be known as the Burbank-Glendale-Pasadena Regional Housing Trust, and shall be created and operated in accordance with this section and pursuant to the joint powers agreement entered pursuant to paragraph (1).
(b) (1) The Burbank-Glendale-Pasadena Regional Housing Trust shall be governed by a board of directors consisting of a minimum of three directors who are elected officials representing the cities that are party to the joint powers agreement. Those directors shall consist of members equally appointed by each of the three representative cities that are a party to the joint powers agreement.
(2) The board of directors shall elect a chairperson and a vice chairperson from among its members at the first meeting held in each calendar year.
(3) (A) Members of the board of directors shall serve without compensation.
(B) Members of the board of directors may be reimbursed for actual expenses. Actual expenses shall be approved before they are incurred.
(4) (A) A member of the board of directors shall serve a term of two years.
(B) If a vacancy occurs on the board of directors, an individual shall fill the vacancy as outlined in the joint powers agreement. An appointment to fill a vacancy pursuant to this subparagraph shall be effective only for the remainder of the term of the office that became vacated.
(c) Notwithstanding any other law, the Burbank-Glendale-Pasadena Regional Housing Trust may do any of the following:
(1) Fund the planning, acquisition, and construction of housing of all types and tenures for the homeless population and persons and families of extremely low, very low, low, and moderate income, as defined in Section 50093 of the Health and Safety Code, including, but not limited to, permanent supportive housing.
(2) Receive public and private financing and funds.
(3) Authorize and issue bonds, certificates of participation, or any other debt instrument repayable from funds and financing received pursuant to paragraph (2) and pledged by the Burbank-Glendale-Pasadena Regional Housing Trust.
(d) The Burbank-Glendale-Pasadena Regional Housing Trust shall incorporate into its joint powers agreement annual financial reporting and auditing requirements that shall maximize transparency and public information as to the receipt and use of funds by the agency. The annual financial report shall show how the funds have furthered the purposes of the Burbank-Glendale-Pasadena Regional Housing Trust.
(e) The Burbank-Glendale-Pasadena Regional Housing Trust shall comply with the regulatory guidelines of each specific state funding source received.

SEC. 63.

 Section 6588.7 of the Government Code is amended to read:

6588.7.
 (a) An authority whose financing activities are limited to financing utility projects and projects for the use or benefit of public agencies providing water, wastewater, or electrical service may finance utility projects as provided in this section, including the issuance of rate reduction bonds and the imposition and adjustment of utility project charges.
(b) (1) A local agency that owns and operates a publicly owned utility may apply to an authority specified in subdivision (a) to finance costs of a utility project for the publicly owned utility with the proceeds of rate reduction bonds if at the time of application, bonds payable from revenues of the publicly owned utility are, or upon issuance would be, rated investment grade by a nationally recognized rating agency. In its application to an authority for the financing or refinancing, the local agency shall specify the utility project to be financed by the rate reduction bonds, the maximum principal amount, the maximum interest rate, and the maximum stated terms of the rate reduction bonds.
(2) (A) In order to allow the state to review the issuance of rate reduction bonds, collect data, ensure transparency, and conduct an independent analysis of the effectiveness of the use of rate reduction bonds pursuant to this section, the California Pollution Control Financing Authority, as defined in Section 44504 of the Health and Safety Code, shall review each issue of bonds and shall determine whether the issue is qualified for issuance under the provisions of this section. The California Pollution Control Financing Authority shall determine that an issue of rate reduction bonds is qualified for issuance under this section, if the issuance satisfies all of the following:
(i) The issuance meets the criteria specified in paragraphs (1) to (3), inclusive, of subdivision (c), or, if the local agency elects to make a determination under paragraph (4) of subdivision (c), meets the criteria specified in paragraphs (1), (2), and (4) of subdivision (c).
(ii) The projected financing costs fall within the normal range of financing costs for comparable types of debt issuance.
(B) The California Pollution Control Financing Authority shall determine that an issue of rate reduction bonds is qualified for issuance pursuant to subparagraph (A) solely on the basis of the submitted documentation referred to in subparagraph (A), and the determination shall not be conditional in any respect, including conditional on the submission or review of additional material after the determination.
(3) The California Pollution Control Financing Authority shall establish procedures for the expeditious review of a proposed issuance pursuant to this section, including, but not limited to, the establishment of reasonable application fees to reimburse the California Pollution Control Financing Authority for costs incurred in administering this section. The California Pollution Control Financing Authority may charge additional fees in an amount equal to the amount of any additional expenses incurred by the authority in retaining an independent financial advisor to review the application under circumstances involving the verification of all requirements of this section. Any fees for review and processing of the application shall be nonrefundable.
(4) The California Pollution Control Financing Authority shall provide an explanation in writing for any refusal to qualify a proposed issuance but may not alter or modify any term or condition related to the utility project property.
(5) The California Pollution Control Financing Authority shall take action on any completed application submitted to it pursuant to this section no later than the next meeting of the California Pollution Control Financing Authority that occurs after at least 60 days following receipt of the application.
(6) The review and qualification pursuant to this section may be concurrent with an authority’s processing of an application for financing or refinancing so as to allow for the issuance of rate reduction bonds as quickly as feasible.
(7) Notwithstanding any other law, the California Pollution Control Financing Authority may adopt regulations relating to this section as emergency regulations in accordance with Chapter 3.5 (commencing with Section 11340) of Part 1 of Division 3. For purposes of that chapter, including Section 11349.6, the adoption of the regulations shall be considered by the Office of Administrative Law to be necessary for the immediate preservation of the public peace, health and safety, and general welfare.
(8) (A) Annually, no later than March 31, the California Pollution Control Financing Authority shall submit to the Legislature, including to the relevant legislative policy committees having jurisdiction over energy and public utilities issues, a report of its activities pursuant to this section for the preceding calendar year ending December 31. The California Pollution Control Financing Authority shall require information from applicants to ensure that the necessary data is available to complete this report. The report may be submitted as a part of the report required pursuant to Section 44538 of the Health and Safety Code. The report shall include all of the following:
(i) A listing of applications received.
(ii) A listing of proposed issuances qualified under the provisions of this section.
(iii) A report of bonds sold, the interest rates on the bonds, whether the bond sales were pursuant to public bid or were negotiated, and any rating given the bonds by a nationally recognized securities rating organization.
(iv) A specification of proposed issuances qualified but not yet issued.
(v) A comparison of the interest rates and transactional costs on issuances qualified under this section with interest rates on comparable types of debt issuance occurring at or near the same time as the issuances.
(B) A report to be submitted pursuant to this paragraph shall be submitted in compliance with Section 9795.
(9) The provisions of paragraphs (2) to (8), inclusive, shall not apply to the issuance of rate reduction bonds for a publicly owned utility if the determinations of the local agency pursuant to subdivision (c) are subject to review by a ratepayer advocate or similar entity whose function is to provide public independent analysis of a public utility’s actions as they relate to water, wastewater, or electric rates.
(c) A local agency shall not apply to an authority for financing or refinancing of a utility project pursuant to this section unless the legislative body of the local agency has determined all of the following:
(1) The project to be financed or refinanced is a utility project.
(2) The local agency is electing to finance or refinance costs of the utility project pursuant to this section and the financing costs associated with the financing or refinancing are to be paid from utility project property, including the utility project charge for the rate reduction bonds issued for the utility project in accordance with this section.
(3) Based on information available to, and projections used by, the legislative body, the rates of the publicly owned utility plus the utility project charge resulting from the financing or refinancing of the utility project with rate reduction bonds are expected to be lower than the rates of the publicly owned utility if the utility project was financed or refinanced with bonds payable from revenues of the publicly owned utility.
(4) A local agency with a publicly owned utility having 500,000 or more retail customers may, in lieu of making the determination in paragraph (3), determine that the use of rate reduction bonds to finance or refinance utility projects provides substantial benefits to the publicly owned utility. These benefits may include, but are not limited to, lower interest rates on rate reduction bonds and more favorable capitalization and debt service coverage ratio treatment that results in gross or present value lifetime savings for the publicly owned utility.
(d) (1) Subject to the requirements of Article XIII D of the California Constitution, to the extent applicable, an authority financing the costs of a utility project or projects for a local agency’s publicly owned utility with rate reduction bonds is authorized and directed to impose and collect a utility project charge with respect to the rate reduction bonds as provided in this section. The imposition of the utility project charge shall be made and evidenced by the adoption of a financing resolution by the governing body of the authority. Upon the issuance of rate reduction bonds, the financing resolution adopted in connection with the issuance of rate reduction bonds shall be irrevocable. The financing resolution with respect to financing or refinancing a utility project or projects with rate reduction bonds for a publicly owned utility shall include all of the following:
(A) The addition of a separate charge to the bill of each customer of the publicly owned utility in the class or classes of customers specified in the financing resolution.
(B) A description of the financial calculation, formula, or other method that the authority is to use to determine the utility project charge. The calculation, formula, or other method shall include a periodic adjustment method to the then current utility project charge, to be applied at least annually, that shall be used by the authority to correct for any overcollection or undercollection of financing costs from the utility project charge or any other adjustment necessary to ensure timely payment of the financing costs of the rate reduction bonds, including, but not limited to, the adjustment of the utility project charge to pay any debt service coverage requirement for the rate reduction bonds. The financial calculation, formula, or other method, including the periodic adjustment method, established in the financing resolution pursuant to this section, and the allocation of utility project charges to, and among, customers of the publicly owned utility shall be decided solely by the governing body of the authority and shall be final and conclusive. In no event shall the periodic adjustment method established in the financing resolution be applied less frequently than required by the financing resolution and the documents relating to the applicable rate reduction bonds. Once the financial calculation, formula, or other method for determining the utility project charge, and the periodic adjustment method, have been established in the financing resolution and have become final and conclusive as provided in this section, they shall not be changed.
(C) Notwithstanding any other provision of this section, the imposition of a utility project charge shall comply with the requirements of Article XIII D of the California Constitution, to the extent applicable, including, but not limited to, the provision of a notice containing the initial amount of the proposed utility project charge and the periodic adjustment method by which the utility project charge amount could subsequently change.
(D) A requirement that the authority enter into a servicing agreement for the collection of the utility project charge with the local agency for which the financing is undertaken or its publicly owned utility and the local agency or its publicly owned utility shall act as a servicing agent for purposes of collecting the utility project charge as long as the servicing agreement remains in effect. Moneys collected by the local agency or its publicly owned utility, acting as a servicing agent on behalf of the authority, as a utility project charge shall be held in trust for the exclusive benefit of the persons entitled to the financing costs to be paid, directly or indirectly, from the utility project charge and shall not lose their character as revenues of the authority by virtue of possession by the local agency or its publicly owned utility. The local agency or its publicly owned utility shall provide the authority with the information as to estimated sales of water, wastewater, or electrical services and any other information concerning the publicly owned utility required by the authority in connection with the initial establishment and the adjustment of the utility project charge.
(2) The determination of the legislative body of the local agency that a project to be financed with rate reduction bonds is a utility project shall be final and conclusive and the rate reduction bonds issued to finance the utility project and the utility project charge imposed relating to the rate reduction bonds shall be valid and enforceable in accordance with the terms of the financing resolution and the documents relating to the rate reduction bonds. The authority shall require, in its financing resolution with respect to a utility project charge, that as long as a customer in the class or classes of customers specified in the financing resolution receive water or electricity or discharge wastewater through the facilities of the publicly owned utility, the customer shall pay the utility project charge regardless of whether or not the customer has an agreement to purchase water or electricity or discharge wastewater from a person or entity other than the publicly owned utility. The utility project charge shall be a nonbypassable charge to all customers of the publicly owned utility in the class or classes of customers specified in the financing resolution at the time of adoption of the financing resolution and all future customers in that class or classes. If a customer of the publicly owned utility that is subject to a utility project charge enters into an agreement to purchase water or electricity or discharge wastewater from a person or entity other than the publicly owned utility, the customer shall remain liable for the payment of its share of the utility project charge as if it had not entered into the agreement. The liability may be discharged by the continued payment of its share of the utility project charge as it accrues or by a one-time payment, as determined by the authority. All provisions of a financing resolution adopted pursuant to this subdivision shall be binding on the authority.
(3) The timely and complete payment of all utility project charges by a person liable for the charges shall be a condition of receiving water, wastewater, or electrical service, as applicable, from the publicly owned utility of the local agency and each of the local agencies and their publicly owned utilities is authorized to use its established collection policies and all rights and remedies provided by law to enforce payment and collection of the utility project charge. In no event shall a person liable for a utility project charge be entitled or authorized to withhold payment, in whole or in part, of the utility project charge for any reason.
(4) The authority shall determine whether adjustments to the utility project charge relating to rate reduction bonds are required upon the issuance of the rate reduction bonds and at least annually, and at additional intervals as may be provided for in the financing resolution or the documents relating to the rate reduction bonds. Each adjustment shall be made and put into effect in accordance with the financial calculation, formula, or other method that the authority is to use to determine the utility project charge pursuant to the financing resolution expeditiously after the authority’s determination that the adjustment is required.
(5) All revenues with respect to utility project property related to rate reduction bonds, including payments of the utility project charge, shall be applied first to the payment of the financing costs of the related rate reduction bonds then due, including the funding of reserves for the rate reduction bonds, with any excess being applied as determined by the authority for the benefit of the utility for which the rate reduction bonds were issued.
(6) The authority shall be obligated to impose and collect the utility project charge relating to rate reduction bonds in amounts, based on estimates of water or electricity usage or wastewater discharge subject to the utility project charge, sufficient to pay on a timely basis the financing costs associated with the rate reduction bonds when due. The pledge of a utility project charge to secure the payment of rate reduction bonds shall be irrevocable, and the State of California, the authority, or any limited liability company acting pursuant to subdivision (j) shall not reduce, impair, or otherwise adjust the utility project charge, except that the authority shall implement the periodic adjustments to the utility project charge relating to rate reduction bonds as required by the applicable financing resolution and the documents relating to the rate reduction bonds. Revenue from a utility project charge shall be deemed special revenue of the authority and shall not constitute revenue of the local agency or its publicly owned utility for any purpose, including, without limitation, any dedication, commitment, or pledge of revenue, receipts, or other income that the local agency or its publicly owned utility has made or will make for the security of any of its obligations.
(7) A utility project charge shall constitute utility project property when, and to the extent that, a financing resolution authorizing the utility project charge has become effective in accordance with its terms, and the utility project property shall thereafter continuously exist as property for all purposes with all of the rights and privileges of this section for the period, and to the extent, provided in the financing resolution, but in any event until all financing costs with respect to the related rate reduction bonds are paid in full, including all arrearages thereon.
(8) Utility project property shall constitute a current property right notwithstanding that the value of the property right will depend on consumers using water, wastewater, or electrical services or, in those instances where consumers are customers of the publicly owned utility, the publicly owned utility performing certain services.
(9) If a local agency for which rate reduction bonds have been issued and remain outstanding ceases to operate a water, wastewater, or electric utility, either directly or through its publicly owned utility, references in this section to the local agency or to its publicly owned utility shall be to the entity providing water, wastewater, or electrical services in lieu of the local agency and the entity shall assume and perform all obligations of the local agency and its publicly owned utility required by this section and the servicing agreement with the local agency while the rate reduction bonds remain outstanding.
(e) (1) Rate reduction bonds shall be within the parameters of the financing or refinancing set forth by the local agency pursuant to subdivision (b) in connection with the rate reduction bonds and the proceeds of the rate reduction bonds made available to the local agency or its publicly owned utility shall be used for the utility project identified in the application for financing or refinancing of the utility project or projects pursuant to subdivision (b).
(2) An authority shall authorize the issuance of rate reduction bonds by a resolution of its governing body. An authority issuing rate reduction bonds shall include in its preliminary notice and final report for the rate reduction bonds submitted to the California Debt and Investment Advisory Commission pursuant to Section 8855 a statement that the rate reduction bonds are being issued pursuant to this section. An authority issuing rate reduction bonds shall include in its final report for the rate reduction bonds submitted to the California Debt and Investment Advisory Commission pursuant to Section 8855 the estimated savings or local agency benefit, if applicable pursuant to paragraph (4) of subdivision (c), realized by issuing the rate reduction bonds rather than bonds payable from the revenues of the publicly owned utility for whose benefit the rate reduction bonds were issued. Rate reduction bonds shall be nonrecourse to the credit or any assets of the local agency and the publicly owned utility for which the utility project is financed and shall be payable from, and secured by a pledge of, the utility project property relating to the rate reduction bonds and any additional security or credit enhancement specified in the documents relating to the rate reduction bonds.
(3) An authority issuing rate reduction bonds shall pledge the utility project property relating to the rate reduction bonds as security for the payment of the rate reduction bonds, which pledge shall be made pursuant to, and with the effect set forth in Section 5451. All rights of an authority with respect to utility project property pledged as security for the payment of rate reduction bonds shall be for the benefit of, and enforceable by, the beneficiaries of the pledge to the extent provided in the documents relating to the rate reduction bonds.
(4) To the extent that any interest in utility project property is pledged as security for the payment of rate reduction bonds, the applicable local agency or its publicly owned utility shall contract with the authority, which contract shall be part of the utility project property, that the local agency or its publicly owned utility will continue to operate its publicly owned utility system that includes the financed utility project to provide service to its customers, will, as servicer, collect amounts in respect of the utility project charge for the benefit and account of the authority and the beneficiaries of the pledge of the utility project charge and will account for and remit these amounts to, or for the account of, the authority.
(5) Notwithstanding any other law, any requirement under this section, a financing resolution, any other resolution of the authority, or the provisions of the documents relating to rate reduction bonds to the effect that the authority shall take action with respect to the utility project property relating to the rate reduction bonds shall be binding upon the authority, as its governing body may be constituted from time to time, and the authority shall have no power or right to rescind, alter, or amend any resolution or document containing the requirement.
(6) Notwithstanding any other law, except as otherwise provided in this section with respect to adjustments to a utility project charge, the recovery of the financing costs for the rate reduction bonds from the utility project charge shall be irrevocable and the authority shall not have the power either by rescinding, altering, or amending the applicable financing resolution or otherwise, to revalue or revise for ratemaking purposes the financing costs of rate reduction bonds, determine that the financing costs for the related rate reduction bonds or the utility project charge is unjust or unreasonable, or in any way reduce or impair the value of utility project property that includes the utility project charge, either directly or indirectly; nor shall the amount of revenues arising with respect to the financing costs for the related rate reduction bonds or the utility project charge be subject to reduction, impairment, postponement, or termination for any reason until all financing costs to be paid from the utility project charge are fully met and discharged. Except as otherwise provided in this section with respect to adjustments to a utility project charge, the State of California does hereby pledge and agree with the owners of rate reduction bonds that the State of California shall neither limit nor alter the financing costs or the utility project property, including the utility project charge, relating to the rate reduction bonds, or any rights in, to, or under, the utility project property until all financing costs with respect to the rate reduction bonds are fully met and discharged. This section does not preclude limitation or alteration if and when adequate provision shall be made by law for the protection of the owners. The authority is authorized to include this pledge and undertaking by the State of California in the governing documents for rate reduction bonds. Notwithstanding any other provision of this section, the authority shall make the adjustments to the utility project charge relating to rate reduction bonds provided by this section and the documents related to those rate reduction bonds as may be necessary to ensure timely payment of all financing costs with respect to the rate reduction bonds. The adjustments shall not impose the utility project charge upon classes of customers that were not subject to the utility project charge pursuant to the financing resolution imposing the utility project charge.
(f) (1) Financing costs in connection with rate reduction bonds do not constitute a debt or liability of the State of California or of any political subdivision thereof, other than the special obligation of the authority, and do not constitute a pledge of the full faith and credit of the State of California or any of its political subdivisions, including the authority, but are payable solely from the funds provided therefor under this section and in the documents relating to the rate reduction bonds. This subdivision shall in no way preclude guarantees or credit enhancements in connection with rate reduction bonds. All the rate reduction bonds shall contain on the face thereof a statement to the following effect:
Neither the full faith and credit nor the taxing power of the State of California or any political subdivision thereof is pledged to the payment of the principal of, or interest on, this bond.
(2) The issuance of rate reduction bonds shall not directly, indirectly, or contingently obligate the State of California or any political subdivision thereof to levy or to pledge any form of taxation to pay the rate reduction bonds or to make any appropriation for their payment.
(g) (1) Utility project property shall constitute property for all purposes, including for contracts securing rate reduction bonds, whether or not the revenues and proceeds arising with respect thereto have accrued.
(2) Subject to the terms of the pledge document with respect to a pledge of utility project property, the validity and relative priority of a pledge created or authorized under this section is not defeated or adversely affected by the commingling of revenues arising with respect to the utility project property with other funds of the local agency or the publicly owned utility collecting a utility project charge on behalf of an authority.
(h) (1) There shall exist a statutory lien on the utility project property relating to rate reduction bonds. Upon the effective date of the financing resolution relating to rate reduction bonds, there shall exist a first priority statutory lien on all utility project property, then existing or, thereafter arising, to secure the payment of the rate reduction bonds. This lien shall arise pursuant to law by operation of this section automatically without any action on the part of the authority, the local agency or its publicly owned utility, or any other person. This lien shall secure the payment of all financing costs, then existing or subsequently arising, to the holders of the rate reduction bonds, the trustee or representative for the holders of the rate reduction bonds, and any other entity specified in the financing resolution or the documents relating to the rate reduction bonds. This lien shall attach to the utility project property regardless of who shall own, or shall subsequently be determined to own, the utility project property including any local agency or its publicly owned utility, the authority, or any other person. This lien shall be valid and enforceable against the owner of the utility project property and all third parties upon the effectiveness of the financing resolution without any further public notice.
(2) The statutory lien on utility project property created by this section is a continuously perfected lien on all revenues and proceeds arising with respect thereto, whether or not the revenues or proceeds have accrued. Utility project property shall constitute property for all purposes, including for contracts securing rate reduction bonds, whether or not the revenues or proceeds arising with respect thereto have accrued.
(3) In addition, the authority may require, in a financing resolution creating utility project property, that, in the event of default by the local agency or its publicly owned utility, in payment of revenues arising with respect to the utility project property, any court in the state, upon the application by the beneficiaries of the statutory lien, and without limiting any other remedies available to the beneficiaries by reason of the default, shall order the sequestration and payment to the beneficiaries of revenues arising with respect to the utility project property.
(i) Notwithstanding any other law, an authority or a limited liability company acting pursuant to subdivision (j) that has financed a utility project through the issuance of rate reduction bonds is not authorized, and no governmental officer or organization shall be empowered to authorize the authority, to become a debtor in a case under the United States Bankruptcy Code (11 U.S.C. Sec. 101 et seq.) or to become the subject of any similar case or proceeding under any other law, whether federal or State of California, as long as any payment obligation from utility project property remains with respect to the rate reduction bonds.
(j) An authority may elect to implement a financing of a utility project pursuant to this section by forming a single member limited liability company and by authorizing the company to adopt the financing resolution. The authority may issue rate reduction bonds payable from, and secured by a pledge of, amounts paid by the company to the authority from the applicable utility project property pursuant to an agreement. The provisions of subdivisions (g) and (h) shall apply to and be the exclusive method of perfecting a pledge of utility project property by the company securing the payment of financing costs under any agreement of the company in connection with the issuance of rate reduction bonds. Reference to the authority in this section and in all related defined terms shall mean or include the company as necessary to implement this subdivision.
(k) After December 31, 2036, the authority to issue rate reduction bonds under this section terminates.

SEC. 64.

 Section 7906 of the Government Code is amended to read:

7906.
 For school districts:
(a) (1) For the 1980–81 to 2012–13 fiscal years, inclusive, “ADA” means a school district’s second principal apportionment units of average daily attendance as determined pursuant to Section 42238.5 of the Education Code, including average daily attendance in summer school, regional occupational centers and programs, and apprenticeship programs, and excluding average daily attendance in adult education programs. All other units of average daily attendance including, but not limited to, special day classes for special education pupils, shall be included.
(A) For purposes of this subdivision, the average daily attendance of apprenticeship programs shall be determined pursuant to Section 79149.1 or 79149.3 of the Education Code.
(B) For the 2008–09 to 2012–13 fiscal years, inclusive, the average daily attendance of public school districts, including county superintendents of schools, serving kindergarten and grades 1 to 12, inclusive, or any part thereof, shall include the same amount of average daily attendance for classes for supplemental instruction and regional occupational centers and programs that was used for purposes of this section for the 2007–08 fiscal year.
(2) For the 2013–14 fiscal year and each fiscal year thereafter, “ADA” means a school district’s second principal apportionment units of average daily attendance, as determined pursuant to Section 42238.05 of the Education Code.
(b) “Foundation program level” means:
(1) For the 1978–79 fiscal year, one thousand two hundred forty-one dollars ($1,241) for elementary school districts, one thousand three hundred twenty-two dollars ($1,322) for unified school districts, and one thousand four hundred twenty-seven dollars ($1,427) for high school districts.
(2) For the 1979–80 fiscal year to the 1986–87 fiscal year, inclusive, the levels specified in paragraph (1) increased by the lesser of the change in cost of living or California per capita personal income for the preceding calendar year.
(3) For the 1986–87 fiscal year, the levels specified in paragraph (2) increased by one hundred eighty dollars ($180) for elementary school districts, one hundred ninety-one dollars ($191) for unified school districts, and two hundred seven dollars ($207) for high school districts.
(4) For the 1987–88 fiscal year, the levels specified in paragraph (3) increased by the lesser of the change in cost of living or California per capita personal income for the preceding calendar year.
(5) For the 1988–89 fiscal year and each fiscal year thereafter, the appropriations limit of the school district for the current fiscal year, plus amounts paid for any nonreimbursed court or federal mandates imposed on or after November 6, 1979, less the sum of the following:
(A) Interest earned on the proceeds of taxes during the current fiscal year.
(B) The 50 percent of miscellaneous funds received during the current fiscal year that are from the proceeds of taxes.
(C) Locally voted taxes received during the current fiscal year, such as parcel taxes or square foot taxes, unless for voter-approved bonded debt.
(D) Any other local proceeds of taxes received during the current fiscal year, other than local taxes that offset state aid, such as excess bond revenues transferred to a school district’s general fund pursuant to Section 15234 of the Education Code.
(c) “Proceeds of taxes” shall be deemed to include subventions received from the state only if those subventions are for one of the following purposes:
(1) Basic aid subventions of one hundred twenty dollars ($120) per ADA.
(2) (A) Additional apportionments that, when added to the school district’s local revenues, do not exceed the foundation program level for that school district. In no case shall subventions received from the state for reimbursement of state mandates in accordance with Section 6 of Article XIII B of the California Constitution or Section 17561, or for reimbursement of court or federal mandates imposed on or after November 6, 1979, be considered “proceeds of taxes” for purposes of this section.
(B) A school district’s local revenues for purposes of subparagraph (A) are the amounts that offset state aid, as follows:
(i) For the 1980–81 to 2012–13 fiscal years, inclusive, as defined in Section 42238 of the Education Code.
(ii) For the 2013–14 fiscal year and each fiscal year thereafter, as defined in subdivision (j) of Section 42238.02 of the Education Code.
(d) Proceeds of taxes for a fiscal year shall not include any proceeds of taxes within the school district’s beginning balance or reserve, unless those funds were not appropriated in a prior fiscal year. Funds that were appropriated to a reserve or other fund referenced in Section 5 of Article XIII B of the California Constitution shall be deemed to be appropriated for the purpose of this paragraph.
(e) The remainder of the state apportionments shall not be considered proceeds of taxes for a school district, and shall be considered appropriations subject to the state’s limit.
(f) (1) Each school district shall report to the Superintendent of Public Instruction and to the Director of Finance at least annually its appropriations limit, its appropriations subject to limitation, the amount of its state aid apportionments and subventions included within the proceeds of taxes of the school district, amounts excluded from its appropriations limit, and any increase or decrease to its appropriations limit pursuant to Section 7902.1, at a time and in a manner prescribed by the Superintendent of Public Instruction and approved by the Director of Finance.
(2) (A) A local jurisdiction that made a deposit into a routine restricted maintenance account, as described in paragraph (1) of subdivision (b) of Section 17070.75 of the Education Code, for the 2021–22 fiscal year shall revise the report that is required pursuant to paragraph (1) to reflect the exclusion in paragraph (3) of subdivision (i) of Section 7901.
(B) For purposes of subparagraph (A), the Director of Finance may direct the Superintendent of Public Instruction to make any necessary adjustments to a local jurisdiction’s report, and may direct the Superintendent of Public Instruction to notify the local jurisdiction of the adjustments made. These adjustments may be retroactive to the two fiscal years before the adjustments made.
(g) For the 1988–89 fiscal year and each fiscal year thereafter, paragraph (2) of subdivision (c) shall not be construed as requiring the amount determined pursuant to subdivision (b) to be multiplied by the amount determined pursuant to subdivision (a) for purposes of determining the amount of state aid included in school district “proceeds of taxes” for purposes of this section.

SEC. 65.

 Section 7929.011 of the Government Code is amended to read:

7929.011.
 (a) Notwithstanding any other provision of this chapter, the following information and records of a bank, as defined in Section 63010, shall not be subject to disclosure pursuant to this chapter, unless the information has already been publicly released by the custodian of the information:
(1) A commercial or personal financial statement or other financial or project data received from an actual or potential applicant to the bank, loan recipient, or investment recipient.
(2) A record containing information regarding a specific financial assistance, bond or loan amount or term, or information received from an applicant or customer pertaining to a contract for financial assistance, bond or loan or an application related thereto, including an investment agreement, loan agreement, or a related document.
(3) Due diligence materials, or information related to customers, and competitors, including summaries, reports, analyses, recommendations, projections, or estimates related thereto.
(4) Any record containing information claimed to be a trade secret, confidential or proprietary, or to be otherwise exempt from disclosure under this chapter, or under other applicable provisions of law as identified in writing by the information provider.
(b) This section shall apply to the bank solely in relation to the administration of the Climate Catalyst Revolving Loan Fund Act of 2020 (Article 6.7 (commencing with Section 63048.91) of Chapter 2 of Division 1 of Title 6.7), the Venture Capital Program pursuant to Section 63089.99, and the financing of economic development facilities and public development facilities, but only when a participating party is seeking financial assistance with the support of a sponsor, as those terms are defined in Section 63010.
(c) This section shall not exempt disclosure of bank-produced documents or materials, including staff reports and terms sheets, that are presented to the bank’s board of directors for consideration and approval, even if such documents or materials are produced from original information and documents that are otherwise exempted under this section. Any further information or document requested by the bank’s board of directors in connection with these bank-produced documents or materials that is provided during, or prior to, the bank board meeting, are also not exempt from disclosure and shall be publicly available in the form provided to the board.
(d) This section shall only apply to documents and information provided to the bank on and after August 1, 2022, and prior to July 1, 2025, and shall continue to apply to those documents and information going forward.

SEC. 66.

 Section 8586.5 of the Government Code is amended to read:

8586.5.
 (a) The Office of Emergency Services shall establish and lead the California Cybersecurity Integration Center. The California Cybersecurity Integration Center’s primary mission is to reduce the likelihood and severity of cyber incidents that could damage California’s economy, its critical infrastructure, or public and private sector computer networks in the state. The California Cybersecurity Integration Center shall serve as the central organizing hub of state government’s cybersecurity activities and coordinate information sharing with local, state, and federal agencies, tribal governments, utilities and other service providers, academic institutions, and nongovernmental organizations. The California Cybersecurity Integration Center shall be comprised of representatives from the following organizations:
(1) The Office of Emergency Services.
(2) The Office of Information Security.
(3) The State Threat Assessment Center.
(4) The Department of the California Highway Patrol.
(5) The Military Department.
(6) The Office of the Attorney General.
(7) The California Health and Human Services Agency.
(8) The California Utilities Emergency Association.
(9) The California State University.
(10) The University of California.
(11) The California Community Colleges.
(12) The United States Department of Homeland Security.
(13) The United States Federal Bureau of Investigation.
(14) The United States Secret Service.
(15) The United States Coast Guard.
(16) Other members as designated by the Director of Emergency Services.
(b) The California Cybersecurity Integration Center shall operate in close coordination with the California State Threat Assessment System and the United States Department of Homeland Security — National Cybersecurity and Communications Integration Center, including sharing cyber threat information that is received from utilities, academic institutions, private companies, and other appropriate sources. The California Cybersecurity Integration Center shall provide warnings of cyberattacks to government agencies and nongovernmental partners, coordinate information sharing among these entities, assess risks to critical infrastructure and information technology networks, prioritize cyber threats and support public and private sector partners in protecting their vulnerable infrastructure and information technology networks, enable cross-sector coordination and sharing of recommended best practices and security measures, and support cybersecurity assessments, audits, and accountability programs that are required by state law to protect the information technology networks of California’s agencies and departments.
(c) The California Cybersecurity Integration Center shall develop a statewide cybersecurity strategy, informed by recommendations from the California Task Force on Cybersecurity and in accordance with state and federal requirements, standards, and best practices. The cybersecurity strategy shall be developed to improve how cyber threats are identified, understood, and shared in order to reduce threats to California government, businesses, and consumers. The strategy shall also strengthen cyber emergency preparedness and response, standardize implementation of data protection measures, enhance digital forensics and cyber investigative capabilities, deepen expertise among California’s workforce of cybersecurity professionals, and expand cybersecurity awareness and public education.
(d) The California Cybersecurity Integration Center shall establish a Cyber Incident Response Team to serve as California’s primary unit to lead cyber threat detection, reporting, and response in coordination with public and private entities across the state. This team shall also assist law enforcement agencies with primary jurisdiction for cyber-related criminal investigations and agencies responsible for advancing information security within state government. This team shall be comprised of personnel from agencies, departments, and organizations represented in the California Cybersecurity Integration Center.
(e) Information sharing by the California Cybersecurity Integration Center shall be conducted in a manner that protects the privacy and civil liberties of individuals, safeguards sensitive information, preserves business confidentiality, and enables public officials to detect, investigate, respond to, and prevent cyberattacks that threaten public health and safety, economic stability, and national security.
(f) (1) Notwithstanding Section 10231.5, the California Cybersecurity Integration Center shall create four reports that describe all expenditures made by the state within a single fiscal year pursuant to the federal State and Local Cybersecurity Improvement Act (Subtitle B of Title VI of Division G of the Infrastructure Investment and Jobs Act (Public Law 117-58) codified at Section 665g of Title 6 of the United States Code). The reports shall be delivered to the Legislature according to the following:
(A) The first report for the 2021–22 fiscal year shall be delivered no later than December 31, 2023.
(B) The second report for the 2022–23 fiscal year shall be delivered no later than December 31, 2024.
(C) The third report for the 2023–24 fiscal year shall be delivered no later than December 31, 2025.
(D) The fourth report for the 2024–25 fiscal year shall be delivered no later than December 31, 2026.
(2) Reports to be submitted pursuant to this subdivision shall be submitted in compliance with Section 9795.

SEC. 67.

 Section 8588.9 of the Government Code is amended to read:

8588.9.
 (a) The California State Nonprofit Security Grant Program is hereby established under the administration of the director to improve the physical security of nonprofit organizations, including schools, clinics, community centers, churches, synagogues, mosques, temples, and similar locations that are at a high risk for violent attacks or hate crimes due to ideology, beliefs, or mission.
(b) The California State Nonprofit Security Grant Program shall do all of the following:
(1) Provide grants for the purpose of hardening soft targets that are nonprofit organizations and at a high risk for violent attacks and hate crimes, as described in subdivision (a). Grant money may be distributed to applicants for all of the following security enhancements:
(A) Security guards.
(B) Reinforced doors and gates.
(C) High-intensity lighting and alarms.
(D) Security training.
(E) Any other security enhancement consistent with the purpose of the California State Nonprofit Security Grant Program.
(2) Allow award recipients to use grant funds for the purposes of paying staff or third-party contractors or consultants to assist with the management and administration of the grant funds awarded. Award recipients shall use no more than 5 percent of the grant funds awarded for the purpose stated in this paragraph.
(3) Limit construction or renovation activities done in support of the target hardening activities related to security, such as installing additional emergency exits, to one hundred thousand dollars ($100,000) of the grant funds awarded.
(c) An applicant shall not be granted an amount greater than five hundred thousand dollars ($500,000).
(d) The operation of the California State Nonprofit Security Grant Program is contingent upon an appropriation in the annual Budget Act for purposes of this section.
(e)  The director shall adopt, as necessary, application procedures, forms, administrative guidelines, and other requirements for purposes of implementing and administering the California State Nonprofit Security Grant Program. All application procedures, forms, administrative guidelines, and other requirements developed by the director pursuant to this subdivision shall be exempt from the rulemaking provisions of the Administrative Procedure Act (Chapter 3.5 (commencing with Section 11340) of Part 1 of Division 3 of Title 2 of the Government Code).
(f) The Office of Emergency Services shall provide ongoing technical assistance for nonprofit organizations that require a vulnerability assessment for a state application to the California State Nonprofit Security Grant Program or a threat assessment for a federal application to the Nonprofit Security Grant Program of the United States Department of Homeland Security.

SEC. 68.

 Section 8594.13 of the Government Code is amended to read:

8594.13.
 (a) For purposes of this section, “Feather Alert” means a notification system, activated pursuant to subdivision (b), designed to issue and coordinate alerts with respect to endangered indigenous people, specifically indigenous women or indigenous people, who are reported missing under unexplained or suspicious circumstances.
(b) (1) If a person is reported missing to a law enforcement agency and that agency determines that the requirements of subdivision (c) are met, the law enforcement agency may request the Department of the California Highway Patrol to activate a Feather Alert. If the Department of the California Highway Patrol concurs that the requirements of subdivision (c) have been met, it shall activate a Feather Alert within the appropriate geographical area requested by the investigating law enforcement agency.
(2) Radio, television, cable, satellite, and social media systems are encouraged to, but not required to, cooperate with disseminating the information contained in a Feather Alert.
(3) Upon activation of a Feather Alert, the Department of the California Highway Patrol shall assist the investigating law enforcement agency by issuing a be-on-the-lookout alert, an electronic flyer, or changeable message signs in compliance with paragraph (4).
(4) Upon activation of a Feather Alert, the Department of the California Highway Patrol may use a changeable message sign if both of the following conditions are met:
(A) A law enforcement agency determines that a vehicle may be involved in the missing person incident.
(B) Specific identifying information about the vehicle is available for public dissemination.
(c) A law enforcement agency may request that a Feather Alert be activated if that agency determines that all of the following conditions are met regarding the investigation of a missing person:
(1) The missing person is an indigenous woman or an indigenous person.
(2) The investigating law enforcement agency has utilized available local and tribal resources.
(3) The law enforcement agency determines that the person has gone missing under unexplained or suspicious circumstances.
(4) The law enforcement agency believes that the person is in danger because of age, health, mental or physical disability, or environment or weather conditions, that the person is in the company of a potentially dangerous person, or that there are other factors indicating that the person may be in peril.
(5) There is information available that, if disseminated to the public, could assist in the safe recovery of the missing person.
(d) The Department of the California Highway Patrol shall create and submit a report to the Governor’s office and the Legislature that includes an evaluation of the Feather Alert, including the efficacy, the advantages, and the impact to other alert programs. The Department shall submit the report to the Legislature in compliance with Section 9795 no later than January 1, 2027.

SEC. 69.

 Section 8654.2 of the Government Code, as added by Section 1 of Chapter 3 of the Statutes of 2022, is amended and renumbered to immediately follow Section 8654.1, to read:

8654.1.5
 (a) There is hereby created the California Emergency Relief Fund as a special fund in the State Treasury. This fund is established to provide emergency resources or relief relating to state of emergency declarations by the Governor.
(b) The sum of one hundred fifty million dollars ($150,000,000) is hereby transferred from the General Fund to the California Emergency Relief Fund for purposes relating to the COVID-19 emergency proclaimed by the Governor on March 4, 2020.
(c) For the purposes of providing emergency relief to small business impacted by the COVID-19 pandemic, one hundred fifty million dollars ($150,000,000) California Emergency Relief Fund is appropriated to the Office of Small Business Advocate within the Governor’s Office of Business and Economic Development for a closed round to fund small business grant applications waitlisted from previous rounds of the California Small Business COVID-19 Relief Grant Program (Article 8 (commencing with Section 12100.80) of Chapter 1.6 of Part 2 of Division 3 of Title 2 of the Government Code).

SEC. 70.

 Section 8699 of the Government Code is amended to read:

8699.
 For the purpose of this chapter, the following definitions apply:
(a) “Community-based organization” means a nonprofit organization, or organization fiscally sponsored by a nonprofit, that provides direct services to survivors of violence and includes, but is not limited to, a trauma recovery center as described in Section 13963.1.
(b) “Family member” means any of the following:
(1) A spouse, former spouse, or domestic partner.
(2) A cohabitant or former cohabitant.
(3) The survivor’s fiance or someone with whom the survivor has, or previously had, an engagement or dating relationship as defined in paragraph (10) of subdivision (f) of Section 243 of the Penal Code.
(4) Any other person related by consanguinity or affinity within the second degree, including relationships by adoption.
(c) “Grant program” means the Flexible Assistance for Survivors (FAS) pilot grant program established by this chapter.
(d) “Office” means the Office of Emergency Services.
(e) “Survivor” means a person who would be eligible for services pursuant to Section 20103 of Title 34 of the United States Code.

SEC. 71.

 Section 9902 of the Government Code is amended to read:

9902.
 Purposes of chapter
The people enact this chapter to accomplish the following purposes:
(a) Appropriations for the support of the Legislature should be reduced by thirty percent from 1983–84 budgeted levels and future growth in legislative spending should be limited to a rate commensurate with the growth of state government spending in general.
(b) Control over legislative spending should be removed from the hands of powerful individual lawmakers and there should be established a system of independent monitoring of legislative spending practices and increased disclosure of legislative spending levels.
(c) All Members of the Legislature, regardless of partisan affiliation, should be provided with equal opportunity and resources to effectively serve their constituents. The minority party or parties in each house of the Legislature should be provided with resources, funding, and a policy-making voice proportionate with their numbers in that house in order to achieve the end of fair and effective representation for all.
(d) No single Member of the Legislature should be given extraordinary power to influence the course of legislation nor the power to punish other members for the good faith exercise of their free will and judgment on behalf of their constituents.
(e) No system of legislative voting which serves to deny or obscure the people’s right to know how their representatives vote should be permitted in the Legislature.
(f) The people have the right to have notice of, see, and express their feelings on all proposed changes in the laws, including those changes proposed in reports of conference committees, and any knowing and willful violation of these rights should be a criminal offense and the laws passed in violation thereof invalidated.

SEC. 72.

 Section 11019.81 of the Government Code is amended to read:

11019.81.
 (a) This section shall be known and may be cited as the Government-to-Government Consultation Act.
(b) For purposes of this section, all of the following shall apply:
(1) “Agency action” includes, but is not limited to, agency development of policies, regulations, guidelines, processes, programs, and projects with tribal implications.
(2) “Federally recognized tribe” means a tribe located in the state and acknowledged by the federal government pursuant to the annual list published under the Federally Recognized Indian Tribe List Act of 1994 (25 U.S.C. Sec. 5131) in the Federal Register.
(3) “Tribal implications” are agency actions that impact one or more federally recognized tribes or nonfederally recognized tribes or tribal organizations, the government-to-government relationship between the state and federally recognized tribes, or the distribution of power and responsibilities between the state and federally recognized tribes.
(c) The Legislature encourages the State of California and its agencies to consult on a government-to-government basis with federally recognized tribes, and to consult with nonfederally recognized tribes and tribal organizations, as appropriate, in order to allow tribal officials the opportunity to provide meaningful and timely input in the development of policies, processes, programs, and projects that have tribal implications.
(d) At the request of a federally recognized tribe for a government-to-government consultation on a specified agency action, the Legislature encourages the state and its agencies to consult with the tribe as to the specified agency action within 60 days of the request.
(e) Each agency director is encouraged to consider the need for tribal consultation before approving an agency action.
(f) (1) Within the executive branch, the following officials shall have authority to represent the state in a tribal government-to-government consultation:
(A) The Governor.
(B) The Attorney General.
(C) Each constitutional officer and statewide elected official.
(D) The director of each state agency and department.
(E) The chair and the executive officer of each state commission and task force.
(F) The chief counsel of any state agency.
(2) Each official authorized by this subdivision may formally designate another agency official to conduct preliminary tribal consultations, and each designated official may have the authority to act on behalf of the state during a government-to-government consultation.
(g) (1) On or before June 1, 2024, the Department of Human Resources, in consultation with state entities experienced in tribal issues and with tribal governments, shall develop a training regarding the required elements of training on government-to-government consultations for the officials specified in subdivision (f).
(2) The training shall include details on government-to-government consultation, including, but not limited to, all of the following elements:
(A) Timing and notice.
(B) Form, including, but not limited to, in-person meetings, video conferences, teleconferences, and written correspondence.
(C) Principles.
(D) Resolution.
(E) Tribal sovereignty.
(F) Sacred sites.
(G) Changes or updates to state law that affect California tribes and that would require government-to-government consultation.
(h) All officials listed in subdivision (f) shall complete the training on government-to-government consultation by January 1, 2025, or, for officials appointed after that date, within six months of their appointment or confirmation of appointment, whichever is later. Each official shall retake the training annually.

SEC. 73.

 Section 11188 of the Government Code is amended to read:

11188.
 Upon the filing of the petition the court shall enter an order directing the person to appear before the court at a specified time and place and then and there show cause why the person has not attended, testified, answered interrogatories, or produced or permitted the inspection or copying of the papers or other items described in subdivision (e) of Section 11181 as required. A copy of the order shall be served upon the person in the manner provided for the service of a summons described in Chapter 4 (commencing with Section 413.10) of Title 5 of Part 2 of the Code of Civil Procedure. If it appears to the court that the subpoena was regularly issued, or the interrogatories were regularly promulgated, by the head of the department, the court shall enter an order that the person appear before the officer named in the subpoena at the time and place fixed in the order and testify or produce and permit the inspection and copying of the required papers or other items described in subdivision (e) of Section 11181 as required or answer the interrogatories without objection. At the request of the department head, the court may issue any additional order to aid the implementation of the order enforcing compliance with the subpoena, including the issuance of a commission or letters rogatory in the manner provided for the enforcement of a deposition notice to a nonparty as described in Section 2026.010 or 2027.010 of the Code of Civil Procedure. Upon failure to obey the order, the person shall be dealt with as for contempt of court.

SEC. 74.

 Section 12100.63 of the Government Code is amended to read:

12100.63.
 (a) The California Small Business Technical Assistance Program is hereby created within the California Office of the Small Business Advocate.
(b) The program shall be under the direct authority of the Small Business Advocate.
(c) The purpose of the program is to assist small businesses through free or low-cost one-on-one consulting and low-cost training by entering into grant agreements with one or more small business technical assistance centers.
(d) In implementing the program, the office shall consult with local, regional, federal, and other state public and private entities that share a similar mission to support the needs of small businesses in California.
(e) An applicant pursuant to this article shall be a small business technical assistance center, including a regional or statewide network, operating as a group or as an individual center.
(1) A small business technical assistance center operating as a group consisting of centers organized under a coordinating administrative or fiscal entity shall apply by submitting a single consolidated application to the office.
(2) A small business technical assistance center operating as an individual center shall apply by submitting a single application for that center to the office.
(f) The office shall administer the program to provide grants to expand the capacity of small business development technical assistance centers in California, administered by and primarily funded by federal agencies, but shall also include other nonprofit small business technical assistance centers, that provide one-on-one confidential consulting and training to small businesses and entrepreneurs in this state. An applicant shall be eligible to participate in the program if the office determines that the applicant meets all of the following criteria:
(1) At the time of applying for funds, the applicant has an active contract with a federal funding partner to administer a program in this state, or has received a letter of intent from a federal funding partner to administer a federal small business technical assistance center program in this state within the next fiscal year. Alternatively, if the applicant is not a federally contracted small business technical assistance center, the applicant shall document a private funding source with similar intent and meet the criteria defined in subdivision (s) of Section 12100.62.
(2) (A) The applicant provided a plan of action and commitment to fully draw down all of the federal funds available using local cash match and state funds not described in Section 12100.65 during the duration of the award period. Alternatively, if the applicant is not a federally contracted small business technical assistance center, the applicant shall present a plan of action for drawing down any match required by those private funding sources using local cash match outside of state funds not described in Section 12100.65 during the award period. The office may request that the applicant provide details relating to the source and amount of these nonstate local match funds.
(B) If the applicant is a new small business technical assistance center, the applicant has demonstrated the ability to fully draw down substantially all federal or private funds available to it.
(3) The requested funding amount does not exceed the total federal award specified in the contract with the federal funding partner contract, or the private funding sources specified, but in any event is no less than twenty five thousand dollars ($25,000).
(4) The applicant seeks funding for one or more years, but no more than five years in duration.
(5) The grant agreements authorized by this article are not subject to the model contract provisions developed pursuant to Chapter 14.27 (commencing with Section 67325) of Part 40 of Division 5 of Title 3 of the Education Code.
(6) The applicant has a fiscal agent that is able to receive nonfederal funds.
(g) The office shall issue a request for proposal for grants under the program, which may contain the following information:
(1) The eligibility requirements described in subdivision (e).
(2) The available funding range.
(3) Funding instruments.
(4) The local cash match requirement described in subdivision (f).
(5) Operational capacity.
(6) The duration of the program.
(7) The start date of the program.
(8) Narrative requirements.
(9) Reporting requirements.
(10) Required attachments.
(11) Submission requirements.
(12) Application evaluation criteria.
(13) An announcement of an awards timeline.
(h) (1) The office shall evaluate applications received based on the following factors:
(A) The proposed use of the requested funding, including the specificity, measurability, and ability of the applicant to document and achieve the goals and objectives identified in its application.
(B) The proposed management strategy of the applicant to achieve its goals and objectives identified in its application.
(C) The applicant’s ability to complement and leverage the work of other local, state, federal, nonprofit, or private business technical assistance resource providers.
(D) The applicant’s historical performance with federal funding partner contracts or private funding sources and the strength of its fiscal controls.
(2) The office shall prioritize funding for applications that best meet the factors listed in paragraph (1) and give preference to applications that propose new or enhanced services to underserved business groups, including women, minority, and veteran-owned businesses, and businesses in low-wealth, rural, and disaster-impacted communities included in a state or federal emergency declaration or proclamation.
(i) State funds provided pursuant to the program shall be used to expand consulting and training services through existing and new centers, including satellite offices. State funds provided pursuant to the program shall not supplant nonstate local cash match dollars included in a federal small business technical assistance center’s plan described in subparagraph (A) of paragraph (2) of subdivision (f) or in any nonfederal small business technical assistance center’s plan.
(j) Subject to appropriation of necessary funds by the Legislature, a supplemental grant program designated as the California Dream Fund Program shall be established by the office to provide microgrants as described in this subdivision. The microgrants shall be disbursed through California Small Business Technical Assistance Program grantees. California Small Business Technical Assistance Program applicants, as prescribed by the office, may also request state funds designated as the California Dream Fund Program moneys to provide microgrants up to ten thousand dollars ($10,000) to seed entrepreneurship and small business creation in underserved small business groups that are facing capital and opportunity gaps. These microgrants shall be made available to startup clients participating in intensive startup training and consulting with the center networks.
(k) For purposes of implementing the California Dream Fund Program, a person or entity shall not seek information that is unnecessary to determine eligibility, including whether the individual is undocumented. Information that may be collected from individuals participating in the California Dream Fund Program shall not constitute a record subject to disclosure under Division 10 (commencing with Section 7920.000) of Title 1.

SEC. 75.

 Section 12100.101 of the Government Code is amended to read:

12100.101.
 For the purposes of this article, unless the context requires otherwise:
(a) “Applicant” means any California taxpayer, including, but not limited to, an individual, corporation, nonprofit organization, cooperative, or partnership, who submits an application for the program.
(b) “California Small Agricultural Business Drought Relief Grant Program” or “program” means the grant program established by this article.
(c) “CalOSBA” or “office” means the Office of the Small Business Advocate within the Governor’s Office of Business and Economic Development.
(d) “Decline in annual gross receipts or gross profits” means a decrease in annual gross receipts or gross profits when comparing the 2022 taxable year to the 2019 taxable year, as documented by tax returns or Internal Revenue Service Form 990.
(e) “Director” means the Director of the Office of the Small Business Advocate.
(f) “Fiscal agent” means a nonprofit or private institution capable of online and mobile application development, customer support, document validation, impact analysis, grant agreements, and awards disbursement, as well as marketing, engagement, and strategic partnerships for implementation.
(g) “Full-time employee” has the same meaning as in subdivision (c) of Section 515 of the Labor Code.
(h) (1) “Qualified small business” means a business that meets all of the following criteria, as confirmed by the office or fiscal agent through review of revenue declines, other relief funds received, credit history, tax returns, payroll records, and bank account validation:
(A) Is a sole proprietor, independent contractor, C-corporation, S-corporation, cooperative, limited liability company, partnership, nonprofit, or limited partnership, with 100 or fewer full-time employees in the 2022 taxable year.
(B) Experienced a decline in annual gross receipts or gross profits of 10 percent or more.
(C) Began operating in the state prior to January 1, 2020.
(D) Is currently active and operating.
(E) Has been affected by severe drought according to the United States Department of Agriculture drought monitor.
(F) Provides organizing documents, including a federal tax return or Internal Revenue Service Form 990, and a copy of official filings with the Secretary of State or with the local municipality, as applicable, including, but not limited to, articles of incorporation, certificate of organization, fictitious name of registration, or government-issued business license.
(2) Notwithstanding paragraph (1), “qualified small business” shall not include any of the following:
(A) Businesses without a physical presence in the state.
(B) Governmental entities, other than Native American tribes, or elected official offices.
(C) Businesses primarily engaged in political or lobbying activities, regardless of whether the entity is registered as a 501(c)(3), 501(c)(6), or 501(c)(19) nonprofit entity or other nonprofit entity.
(D) Passive businesses, investment companies, and investors who file a Schedule E on their tax returns.
(E) Financial institutions or businesses primarily engaged in the business of lending, such as banks, finance companies, and factoring companies.
(F) Businesses engaged in any activity that is unlawful under federal, state, or local law.
(G) Businesses that restrict patronage for any reason other than capacity.
(H) Speculative businesses.
(I) Businesses with any owner of greater than 10 percent of the equity interest in it who meets one or more of the following criteria:
(i) The owner has, within the prior three years, been convicted, or had a civil judgment rendered against the owner, or has had commenced any form of parole or probation, including probation before judgment, for commission of fraud or a criminal offense in connection with obtaining, attempting to obtain, or performing a federal, state, or local public transaction or contract under a public transaction, violation of federal or state antitrust or procurement statutes or commission of embezzlement, theft, forgery, bribery, falsification or destruction of records, making false statements, or receiving stolen property.
(ii) The owner is presently indicted for, or otherwise criminally or civilly charged by, a federal, state, or local governmental entity, with commission of any of the offenses enumerated in clause (i).
(J) Affiliated companies, as described in Section 121.103 of Title 13 of the Code of Federal Regulations, as it read on August 1, 2022.
(K) Other businesses to be determined by the office consistently with the requirements and intent of this subdivision.

SEC. 76.

 Section 12100.103 of the Government Code is amended to read:

12100.103.
 (a) The California Small Agricultural Business Drought Relief Grant Program is hereby created within the office.
(b) The program shall be under the direct authority of the director.
(c) The purpose of the program is to provide grants to qualified small agricultural businesses that have been affected by severe drought conditions.
(d) The office may contract with a fiscal agent to carry out the program, at a rate of no more than 5 percent of the funds appropriated by the Legislature for purposes of the program.
(e) Subject to appropriation of funds for grants by the Legislature, the office shall allocate grants to qualified small agricultural businesses that meet the requirements of this article in one or more rounds.
(f) (1) The office shall conduct marketing and outreach for equitable awareness and the distribution of grants that includes all of the following:
(A) Engaging multiple partners, including, but not limited to, business and nonprofit associations, chambers of commerce, economic development corporations, and other nonprofit mission-based organizations, and organizations with nonprofit expertise.
(B) Providing access to technical assistance services covering all counties in the state and in multiple languages to reach non-English-speaking individuals in all counties in the state.
(C) Building awareness, including those in underserved and underbanked communities, by collaborating with multiple community groups to distribute program information, provide applicant access through multiple branded partner portals, or advertising or social media outreach through owned, paid, or earned media channels.
(2) For the qualified small agricultural business portion of the program, the office shall conduct outreach in advance of open application rounds for a minimum of three weeks prior to opening each application round. Following each application round, the fiscal agent shall assess service gaps and address outreach deficiencies as necessary to improve program equity.
(3) The office or fiscal agent shall provide information on how to connect to additional support resources to each applicant, whether or not the applicant is selected as a grant recipient.
(g) Program grant funds shall be administered as follows:
(1) A total of 10 percent of grant funds shall be held for qualified small agricultural businesses that do not file 2022 tax year returns until 2024.
(2) A total of 20 percent of grant funds shall be allocated in one or more rounds of grants for small and socially disadvantaged farmers who are qualified small agricultural businesses pursuant to the following:
(A) Grants shall be awarded in the following amounts:
(i) Twenty thousand dollars ($20,000) for applicants with a decline in annual gross receipts or gross profits of 10 percent or more and less than 30 percent.
(ii) Sixty thousand dollars ($60,000) for applicants with a decline in annual gross receipts or gross profits of 30 percent or more and less than 40 percent.
(iii) Eighty thousand dollars ($80,000) for applicants with a decline in annual gross receipts or gross profits of 40 percent or more and less than 50 percent.
(iv) One hundred thousand dollars ($100,000) for applicants with a decline in annual gross receipts or gross profits of 50 percent or more.
(B) The office or fiscal agent shall allocate 5 percent of program funds to nonprofit entities, tribal governments, resource conservation districts, or other entities with experience providing technical assistance to small farms or socially disadvantaged farmers to provide services to help maximize the participation of small farms or socially disadvantaged farmers in the one or more rounds of grants authorized by this subdivision.
(C) For the purposes of this subdivision:
(i) “Small farm” has the meaning described in the publication Updating the ERS Farm Typology, dated April 2013, issued by Economic Research Service of the United States Department of Agriculture.
(ii) “Socially disadvantaged farmer” has the meaning provided by subdivision (b) of Section 512 of the Food and Agricultural Code, as it read on August 1, 2022.
(D) For the purposes of this subdivision, the office or fiscal agent may contract with other fiscal agents to provide technical assistance.
(E) The office shall consult with the Farm Equity Advisor at the Department of Food and Agriculture for purposes of implementing this subdivision.
(3) (A) The remaining percentage of grant funds shall be allocated to qualified small agricultural businesses most impacted by severe drought, including, but not limited to, those that are identified as in the following 2022 North American Industry Classification System codes:
(i) Codes beginning with 115 – Support Activities for Agriculture and Forestry.
(ii) Codes beginning with 311 – Food Manufacturing.
(iii) 424910 – Farm Supplies Merchant Wholesalers.
(iv) 444240 – Nursery, Garden Center, and Farm Supply Retailers.
(v) 484220 – Specialized Freight (except Used Goods) Trucking, Local (local agricultural products trucking).
(B) Grants shall be awarded in the following amounts:
(i) Sixty thousand dollars ($60,000) for applicants with a decline in annual gross receipts or gross profits of 30 percent or more and less than 40 percent.
(ii) Eighty thousand dollars ($80,000) for applicants with a decline in annual gross receipts or gross profits of 40 percent or more and less than 50 percent.
(iii) One hundred thousand dollars ($100,000) for applicants with a decline in annual gross receipts or gross profits of 50 percent or more.
(h) Grant moneys awarded under this section shall only be used for costs to maintain the recipient business through the drought, including the following:
(1) Employee expenses, including payroll costs, health care benefits, paid sick, medical, or family leave, and insurance premiums.
(2) Working capital and overhead, including rent, utilities, mortgage principal, and interest payments, but excluding mortgage prepayments, and debt obligations, including principal and interest, incurred before the onset of severe drought.
(3) Any other drought-related expenses not already covered through grants, forgivable loans, or other relief through state, county, or city programs.
(i) (1) Applicants may self-identify race, gender, and ethnicity. Within 30 business days of the close of the application period, the office shall post the aggregate data, as available, including by legislative district. Within 45 business days of the close of the application period, the office shall post information on grant amounts actually awarded as it becomes available. All information shall be posted on the office’s internet website and the office shall provide an electronic copy of the information to the relevant fiscal and policy committees of the Legislature.
(2) On or before December 31, 2024, the office shall report to the Legislature the number of grants and dollar amounts awarded for each of the following categories:
(A) Race and ethnicity.
(B) Women-owned.
(C) Veteran-owned.
(D) Located in a disadvantaged community pursuant to paragraph (5) of subdivision (h) of Section 12100.83.
(E) Located in a rural area.
(F) County.
(G) State Senate district.
(H) State Assembly district.
(3) Information reported to the Legislature pursuant to this subdivision shall be provided in conformance with the requirements of Section 9795.
(j) The fiscal agent, or the office if it does not contract with a fiscal agent, shall issue Internal Revenue Service Forms 1099 to grant recipients and otherwise adhere to tax reporting guidelines, regardless of whether the grants are excluded from gross income for purposes of the Personal Income Tax Law (Part 10 (commencing with Section 17001) of Division 2 of the Revenue and Taxation Code) or the Corporation Tax Law (Part 11 (commencing with Section 23001) of Division 2 of the Revenue and Taxation Code).

SEC. 77.

 Section 12100.163 of the Government Code is amended to read:

12100.163.
 This article shall remain in effect only until July 1, 2025, and as of that date is repealed.

SEC. 78.

 Section 14560 of the Government Code is amended to read:

14560.
 (a) The Legislature finds and declares all of the following:
(1) Sea level rise and other climate-fueled hazards are threatening the state’s critical surface transportation infrastructure and surrounding communities.
(2) Large-scale investment will be needed to make the state’s transportation assets and its communities resilient to climate hazards. In the San Francisco Bay area alone, the Metropolitan Transportation Commission and Association of Bay Area Governments estimate a nineteen-billion-dollar ($19,000,000,000) cost to adapt for just two feet of sea level rise.
(3) Since 2015, the state enacted several laws and took administrative action directed to incorporate climate adaptation into transportation investment decisions. Executive Order B-30-15 requires the consideration of climate change in all state investment decisions; Senate Bill 379 (Chapter 608 of the Statutes of 2015) requires local governments to incorporate climate adaptation and resiliency strategies into general plans; and the Road Repair and Accountability Act of 2017 (Chapter 5 of the Statutes of 2017) includes funding for climate change adaptation planning grants.
(4) Critical multistakeholder adaptation planning work has already begun around the state.
(5) The federal Infrastructure Investment and Jobs Act of 2021 (IIJA) (Public Law 117-58) increases California’s National Highway Performance Program funds to twelve billion eight hundred million dollars ($12,800,000,000) over the five-year funding period and newly allows those dollars to be spent on resilience, including an allowance for up to 15 percent of the funds to be spent on protective features anywhere on the federal aid highway system.
(6) The IIJA also creates a new resilience formula program, the Promoting Resilient Operations for Transformative, Efficient, and Cost-saving Transportation (PROTECT) program, which provides California with approximately six hundred thirty million dollars ($630,000,000) over five years. These funds can be used for planning and resilience improvements that protect surface transportation assets.
(b) The intent of this chapter is to provide for the funding of the identification of climate vulnerabilities, the assessment of the risks created by those vulnerabilities, and the planning, development, and implementation of transportation projects that adapt to those risks and support the holistic and comprehensive adaptation to climate change.

SEC. 79.

 Section 14838.1 of the Government Code is amended to read:

14838.1.
 (a) In order to encourage the participation of small businesses in the construction, alteration, demolition, repair, or improvement of the state’s infrastructure, as provided in the infrastructure-related bond acts of 2006, each state agency awarding contracts financed with the proceeds of these bonds shall do all of the following:
(1) Establish a 25 percent small business participation goal in all contracts it financed with the proceeds of the infrastructure-related bond acts of 2006.
(2) Advertise all upcoming opportunities to bid on contracts for projects funded by the infrastructure-related bond acts of 2006, described in subdivision (d), in the California State Contracts Register and include in the advertisement an internet link to information for prospective bidders, including, but not limited to, general bidding procedures and how to properly prepare a bid for those contracts.
(3) Provide information to California small businesses regarding training and technical assistance that is available to assist these small businesses in understanding and bidding on contracts for projects funded by the infrastructure-related bond acts of 2006, described in subdivision (d).
(b) (1) In order to encourage the participation of small businesses in the construction, alteration, demolition, repair, or improvement of the state’s infrastructure, as provided in the Infrastructure Investment and Jobs Act (Public Law 117-58), as described in subdivision (e), each state agency awarding new contracts over five hundred thousand dollars ($500,000) that are financed, in whole or in part, with the proceeds of the act, shall do all of the following:
(A) Establish a 25 percent small business participation goal in all contracts that it finances, in whole or in part, with these federal funds.
(B) Beginning April 1, 2023, notify the agency’s small business liaison, designated pursuant to Section 14846, of any anticipated contracting opportunities that will be paid, in whole or in part, with funding from the Infrastructure Investment and Jobs Act during the 12 months following April 1, 2023.
(2) The agency small business liaison shall provide information to California small businesses regarding training and technical assistance that is available to assist them in identifying, understanding, and bidding on contracts for projects funded through the agency with Infrastructure Investment and Jobs Act funding, as described in subdivision (e).
(c) The requirements of subdivision (b) do not apply to funding from the Infrastructure Investment and Jobs Act if the head of the state agency or their designee makes one of the following determinations:
(1) Federal requirements preclude small business procurement participation as required by this section.
(2) The bid issued by the state agency is required to include a disadvantaged business enterprise procurement participation requirement.
(3) In the case of competitively awarded funding from the federal government, if compliance with the requirements of this section would make the state’s application for a competitive program less competitive than other eligible applicants.
(d) For purposes of this section, all of the following measures are deemed to be the infrastructure-related bond acts of 2006:
(1) The Highway Safety, Traffic Reduction, Air Quality, and Port Security Bond Act of 2006 (Chapter 12.49 (commencing with Section 8879.20) of Division 1).
(2) The Housing and Emergency Shelter Trust Fund Act of 2006 (Part 12 (commencing with Section 53540) of Division 31 of the Health and Safety Code).
(3) The Kindergarten-University Public Education Facilities Bond Act of 2006 (Part 69 (commencing with Section 101000) of Division 14 of Title 3 of the Education Code).
(4) The Disaster Preparedness and Flood Prevention Bond Act of 2006 (Chapter 1.699 (commencing with Section 5096.800) of Division 5 of the Public Resources Code).
(5) The Safe Drinking Water, Water Quality and Supply, Flood Control, River and Coastal Protection Bond Act of 2006 (Division 43 (commencing with Section 75001) of the Public Resources Code).
(e) For purposes of this section, funding awarded to the state from the following subtitles, titles, and divisions of the Infrastructure Investment and Jobs Act shall be deemed to be federal revenues:
(1) Division A, the Surface Transportation Reauthorization Act of 2021 (23 U.S.C. Sec. 101 et seq.).
(2) Division B, the Surface Transportation Investment Act of 2021 (49 U.S.C. Sec. 101 et seq.).
(3) Division E, the Drinking Water and Wastewater Infrastructure Act of 2021 (33 U.S.C. Sec. 1251 et seq.).
(4) Division F, Broadband (47 U.S.C. Sec. 1701 et seq.).
(5) Title IX of Division G, the Build America, Buy America Act (41 U.S.C. Sec. 8301 et seq.).
(f) For purposes of this section, all of the following shall apply:
(1) “Small business” has the same meaning as set forth in subdivision (d) of Section 14837.
(2) “State agency” includes each agency provided for in Section 12800 and each state entity in Section 10335.7 of the Public Contract Code in which the head of the agency is appointed by the Governor.
(g) This section does not require the expenditure of the proceeds of the sale of the bonds described in this section, except as permitted by the measure authorizing the issuance of the bond.
(h) For purposes of subdivision (c), the Director of Transportation or their designee may make a determination that a class or category of contracts is exempt from the requirement of subdivision (b). Nothing in this subdivision shall be construed to require the head of the Department of Transportation or their designee to make a determination for each individual contract.
(i) (1) On or before August 1, 2009, and annually thereafter, each state agency that has awarded any contract financed with the proceeds of the infrastructure-related bond acts of 2006 or the Infrastructure Investment and Jobs Act in the previous fiscal year shall report to the Director of General Services statistics comparing the small business and microbusiness participation dollars for contracts funded by these bonds or federal dollars to the total contract dollars for contracts funded by these bonds or federal dollars.
(2) If an agency did not meet its participation goal, then the agency shall include in its report a plan of action to meet its participation goal during the current fiscal year. These reporting requirements do not supersede any other reporting requirements required of these funds.
(3) In each instance that the head of the state agency makes a determination pursuant to subdivision (c), the state agency shall report this determination to the Director of General Services in a manner to be determined by the department.

SEC. 80.

 Section 16429.10 of the Government Code is amended to read:

16429.10.
 (a) Upon appropriation, the 2022 California Arrearage Payment Program is established in the Department of Community Services and Development.
(b) The department shall release program notices and post program notices related to 2022 CAPP administration on its public-facing internet website.
(c) All active residential utility customers with past due bills incurred during the COVID-19 pandemic bill relief period are considered eligible for 2022 CAPP assistance and shall be included in a utility applicant’s request for 2022 CAPP funding.
(1) The department and utility applicants shall prioritize the issuance of 2022 CAPP assistance in the following order:
(A) Active residential customers with past due bills and who, absent the 2022 CAPP assistance or any other protection or assistance provided by the utility applicant, might be subject to service disconnection, consistent with current law, due to nonpayment of balances incurred during the COVID-19 pandemic bill relief period.
(B) Active residential customers with past due bills incurred during the COVID-19 pandemic bill relief period.
(2) The department, in its application approval and allocation notice to utility applicants, shall direct utility applicants on how 2022 CAPP assistance will be applied to each of the priority groups. A utility applicant shall be responsible for correcting any misapplication of 2022 CAPP assistance when that failure was due to a utility applicant not properly applying 2022 CAPP assistance to residential customer accounts in accordance with program notices, 2022 CAPP application terms and conditions, and guidance issued by the department.
(d) Within 90 days of receiving funds, upon appropriation, the department shall make available an online application for utility applicants to request 2022 CAPP funding for residential customers.
(1) To receive 2022 CAPP funding, a utility applicant shall complete a 2022 CAPP application, submit all necessary data and information to support the utility applicant’s 2022 CAPP application, execute the 2022 CAPP terms and conditions document, and comply with all department-issued program notices.
(2) All utility applicant 2022 CAPP applications shall include the total number of eligible residential accounts and the total amount of eligible residential account arrearages incurred during the COVID-19 pandemic bill relief period, and identify for each eligible residential account the corresponding account number and past due bill balance accumulated during the COVID-19 pandemic bill relief period.
(3) The general manager, utility director, or a designee shall certify that the 2022 CAPP application is true and accurate and execute the 2022 CAPP terms and conditions.
(4) (A) Customer information shall be subject to Section 6254.16. This subparagraph shall become inoperative on January 1, 2023.
(B) Customer information shall be subject to Section 7927.410. This subparagraph shall become operative on January 1, 2023.
(e) There shall be a 30-day application timeframe in which utility applicants may apply to the department for 2022 CAPP funds. The department shall contact a utility applicant that does not respond during the initial application period to inquire as to the status of the utility applicant’s 2022 CAPP application.
(f) The department shall review utility applicant 2022 CAPP applications for completeness and confirm that utility applicants’ submissions support the total amount of financial assistance requested on behalf of residential customers. Incomplete 2022 CAPP applications shall be returned to the utility applicant for corrections or amendments consistent with department notes or directives.
(g) One billion one hundred ninety-seven million dollars ($1,197,000,000) appropriated in Item 4700-101-3398 of the Budget Act of 2022 shall be used for the 2022 CAPP program. The allocation may be adjusted for the purposes of administrative costs. Upon appropriation, the following specified amounts shall be allocated for each utility category. Funding allocation to one of the categories that is not necessary for assistance for that category may be reallocated to another category.
(1) Two hundred thirty-nine million four hundred thousand dollars ($239,400,000) shall be allocated for financial assistance to customers of local publicly owned electric utilities and electrical cooperatives.
(2) Nine hundred fifty-seven million six hundred thousand dollars ($957,600,000) shall be allocated for financial assistance to customers of electrical corporations and gas corporations, including customers served by a community choice aggregator.
(h) To establish statewide 2022 CAPP allocations, the department shall develop an allocation formula for determining an individual utility applicant’s share of 2022 CAPP funds based on the proportional share of the total statewide energy utility arrearages.
(1) When determining statewide 2022 CAPP allocations, the department shall ensure utility applicant allocations do not exceed the total amount of eligible arrearages reported in the utility applicant’s 2022 CAPP application. If there are remaining 2022 CAPP funds after the initial allocation determination, the department shall redistribute the remaining 2022 CAPP funds to utility applicants according to their proportional share of the total statewide energy utility arrearages within each utility category.
(2) Upon approving a utility applicant’s 2022 CAPP application, the department shall submit to the utility applicant an application approval and allocation notice that identifies the utility applicant’s allocation along with directions on how to apply 2022 CAPP funds to customer accounts by priority group. The department shall make all application approval and allocation notices available on its public-facing internet website.
(3) Utility applicants shall provide benefits to residential customers in accordance with program notices, the 2022 CAPP application terms and conditions document, and guidance issued by the department.
(4) The department shall approve utility applicant’s 2022 CAPP applications, set statewide allocations, and disburse funds within seven months of the appropriation for the 2022 CAPP.
(i) Within 60 days of receiving 2022 CAPP funds, a utility applicant shall issue 2022 CAPP benefits to its residential customers as bill credits to help address the past due bills and shall include a statement that the credits are a result of 2022 CAPP funding or other statement as approved by a department-issued program notice.
(1) Between the time when a utility applicant submits its 2022 CAPP application and the department completes the disbursement of CAPP allocations to all utility applicants, a utility applicant shall not discontinue service due to nonpayment by those residential customers with arrearages accrued during the COVID-19 pandemic bill relief period.
(2) A utility applicant shall not disconnect a residential customer’s utility service, regardless of balance owed after applying a 2022 CAPP benefit, for 90 days after a 2022 CAPP benefit is applied.
(3) If a residential customer has a remaining balance after a 2022 CAPP benefit is applied, the utility applicant shall notify the residential customer of the option to enter into an extended payment plan with late fees and penalties waived. The utility applicant shall not discontinue service to the residential customer while the residential customer remains current on the repayment plan.
(4) Utility applicants shall waive any associated late fees and accrued interest for residential customers that are awarded 2022 CAPP benefits.
(5) An electrical corporation shall use existing proportional payment processes adopted by the Public Utilities Commission in response to the COVID-19 pandemic to allocate any partial payments made by residential customers to the utility applicant and other load-serving entities in proportion to their respective shares of the outstanding customer charges.
(j) An electrical corporation shall issue 2022 CAPP benefits to residential customer for past due bills owed to the utility applicant and other load-serving entities serving the residential customer in proportion to their respective shares of customer arrearages.
(k) Within six months of a utility applicant’s receipt of its 2022 CAPP allocation, the utility applicant shall submit all reporting required by the department detailed in a program notice. The utility applicant shall remit payment of any unapplied 2022 CAPP benefits to the department as part of its reporting to the department.
(l) Within 60 days of receiving reporting from utility applicants pursuant to subdivision (k), the department shall provide to the Legislature, and make available on its public-facing internet website, a report. The report shall be submitted in conformance with Section 9795 and shall include all of the following:
(1) Total arrearage amount applied for statewide.
(2) Total active residential customers in arrears applied for statewide.
(3) Total 2022 CAPP funds applied for by utility applicants.
(4) Total 2022 CAPP funds approved by the department and disbursed to utility applicants statewide.
(5) Total 2022 CAPP funds distributed by utility applicants.
(6) Total 2022 CAPP funds not expended and returned to the department by utility applicants.
(7) Total active residential customers, statewide, included in 2022 CAPP applications received by the department.
(8) Total active residential customers, by utility applicant, included in 2022 CAPP applications received by the department.
(9) Total active residential customers, statewide, that received a 2022 CAPP benefit.
(10) Average 2022 CAPP benefit, statewide, received by active residential customers.
(11) Total active residential customers, by utility applicant, that received a 2022 CAPP benefit.
(12) Average 2022 CAPP benefit, by utility applicant, received by active residential customers.
(13) Total expenditures by the department for the administration of 2022 CAPP.
(m) Utility applicants shall provide all documents and data necessary for the department, or its designee, to complete a review and audit of 2022 CAPP benefits applied to eligible residential accounts. The department shall provide 30 days’ notice to utility applicants of any document requests to support departmental review and audit.
(n) Notwithstanding any other law, the payment authorized pursuant to this section shall be treated in the same manner as the federal earned income refund for the purpose of determining eligibility to receive benefits under Division 9 (commencing with Section 10000) of the Welfare and Institutions Code, excluding benefits under Chapter 7 (commencing with Section 14000) of Part 3 of Division 9 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, or amounts of those benefits.
(o) Notwithstanding any other law, the payment authorized pursuant to this section shall not be considered as income and shall not be taken into account as resources for a period of 12 months from receipt, for purposes of determining the eligibility of the individual, or any other individual, for benefits or assistance or the amount or extent of benefits or assistance under any state or local program not covered in subdivision (n). With respect to a state or local program, this subdivision shall only be implemented to the extent that it does not conflict with federal law relating to that program, and that any required federal approval or waiver is first obtained for that program.

SEC. 81.

 Section 19402 of the Government Code is amended to read:

19402.
 (a) (1) All upward mobility programs shall include annual goals that include the number of employees expected to progress from entry-level positions to higher level technical, professional, and administrative positions, and the timeframe within which this progress shall occur. For appointing powers that participate in apprenticeship programs, the upward mobility program shall also include annual goals that include the number of employees expected to progress from apprenticeship positions to permanent civil service positions.
(2) The upward mobility goals may include race, gender, LGBTQ, and disability status as factors to the extent permissible under state and federal equal protection and antidiscrimination laws.
(3) The Department of Human Resources shall be responsible for approving each department’s annual upward mobility goals and timetables.
(b) (1) No later than July 1 of each year, each department shall provide a report to the Department of Human Services that demonstrates progress made toward meeting upward mobility goals. At a minimum, this report shall include the number of employees that have progressed from positions in entry-level occupational groups to technical, professional, and administrative positions in the last calendar year. If the appointing authority is unable to meet its annual upward mobility goals and timetables for two consecutive fiscal years, the appointing authority shall include in the report an explanation for why it failed to achieve its goals and what requirements are necessary to facilitate achieving its goals in the subsequent two fiscal years.
(2) On or before January 1 of the following year after each department provides the report described in paragraph (1), the Department of Human Resources shall provide a copy of the upward mobility goals and the report described in paragraph (1) to the Legislature. The report shall be submitted in compliance with Section 9795.
(3) By July 1, 2024, the Department of Human Resources shall post each department’s upward mobility goals on its internet website.

SEC. 82.

 Section 20825.14 of the Government Code is amended to read:

20825.14.
 (a) (1) In addition to the appropriation required pursuant to Section 20814, the Legislature hereby appropriates two billion nine hundred twenty-five million dollars ($2,925,000,000) from the General Fund, for the purposes described in subclause (IV) of clause (ii) of subparagraph (B) of paragraph (1) of subdivision (c) of Section 20 of Article XVI of the California Constitution to supplement the state’s appropriation to the Public Employees’ Retirement Fund. The appropriation made by this section represents a portion of the amount identified in paragraph (3) of subdivision (d) of Section 35.50 of the Budget Act of 2022. The appropriation shall be consistent with the requirements of this section and at the direction of the Department of Finance. The Department of Finance shall provide to the Controller a schedule establishing the timing of specific transfers to be used as described in subdivision (b).
(2) The supplemental payment to the Public Employees’ Retirement Fund described in paragraph (1) shall be apportioned to the following state employee member categories, as directed by the Department of Finance, not to exceed the following amounts:
(A) One billion three hundred thirty-three million nine hundred fifty-eight thousand dollars ($1,333,958,000) to the state miscellaneous member category.
(B) Eighty-one million six hundred twelve thousand dollars ($81,612,000) to the state industrial member category.
(C) One hundred seventy-one million three hundred ninety-two thousand dollars ($171,392,000) to the state safety member category.
(D) One billion three hundred thirty-eight million thirty-eight thousand dollars ($1,338,038,000) to the state peace officer/firefighter member category.
(b) The appropriation made in paragraph (1) of subdivision (a) shall be applied to the unfunded state liabilities for the state employee member categories described in paragraph (2) of subdivision (a) that are in excess of the base amounts for the 2022–23 fiscal year.

SEC. 83.

 Section 21024 of the Government Code is amended to read:

21024.
 (a) “Public service” with respect to a local member, other than a school member, also means active service with the Armed Forces of the United States or the Merchant Marine of the United States, including time during any period of rehabilitation afforded by the United States government other than a period of rehabilitation for purely educational purposes, and for six months thereafter prior to the member’s first employment by the employer under this section in which the employee was a member.
(b) Any member electing to receive credit for that public service shall make the contributions as specified in Sections 21050 and 21052. However, any eligible member who requests costing of service credit between January 1, 2001, and December 31, 2003, may, instead of making those contributions, make the payment calculated under this article as it read on December 31, 2000, which payment shall be made in the manner described in Section 21050.
(c) The public service under this section shall not include military service in any period for which credit is otherwise given under this article or Article 4 (commencing with Section 20990), or to the extent that total credit under this section would exceed four years.
(d) Notwithstanding Section 21034, a member may select which of two or more periods of service entitles the member to receive public service under this section.
(e) This section shall apply to a member only if the member elects to receive credit while in state service in the employment of one employer on or after the date of the employer’s election to be subject to this section.
(f) An employer shall inform a new employee at the time of hire of their rights to purchase service credit under this section.

SEC. 84.

 Section 26666.5 of the Government Code, as added by Section 4 of Chapter 417 of the Statutes of 2022, is amended to read:

26666.5.
 (a) A marshal or sheriff, including their department or office, shall accept transmission by email, fax, or in-person delivery of the form or forms described in Section 26666.10, and of a summons, order, or other notice to be served in any case in which the court has granted a fee waiver by an order on court fee waiver or the litigant is otherwise exempt from paying fees for service of a summons, order, or other notice under any law, including, but not limited to, subdivision (y) of Section 527.6, subdivision (x) of Section 527.8, or subdivision (x) of Section 527.85 of the Code of Civil Procedure, Division 10 (commencing with Section 6200) of the Family Code, paragraph (4) of subdivision (b) of Section 6103.2, Section 26721 or 70617 of the Government Code, Section 18121 of the Penal Code, 34 U.S.C. Sec. 10450(a)(1), or 34 U.S.C. Sec. 10461(c)(1)(D). Any person may deliver the forms for service to the marshal or sheriff, including their department or office, on behalf of a litigant.
(b) A marshal or sheriff, including their department or office, shall not charge or collect a fee for the electronic transmission of documents described in subdivision (a).
(c) This section shall not be construed to impede a private process server’s rights or obligations, including, but not limited to, the ability to serve a summons, order, or other notice as requested by a client.
(d) This section shall become operative on January 1, 2024.
(e) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2026, and as of that date is repealed.

SEC. 85.

 Section 26666.5 of the Government Code, as added by Section 5 of Chapter 417 of the Statutes of 2022, is amended to read:

26666.5.
 (a) A marshal or sheriff, including their department or office, shall accept transmission by email, fax, or in-person delivery of the form or forms described in Section 26666.10, and of a summons, order, or other notice to be served. Any person may deliver the forms for service to the marshal or sheriff, including their department or office, on behalf of a litigant.
(b) (1) Subject to paragraph (2), a marshal or sheriff, including their department or office, shall not charge or collect a fee for the electronic transmission of documents described in subdivision (a) that exceeds the actual cost incurred in processing the transmission.
(2) No fee for the electronic transmission of documents shall be imposed on a litigant who has been granted a fee waiver by an order on court fee waiver or is otherwise exempt from paying fees for service of a summons, order, or other notice under any law, including, but not limited to, subdivision (y) of Section 527.6, subdivision (x) of Section 527.8, or subdivision (x) of Section 527.85 of the Code of Civil Procedure, Division 10 (commencing with Section 6200) of the Family Code, paragraph (4) of subdivision (b) of Section 6103.2, Section 26721 or 70617 of the Government Code, Section 18121 of the Penal Code, 34 U.S.C. Sec. 10450(a)(1), or 34 U.S.C. Sec. 10461(c)(1)(D).
(c) This section shall not be construed to require a marshal or sheriff, including their department or office, to attempt service of documents prior to receipt of any fees owed pursuant to this chapter.
(d) This section shall not be construed to impede a private process server’s rights or obligations, including, but not limited to, the ability to serve a summons, order, or other notice as requested by a client.
(e) This section shall become operative on January 1, 2026.

SEC. 86.

 Section 51010 of the Government Code is amended to read:

51010.
 It is the intent of the Legislature, in enacting this chapter, that the State Fire Marshal shall exercise exclusive safety regulatory and enforcement authority over intrastate hazardous liquid pipelines and, to the extent authorized by agreement between the State Fire Marshal and the United States Secretary of Transportation, may act as agent for the United States Secretary of Transportation to implement the federal Hazardous Liquid Pipeline Safety Act of 1979 (49 U.S.C. Sec. 60101 et seq.) and federal pipeline safety regulations as to those portions of interstate pipelines located within this state, as necessary to obtain annual federal certification.

SEC. 87.

 Section 53087.9 of the Government Code is amended to read:

53087.9.
 (a) (1) A local agency, as defined in subdivision (a) of Section 7920.510, may, at the request of the governing board of a California Community College district, enter into a memorandum of understanding that would allow the agency and the district to share electronically collected personal information about users, subject to compliance with subdivision (a) of Section 11015.5, unless the user has not provided informed written consent for that disclosure.
(2) Electronically collected personal information provided by the local agency to the California Community College district pursuant to paragraph (1) shall only be used for facilitating outreach to, and enrollment of, individuals in the California Community Colleges system and notifying the user of all available support resources.
(3) The California Community College district shall not provide student personal information or student level data to the local agency unless it is for the purposes described in Section 76241 of the Education Code.
(4) In enacting this subdivision, it is the intent of the Legislature that a local agency comply with subdivision (a) of Section 11015.5 before distributing any electronically collected personal information.
(5) A California Community College district that enters into a memorandum of understanding pursuant to this section shall do all of the following:
(A) Comply with the United States Constitution and applicable federal laws, including the Family Educational Rights and Privacy Act of 2001 (20 U.S.C. Sec. 1232g) and its implementing regulations (34 C.F.R. 99).
(B) Comply with the California Constitution, and applicable state laws and regulations, including, but not limited to, Section 1798.24 of the Civil Code.
(C) (i) Ensure that material used by the California Community College district for outreach, enrollment, and notification of resources protects the user’s identity so that the user’s membership in the targeted population is not revealed.
(ii) To ensure that the user’s identifying information is protected, the memorandum of understanding shall stipulate that only permanent employees of the California Community College district whose job responsibilities require access to perform the functions described in clause (i) shall handle unitary data. A student classified as either an employee or volunteer shall not have access to any user identifying information.
(D) Limit the memorandum of understanding to personal identifying user data received from the local agency to the service area of the community college district. A California Community College district that receives data from the service area of another community college district shall delete the data without using it.
(6) A California Community College district shall not use the electronically collected personal information provided by the local agency for purposes of prepopulating admission applications or enrollment documents.
(7) Upon first contact with the user, the California Community College district shall notify the individual of any educational services available to them and include an opportunity to opt out of future contact. In any and all subsequent contact, the California Community College district shall notify the user of the opportunity to opt out of future contact. The California Community College district shall delete without reuse or distribution any electronically collected information upon the request by the user or when the user has enrolled at the California Community College district.
(8) A California Community College district shall not disclose the electronically collected personal information provided by the local agency.
(b) For purposes of this section, both of the following definitions apply:
(1) “Electronically collected personal information” means a user’s name, home address, home telephone number, cellular phone number, electronic mail address, and education.
(2) “User” means an individual who communicates with a state or local agency or with an agency employee or official electronically.
(c) This section does not permit an agency to act in a manner inconsistent with the standards and limitations adopted pursuant to the California Public Records Act (Division 10 (commencing with Section 7920.000) of Title 1) or the Information Practices Act of 1977 (Title 1.8 (commencing with Section 1798) of Part 4 of Division 3 of the Civil Code).

SEC. 88.

 Section 54953 of the Government Code, as amended by Section 1 of Chapter 285 of the Statutes of 2022, is amended to read:

54953.
 (a) All meetings of the legislative body of a local agency shall be open and public, and all persons shall be permitted to attend any meeting of the legislative body of a local agency, except as otherwise provided in this chapter.
(b) (1) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, the legislative body of a local agency may use teleconferencing for the benefit of the public and the legislative body of a local agency in connection with any meeting or proceeding authorized by law. The teleconferenced meeting or proceeding shall comply with all otherwise applicable requirements of this chapter and all otherwise applicable provisions of law relating to a specific type of meeting or proceeding.
(2) Teleconferencing, as authorized by this section, may be used for all purposes in connection with any meeting within the subject matter jurisdiction of the legislative body. If the legislative body of a local agency elects to use teleconferencing, the legislative body of a local agency shall comply with all of the following:
(A) All votes taken during a teleconferenced meeting shall be by rollcall.
(B) The teleconferenced meetings shall be conducted in a manner that protects the statutory and constitutional rights of the parties or the public appearing before the legislative body of a local agency.
(C) The legislative body shall give notice of the meeting and post agendas as otherwise required by this chapter.
(D) The legislative body shall allow members of the public to access the meeting and the agenda shall provide an opportunity for members of the public to address the legislative body directly pursuant to Section 54954.3.
(3) If the legislative body of a local agency elects to use teleconferencing, it shall post agendas at all teleconference locations. Each teleconference location shall be identified in the notice and agenda of the meeting or proceeding, and each teleconference location shall be accessible to the public. During the teleconference, at least a quorum of the members of the legislative body shall participate from locations within the boundaries of the territory over which the local agency exercises jurisdiction, except as provided in subdivisions (d) and (e).
(c) (1) No legislative body shall take action by secret ballot, whether preliminary or final.
(2) The legislative body of a local agency shall publicly report any action taken and the vote or abstention on that action of each member present for the action.
(3) Prior to taking final action, the legislative body shall orally report a summary of a recommendation for a final action on the salaries, salary schedules, or compensation paid in the form of fringe benefits of a local agency executive, as defined in subdivision (d) of Section 3511.1, during the open meeting in which the final action is to be taken. This paragraph shall not affect the public’s right under the California Public Records Act (Division 10 (commencing with Section 7920.000) of Title 1) to inspect or copy records created or received in the process of developing the recommendation.
(d) (1) Notwithstanding the provisions relating to a quorum in paragraph (3) of subdivision (b), if a health authority conducts a teleconference meeting, members who are outside the jurisdiction of the authority may be counted toward the establishment of a quorum when participating in the teleconference if at least 50 percent of the number of members that would establish a quorum are present within the boundaries of the territory over which the authority exercises jurisdiction, and the health authority provides a teleconference number, and associated access codes, if any, that allows any person to call in to participate in the meeting and the number and access codes are identified in the notice and agenda of the meeting.
(2) Nothing in this subdivision shall be construed as discouraging health authority members from regularly meeting at a common physical site within the jurisdiction of the authority or from using teleconference locations within or near the jurisdiction of the authority. A teleconference meeting for which a quorum is established pursuant to this subdivision shall be subject to all other requirements of this section.
(3) For purposes of this subdivision, a health authority means any entity created pursuant to Sections 14018.7, 14087.31, 14087.35, 14087.36, 14087.38, and 14087.9605 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, any joint powers authority created pursuant to Article 1 (commencing with Section 6500) of Chapter 5 of Division 7 for the purpose of contracting pursuant to Section 14087.3 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, and any advisory committee to a county-sponsored health plan licensed pursuant to Chapter 2.2 (commencing with Section 1340) of Division 2 of the Health and Safety Code if the advisory committee has 12 or more members.
(e) (1) The legislative body of a local agency may use teleconferencing without complying with the requirements of paragraph (3) of subdivision (b) if the legislative body complies with the requirements of paragraph (2) of this subdivision in any of the following circumstances:
(A) The legislative body holds a meeting during a proclaimed state of emergency, and state or local officials have imposed or recommended measures to promote social distancing.
(B) The legislative body holds a meeting during a proclaimed state of emergency for the purpose of determining, by majority vote, whether as a result of the emergency, meeting in person would present imminent risks to the health or safety of attendees.
(C) The legislative body holds a meeting during a proclaimed state of emergency and has determined, by majority vote, pursuant to subparagraph (B), that, as a result of the emergency, meeting in person would present imminent risks to the health or safety of attendees.
(2) A legislative body that holds a meeting pursuant to this subdivision shall do all of the following:
(A) In each instance in which notice of the time of the teleconferenced meeting is otherwise given or the agenda for the meeting is otherwise posted, the legislative body shall also give notice of the means by which members of the public may access the meeting and offer public comment. The agenda shall identify and include an opportunity for all persons to attend via a call-in option or an internet-based service option.
(B) In the event of a disruption that prevents the legislative body from broadcasting the meeting to members of the public using the call-in option or internet-based service option, or in the event of a disruption within the local agency’s control that prevents members of the public from offering public comments using the call-in option or internet-based service option, the legislative body shall take no further action on items appearing on the meeting agenda until public access to the meeting via the call-in option or internet-based service option is restored. Actions taken on agenda items during a disruption that prevents the legislative body from broadcasting the meeting may be challenged pursuant to Section 54960.1.
(C) The legislative body shall not require public comments to be submitted in advance of the meeting and must provide an opportunity for the public to address the legislative body and offer comment in real time.
(D) Notwithstanding Section 54953.3, an individual desiring to provide public comment through the use of an internet website, or other online platform, not under the control of the local legislative body, that requires registration to log in to a teleconference may be required to register as required by the third-party internet website or online platform to participate.
(E) (i) A legislative body that provides a timed public comment period for each agenda item shall not close the public comment period for the agenda item, or the opportunity to register, pursuant to subparagraph (F), to provide public comment until that timed public comment period has elapsed.
(ii) A legislative body that does not provide a timed public comment period, but takes public comment separately on each agenda item, shall allow a reasonable amount of time per agenda item to allow public members the opportunity to provide public comment, including time for members of the public to register pursuant to subparagraph (F), or otherwise be recognized for the purpose of providing public comment.
(iii) A legislative body that provides a timed general public comment period that does not correspond to a specific agenda item shall not close the public comment period or the opportunity to register, pursuant to subparagraph (F), until the timed general public comment period has elapsed.
(3) If a state of emergency remains active, or state or local officials have imposed or recommended measures to promote social distancing, in order to continue to teleconference without compliance with paragraph (3) of subdivision (b), the legislative body shall, not later than 30 days after teleconferencing for the first time pursuant to subparagraph (A), (B), or (C) of paragraph (1), and every 30 days thereafter, make the following findings by majority vote:
(A) The legislative body has reconsidered the circumstances of the state of emergency.
(B) Any of the following circumstances exist:
(i) The state of emergency continues to directly impact the ability of the members to meet safely in person.
(ii) State or local officials continue to impose or recommend measures to promote social distancing.
(4) This subdivision shall not be construed to require the legislative body to provide a physical location from which the public may attend or comment.
(f) (1) The legislative body of a local agency may use teleconferencing without complying with paragraph (3) of subdivision (b) if, during the teleconference meeting, at least a quorum of the members of the legislative body participates in person from a singular physical location clearly identified on the agenda, which location shall be open to the public and situated within the boundaries of the territory over which the local agency exercises jurisdiction and the legislative body complies with all of the following:
(A) The legislative body shall provide at least one of the following as a means by which the public may remotely hear and visually observe the meeting, and remotely address the legislative body:
(i) A two-way audiovisual platform.
(ii) A two-way telephonic service and a live webcasting of the meeting.
(B) In each instance in which notice of the time of the teleconferenced meeting is otherwise given or the agenda for the meeting is otherwise posted, the legislative body shall also give notice of the means by which members of the public may access the meeting and offer public comment.
(C) The agenda shall identify and include an opportunity for all persons to attend and address the legislative body directly pursuant to Section 54954.3 via a call-in option, via an internet-based service option, and at the in-person location of the meeting.
(D) In the event of a disruption that prevents the legislative body from broadcasting the meeting to members of the public using the call-in option or internet-based service option, or in the event of a disruption within the local agency’s control that prevents members of the public from offering public comments using the call-in option or internet-based service option, the legislative body shall take no further action on items appearing on the meeting agenda until public access to the meeting via the call-in option or internet-based service option is restored. Actions taken on agenda items during a disruption that prevents the legislative body from broadcasting the meeting may be challenged pursuant to Section 54960.1.
(E) The legislative body shall not require public comments to be submitted in advance of the meeting and must provide an opportunity for the public to address the legislative body and offer comment in real time.
(F) Notwithstanding Section 54953.3, an individual desiring to provide public comment through the use of an internet website, or other online platform, not under the control of the local legislative body, that requires registration to log in to a teleconference may be required to register as required by the third-party internet website or online platform to participate.
(2) A member of the legislative body shall only participate in the meeting remotely pursuant to this subdivision, if all of the following requirements are met:
(A) One of the following circumstances applies:
(i) The member notifies the legislative body at the earliest opportunity possible, including at the start of a regular meeting, of their need to participate remotely for just cause, including a general description of the circumstances relating to their need to appear remotely at the given meeting. The provisions of this clause shall not be used by any member of the legislative body for more than two meetings per calendar year.
(ii) The member requests the legislative body to allow them to participate in the meeting remotely due to emergency circumstances and the legislative body takes action to approve the request. The legislative body shall request a general description of the circumstances relating to their need to appear remotely at the given meeting. A general description of an item generally need not exceed 20 words and shall not require the member to disclose any medical diagnosis or disability, or any personal medical information that is already exempt under existing law, such as the Confidentiality of Medical Information Act (Chapter 1 (commencing with Section 56) of Part 2.6 of Division 1 of the Civil Code). For the purposes of this clause, the following requirements apply:
(I) A member shall make a request to participate remotely at a meeting pursuant to this clause as soon as possible. The member shall make a separate request for each meeting in which they seek to participate remotely.
(II) The legislative body may take action on a request to participate remotely at the earliest opportunity. If the request does not allow sufficient time to place proposed action on such a request on the posted agenda for the meeting for which the request is made, the legislative body may take action at the beginning of the meeting in accordance with paragraph (4) of subdivision (b) of Section 54954.2.
(B) The member shall publicly disclose at the meeting before any action is taken, whether any other individuals 18 years of age or older are present in the room at the remote location with the member, and the general nature of the member’s relationship with any such individuals.
(C) The member shall participate through both audio and visual technology.
(3) The provisions of this subdivision shall not serve as a means for any member of a legislative body to participate in meetings of the legislative body solely by teleconference from a remote location for a period of more than three consecutive months or 20 percent of the regular meetings for the local agency within a calendar year, or more than two meetings if the legislative body regularly meets fewer than 10 times per calendar year.
(g) The legislative body shall have and implement a procedure for receiving and swiftly resolving requests for reasonable accommodation for individuals with disabilities, consistent with the federal Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990 (42 U.S.C. Sec. 12132), and resolving any doubt in favor of accessibility. In each instance in which notice of the time of the meeting is otherwise given or the agenda for the meeting is otherwise posted, the legislative body shall also give notice of the procedure for receiving and resolving requests for accommodation.
(h) The legislative body shall conduct meetings subject to this chapter consistent with applicable civil rights and nondiscrimination laws.
(i) (1) Nothing in this section shall prohibit a legislative body from providing the public with additional teleconference locations.
(2) Nothing in this section shall prohibit a legislative body from providing members of the public with additional physical locations in which the public may observe and address the legislative body by electronic means.
(j) For the purposes of this section, the following definitions shall apply:
(1) “Emergency circumstances” means a physical or family medical emergency that prevents a member from attending in person.
(2) “Just cause” means any of the following:
(A) A childcare or caregiving need of a child, parent, grandparent, grandchild, sibling, spouse, or domestic partner that requires them to participate remotely. “Child,” “parent,” “grandparent,” “grandchild,” and “sibling” have the same meanings as those terms do in Section 12945.2.
(B) A contagious illness that prevents a member from attending in person.
(C) A need related to a physical or mental disability as defined in Sections 12926 and 12926.1 not otherwise accommodated by subdivision (g).
(D) Travel while on official business of the legislative body or another state or local agency.
(3) “Remote location” means a location from which a member of a legislative body participates in a meeting pursuant to subdivision (f), other than any physical meeting location designated in the notice of the meeting. Remote locations need not be accessible to the public.
(4) “Remote participation” means participation in a meeting by teleconference at a location other than any physical meeting location designated in the notice of the meeting. Watching or listening to a meeting via webcasting or another similar electronic medium that does not permit members to interactively hear, discuss, or deliberate on matters, does not constitute remote participation.
(5) “State of emergency” means a state of emergency proclaimed pursuant to Section 8625 of the California Emergency Services Act (Article 1 (commencing with Section 8550) of Chapter 7 of Division 1 of Title 2).
(6) “Teleconference” means a meeting of a legislative body, the members of which are in different locations, connected by electronic means, through either audio or video, or both.
(7) “Two-way audiovisual platform” means an online platform that provides participants with the ability to participate in a meeting via both an interactive video conference and a two-way telephonic function.
(8) “Two-way telephonic service” means a telephone service that does not require internet access, is not provided as part of a two-way audiovisual platform, and allows participants to dial a telephone number to listen and verbally participate.
(9) “Webcasting” means a streaming video broadcast online or on television, using streaming media technology to distribute a single content source to many simultaneous listeners and viewers.
(k) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2024, and as of that date is repealed.

SEC. 89.

 Section 54953 of the Government Code, as amended by Section 2 of Chapter 285 of the Statutes of 2022, is amended to read:

54953.
 (a) All meetings of the legislative body of a local agency shall be open and public, and all persons shall be permitted to attend any meeting of the legislative body of a local agency, except as otherwise provided in this chapter.
(b) (1) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, the legislative body of a local agency may use teleconferencing for the benefit of the public and the legislative body of a local agency in connection with any meeting or proceeding authorized by law. The teleconferenced meeting or proceeding shall comply with all otherwise applicable requirements of this chapter and all otherwise applicable provisions of law relating to a specific type of meeting or proceeding.
(2) Teleconferencing, as authorized by this section, may be used for all purposes in connection with any meeting within the subject matter jurisdiction of the legislative body. If the legislative body of a local agency elects to use teleconferencing, the legislative body of a local agency shall comply with all of the following:
(A) All votes taken during a teleconferenced meeting shall be by rollcall.
(B) The teleconferenced meetings shall be conducted in a manner that protects the statutory and constitutional rights of the parties or the public appearing before the legislative body of a local agency.
(C) The legislative body shall give notice of the meeting and post agendas as otherwise required by this chapter.
(D) The legislative body shall allow members of the public to access the meeting and the agenda shall provide an opportunity for members of the public to address the legislative body directly pursuant to Section 54954.3.
(3) If the legislative body of a local agency elects to use teleconferencing, it shall post agendas at all teleconference locations. Each teleconference location shall be identified in the notice and agenda of the meeting or proceeding, and each teleconference location shall be accessible to the public. During the teleconference, at least a quorum of the members of the legislative body shall participate from locations within the boundaries of the territory over which the local agency exercises jurisdiction, except as provided in subdivision (d).
(c) (1) No legislative body shall take action by secret ballot, whether preliminary or final.
(2) The legislative body of a local agency shall publicly report any action taken and the vote or abstention on that action of each member present for the action.
(3) Prior to taking final action, the legislative body shall orally report a summary of a recommendation for a final action on the salaries, salary schedules, or compensation paid in the form of fringe benefits of a local agency executive, as defined in subdivision (d) of Section 3511.1, during the open meeting in which the final action is to be taken. This paragraph shall not affect the public’s right under the California Public Records Act (Division 10 (commencing with Section 7920.000) of Title 1) to inspect or copy records created or received in the process of developing the recommendation.
(d) (1) Notwithstanding the provisions relating to a quorum in paragraph (3) of subdivision (b), if a health authority conducts a teleconference meeting, members who are outside the jurisdiction of the authority may be counted toward the establishment of a quorum when participating in the teleconference if at least 50 percent of the number of members that would establish a quorum are present within the boundaries of the territory over which the authority exercises jurisdiction, and the health authority provides a teleconference number, and associated access codes, if any, that allows any person to call in to participate in the meeting and the number and access codes are identified in the notice and agenda of the meeting.
(2) Nothing in this subdivision shall be construed as discouraging health authority members from regularly meeting at a common physical site within the jurisdiction of the authority or from using teleconference locations within or near the jurisdiction of the authority. A teleconference meeting for which a quorum is established pursuant to this subdivision shall be subject to all other requirements of this section.
(3) For purposes of this subdivision, a health authority means any entity created pursuant to Sections 14018.7, 14087.31, 14087.35, 14087.36, 14087.38, and 14087.9605 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, any joint powers authority created pursuant to Article 1 (commencing with Section 6500) of Chapter 5 of Division 7 for the purpose of contracting pursuant to Section 14087.3 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, and any advisory committee to a county-sponsored health plan licensed pursuant to Chapter 2.2 (commencing with Section 1340) of Division 2 of the Health and Safety Code if the advisory committee has 12 or more members.
(e) (1) The legislative body of a local agency may use teleconferencing without complying with paragraph (3) of subdivision (b) if, during the teleconference meeting, at least a quorum of the members of the legislative body participates in person from a singular physical location clearly identified on the agenda, which location shall be open to the public and situated within the boundaries of the territory over which the local agency exercises jurisdiction and the legislative body complies with all of the following:
(A) The legislative body shall provide at least one of the following as a means by which the public may remotely hear and visually observe the meeting, and remotely address the legislative body:
(i) A two-way audiovisual platform.
(ii) A two-way telephonic service and a live webcasting of the meeting.
(B) In each instance in which notice of the time of the teleconferenced meeting is otherwise given or the agenda for the meeting is otherwise posted, the legislative body shall also give notice of the means by which members of the public may access the meeting and offer public comment.
(C) The agenda shall identify and include an opportunity for all persons to attend and address the legislative body directly pursuant to Section 54954.3 via a call-in option, via an internet-based service option, and at the in-person location of the meeting.
(D) In the event of a disruption that prevents the legislative body from broadcasting the meeting to members of the public using the call-in option or internet-based service option, or in the event of a disruption within the local agency’s control that prevents members of the public from offering public comments using the call-in option or internet-based service option, the legislative body shall take no further action on items appearing on the meeting agenda until public access to the meeting via the call-in option or internet-based service option is restored. Actions taken on agenda items during a disruption that prevents the legislative body from broadcasting the meeting may be challenged pursuant to Section 54960.1.
(E) The legislative body shall not require public comments to be submitted in advance of the meeting and must provide an opportunity for the public to address the legislative body and offer comment in real time.
(F) Notwithstanding Section 54953.3, an individual desiring to provide public comment through the use of an internet website, or other online platform, not under the control of the local legislative body, that requires registration to log in to a teleconference may be required to register as required by the third-party internet website or online platform to participate.
(2) A member of the legislative body shall only participate in the meeting remotely pursuant to this subdivision, if all of the following requirements are met:
(A) One of the following circumstances applies:
(i) The member notifies the legislative body at the earliest opportunity possible, including at the start of a regular meeting, of their need to participate remotely for just cause, including a general description of the circumstances relating to their need to appear remotely at the given meeting. The provisions of this clause shall not be used by any member of the legislative body for more than two meetings per calendar year.
(ii) The member requests the legislative body to allow them to participate in the meeting remotely due to emergency circumstances and the legislative body takes action to approve the request. The legislative body shall request a general description of the circumstances relating to their need to appear remotely at the given meeting. A general description of an item generally need not exceed 20 words and shall not require the member to disclose any medical diagnosis or disability, or any personal medical information that is already exempt under existing law, such as the Confidentiality of Medical Information Act (Chapter 1 (commencing with Section 56) of Part 2.6 of Division 1 of the Civil Code). For the purposes of this clause, the following requirements apply:
(I) A member shall make a request to participate remotely at a meeting pursuant to this clause as soon as possible. The member shall make a separate request for each meeting in which they seek to participate remotely.
(II) The legislative body may take action on a request to participate remotely at the earliest opportunity. If the request does not allow sufficient time to place proposed action on such a request on the posted agenda for the meeting for which the request is made, the legislative body may take action at the beginning of the meeting in accordance with paragraph (4) of subdivision (b) of Section 54954.2.
(B) The member shall publicly disclose at the meeting before any action is taken whether any other individuals 18 years of age or older are present in the room at the remote location with the member, and the general nature of the member’s relationship with any such individuals.
(C) The member shall participate through both audio and visual technology.
(3) The provisions of this subdivision shall not serve as a means for any member of a legislative body to participate in meetings of the legislative body solely by teleconference from a remote location for a period of more than three consecutive months or 20 percent of the regular meetings for the local agency within a calendar year, or more than two meetings if the legislative body regularly meets fewer than 10 times per calendar year.
(f) The legislative body shall have and implement a procedure for receiving and swiftly resolving requests for reasonable accommodation for individuals with disabilities, consistent with the federal Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990 (42 U.S.C. Sec. 12132), and resolving any doubt in favor of accessibility. In each instance in which notice of the time of the meeting is otherwise given or the agenda for the meeting is otherwise posted, the legislative body shall also give notice of the procedure for receiving and resolving requests for accommodation.
(g) The legislative body shall conduct meetings subject to this chapter consistent with applicable civil rights and nondiscrimination laws.
(h) (1) Nothing in this section shall prohibit a legislative body from providing the public with additional teleconference locations.
(2) Nothing in this section shall prohibit a legislative body from providing members of the public with additional physical locations in which the public may observe and address the legislative body by electronic means.
(i) For the purposes of this section, the following definitions shall apply:
(1) “Emergency circumstances” means a physical or family medical emergency that prevents a member from attending in person.
(2) “Just cause” means any of the following:
(A) A childcare or caregiving need of a child, parent, grandparent, grandchild, sibling, spouse, or domestic partner that requires them to participate remotely. “Child,” “parent,” “grandparent,” “grandchild,” and “sibling” have the same meanings as those terms do in Section 12945.2.
(B) A contagious illness that prevents a member from attending in person.
(C) A need related to a physical or mental disability as defined in Sections 12926 and 12926.1 not otherwise accommodated by subdivision (f).
(D) Travel while on official business of the legislative body or another state or local agency.
(3) “Remote location” means a location from which a member of a legislative body participates in a meeting pursuant to subdivision (e), other than any physical meeting location designated in the notice of the meeting. Remote locations need not be accessible to the public.
(4) “Remote participation” means participation in a meeting by teleconference at a location other than any physical meeting location designated in the notice of the meeting. Watching or listening to a meeting via webcasting or another similar electronic medium that does not permit members to interactively hear, discuss, or deliberate on matters, does not constitute remote participation.
(5) “Teleconference” means a meeting of a legislative body, the members of which are in different locations, connected by electronic means, through either audio or video, or both.
(6) “Two-way audiovisual platform” means an online platform that provides participants with the ability to participate in a meeting via both an interactive video conference and a two-way telephonic function.
(7) “Two-way telephonic service” means a telephone service that does not require internet access, is not provided as part of a two-way audiovisual platform, and allows participants to dial a telephone number to listen and verbally participate.
(8) “Webcasting” means a streaming video broadcast online or on television, using streaming media technology to distribute a single content source to many simultaneous listeners and viewers.
(j) This section shall become operative January 1, 2024, shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2026, and as of that date is repealed.

SEC. 90.

 Section 54953 of the Government Code, as added by Section 3 of Chapter 285 of the Statutes of 2022, is amended to read:

54953.
 (a) All meetings of the legislative body of a local agency shall be open and public, and all persons shall be permitted to attend any meeting of the legislative body of a local agency, except as otherwise provided in this chapter.
(b) (1) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, the legislative body of a local agency may use teleconferencing for the benefit of the public and the legislative body of a local agency in connection with any meeting or proceeding authorized by law. The teleconferenced meeting or proceeding shall comply with all requirements of this chapter and all otherwise applicable provisions of law relating to a specific type of meeting or proceeding.
(2) Teleconferencing, as authorized by this section, may be used for all purposes in connection with any meeting within the subject matter jurisdiction of the legislative body. All votes taken during a teleconferenced meeting shall be by rollcall.
(3) If the legislative body of a local agency elects to use teleconferencing, it shall post agendas at all teleconference locations and conduct teleconference meetings in a manner that protects the statutory and constitutional rights of the parties or the public appearing before the legislative body of a local agency. Each teleconference location shall be identified in the notice and agenda of the meeting or proceeding, and each teleconference location shall be accessible to the public. During the teleconference, at least a quorum of the members of the legislative body shall participate from locations within the boundaries of the territory over which the local agency exercises jurisdiction, except as provided in subdivision (d). The agenda shall provide an opportunity for members of the public to address the legislative body directly pursuant to Section 54954.3 at each teleconference location.
(4) For the purposes of this section, “teleconference” means a meeting of a legislative body, the members of which are in different locations, connected by electronic means, through either audio or video, or both. Nothing in this section shall prohibit a local agency from providing the public with additional teleconference locations.
(c) (1) No legislative body shall take action by secret ballot, whether preliminary or final.
(2) The legislative body of a local agency shall publicly report any action taken and the vote or abstention on that action of each member present for the action.
(3) Prior to taking final action, the legislative body shall orally report a summary of a recommendation for a final action on the salaries, salary schedules, or compensation paid in the form of fringe benefits of a local agency executive, as defined in subdivision (d) of Section 3511.1, during the open meeting in which the final action is to be taken. This paragraph shall not affect the public’s right under the California Public Records Act (Division 10 (commencing with Section 7920.000) of Title 1) to inspect or copy records created or received in the process of developing the recommendation.
(d) (1) Notwithstanding the provisions relating to a quorum in paragraph (3) of subdivision (b), if a health authority conducts a teleconference meeting, members who are outside the jurisdiction of the authority may be counted toward the establishment of a quorum when participating in the teleconference if at least 50 percent of the number of members that would establish a quorum are present within the boundaries of the territory over which the authority exercises jurisdiction, and the health authority provides a teleconference number, and associated access codes, if any, that allows any person to call in to participate in the meeting and the number and access codes are identified in the notice and agenda of the meeting.
(2) Nothing in this subdivision shall be construed as discouraging health authority members from regularly meeting at a common physical site within the jurisdiction of the authority or from using teleconference locations within or near the jurisdiction of the authority. A teleconference meeting for which a quorum is established pursuant to this subdivision shall be subject to all other requirements of this section.
(3) For purposes of this subdivision, a health authority means any entity created pursuant to Sections 14018.7, 14087.31, 14087.35, 14087.36, 14087.38, and 14087.9605 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, any joint powers authority created pursuant to Article 1 (commencing with Section 6500) of Chapter 5 of Division 7 for the purpose of contracting pursuant to Section 14087.3 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, and any advisory committee to a county-sponsored health plan licensed pursuant to Chapter 2.2 (commencing with Section 1340) of Division 2 of the Health and Safety Code if the advisory committee has 12 or more members.
(e) This section shall become operative January 1, 2026.

SEC. 91.

 Section 54954.2 of the Government Code, as amended by Section 4 of Chapter 285 of the Statutes of 2022, is amended to read:

54954.2.
 (a) (1) At least 72 hours before a regular meeting, the legislative body of the local agency, or its designee, shall post an agenda containing a brief general description of each item of business to be transacted or discussed at the meeting, including items to be discussed in closed session. A brief general description of an item generally need not exceed 20 words. The agenda shall specify the time and location of the regular meeting and shall be posted in a location that is freely accessible to members of the public and on the local agency’s internet website, if the local agency has one. If requested, the agenda shall be made available in appropriate alternative formats to persons with a disability, as required by Section 202 of the Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990 (42 U.S.C. Sec. 12132), and the federal rules and regulations adopted in implementation thereof. The agenda shall include information regarding how, to whom, and when a request for disability-related modification or accommodation, including auxiliary aids or services, may be made by a person with a disability who requires a modification or accommodation in order to participate in the public meeting.
(2) For a meeting occurring on and after January 1, 2019, of a legislative body of a city, county, city and county, special district, school district, or political subdivision established by the state that has an internet website, the following provisions shall apply:
(A) An online posting of an agenda shall be posted on the primary internet website home page of a city, county, city and county, special district, school district, or political subdivision established by the state that is accessible through a prominent, direct link to the current agenda. The direct link to the agenda shall not be in a contextual menu; however, a link in addition to the direct link to the agenda may be accessible through a contextual menu.
(B) An online posting of an agenda, including, but not limited to, an agenda posted in an integrated agenda management platform, shall be posted in an open format that meets all of the following requirements:
(i) Retrievable, downloadable, indexable, and electronically searchable by commonly used internet search applications.
(ii) Platform independent and machine readable.
(iii) Available to the public free of charge and without any restriction that would impede the reuse or redistribution of the agenda.
(C) A legislative body of a city, county, city and county, special district, school district, or political subdivision established by the state that has an internet website and an integrated agenda management platform shall not be required to comply with subparagraph (A) if all of the following are met:
(i) A direct link to the integrated agenda management platform shall be posted on the primary internet website home page of a city, county, city and county, special district, school district, or political subdivision established by the state. The direct link to the integrated agenda management platform shall not be in a contextual menu. When a person clicks on the direct link to the integrated agenda management platform, the direct link shall take the person directly to an internet website with the agendas of the legislative body of a city, county, city and county, special district, school district, or political subdivision established by the state.
(ii) The integrated agenda management platform may contain the prior agendas of a legislative body of a city, county, city and county, special district, school district, or political subdivision established by the state for all meetings occurring on or after January 1, 2019.
(iii) The current agenda of the legislative body of a city, county, city and county, special district, school district, or political subdivision established by the state shall be the first agenda available at the top of the integrated agenda management platform.
(iv) All agendas posted in the integrated agenda management platform shall comply with the requirements in clauses (i), (ii), and (iii) of subparagraph (B).
(D) For the purposes of this paragraph, both of the following definitions shall apply:
(i) “Integrated agenda management platform” means an internet website of a city, county, city and county, special district, school district, or political subdivision established by the state dedicated to providing the entirety of the agenda information for the legislative body of the city, county, city and county, special district, school district, or political subdivision established by the state to the public.
(ii) “Legislative body” has the same meaning as that term is used in subdivision (a) of Section 54952.
(E) The provisions of this paragraph shall not apply to a political subdivision of a local agency that was established by the legislative body of the city, county, city and county, special district, school district, or political subdivision established by the state.
(3) No action or discussion shall be undertaken on any item not appearing on the posted agenda, except that members of a legislative body or its staff may briefly respond to statements made or questions posed by persons exercising their public testimony rights under Section 54954.3. In addition, on their own initiative or in response to questions posed by the public, a member of a legislative body or its staff may ask a question for clarification, make a brief announcement, or make a brief report on their own activities. Furthermore, a member of a legislative body, or the body itself, subject to rules or procedures of the legislative body, may provide a reference to staff or other resources for factual information, request staff to report back to the body at a subsequent meeting concerning any matter, or take action to direct staff to place a matter of business on a future agenda.
(b) Notwithstanding subdivision (a), the legislative body may take action on items of business not appearing on the posted agenda under any of the conditions stated below. Prior to discussing any item pursuant to this subdivision, the legislative body shall publicly identify the item.
(1) Upon a determination by a majority vote of the legislative body that an emergency situation exists, as defined in Section 54956.5.
(2) Upon a determination by a two-thirds vote of the members of the legislative body present at the meeting, or, if less than two-thirds of the members are present, a unanimous vote of those members present, that there is a need to take immediate action and that the need for action came to the attention of the local agency subsequent to the agenda being posted as specified in subdivision (a).
(3) The item was posted pursuant to subdivision (a) for a prior meeting of the legislative body occurring not more than five calendar days prior to the date action is taken on the item, and at the prior meeting the item was continued to the meeting at which action is being taken.
(4) To consider action on a request from a member to participate in a meeting remotely due to emergency circumstances, pursuant to Section 54953, if the request does not allow sufficient time to place the proposed action on the posted agenda for the meeting for which the request is made. The legislative body may approve such a request by a majority vote of the legislative body.
(c) This section is necessary to implement and reasonably within the scope of paragraph (1) of subdivision (b) of Section 3 of Article I of the California Constitution.
(d) For purposes of subdivision (a), the requirement that the agenda be posted on the local agency’s internet website, if the local agency has one, shall only apply to a legislative body that meets either of the following standards:
(1) A legislative body as that term is defined by subdivision (a) of Section 54952.
(2) A legislative body as that term is defined by subdivision (b) of Section 54952, if the members of the legislative body are compensated for their appearance, and if one or more of the members of the legislative body are also members of a legislative body as that term is defined by subdivision (a) of Section 54952.
(e) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2026, and as of that date is repealed.

SEC. 92.

 Section 54954.2 of the Government Code, as added by Section 5 of Chapter 285 of the Statutes of 2022, is amended to read:

54954.2.
 (a) (1) At least 72 hours before a regular meeting, the legislative body of the local agency, or its designee, shall post an agenda containing a brief general description of each item of business to be transacted or discussed at the meeting, including items to be discussed in closed session. A brief general description of an item generally need not exceed 20 words. The agenda shall specify the time and location of the regular meeting and shall be posted in a location that is freely accessible to members of the public and on the local agency’s internet website, if the local agency has one. If requested, the agenda shall be made available in appropriate alternative formats to persons with a disability, as required by Section 202 of the Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990 (42 U.S.C. Sec. 12132), and the federal rules and regulations adopted in implementation thereof. The agenda shall include information regarding how, to whom, and when a request for disability-related modification or accommodation, including auxiliary aids or services, may be made by a person with a disability who requires a modification or accommodation in order to participate in the public meeting.
(2) For a meeting occurring on and after January 1, 2019, of a legislative body of a city, county, city and county, special district, school district, or political subdivision established by the state that has an internet website, the following provisions shall apply:
(A) An online posting of an agenda shall be posted on the primary internet website home page of a city, county, city and county, special district, school district, or political subdivision established by the state that is accessible through a prominent, direct link to the current agenda. The direct link to the agenda shall not be in a contextual menu; however, a link in addition to the direct link to the agenda may be accessible through a contextual menu.
(B) An online posting of an agenda, including, but not limited to, an agenda posted in an integrated agenda management platform, shall be posted in an open format that meets all of the following requirements:
(i) Retrievable, downloadable, indexable, and electronically searchable by commonly used internet search applications.
(ii) Platform independent and machine readable.
(iii) Available to the public free of charge and without any restriction that would impede the reuse or redistribution of the agenda.
(C) A legislative body of a city, county, city and county, special district, school district, or political subdivision established by the state that has an internet website and an integrated agenda management platform shall not be required to comply with subparagraph (A) if all of the following are met:
(i) A direct link to the integrated agenda management platform shall be posted on the primary internet website home page of a city, county, city and county, special district, school district, or political subdivision established by the state. The direct link to the integrated agenda management platform shall not be in a contextual menu. When a person clicks on the direct link to the integrated agenda management platform, the direct link shall take the person directly to an internet website with the agendas of the legislative body of a city, county, city and county, special district, school district, or political subdivision established by the state.
(ii) The integrated agenda management platform may contain the prior agendas of a legislative body of a city, county, city and county, special district, school district, or political subdivision established by the state for all meetings occurring on or after January 1, 2019.
(iii) The current agenda of the legislative body of a city, county, city and county, special district, school district, or political subdivision established by the state shall be the first agenda available at the top of the integrated agenda management platform.
(iv) All agendas posted in the integrated agenda management platform shall comply with the requirements in clauses (i), (ii), and (iii) of subparagraph (B).
(D) For the purposes of this paragraph, both of the following definitions shall apply:
(i) “Integrated agenda management platform” means an internet website of a city, county, city and county, special district, school district, or political subdivision established by the state dedicated to providing the entirety of the agenda information for the legislative body of the city, county, city and county, special district, school district, or political subdivision established by the state to the public.
(ii) “Legislative body” has the same meaning as that term is used in subdivision (a) of Section 54952.
(E) The provisions of this paragraph shall not apply to a political subdivision of a local agency that was established by the legislative body of the city, county, city and county, special district, school district, or political subdivision established by the state.
(3) No action or discussion shall be undertaken on any item not appearing on the posted agenda, except that members of a legislative body or its staff may briefly respond to statements made or questions posed by persons exercising their public testimony rights under Section 54954.3. In addition, on their own initiative or in response to questions posed by the public, a member of a legislative body or its staff may ask a question for clarification, make a brief announcement, or make a brief report on their own activities. Furthermore, a member of a legislative body, or the body itself, subject to rules or procedures of the legislative body, may provide a reference to staff or other resources for factual information, request staff to report back to the body at a subsequent meeting concerning any matter, or take action to direct staff to place a matter of business on a future agenda.
(b) Notwithstanding subdivision (a), the legislative body may take action on items of business not appearing on the posted agenda under any of the conditions stated below. Prior to discussing any item pursuant to this subdivision, the legislative body shall publicly identify the item.
(1) Upon a determination by a majority vote of the legislative body that an emergency situation exists, as defined in Section 54956.5.
(2) Upon a determination by a two-thirds vote of the members of the legislative body present at the meeting, or, if less than two-thirds of the members are present, a unanimous vote of those members present, that there is a need to take immediate action and that the need for action came to the attention of the local agency subsequent to the agenda being posted as specified in subdivision (a).
(3) The item was posted pursuant to subdivision (a) for a prior meeting of the legislative body occurring not more than five calendar days prior to the date action is taken on the item, and at the prior meeting the item was continued to the meeting at which action is being taken.
(c) This section is necessary to implement and reasonably within the scope of paragraph (1) of subdivision (b) of Section 3 of Article I of the California Constitution.
(d) For purposes of subdivision (a), the requirement that the agenda be posted on the local agency’s internet website, if the local agency has one, shall only apply to a legislative body that meets either of the following standards:
(1) A legislative body as that term is defined by subdivision (a) of Section 54952.
(2) A legislative body as that term is defined by subdivision (b) of Section 54952, if the members of the legislative body are compensated for their appearance, and if one or more of the members of the legislative body are also members of a legislative body as that term is defined by subdivision (a) of Section 54952.
(e) This section shall become operative January 1, 2026.

SEC. 93.

 Section 61105 of the Government Code is amended to read:

61105.
 (a) The Legislature finds and declares that the unique circumstances that exist in certain communities justify the enactment of special statutes for specific districts. In enacting this section, the Legislature intends to provide specific districts with special statutory powers to provide special services and facilities that are not available to other districts.
(b) (1) The Los Osos Community Services District may borrow money from public or private lenders and lend those funds to property owners within the district to pay for the costs of decommissioning septic systems and constructing lateral connections on private property to facilitate the connection of those properties to the district’s wastewater treatment system. The district shall lend money for this purpose at rates not to exceed its cost of borrowing and the district’s cost of making the loans. The district may require that the borrower pay the district’s reasonable attorney’s fees and administrative costs in the event that the district is required to take legal action to enforce the provisions of the contract or note securing the loan. The district may elect to have the debt payments or any delinquency collected on the tax roll pursuant to Section 61116. To secure the loan as a lien on real property, the district shall follow the procedures for the creation of special tax liens in Section 53328.3 of this code and Section 3114.5 of the Streets and Highways Code.
(2) (A) (i) Except as otherwise provided in this paragraph, on and after January 1, 2007, the Los Osos Community Services District shall not undertake any efforts to design, construct, and operate a community wastewater collection and treatment system within, or for the benefit of, the district. The district shall resume those powers on the date specified in any resolution adopted pursuant to subdivision (l) of Section 25825.5.
(ii) Upon resuming the powers pursuant to clause (i), the Los Osos Community Services District may continue the program to offset assessments or charges for very low or low-income households with funding sources, including, but not limited to, grants, adopted pursuant to subdivision (g) of Section 25825.5. If the county has not implemented that program, the Los Osos Community Services District may adopt a program that complies with subdivision (g) of Section 25825.5 to offset assessments or charges for very low or low-income households. The Los Osos Community Services District shall not include in an assessment or charge an amount to cover the costs to the county in carrying out the offset program.
(B) Nothing in this paragraph shall affect the district’s power to do any of the following:
(i) Operate wastewater collection and treatment facilities within the district that the district was operating on January 1, 2006.
(ii) Provide facilities and services in the territory that is within the district, but outside the prohibition zone.
(iii) Provide facilities and services, other than wastewater collection and treatment, within the prohibition zone.
(C) Promptly upon the adoption of a resolution by the Board of Supervisors of the County of San Luis Obispo requesting this action pursuant to subdivision (i) of Section 25825.5, the district shall convey to the County of San Luis Obispo all retained rights-of-way, licenses, other interests in real property, funds, and other personal property previously acquired by the district in connection with construction projects for which the district awarded contracts in 2005.
(c) The Heritage Ranch Community Services District may acquire, construct, improve, maintain, and operate petroleum storage tanks and related facilities for its own use, and sell those petroleum products to the district’s property owners, residents, and visitors. The authority granted by this subdivision shall expire when a private person or entity is ready, willing, and able to acquire, construct, improve, maintain, and operate petroleum storage tanks and related facilities, and sell those petroleum products to the district and its property owners, residents, and visitors. At that time, the district shall either (1) diligently transfer its title, ownership, maintenance, control, and operation of those petroleum tanks and related facilities at a fair market value to that private person or entity, or (2) lease the operation of those petroleum tanks and related facilities at a fair market value to that private person or entity.
(d) The Wallace Community Services District may acquire, own, maintain, control, or operate the underground gas distribution pipeline system located and to be located within Wallace Lake Estates for the purpose of allowing a privately owned provider of liquefied petroleum gas to use the underground gas distribution system pursuant to a mutual agreement between the private provider and the district or the district’s predecessor in interest. The district shall require and receive payment from the private provider for the use of that system. The authority granted by this subdivision shall expire when the Pacific Gas and Electric Company is ready, willing, and able to provide natural gas service to the residents of Wallace Lake Estates. At that time, the district shall diligently transfer its title, ownership, maintenance, control, and operation of the system to the Pacific Gas and Electric Company.
(e) The Cameron Park Community Services District, the El Dorado Hills Community Services District, the Golden Hills Community Services District, the Mountain House Community Services District, the Rancho Murieta Community Services District, the Salton Community Services District, the Stallion Springs Community Services District, and the Tenaja Meadows Community Services District, which enforced covenants, conditions, and restrictions prior to January 1, 2006, pursuant to former Section 61601.7 and former Section 61601.10, may continue to exercise the powers set forth in former Section 61601.7 and former Section 61601.10.
(f) (1) The Bel Marin Keys Community Services District may enforce all or part of the covenants, conditions, and restrictions for a tract, and assume the duties of the architectural control committee, to the extent that a tract’s covenants, conditions, and restrictions authorize an architectural control committee. Before the district can enforce covenants, conditions, and restrictions, and assume the duties of an architectural control committee, for a tract, the board of directors shall:
(A) Receive a written request from the board of directors of the tract’s property owners’ association or homeowners’ association, with a petition signed by not less than a majority of the property owners of the parcels within the tracts covered by those associations, requesting the district to enforce the covenants, conditions, and restrictions for that tract and assume the duties of the architectural control committee for that tract, if an architectural control committee is called for in the covenants, conditions, and restrictions.
(B) Conduct a public hearing on the question, after giving mailed notice to each affected property owner of the date, time, and location of the meeting.
(C) Submit an application to the local agency formation commission pursuant to Section 56824.10, specifying the exact nature and scope of the intended services to be provided by the district.
(D) Receive the approval of the local agency formation commission, pursuant to Article 1.5 (commencing with Section 56824.10) of Chapter 5 of Part 3 of Division 3 of Title 5, which may include completion terms deemed appropriate by the commission, to enforce covenants, conditions, and restrictions for a tract, and to assume the duties of the architectural control committee for that tract.
(E) Adopt an ordinance assuming the power to enforce covenants, conditions, and restrictions for a tract, and to assume the duties of the architectural control committee for that tract, provided that the ordinance requires:
(i) The property owners within the tract to finance the enforcement of the covenants, conditions, and restrictions, and the duties of the architectural control committee.
(ii) The tract’s property owners’ association or homeowners’ association to indemnify the district for the costs of any litigation, settlements, injuries, damages, or judgments arising from enforcement of the covenants, conditions, and restrictions, and the district’s duties as the architectural control committee.
(2) The Bel Marin Keys Community Services District may, by ordinance, divest itself of the power undertaken under this subdivision.
(g) The Bear Valley Community Services District, the Bell Canyon Community Services District, the Cameron Estates Community Services District, the Lake Sherwood Community Services District, the Saddle Creek Community Services District, the Wallace Community Services District, and the Santa Rita Hills Community Services District may, for roads owned by the district and that are not formally dedicated to or kept open for use by the public for the purpose of vehicular travel, by ordinance, limit access to and the use of those roads to the landowners and residents of that district.
(h) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, the transfer of the assets of the Stonehouse Mutual Water Company, including its lands, easements, rights, and obligations to act as sole agent of the stockholders in exercising the riparian rights of the stockholders, and rights relating to the ownership, operation, and maintenance of those facilities serving the customers of the company, to the Hidden Valley Lake Community Services District is not a transfer subject to taxes imposed by Part 11 (commencing with Section 23001) of Division 2 of the Revenue and Taxation Code.
(i) The El Dorado Hills Community Services District and the Rancho Murieta Community Services District may each acquire, construct, improve, maintain, and operate television receiving, translating, or distribution facilities, provide television and television-related services to the district and its residents, or authorize the construction and operation of a cable television system to serve the district and its residents by franchise or license. In authorizing the construction and operation of a cable television system by franchise or license, the district shall have the same powers as a city or county under Section 53066.
(j) The Mountain House Community Services District may provide facilities for television and telecommunications systems, including the installation of wires, cables, conduits, fiber optic lines, terminal panels, service space, and appurtenances required to provide television, telecommunication, and data transfer services to the district and its residents, and provide facilities for a cable television system, including the installation of wires, cables, conduits, and appurtenances to service the district and its residents by franchise or license, except that the district may not provide or install any facilities pursuant to this subdivision unless one or more cable franchises or licenses have been awarded under Section 53066 and the franchised or licensed cable television and telecommunications services providers are permitted equal access to the utility trenches, conduits, service spaces, easements, utility poles, and rights-of-way in the district necessary to construct their facilities concurrently with the construction of the district’s facilities. The district shall not have the authority to operate television, cable, or telecommunications systems, except as provided in Section 61100. The district shall have the same powers as a city or county under Section 53066 in granting a franchise or license for the operation of a cable television system.
(k) (1) The Lake Arrowhead Community Services District may enforce all or part of the covenants, conditions, and restrictions for a tract, and assume the duties of the Arrowhead Woods Architectural Committee, to the extent that a tract’s covenants, conditions, and restrictions are legally enforceable by the Arrowhead Woods Architectural Committee. Before the district can enforce covenants, conditions, and restrictions, and assume the duties of the Arrowhead Woods Architectural Committee for a tract, the board of directors shall do all of the following:
(A) Receive a written request from the board of directors of the Arrowhead Woods Architectural Committee, with a petition signed by not less than a majority of the property owners of the parcels within the tracts covered by the Arrowhead Woods Architectural Committee, requesting the district to enforce the covenants, conditions, and restrictions for those tracts and assume the duties of the Arrowhead Woods Architectural Committee for those tracts.
(B) Conduct a public hearing on the question, after giving mailed notice to each affected property owner of the date, time, and location of the meeting.
(C) Submit an application to the local agency formation commission pursuant to Section 56824.10, specifying the exact nature and scope of the intended services to be provided by the district.
(D) Receive the approval of the local agency formation commission, pursuant to Article 1.5 (commencing with Section 56824.10) of Chapter 5 of Part 3 of Division 3 of Title 5, which may include completion terms deemed appropriate by the commission, to enforce covenants, conditions, and restrictions for a tract, and to assume the duties of the Arrowhead Woods Architectural Committee for those tracts.
(E) Adopt an ordinance assuming the power to enforce covenants, conditions, and restrictions for a tract, and to assume the duties of the Arrowhead Woods Architectural Committee for those tracts, provided that the ordinance requires both of the following:
(i) The property owners within the tracts to finance, in compliance with other state and local law, the enforcement of the covenants, conditions, and restrictions, and the duties of the Arrowhead Woods Architectural Committee through fees, regular or special assessments that may be enforced either pursuant to the authority of the Arrowhead Woods Architectural Committee under its founding documents or applicable law, or pursuant to the authority of the Lake Arrowhead Community Services District, and using any of the procedures set forth in Section 61122 in order to accomplish the purposes authorized herein.
(ii) The Arrowhead Woods Architectural Committee to indemnify the district for the costs of any litigation, settlements, injuries, damages, or judgments arising from enforcement of the covenants, conditions, and restrictions, imposition of any fees, assessments, or other financing mechanism authorized in clause (i), and the district’s duties on behalf of the Arrowhead Woods Architectural Committee.
(2) The Lake Arrowhead Community Services District may use the procedures in Section 61115 for the enforcement of any fee, charge, or assessment authorized herein.
(3) The Lake Arrowhead Community Services District may, by ordinance, divest itself of the power undertaken under this subdivision.
(4) The Lake Arrowhead Community Services District shall not enforce any covenants, conditions, or restrictions for a tract, or assume the duties of the Arrowhead Woods Architectural Committee, until all unlawfully restrictive covenants are removed from the covenants, conditions, and restrictions of the properties in those tracts pursuant to the process in Section 12956.2.

SEC. 94.

 Section 65585 of the Government Code is amended to read:

65585.
 (a) In the preparation of its housing element, each city and county shall consider the guidelines adopted by the department pursuant to Section 50459 of the Health and Safety Code. Those guidelines shall be advisory to each city or county in the preparation of its housing element.
(b) (1) At least 90 days prior to adoption of a revision of its housing element pursuant to subdivision (e) of Section 65588, or at least 60 days prior to the adoption of a subsequent amendment to this element, the planning agency shall submit a draft element revision or draft amendment to the department. The local government of the planning agency shall make the first draft revision of a housing element available for public comment for at least 30 days and, if any comments are received, the local government shall take at least 10 business days after the 30-day public comment period to consider and incorporate public comments into the draft revision prior to submitting it to the department. For any subsequent draft revision, the local government shall post the draft revision on its internet website and shall email a link to the draft revision to all individuals and organizations that have previously requested notices relating to the local government’s housing element at least seven days before submitting the draft revision to the department.
(2) The planning agency staff shall collect and compile the public comments regarding the housing element received by the city, county, or city and county, and provide these comments to each member of the legislative body before it adopts the housing element.
(3) The department shall review the draft and report its written findings to the planning agency within 90 days of its receipt of the first draft submittal for each housing element revision pursuant to subdivision (e) of Section 65588 or within 60 days of its receipt of a subsequent draft amendment or an adopted revision or adopted amendment to an element. The department shall not review the first draft submitted for each housing element revision pursuant to subdivision (e) of Section 65588 until the local government has made the draft available for public comment for at least 30 days and, if comments were received, has taken at least 10 business days to consider and incorporate public comments pursuant to paragraph (1).
(c) In the preparation of its findings, the department may consult with any public agency, group, or person. The department shall receive and consider any written comments from any public agency, group, or person regarding the draft or adopted element or amendment under review.
(d) In its written findings, the department shall determine whether the draft element or draft amendment substantially complies with this article.
(e) Prior to the adoption of its draft element or draft amendment, the legislative body shall consider the findings made by the department. If the department’s findings are not available within the time limits set by this section, the legislative body may act without them.
(f) If the department finds that the draft element or draft amendment does not substantially comply with this article, the legislative body shall take one of the following actions:
(1) Change the draft element or draft amendment to substantially comply with this article.
(2) Adopt the draft element or draft amendment without changes. The legislative body shall include in its resolution of adoption written findings which explain the reasons the legislative body believes that the draft element or draft amendment substantially complies with this article despite the findings of the department.
(g) Promptly following the adoption of its element or amendment, the planning agency shall submit a copy to the department.
(h) The department shall, within 90 days, review adopted housing elements or amendments and report its findings to the planning agency.
(i) (1) (A) The department shall review any action or failure to act by the city, county, or city and county that it determines is inconsistent with an adopted housing element or Section 65583, including any failure to implement any program actions included in the housing element pursuant to Section 65583. The department shall issue written findings to the city, county, or city and county as to whether the action or failure to act substantially complies with this article, and provide a reasonable time no longer than 30 days for the city, county, or city and county to respond to the findings before taking any other action authorized by this section, including the action authorized by subparagraph (B).
(B) If the department finds that the action or failure to act by the city, county, or city and county does not substantially comply with this article, and if it has issued findings pursuant to this section that an amendment to the housing element substantially complies with this article, the department may revoke its findings until it determines that the city, county, or city and county has come into compliance with this article.
(2) The department may consult with any local government, public agency, group, or person, and shall receive and consider any written comments from any public agency, group, or person, regarding the action or failure to act by the city, county, or city and county described in paragraph (1), in determining whether the housing element substantially complies with this article.
(j) The department shall notify the city, county, or city and county and may notify the office of the Attorney General that the city, county, or city and county is in violation of state law if the department finds that the housing element or an amendment to this element, or any action or failure to act described in subdivision (i), does not substantially comply with this article or that any local government has taken an action in violation of the following:
(1) Housing Accountability Act (Section 65589.5).
(2) Section 65863.
(3) Chapter 4.3 (commencing with Section 65915).
(4) Section 65008.
(5) Housing Crisis Act of 2019 (Chapter 654, Statutes of 2019, Sections 65941.1, 65943, and 66300).
(6) Section 8899.50.
(7) Section 65913.4.
(8) Article 11 (commencing with Section 65650).
(9) Article 12 (commencing with Section 65660).
(10) Section 65913.11.
(11) Section 65400.
(12) Section 65863.2.
(13) Chapter 4.1 (commencing with Section 65912.100).
(k) Commencing July 1, 2019, prior to the Attorney General bringing any suit for a violation of the provisions identified in subdivision (j) related to housing element compliance and seeking remedies available pursuant to this subdivision, the department shall offer the jurisdiction the opportunity for two meetings in person or via telephone to discuss the violation, and shall provide the jurisdiction written findings regarding the violation. This paragraph does not affect any action filed prior to the effective date of this section. The requirements set forth in this subdivision do not apply to any suits brought for a violation or violations of paragraphs (1) and (3) to (9), inclusive, of subdivision (j).
(l) In any action or special proceeding brought by the Attorney General relating to housing element compliance pursuant to a notice or referral under subdivision (j), the Attorney General may request, upon a finding of the court that the housing element does not substantially comply with the requirements of this article pursuant to this section, that the court issue an order or judgment directing the jurisdiction to bring its housing element into substantial compliance with the requirements of this article. The court shall retain jurisdiction to ensure that its order or judgment is carried out. If a court determines that the housing element of the jurisdiction substantially complies with this article, it shall have the same force and effect, for purposes of eligibility for any financial assistance that requires a housing element in substantial compliance and for purposes of any incentives provided under Section 65589.9, as a determination by the department that the housing element substantially complies with this article.
(1) If the jurisdiction has not complied with the order or judgment after 12 months, the court shall conduct a status conference. Following the status conference, upon a determination that the jurisdiction failed to comply with the order or judgment compelling substantial compliance with the requirements of this article, the court shall impose fines on the jurisdiction, which shall be deposited into the Building Homes and Jobs Trust Fund. Any fine levied pursuant to this paragraph shall be in a minimum amount of ten thousand dollars ($10,000) per month, but shall not exceed one hundred thousand dollars ($100,000) per month, except as provided in paragraphs (2) and (3). In the event that the jurisdiction fails to pay fines imposed by the court in full and on time, the court may require the Controller to intercept any available state and local funds and direct such funds to the Building Homes and Jobs Trust Fund to correct the jurisdiction’s failure to pay. The intercept of the funds by the Controller for this purpose shall not violate any provision of the California Constitution.
(2) If the jurisdiction has not complied with the order or judgment after three months following the imposition of fees described in paragraph (1), the court shall conduct a status conference. Following the status conference, if the court finds that the fees imposed pursuant to paragraph (1) are insufficient to bring the jurisdiction into compliance with the order or judgment, the court may multiply the fine determined pursuant to paragraph (1) by a factor of three. In the event that the jurisdiction fails to pay fines imposed by the court in full and on time, the court may require the Controller to intercept any available state and local funds and direct such funds to the Building Homes and Jobs Trust Fund to correct the jurisdiction’s failure to pay. The intercept of the funds by the Controller for this purpose shall not violate any provision of the California Constitution.
(3) If the jurisdiction has not complied with the order or judgment six months following the imposition of fees described in paragraph (1), the court shall conduct a status conference. Upon a determination that the jurisdiction failed to comply with the order or judgment, the court may impose the following:
(A) If the court finds that the fees imposed pursuant to paragraphs (1) and (2) are insufficient to bring the jurisdiction into compliance with the order or judgment, the court may multiply the fine determined pursuant to paragraph (1) by a factor of six. In the event that the jurisdiction fails to pay fines imposed by the court in full and on time, the court may require the Controller to intercept any available state and local funds and direct such funds to the Building Homes and Jobs Trust Fund to correct the jurisdiction’s failure to pay. The intercept of the funds by the Controller for this purpose shall not violate any provision of the California Constitution.
(B) The court may order remedies available pursuant to Section 564 of the Code of Civil Procedure, under which the agent of the court may take all governmental actions necessary to bring the jurisdiction’s housing element into substantial compliance pursuant to this article in order to remedy identified deficiencies. The court shall determine whether the housing element of the jurisdiction substantially complies with this article and, once the court makes that determination, it shall have the same force and effect, for all purposes, as the department’s determination that the housing element substantially complies with this article. An agent appointed pursuant to this paragraph shall have expertise in planning in California.
(4) This subdivision does not limit a court’s discretion to apply any and all remedies in an action or special proceeding for a violation of any law identified in subdivision (j).
(m) In determining the application of the remedies available under subdivision (l), the court shall consider whether there are any mitigating circumstances delaying the jurisdiction from coming into compliance with state housing law. The court may consider whether a city, county, or city and county is making a good faith effort to come into substantial compliance or is facing substantial undue hardships.
(n) Nothing in this section shall limit the authority of the office of the Attorney General to bring a suit to enforce state law in an independent capacity. The office of the Attorney General may seek all remedies available under law including those set forth in this section.
(o) Notwithstanding Sections 11040 and 11042, if the Attorney General declines to represent the department in any action or special proceeding brought pursuant to a notice or referral under subdivision (j) the department may appoint or contract with other counsel for purposes of representing the department in the action or special proceeding.
(p) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, the statute of limitations set forth in subdivision (a) of Section 338 of the Code of Civil Procedure shall apply to any action or special proceeding brought by the office of the Attorney General or pursuant to a notice or referral under subdivision (j), or by the department pursuant to subdivision (o).

SEC. 95.

 Section 65850.52 of the Government Code is amended to read:

65850.52.
 (a) For purposes of this section, the following definitions apply:
(1) “Energy Commission” means the State Energy Resources Conservation and Development Commission.
(2) “Residential energy storage system” means commercially available technology, located behind a customer’s residential utility meter, that is capable of absorbing electricity generated from a colocated electricity generator or from the electrical grid, storing it for a period of time, and thereafter discharging it to meet the energy or power needs of the host customer or for export.
(3) “Residential solar energy system” means any configuration of solar energy devices that collects and distributes solar energy for the purpose of generating electricity and that has a single residential interconnection with the electric utility transmission or distribution network.
(4) “SolarAPP+” means the most recent version of a web-based portal, developed by the National Renewable Energy Laboratory, that automates plan review, produces code-compliant approvals, and issues permits for residential solar energy systems and residential energy storage systems paired with residential solar energy systems.
(b) (1) Pursuant to the compliance schedule in subdivision (c), a city, county, or city and county, in consultation with the local fire department, district, or authority, shall implement an online, automated permitting platform, such as SolarAPP+, that meets both of the following requirements:
(A) The platform verifies code compliance and issues permits in real time or allows the city, county, or city and county to issue permits in real time to a licensed contractor for a residential solar energy system that is no larger than 38.4 kilowatts alternating current nameplate rating and a residential energy storage system paired with a residential solar energy system that is no larger than 38.4 kilowatts alternating current nameplate rating.
(B) The platform issues permits or allows the city, county, or city and county to issue permits for residential solar energy systems and residential energy storage systems paired with residential solar energy systems that SolarAPP+ is capable of processing.
(2) A city, county, or city and county is not required to permit an application for a residential solar energy system or a residential energy storage system paired with a residential solar energy system through the online automated permitting platform pursuant to this section if the system configuration is not eligible for SolarAPP+ at the time the application is submitted to the jurisdiction.
(c) (1) A city with a population of fewer than 5,000 and a county with a population of fewer than 150,000, including each city within that county, is exempt from subdivision (b).
(2) A city with a population of 50,000 or fewer that is not exempt pursuant to paragraph (1) shall satisfy the requirements of subdivision (b) by September 30, 2024.
(3) A city, county, or city and county with a population of greater than 50,000 that is not exempt pursuant to paragraph (1) shall satisfy the requirements of subdivision (b) by September 30, 2023.
(d) A city, county, or city and county shall report to the Energy Commission when it is in compliance with subdivision (b).
(e) (1) The Energy Commission shall set guidelines for cities, counties, and cities and counties to report to the commission on the number of permits issued for residential solar energy systems and residential energy storage systems paired with residential solar energy systems and the relevant characteristics of those systems. A city, county, or city and county shall annually report to the Energy Commission pursuant to those guidelines within one year of implementing the online, automated solar permitting system pursuant to subdivision (b). This annual reporting requirement shall become inoperative on June 30, 2034.
(2) The Energy Commission shall adopt the guidelines required by this subdivision through a public process that shall include, but shall not be limited to, both of the following requirements:
(A) The Energy Commission shall make the proposed guidelines available for public comment for at least 30 days prior to adopting the guidelines.
(B) The Energy Commission shall respond in writing to a public comment received during the period required by subparagraph (A).
(3) The Administrative Procedure Act (Chapter 3.5 (commencing with Section 11340) of Part 1 of Division 3 of Title 2) shall not apply to the adoption of guidelines pursuant to this subdivision.
(f) A city, county, or city and county shall self-certify its compliance with this section when applying for funds from the Energy Commission after the applicable date in the compliance schedule in subdivision (c). This subdivision shall not apply to the twenty million dollars ($20,000,000) in funds available, pursuant to Section 76 of Chapter 69 of the Statutes of 2021, from the Energy Commission for automated solar permitting.
(g) This section does not limit or otherwise affect the generator interconnection requirements and approval process for a local publicly owned electric utility, as defined in Section 224.3 of the Public Utilities Code, or an electrical corporation, as defined in Section 218 of the Public Utilities Code.
(h) All liabilities and immunities, including, but not limited to, the immunities provided in Sections 818.4, 818.6, and 821.2, applicable to cities, counties, and cities and counties shall apply to any permits issued through an online, automated permitting platform and any inspections conducted in connection with those permits.
(i) For the purposes of this section, a city shall include a charter city.

SEC. 96.

 Section 65852.24 of the Government Code is amended to read:

65852.24.
 (a) (1) This section shall be known, and may be cited, as the Middle Class Housing Act of 2022.
(2) The Legislature finds and declares all of the following:
(A) Creating more affordable housing is critical to the achievement of regional housing needs assessment goals, and that housing units developed at higher densities may generate affordability by design for California residents, without the necessity of public subsidies, income eligibility, occupancy restrictions, lottery procedures, or other legal requirements applicable to deed restricted affordable housing to serve very low and low-income residents and special needs residents.
(B) The state has made historic investments in deed-restricted affordable housing. According to the Legislative Analyst’s Office, the state budget provided nearly five billion dollars ($5,000,000,000) in the 2021–22 budget year for housing-related programs. The 2022–23 budget further built on that sum by allocating nearly one billion two hundred million dollars ($1,200,000,000) to additional affordable housing programs.
(C) There is continued need for housing development at all income levels, including missing middle housing that will provide a variety of housing options and configurations to allow every Californian to live near where they work.
(D) The Middle Class Housing Act of 2022 will unlock the development of additional housing units for middle-class Californians near job centers, subject to local inclusionary requirements that are set based on local conditions.
(b) A housing development project shall be deemed an allowable use on a parcel that is within a zone where office, retail, or parking are a principally permitted use if it complies with all of the following:
(1) The density for the housing development shall meet or exceed the applicable density deemed appropriate to accommodate housing for lower income households in that jurisdiction as specified in subparagraph (B) of paragraph (3) of subdivision (c) of Section 65583.2.
(2) (A) The housing development shall be subject to local zoning, parking, design, and other ordinances, local code requirements, and procedures applicable to the processing and permitting of a housing development in a zone that allows for the housing with the density described in paragraph (1).
(B) If more than one zoning designation of the local agency allows for housing with the density described in paragraph (1), the zoning standards applicable to a parcel that allows residential use pursuant to this section shall be the zoning standards that apply to the closest parcel that allows residential use at a density that meets the requirements of paragraph (1).
(C) If the existing zoning designation for the parcel, as adopted by the local government, allows residential use at a density greater than that required in paragraph (1), the existing zoning designation shall apply.
(3) The housing development shall comply with any public notice, comment, hearing, or other procedures imposed by the local agency on a housing development in the applicable zoning designation identified in paragraph (2).
(4) The project site is 20 acres or less.
(5) The housing development complies with all other objective local requirements for a parcel, other than those that prohibit residential use, or allow residential use at a lower density than provided in paragraph (1), including, but not limited to, impact fee requirements and inclusionary housing requirements.
(6) The development and the site on which it is located satisfy both of the following:
(A) It is a legal parcel or parcels that meet either of the following:
(i) It is within a city where the city boundaries include some portion of an urban area, as designated by the United States Census Bureau.
(ii) It is in an unincorporated area, and the legal parcel or parcels are wholly within the boundaries of an urban area, as designated by the United States Census Bureau.
(B) (i) It is not on a site or adjoined to any site where more than one-third of the square footage on the site is dedicated to industrial use.
(ii) For purposes of this subparagraph, parcels only separated by a street or highway shall be considered to be adjoined.
(iii) For purposes of this subparagraph, “dedicated to industrial use” means either of the following:
(I) The square footage is currently being used as an industrial use.
(II) The most recently permitted use of the square footage is an industrial use.
(III) The site was designated for industrial use in the latest version of a local government’s general plan adopted before January 1, 2022.
(7) The housing development is consistent with any applicable and approved sustainable community strategy or alternative plan, as described in Section 65080.
(8) The developer has done both of the following:
(A) Certified to the local agency that either of the following is true:
(i) The entirety of the development is a public work for purposes of Chapter 1 (commencing with Section 1720) of Part 7 of Division 2 of the Labor Code.
(ii) The development is not in its entirety a public work for which prevailing wages must be paid under Article 2 (commencing with Section 1720) of Chapter 1 of Part 2 of Division 2 of the Labor Code, but all construction workers employed on construction of the development will be paid at least the general prevailing rate of per diem wages for the type of work and geographic area, as determined by the Director of Industrial Relations pursuant to Sections 1773 and 1773.9 of the Labor Code, except that apprentices registered in programs approved by the Chief of the Division of Apprenticeship Standards may be paid at least the applicable apprentice prevailing rate. If the development is subject to this subparagraph, then for those portions of the development that are not a public work all of the following shall apply:
(I) The developer shall ensure that the prevailing wage requirement is included in all contracts for the performance of all construction work.
(II) All contractors and subcontractors shall pay to all construction workers employed in the execution of the work at least the general prevailing rate of per diem wages, except that apprentices registered in programs approved by the Chief of the Division of Apprenticeship Standards may be paid at least the applicable apprentice prevailing rate.
(III) Except as provided in subclause (V), all contractors and subcontractors shall maintain and verify payroll records pursuant to Section 1776 of the Labor Code and make those records available for inspection and copying as provided therein.
(IV) Except as provided in subclause (V), the obligation of the contractors and subcontractors to pay prevailing wages may be enforced by the Labor Commissioner through the issuance of a civil wage and penalty assessment pursuant to Section 1741 of the Labor Code, which may be reviewed pursuant to Section 1742 of the Labor Code, within 18 months after the completion of the development, or by an underpaid worker through an administrative complaint or civil action, or by a joint labor-management committee though a civil action under Section 1771.2 of the Labor Code. If a civil wage and penalty assessment is issued, the contractor, subcontractor, and surety on a bond or bonds issued to secure the payment of wages covered by the assessment shall be liable for liquidated damages pursuant to Section 1742.1 of the Labor Code.
(V) Subclauses (III) and (IV) shall not apply if all contractors and subcontractors performing work on the development are subject to a project labor agreement that requires the payment of prevailing wages to all construction workers employed in the execution of the development and provides for enforcement of that obligation through an arbitration procedure. For purposes of this clause, “project labor agreement” has the same meaning as set forth in paragraph (1) of subdivision (b) of Section 2500 of the Public Contract Code.
(VI) Notwithstanding subdivision (c) of Section 1773.1 of the Labor Code, the requirement that employer payments not reduce the obligation to pay the hourly straight time or overtime wages found to be prevailing shall not apply if otherwise provided in a bona fide collective bargaining agreement covering the worker. The requirement to pay at least the general prevailing rate of per diem wages does not preclude use of an alternative workweek schedule adopted pursuant to Section 511 or 514 of the Labor Code.
(B) Certified to the local agency that a skilled and trained workforce will be used to perform all construction work on the development.
(i) For purposes of this section, “skilled and trained workforce” has the same meaning as provided in Chapter 2.9 (commencing with Section 2600) of Part 1 of Division 2 of the Public Contract Code.
(ii) If the developer has certified that a skilled and trained workforce will be used to construct all work on development and the application is approved, the following shall apply:
(I) The developer shall require in all contracts for the performance of work that every contractor and subcontractor at every tier will individually use a skilled and trained workforce to construct the development.
(II) Every contractor and subcontractor shall use a skilled and trained workforce to construct the development.
(III) Except as provided in subclause (IV), the developer shall provide to the local agency, on a monthly basis while the development or contract is being performed, a report demonstrating compliance with Chapter 2.9 (commencing with Section 2600) of Part 1 of Division 2 of the Public Contract Code. A monthly report provided to the local government pursuant to this subclause shall be a public record under the California Public Records Act (Division 10 (commencing with Section 7920.000) of Title 1) and shall be open to public inspection. A developer that fails to provide a monthly report demonstrating compliance with Chapter 2.9 (commencing with Section 2600) of Part 1 of Division 2 of the Public Contract Code shall be subject to a civil penalty of ten thousand dollars ($10,000) per month for each month for which the report has not been provided. Any contractor or subcontractor that fails to use a skilled and trained workforce shall be subject to a civil penalty of two hundred dollars ($200) per day for each worker employed in contravention of the skilled and trained workforce requirement. Penalties may be assessed by the Labor Commissioner within 18 months of completion of the development using the same procedures for issuance of civil wage and penalty assessments pursuant to Section 1741 of the Labor Code, and may be reviewed pursuant to the same procedures in Section 1742 of the Labor Code. Penalties shall be paid to the State Public Works Enforcement Fund.
(IV) Subclause (III) shall not apply if all contractors and subcontractors performing work on the development are subject to a project labor agreement that requires compliance with the skilled and trained workforce requirement and provides for enforcement of that obligation through an arbitration procedure. For purposes of this subparagraph, “project labor agreement” has the same meaning as set forth in paragraph (1) of subdivision (b) of Section 2500 of the Public Contract Code.
(iii) Notwithstanding subclause (II) of clause (ii), a contractor or subcontractor shall not be in violation of the apprenticeship graduation requirements of subdivision (d) of Section 2601 of the Public Contract Code to the extent that all of the following requirements are satisfied:
(I) All contractors and subcontractors performing work on the development are subject to a project labor agreement that includes the local building and construction trades council as a party, that requires compliance with the apprenticeship graduation requirements, and that provides for enforcement of that obligation through an arbitration procedure.
(II) The project labor agreement requires the contractor or subcontractor to request the dispatch of workers for the project through a hiring hall or referral procedure.
(III) The contractor or subcontractor is unable to obtain sufficient workers to meet the apprenticeship graduation percentage requirement within 48 hours of its request, Saturdays, Sundays, and holidays excepted.
(9) Notwithstanding subparagraph (B) of paragraph (8), a contract or subcontract may be awarded without a requirement for the use of a skilled and trained workforce to the extent that all of the following requirements are satisfied:
(A) At least seven days before issuing any invitation to prequalify or bid solicitation for the project, the developer sends a notice of the invitation or solicitation that describes the project to the following entities within the jurisdiction of the proposed project site:
(i) Any bona fide labor organization representing workers in the building and construction trades who may perform work necessary to complete the project.
(ii) Any organization representing contractors that may perform work necessary to complete the project.
(B) The developer seeks bids containing an enforceable commitment that all contractors and subcontractors at every tier will use a skilled and trained workforce to perform work on the project that falls within an apprenticeable occupation in the building and construction trades.
(C) For the purpose of establishing a bidder pool of eligible contractors and subcontractors, the developer establishes a process to prequalify prime contractors and subcontractors that agree to meet skilled and trained workforce requirements.
(D) The bidding process for the project includes, but is not limited to, all of the following requirements:
(i) The prime contractor shall be required to list all subcontractors that will perform work in an amount in excess of one-half of 1 percent of the prime contractor’s total bid.
(ii) The developer shall only accept bids from prime contractors that have been prequalified.
(iii) If the developer receives at least two bids from prequalified prime contractors, a skilled and trained workforce must be used by all contractors and subcontractors, except as provided in clause (vi).
(iv) If the developer receives fewer than two bids from prequalified prime contractors, the contract may be rebid and awarded without the skilled and trained workforce requirement applying to the prime contractor’s scope of work.
(v) Prime contractors shall request bids from subcontractors on the prequalified list and shall only accept bids and list subcontractors from the prequalified list. If the prime contractor receives bids from at least two subcontractors in each tier listed on the prequalified list, the prime contractor shall require that the contract for that tier or scope of work will require a skilled and trained workforce.
(vi) If the prime contractor fails to receive at least two bids from subcontractors listed on the prequalified list in any tier, the prime contractor may rebid that scope of work. The prime contractor need not require that a skilled and trained workforce be used for that scope of work and may list subcontractors for that scope of work that do not appear on the prequalified list.
(E) The developer shall establish minimum requirements for prequalification of prime contractors and subcontractors that are, to the maximum extent possible, quantifiable and objective. Only criterion, and minimum thresholds for any criterion, that are reasonably necessary to ensure that any bidder awarded a project can successfully complete the proposed scope shall be used by the developer. The developer shall not impose any obstacles to prequalification that go beyond what is commercially reasonable and customary.
(F) The developer shall, within 24 hours of a request by a labor organization that represents workers in the geographic area of the project, provide all of the following information to the labor organization:
(i) The names and Contractors State License Board numbers of the prime contractors and subcontractors that have prequalified.
(ii) The names and Contractors State License Board numbers of the prime contractors that have submitted bids and their respective listed subcontractors.
(iii) The names and Contractors State License Board numbers of the prime contractor that was awarded the work and its listed subcontractors.
(G) An interested party, including a labor organization that represents workers in the geographic area of the project, may bring an action for injunctive relief against a developer or prime contractor that is proceeding with a project in violation of the bidding requirements of this paragraph applicable to developers and prime contractors. The court in such an action may issue injunctive relief to halt work on the project and to require compliance with the requirements of this subdivision. The prevailing plaintiff in such an action shall be entitled to recover its reasonable attorney’s fees and costs.
(c) (1) The development proponent shall provide written notice of the pending application to each commercial tenant on the parcel when the application is submitted.
(2) The development proponent shall provide relocation assistance to each eligible commercial tenant located on the site as follows:
(A) For a commercial tenant operating on the site for at least one year but less than five years, the relocation assistance shall be equivalent to six months’ rent.
(B) For a commercial tenant operating on the site for at least 5 years but less than 10 years, the relocation assistance shall be equivalent to nine months’ rent.
(C) For a commercial tenant operating on the site for at least 10 years but less than 15 years, the relocation assistance shall be equivalent to 12 months’ rent.
(D) For a commercial tenant operating on the site for at least 15 years but less than 20 years, the relocation assistance shall be equivalent to 15 months’ rent.
(E) For a commercial tenant operating on the site for at least 20 years, the relocation assistance shall be equivalent to 18 months’ rent.
(3) The relocation assistance shall be provided to an eligible commercial tenant upon expiration of the lease of that commercial tenant.
(4) For purposes of this subdivision, a commercial tenant is eligible for relocation assistance if the commercial tenant meets all of the following criteria:
(A) The commercial tenant is an independently owned and operated business with its principal office located in the county in which the property on the site that is leased by the commercial tenant is located.
(B) The commercial tenant’s lease expired and was not renewed by the property owner.
(C) The commercial tenant’s lease expired within the three years following the development proponent’s submission of the application for a housing development pursuant to this article.
(D) The commercial tenant employs 20 or fewer employees and has an annual average gross receipts under one million dollars ($1,000,000) for the three taxable year period ending with the taxable year that precedes the expiration of their lease.
(E) The commercial tenant is still in operation on the site at the time of the expiration of its lease.
(5) Notwithstanding paragraph (4), for purposes of this subdivision, a commercial tenant is ineligible for relocation assistance if the commercial tenant meets both of the following criteria:
(A) The commercial tenant entered into a lease on the site after the development proponent’s submission of the application for a housing development pursuant to this article.
(B) The commercial tenant had not previously entered into a lease on the site.
(6) (A) The commercial tenant shall utilize the funds provided by the development proponent to relocate the business or for costs of a new business.
(B) Notwithstanding paragraph (2), if the commercial tenant elects not to use the funds provided as required by subparagraph (A), the development proponent shall provide only assistance equal to three months’ rent, regardless of the duration of the commercial tenant’s lease.
(7) For purposes of this subdivision, monthly rent is equal to one-twelfth of the total amount of rent paid by the commercial tenant in the last 12 months.
(d) A local agency shall require that a rental of any unit created pursuant to this section be for a term longer than 30 days.
(e) (1) A local agency may exempt a parcel from this section if the local agency makes written findings supported by substantial evidence of either of the following:
(A) The local agency concurrently reallocated the lost residential density to other lots so that there is no net loss in residential density in the jurisdiction.
(B) The lost residential density from each exempted parcel can be accommodated on a site or sites allowing residential densities at or above those specified in paragraph (2) of subdivision (b) and in excess of the acreage required to accommodate the local agency’s share of housing for lower income households.
(2) A local agency may reallocate the residential density from an exempt parcel pursuant to this subdivision only if the site or sites chosen by the local agency to which the residential density is reallocated meet both of the following requirements:
(A) The site or sites are suitable for residential development. For purposes of this subparagraph, “site or sites suitable for residential development” shall have the same meaning as “land suitable for residential development,” as defined in Section 65583.2.
(B) The site or sites are subject to an ordinance that allows for development by right.
(f) (1) This section does not alter or lessen the applicability of any housing, environmental, or labor law applicable to a housing development authorized by this section, including, but not limited to, the following:
(A) The California Coastal Act of 1976 (Division 20 (commencing with Section 30000) of the Public Resources Code).
(B) The California Environmental Quality Act (Division 13 (commencing with Section 21000) of the Public Resources Code).
(C) The Housing Accountability Act (Section 65589.5).
(D) The Density Bonus Law (Section 65915).
(E) Obligations to affirmatively further fair housing, pursuant to Section 8899.50.
(F) State or local affordable housing laws.
(G) State or local tenant protection laws.
(2) All local demolition ordinances shall apply to a project developed pursuant to this section.
(3) For purposes of the Housing Accountability Act (Section 65589.5), a proposed housing development project that is consistent with the provisions of subdivision (b) shall be deemed consistent, compliant, and in conformity with an applicable plan, program, policy, ordinance, standard, requirement, or other similar provision.
(4) Notwithstanding any other provision of this section, for purposes of the Density Bonus Law (Section 65915), an applicant for a housing development under this section may apply for a density bonus pursuant to Section 65915.
(g) Notwithstanding Section 65913.4, a project subject to this section shall not be eligible for streamlining pursuant to Section 65913.4 if it meets either of the following conditions:
(1) The site has previously been developed pursuant to Section 65913.4 with a project of 10 units or fewer.
(2) The developer of the project or any person acting in concert with the developer has previously proposed a project pursuant to Section 65913.4 of 10 units or fewer on the same or an adjacent site.
(h) A local agency may adopt an ordinance to implement the provisions of this article. An ordinance adopted to implement this section shall not be considered a “project” under Division 13 (commencing with Section 21000) of the Public Resources Code.
(i) Each local agency shall include the number of sites developed and the number of units constructed pursuant to this section in its annual progress report required pursuant to paragraph (2) of subdivision (a) of Section 65400.
(j) The department shall undertake at least two studies of the outcomes of this chapter. One study shall be completed on or before January 1, 2027, and one shall be completed on or before January 1, 2031.
(1) The studies required by this subdivision shall include, but not be limited to, the number of projects built, the number of units built, the jurisdictional and regional location of the housing, the relative wealth and access to resources of the communities in which they are built, the level of affordability, the effect on greenhouse gas emissions, and the creation of construction jobs that pay the prevailing wage.
(2) The department shall publish a report of the findings of a study required by this subdivision, post the report on its internet website, and submit the report to the Legislature pursuant to Section 9795.
(k) For purposes of this section:
(1) “Housing development project” means a project consisting of any of the following:
(A) Residential units only.
(B) Mixed-use developments consisting of residential and nonresidential retail commercial or office uses, and at least 50 percent of the square footage of the new construction associated with the project is designated for residential use. None of the square footage of any such development shall be designated for hotel, motel, bed and breakfast inn, or other transient lodging use, except for a residential hotel.
(2) “Local agency” means a city, including a charter city, county, or a city and county.
(3) “Office or retail commercial zone” means any commercial zone, except for zones where office uses and retail uses are not permitted, or are permitted only as an accessory use.
(4) “Residential hotel” has the same meaning as defined in Section 50519 of the Health and Safety Code.
(l) The Legislature finds and declares that ensuring access to affordable housing is a matter of statewide concern and is not a municipal affair as that term is used in Section 5 of Article XI of the California Constitution. Therefore, this section applies to all cities, including charter cities.
(m) (1) This section shall become operative on July 1, 2023.
(2) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2033, and as of that date is repealed.

SEC. 97.

 Section 65912.113 of the Government Code is amended to read:

65912.113.
 A development project shall not be subject to the streamlined, ministerial review process provided by Section 65912.114 unless the development proposal meets all of the following objective development standards:
(a) The development shall be a multifamily housing development project.
(b) The residential density for the development will meet or exceed the applicable density deemed appropriate to accommodate housing for lower income households in that jurisdiction as specified in paragraph (3) of subdivision (c) of Section 65583.2.
(c) (1) The development proponent shall complete a phase I environmental assessment, as defined in Section 78090 of the Health and Safety Code.
(2) If a recognized environmental condition is found, the development proponent shall undertake a preliminary endangerment assessment, as defined in Section 78095 of the Health and Safety Code, prepared by an environmental assessor to determine the existence of any release of a hazardous substance on the site and to determine the potential for exposure of future occupants to significant health hazards from any nearby property or activity.
(A) If a release of a hazardous substance is found to exist on the site, the release shall be removed, or any significant effects of the release shall be mitigated to a level of insignificance in compliance with current state and federal requirements.
(B) If a potential for exposure to significant hazards from surrounding properties or activities is found to exist, the effects of the potential exposure shall be mitigated to a level of insignificance in compliance with current state and federal requirements.
(d) None of the housing on the site is located within 500 feet of a freeway, as defined in Section 332 of the Vehicle Code.
(e) None of the housing on the site is located within 3,200 feet of a facility that actively extracts or refines oil or natural gas.
(f) The development will meet the following objective zoning standards, objective subdivision standards, and objective design review standards:
(1) The applicable objective standards shall be those for the zone that allows residential use at a greater density between the following:
(A) The existing zoning designation for the parcel if existing zoning allows multifamily residential use.
(B) The zoning designation for the closest parcel that allows residential use at a density that meets the requirements of subdivision (b).
(2) The applicable objective standards shall be those in effect at the time that the development application is submitted to the local government pursuant to this article.
(g) For purposes of this section, “objective zoning standards,” “objective subdivision standards,” and “objective design review standards” mean standards that involve no personal or subjective judgment by a public official and are uniformly verifiable by reference to an external and uniform benchmark or criterion available and knowable by both the development applicant or proponent and the public official before submittal. These standards may be embodied in alternative objective land use specifications adopted by a city or county, and may include, but are not limited to, housing overlay zones, specific plans, inclusionary zoning ordinances, and density bonus ordinances, subject to the following:
(1) A development shall be deemed consistent with the objective zoning standards related to housing density, as applicable, if the density proposed is compliant with the maximum density allowed within that land use designation, notwithstanding any specified maximum unit allocation that may result in fewer units of housing being permitted.
(2) In the event that objective zoning, general plan, subdivision, or design review standards are mutually inconsistent, a development shall be deemed consistent with the objective zoning and subdivision standards pursuant to this section if the development is consistent with the standards set forth in the general plan.

SEC. 98.

 Section 65912.123 of the Government Code is amended to read:

65912.123.
 A development project shall not be subject to the streamlined, ministerial review process provided by Section 65912.124 unless the development project meets all of the following objective development standards:
(a) The development shall be a multifamily housing development project.
(b) The residential density for the development shall be determined as follows:
(1) In a metropolitan jurisdiction, as determined pursuant to subdivisions (d) and (e) of Section 65583.2, the residential density for the development shall meet or exceed the greater of the following:
(A) The residential density allowed on the parcel by the local government.
(B) For sites of less than one acre in size, 30 units per acre.
(C) For sites of one acre in size or greater located on a commercial corridor of less than 100 feet in width, 40 units per acre.
(D) For sites of one acre in size or greater located on a commercial corridor of 100 feet in width or greater, 60 units per acre.
(E) Notwithstanding subparagraph (B), (C), or (D), for sites within one-half mile of a major transit stop, 80 units per acre.
(2) In a jurisdiction that is not a metropolitan jurisdiction, as determined pursuant to subdivisions (d) and (e) of Section 65583.2, the residential density for the development shall meet or exceed the greater of the following:
(A) The residential density allowed on the parcel by the local government.
(B) For sites of less than one acre in size, 20 units per acre.
(C) For sites of one acre in size or greater located on a commercial corridor of less than 100 feet in width, 30 units per acre.
(D) For sites of one acre in size or greater located on a commercial corridor of 100 feet in width or greater, 50 units per acre.
(E) Notwithstanding subparagraph (B), (C), or (D), for sites within one-half mile of a major transit stop, 70 units per acre.
(c) The height limit applicable to the housing development shall be the greater of the following:
(1) The height allowed on the parcel by the local government.
(2) For sites on a commercial corridor of less than 100 feet in width, 35 feet.
(3) For sites on a commercial corridor of 100 feet in width or greater, 45 feet.
(4) Notwithstanding paragraphs (2) and (3), 65 feet for sites that meet all of the following criteria:
(A) They are within one-half mile of a major transit stop.
(B) They are within a city with a population of greater than 100,000.
(C) They are not within a coastal zone, as defined in Division 20 (commencing with Section 30000) of the Public Resources Code.
(d) The property meets the following setback standards:
(1) For the portion of the property that fronts a commercial corridor, the following shall occur:
(A) No setbacks shall be required.
(B) All parking must be set back at least 25 feet.
(C) On the ground floor, a building or buildings must abut within 10 feet of the property line for at least 80 percent of the frontage.
(2) For the portion of the property that fronts a side street, a building or buildings must abut within 10 feet of the property line for at least 60 percent of the frontage.
(3) For the portion of the property that abuts an adjoining property that also abuts the same commercial corridor as the property, no setbacks are required unless the adjoining property contains a residential use that was constructed prior to the enactment of this chapter, in which case the requirements of subparagraph (A) of paragraph (4) apply.
(4) For the portion of the property line that does not abut a commercial corridor, a side street, or an adjoining property that also abuts the same commercial corridor as the property, the following shall occur:
(A) Along property lines that abut a property that contains a residential use, the following shall occur:
(i) The ground floor of the development project shall be set back at 10 feet. The amount required to be set back may be decreased by the local government.
(ii) Starting with the second floor of the property, each subsequent floor of the development project shall be stepped back in an amount equal to seven feet multiplied by the floor number. For purposes of this paragraph, the ground floor counts as the first floor. The amount required to be stepped back may be decreased by the local government.
(B) Along property lines that abut a property that does not contain a residential use, the development shall be set back 15 feet. The amount required to be stepped back may be decreased by the local government.
(e) No parking shall be required, except that this article shall not reduce, eliminate, or preclude the enforcement of any requirement imposed on a new multifamily residential or nonresidential development to provide bicycle parking, electric vehicle supply equipment installed parking spaces, or parking spaces that are accessible to persons with disabilities that would have otherwise applied to the development if this article did not apply.
(f) (1) The development proponent shall complete a phase I environmental assessment, as defined in Section 78090 of the Health and Safety Code.
(2) If a recognized environmental condition is found, the development proponent shall undertake a preliminary endangerment assessment, as defined in Section 78095 of the Health and Safety Code, prepared by an environmental assessor to determine the existence of any release of a hazardous substance on the site and to determine the potential for exposure of future occupants to significant health hazards from any nearby property or activity.
(A) If a release of a hazardous substance is found to exist on the site, the release shall be removed, or any significant effects of the release shall be mitigated to a level of insignificance in compliance with current state and federal requirements.
(B) If a potential for exposure to significant hazards from surrounding properties or activities is found to exist, the effects of the potential exposure shall be mitigated to a level of insignificance in compliance with current state and federal requirements.
(g) None of the housing on the site is located within 500 feet of a freeway, as defined in Section 332 of the Vehicle Code.
(h) None of the housing on the site is located within 3,200 feet of a facility that actively extracts or refines oil or natural gas.
(i) (1) The development proponent shall provide written notice of the pending application to each commercial tenant on the parcel when the application is submitted.
(2) The development proponent shall provide relocation assistance to each eligible commercial tenant located on the site as follows:
(A) For a commercial tenant operating on the site for at least one year but less than five years, the relocation assistance shall be equivalent to six months’ rent.
(B) For a commercial tenant operating on the site for at least 5 years but less than 10 years, the relocation assistance shall be equivalent to nine months’ rent.
(C) For a commercial tenant operating on the site for at least 10 years but less than 15 years, the relocation assistance shall be equivalent to 12 months’ rent.
(D) For a commercial tenant operating on the site for at least 15 years but less than 20 years, the relocation assistance shall be equivalent to 15 months’ rent.
(E) For a commercial tenant operating on the site for at least 20 years, the relocation assistance shall be equivalent to 18 months’ rent.
(3) The relocation assistance shall be provided to an eligible commercial tenant upon expiration of the lease of that commercial tenant.
(4) For purposes of this subdivision, a commercial tenant is eligible for relocation assistance if the commercial tenant meets all of the following criteria:
(A) The commercial tenant is an independently owned and operated business with its principal office located in the county in which the property on the site that is leased by the commercial tenant is located.
(B) The commercial tenant’s lease expired and was not renewed by the property owner.
(C) The commercial tenant’s lease expired within the three years following the development proponent’s submission of the application for a housing development pursuant to this article.
(D) The commercial tenant employs 20 or fewer employees and has annual average gross receipts under one million dollars ($1,000,000) for the three-taxable-year period ending with the taxable year that precedes the expiration of their lease.
(E) The commercial tenant is still in operation on the site at the time of the expiration of its lease.
(5) Notwithstanding paragraph (4), for purposes of this subdivision, a commercial tenant is ineligible for relocation assistance if the commercial tenant meets both of the following criteria:
(A) The commercial tenant entered into a lease on the site after the development proponent’s submission of the application for a housing development pursuant to this article.
(B) The commercial tenant had not previously entered into a lease on the site.
(6) (A) The commercial tenant shall utilize the funds provided by the development proponent to relocate the business or for costs of a new business.
(B) Notwithstanding paragraph (2), if the commercial tenant elects not to use the funds provided as required by subparagraph (A), the development proponent shall provide only assistance equal to three months’ rent, regardless of the duration of the commercial tenant’s lease.
(7) For purposes of this subdivision, monthly rent is equal to one-twelfth of the total amount of rent paid by the commercial tenant in the last 12 months.
(j) Other objective zoning standards, objective subdivision standards, and objective design review standards as follows:
(1)  The applicable objective standards shall be those for the closest zone in the city, county, or city and county that allows multifamily residential use at the residential density determined pursuant to subdivision (b). If no zone exists that allows the residential density determined pursuant to subdivision (b), the applicable objective standards shall be those for the zone that allows the greatest density within the city, county, or city and county.
(2) The applicable objective standards shall be those in effect at the time that the development application is submitted to the local government pursuant to this article.
(3) The applicable objective standards may include a requirement that up to one-half of the ground floor of the housing development project be dedicated to retail use.
(4) For purposes of this section, “objective zoning standards,” “objective subdivision standards,” and “objective design review standards” mean standards that involve no personal or subjective judgment by a public official and are uniformly verifiable by reference to an external and uniform benchmark or criterion available and knowable by both the development applicant or proponent and the public official before submittal. These standards may be embodied in alternative objective land use specifications adopted by a city or county, and may include, but are not limited to, housing overlay zones, specific plans, inclusionary zoning ordinances, and density bonus ordinances. In the event that objective zoning, general plan, subdivision, or design review standards are mutually inconsistent, a development shall be deemed consistent with the objective zoning and subdivision standards pursuant to this subdivision if the development is consistent with the standards set forth in the general plan.

SEC. 99.

 Section 65913.4 of the Government Code is amended to read:

65913.4.
 (a) A development proponent may submit an application for a development that is subject to the streamlined, ministerial approval process provided by subdivision (c) and is not subject to a conditional use permit or any other nonlegislative discretionary approval if the development complies with subdivision (b) and satisfies all of the following objective planning standards:
(1) The development is a multifamily housing development that contains two or more residential units.
(2) The development and the site on which it is located satisfy all of the following:
(A) It is a legal parcel or parcels located in a city if, and only if, the city boundaries include some portion of either an urbanized area or urban cluster, as designated by the United States Census Bureau, or, for unincorporated areas, a legal parcel or parcels wholly within the boundaries of an urbanized area or urban cluster, as designated by the United States Census Bureau.
(B) At least 75 percent of the perimeter of the site adjoins parcels that are developed with urban uses. For the purposes of this section, parcels that are only separated by a street or highway shall be considered to be adjoined.
(C) (i) A site that meets the requirements of clause (ii) and satisfies any of the following:
(I) The site is zoned for residential use or residential mixed-use development.
(II) The site has a general plan designation that allows residential use or a mix of residential and nonresidential uses.
(III) The site is zoned for office or retail commercial use and meets the requirements of Section 65852.24.
(ii) At least two-thirds of the square footage of the development is designated for residential use. Additional density, floor area, and units, and any other concession, incentive, or waiver of development standards granted pursuant to the Density Bonus Law in Section 65915 shall be included in the square footage calculation. The square footage of the development shall not include underground space, such as basements or underground parking garages.
(3) (A) The development proponent has committed to record, prior to the issuance of the first building permit, a land use restriction or covenant providing that any lower or moderate income housing units required pursuant to subparagraph (B) of paragraph (4) shall remain available at affordable housing costs or rent to persons and families of lower or moderate income for no less than the following periods of time:
(i) Fifty-five years for units that are rented.
(ii) Forty-five years for units that are owned.
(B) The city or county shall require the recording of covenants or restrictions implementing this paragraph for each parcel or unit of real property included in the development.
(4) The development satisfies subparagraphs (A) and (B) below:
(A) Is located in a locality that the department has determined is subject to this subparagraph on the basis that the number of units that have been issued building permits, as shown on the most recent production report received by the department, is less than the locality’s share of the regional housing needs, by income category, for that reporting period. A locality shall remain eligible under this subparagraph until the department’s determination for the next reporting period.
(B) The development is subject to a requirement mandating a minimum percentage of below market rate housing based on one of the following:
(i) The locality did not submit its latest production report to the department by the time period required by Section 65400, or that production report reflects that there were fewer units of above moderate-income housing issued building permits than were required for the regional housing needs assessment cycle for that reporting period. In addition, if the project contains more than 10 units of housing, the project does either of the following:
(I) The project dedicates a minimum of 10 percent of the total number of units, before calculating any density bonus, to housing affordable to households making at or below 80 percent of the area median income. However, if the locality has adopted a local ordinance that requires that greater than 10 percent of the units be dedicated to housing affordable to households making below 80 percent of the area median income, that local ordinance applies.
(II) (ia) If the project is located within the San Francisco Bay area, the project, in lieu of complying with subclause (I), dedicates 20 percent of the total number of units, before calculating any density bonus, to housing affordable to households making below 120 percent of the area median income with the average income of the units at or below 100 percent of the area median income. However, a local ordinance adopted by the locality applies if it requires greater than 20 percent of the units be dedicated to housing affordable to households making at or below 120 percent of the area median income, or requires that any of the units be dedicated at a level deeper than 120 percent. In order to comply with this subclause, the rent or sale price charged for units that are dedicated to housing affordable to households between 80 percent and 120 percent of the area median income shall not exceed 30 percent of the gross income of the household.
(ib) For purposes of this subclause, “San Francisco Bay area” means the entire area within the territorial boundaries of the Counties of Alameda, Contra Costa, Marin, Napa, San Mateo, Santa Clara, Solano, and Sonoma, and the City and County of San Francisco.
(ii) The locality’s latest production report reflects that there were fewer units of housing issued building permits affordable to either very low income or low-income households by income category than were required for the regional housing needs assessment cycle for that reporting period, and the project seeking approval dedicates 50 percent of the total number of units, before calculating any density bonus, to housing affordable to households making at or below 80 percent of the area median income. However, if the locality has adopted a local ordinance that requires that greater than 50 percent of the units be dedicated to housing affordable to households making at or below 80 percent of the area median income, that local ordinance applies.
(iii) The locality did not submit its latest production report to the department by the time period required by Section 65400, or if the production report reflects that there were fewer units of housing affordable to both income levels described in clauses (i) and (ii) that were issued building permits than were required for the regional housing needs assessment cycle for that reporting period, the project seeking approval may choose between utilizing clause (i) or (ii).
(C) (i) A development proponent that uses a unit of affordable housing to satisfy the requirements of subparagraph (B) may also satisfy any other local or state requirement for affordable housing, including local ordinances or the Density Bonus Law in Section 65915, provided that the development proponent complies with the applicable requirements in the state or local law.
(ii) A development proponent that uses a unit of affordable housing to satisfy any other state or local affordability requirement may also satisfy the requirements of subparagraph (B), provided that the development proponent complies with applicable requirements of subparagraph (B).
(iii) A development proponent may satisfy the affordability requirements of subparagraph (B) with a unit that is restricted to households with incomes lower than the applicable income limits required in subparagraph (B).
(D) The amendments to this subdivision made by the act adding this subparagraph do not constitute a change in, but are declaratory of, existing law.
(5) The development, excluding any additional density or any other concessions, incentives, or waivers of development standards granted pursuant to the Density Bonus Law in Section 65915, is consistent with objective zoning standards, objective subdivision standards, and objective design review standards in effect at the time that the development is submitted to the local government pursuant to this section, or at the time a notice of intent is submitted pursuant to subdivision (b), whichever occurs earlier. For purposes of this paragraph, “objective zoning standards,” “objective subdivision standards,” and “objective design review standards” mean standards that involve no personal or subjective judgment by a public official and are uniformly verifiable by reference to an external and uniform benchmark or criterion available and knowable by both the development applicant or proponent and the public official before submittal. These standards may be embodied in alternative objective land use specifications adopted by a city or county, and may include, but are not limited to, housing overlay zones, specific plans, inclusionary zoning ordinances, and density bonus ordinances, subject to the following:
(A) A development shall be deemed consistent with the objective zoning standards related to housing density, as applicable, if the density proposed is compliant with the maximum density allowed within that land use designation, notwithstanding any specified maximum unit allocation that may result in fewer units of housing being permitted.
(B) In the event that objective zoning, general plan, subdivision, or design review standards are mutually inconsistent, a development shall be deemed consistent with the objective zoning and subdivision standards pursuant to this subdivision if the development is consistent with the standards set forth in the general plan.
(C) It is the intent of the Legislature that the objective zoning standards, objective subdivision standards, and objective design review standards described in this paragraph be adopted or amended in compliance with the requirements of Chapter 905 of the Statutes of 2004.
(D) The amendments to this subdivision made by the act adding this subparagraph do not constitute a change in, but are declaratory of, existing law.
(E) A project that satisfies the requirements of Section 65852.24 shall be deemed consistent with objective zoning standards, objective design standards, and objective subdivision standards if the project is consistent with the provisions of subdivision (b) of Section 65852.24 and if none of the square footage in the project is designated for hotel, motel, bed and breakfast inn, or other transient lodging use, except for a residential hotel. For purposes of this subdivision, “residential hotel” shall have the same meaning as defined in Section 50519 of the Health and Safety Code.
(6) The development is not located on a site that is any of the following:
(A) A coastal zone, as defined in Division 20 (commencing with Section 30000) of the Public Resources Code.
(B) Either prime farmland or farmland of statewide importance, as defined pursuant to United States Department of Agriculture land inventory and monitoring criteria, as modified for California, and designated on the maps prepared by the Farmland Mapping and Monitoring Program of the Department of Conservation, or land zoned or designated for agricultural protection or preservation by a local ballot measure that was approved by the voters of that jurisdiction.
(C) Wetlands, as defined in the United States Fish and Wildlife Service Manual, Part 660 FW 2 (June 21, 1993).
(D) Within a very high fire hazard severity zone, as determined by the Department of Forestry and Fire Protection pursuant to Section 51178, or within a high or very high fire hazard severity zone as indicated on maps adopted by the Department of Forestry and Fire Protection pursuant to Section 4202 of the Public Resources Code. This subparagraph does not apply to sites excluded from the specified hazard zones by a local agency, pursuant to subdivision (b) of Section 51179, or sites that have adopted fire hazard mitigation measures pursuant to existing building standards or state fire mitigation measures applicable to the development.
(E) A hazardous waste site that is listed pursuant to Section 65962.5 or a hazardous waste site designated by the Department of Toxic Substances Control pursuant to Article 5 (commencing with Section 78760) of Chapter 4 of Part 2 of Division 45 of the Health and Safety Code, unless either of the following apply:
(i) The site is an underground storage tank site that received a uniform closure letter issued pursuant to subdivision (g) of Section 25296.10 of the Health and Safety Code based on closure criteria established by the State Water Resources Control Board for residential use or residential mixed uses. This section does not alter or change the conditions to remove a site from the list of hazardous waste sites listed pursuant to Section 65962.5.
(ii) The State Department of Public Health, State Water Resources Control Board, Department of Toxic Substances Control, or a local agency making a determination pursuant to subdivision (c) of Section 25296.10 of the Health and Safety Code, has otherwise determined that the site is suitable for residential use or residential mixed uses.
(F) Within a delineated earthquake fault zone as determined by the State Geologist in any official maps published by the State Geologist, unless the development complies with applicable seismic protection building code standards adopted by the California Building Standards Commission under the California Building Standards Law (Part 2.5 (commencing with Section 18901) of Division 13 of the Health and Safety Code), and by any local building department under Chapter 12.2 (commencing with Section 8875) of Division 1 of Title 2.
(G) Within a special flood hazard area subject to inundation by the 1 percent annual chance flood (100-year flood) as determined by the Federal Emergency Management Agency in any official maps published by the Federal Emergency Management Agency. If a development proponent is able to satisfy all applicable federal qualifying criteria in order to provide that the site satisfies this subparagraph and is otherwise eligible for streamlined approval under this section, a local government shall not deny the application on the basis that the development proponent did not comply with any additional permit requirement, standard, or action adopted by that local government that is applicable to that site. A development may be located on a site described in this subparagraph if either of the following are met:
(i) The site has been subject to a Letter of Map Revision prepared by the Federal Emergency Management Agency and issued to the local jurisdiction.
(ii) The site meets Federal Emergency Management Agency requirements necessary to meet minimum flood plain management criteria of the National Flood Insurance Program pursuant to Part 59 (commencing with Section 59.1) and Part 60 (commencing with Section 60.1) of Subchapter B of Chapter I of Title 44 of the Code of Federal Regulations.
(H) Within a regulatory floodway as determined by the Federal Emergency Management Agency in any official maps published by the Federal Emergency Management Agency, unless the development has received a no-rise certification in accordance with Section 60.3(d)(3) of Title 44 of the Code of Federal Regulations. If a development proponent is able to satisfy all applicable federal qualifying criteria in order to provide that the site satisfies this subparagraph and is otherwise eligible for streamlined approval under this section, a local government shall not deny the application on the basis that the development proponent did not comply with any additional permit requirement, standard, or action adopted by that local government that is applicable to that site.
(I) Lands identified for conservation in an adopted natural community conservation plan pursuant to the Natural Community Conservation Planning Act (Chapter 10 (commencing with Section 2800) of Division 3 of the Fish and Game Code), habitat conservation plan pursuant to the federal Endangered Species Act of 1973 (16 U.S.C. Sec. 1531 et seq.), or other adopted natural resource protection plan.
(J) Habitat for protected species identified as candidate, sensitive, or species of special status by state or federal agencies, fully protected species, or species protected by the federal Endangered Species Act of 1973 (16 U.S.C. Sec. 1531 et seq.), the California Endangered Species Act (Chapter 1.5 (commencing with Section 2050) of Division 3 of the Fish and Game Code), or the Native Plant Protection Act (Chapter 10 (commencing with Section 1900) of Division 2 of the Fish and Game Code).
(K) Lands under conservation easement.
(7) The development is not located on a site where any of the following apply:
(A) The development would require the demolition of the following types of housing:
(i) Housing that is subject to a recorded covenant, ordinance, or law that restricts rents to levels affordable to persons and families of moderate, low, or very low income.
(ii) Housing that is subject to any form of rent or price control through a public entity’s valid exercise of its police power.
(iii) Housing that has been occupied by tenants within the past 10 years.
(B) The site was previously used for housing that was occupied by tenants that was demolished within 10 years before the development proponent submits an application under this section.
(C) The development would require the demolition of a historic structure that was placed on a national, state, or local historic register.
(D) The property contains housing units that are occupied by tenants, and units at the property are, or were, subsequently offered for sale to the general public by the subdivider or subsequent owner of the property.
(8) The development proponent has done both of the following, as applicable:
(A) Certified to the locality that either of the following is true, as applicable:
(i) The entirety of the development is a public work for purposes of Chapter 1 (commencing with Section 1720) of Part 7 of Division 2 of the Labor Code.
(ii) If the development is not in its entirety a public work, that all construction workers employed in the execution of the development will be paid at least the general prevailing rate of per diem wages for the type of work and geographic area, as determined by the Director of Industrial Relations pursuant to Sections 1773 and 1773.9 of the Labor Code, except that apprentices registered in programs approved by the Chief of the Division of Apprenticeship Standards may be paid at least the applicable apprentice prevailing rate. If the development is subject to this subparagraph, then for those portions of the development that are not a public work all of the following shall apply:
(I) The development proponent shall ensure that the prevailing wage requirement is included in all contracts for the performance of the work.
(II) All contractors and subcontractors shall pay to all construction workers employed in the execution of the work at least the general prevailing rate of per diem wages, except that apprentices registered in programs approved by the Chief of the Division of Apprenticeship Standards may be paid at least the applicable apprentice prevailing rate.
(III) Except as provided in subclause (V), all contractors and subcontractors shall maintain and verify payroll records pursuant to Section 1776 of the Labor Code and make those records available for inspection and copying as provided therein.
(IV) Except as provided in subclause (V), the obligation of the contractors and subcontractors to pay prevailing wages may be enforced by the Labor Commissioner through the issuance of a civil wage and penalty assessment pursuant to Section 1741 of the Labor Code, which may be reviewed pursuant to Section 1742 of the Labor Code, within 18 months after the completion of the development, by an underpaid worker through an administrative complaint or civil action, or by a joint labor-management committee through a civil action under Section 1771.2 of the Labor Code. If a civil wage and penalty assessment is issued, the contractor, subcontractor, and surety on a bond or bonds issued to secure the payment of wages covered by the assessment shall be liable for liquidated damages pursuant to Section 1742.1 of the Labor Code.
(V) Subclauses (III) and (IV) shall not apply if all contractors and subcontractors performing work on the development are subject to a project labor agreement that requires the payment of prevailing wages to all construction workers employed in the execution of the development and provides for enforcement of that obligation through an arbitration procedure. For purposes of this clause, “project labor agreement” has the same meaning as set forth in paragraph (1) of subdivision (b) of Section 2500 of the Public Contract Code.
(VI) Notwithstanding subdivision (c) of Section 1773.1 of the Labor Code, the requirement that employer payments not reduce the obligation to pay the hourly straight time or overtime wages found to be prevailing shall not apply if otherwise provided in a bona fide collective bargaining agreement covering the worker. The requirement to pay at least the general prevailing rate of per diem wages does not preclude use of an alternative workweek schedule adopted pursuant to Section 511 or 514 of the Labor Code.
(B) (i) For developments for which any of the following conditions apply, certified that a skilled and trained workforce shall be used to complete the development if the application is approved:
(I) On and after January 1, 2018, until December 31, 2021, the development consists of 75 or more units with a residential component that is not 100 percent subsidized affordable housing and will be located within a jurisdiction located in a coastal or bay county with a population of 225,000 or more.
(II) On and after January 1, 2022, until December 31, 2025, the development consists of 50 or more units with a residential component that is not 100 percent subsidized affordable housing and will be located within a jurisdiction located in a coastal or bay county with a population of 225,000 or more.
(III) On and after January 1, 2018, until December 31, 2019, the development consists of 75 or more units with a residential component that is not 100 percent subsidized affordable housing and will be located within a jurisdiction with a population of fewer than 550,000 and that is not located in a coastal or bay county.
(IV) On and after January 1, 2020, until December 31, 2021, the development consists of more than 50 units with a residential component that is not 100 percent subsidized affordable housing and will be located within a jurisdiction with a population of fewer than 550,000 and that is not located in a coastal or bay county.
(V) On and after January 1, 2022, until December 31, 2025, the development consists of more than 25 units with a residential component that is not 100 percent subsidized affordable housing and will be located within a jurisdiction with a population of fewer than 550,000 and that is not located in a coastal or bay county.
(ii) For purposes of this section, “skilled and trained workforce” has the same meaning as provided in Chapter 2.9 (commencing with Section 2600) of Part 1 of Division 2 of the Public Contract Code.
(iii) If the development proponent has certified that a skilled and trained workforce will be used to complete the development and the application is approved, the following shall apply:
(I) The applicant shall require in all contracts for the performance of work that every contractor and subcontractor at every tier will individually use a skilled and trained workforce to complete the development.
(II) Every contractor and subcontractor shall use a skilled and trained workforce to complete the development.
(III) Except as provided in subclause (IV), the applicant shall provide to the locality, on a monthly basis while the development or contract is being performed, a report demonstrating compliance with Chapter 2.9 (commencing with Section 2600) of Part 1 of Division 2 of the Public Contract Code. A monthly report provided to the locality pursuant to this subclause shall be a public record under the California Public Records Act (Division 10 (commencing with Section 7920.000) of Title 1) and shall be open to public inspection. An applicant that fails to provide a monthly report demonstrating compliance with Chapter 2.9 (commencing with Section 2600) of Part 1 of Division 2 of the Public Contract Code shall be subject to a civil penalty of ten thousand dollars ($10,000) per month for each month for which the report has not been provided. Any contractor or subcontractor that fails to use a skilled and trained workforce shall be subject to a civil penalty of two hundred dollars ($200) per day for each worker employed in contravention of the skilled and trained workforce requirement. Penalties may be assessed by the Labor Commissioner within 18 months of completion of the development using the same procedures for issuance of civil wage and penalty assessments pursuant to Section 1741 of the Labor Code, and may be reviewed pursuant to the same procedures in Section 1742 of the Labor Code. Penalties shall be paid to the State Public Works Enforcement Fund.
(IV) Subclause (III) shall not apply if all contractors and subcontractors performing work on the development are subject to a project labor agreement that requires compliance with the skilled and trained workforce requirement and provides for enforcement of that obligation through an arbitration procedure. For purposes of this subparagraph, “project labor agreement” has the same meaning as set forth in paragraph (1) of subdivision (b) of Section 2500 of the Public Contract Code.
(C) Notwithstanding subparagraphs (A) and (B), a development that is subject to approval pursuant to this section is exempt from any requirement to pay prevailing wages or use a skilled and trained workforce if it meets both of the following:
(i) The project includes 10 or fewer units.
(ii) The project is not a public work for purposes of Chapter 1 (commencing with Section 1720) of Part 7 of Division 2 of the Labor Code.
(9) The development did not or does not involve a subdivision of a parcel that is, or, notwithstanding this section, would otherwise be, subject to the Subdivision Map Act (Division 2 (commencing with Section 66410)) or any other applicable law authorizing the subdivision of land, unless the development is consistent with all objective subdivision standards in the local subdivision ordinance, and either of the following apply:
(A) The development has received or will receive financing or funding by means of a low-income housing tax credit and is subject to the requirement that prevailing wages be paid pursuant to subparagraph (A) of paragraph (8).
(B) The development is subject to the requirement that prevailing wages be paid, and a skilled and trained workforce used, pursuant to paragraph (8).
(10) The development shall not be upon an existing parcel of land or site that is governed under the Mobilehome Residency Law (Chapter 2.5 (commencing with Section 798) of Title 2 of Part 2 of Division 2 of the Civil Code), the Recreational Vehicle Park Occupancy Law (Chapter 2.6 (commencing with Section 799.20) of Title 2 of Part 2 of Division 2 of the Civil Code), the Mobilehome Parks Act (Part 2.1 (commencing with Section 18200) of Division 13 of the Health and Safety Code), or the Special Occupancy Parks Act (Part 2.3 (commencing with Section 18860) of Division 13 of the Health and Safety Code).
(b) (1) (A) (i) Before submitting an application for a development subject to the streamlined, ministerial approval process described in subdivision (c), the development proponent shall submit to the local government a notice of its intent to submit an application. The notice of intent shall be in the form of a preliminary application that includes all of the information described in Section 65941.1, as that section read on January 1, 2020.
(ii) Upon receipt of a notice of intent to submit an application described in clause (i), the local government shall engage in a scoping consultation regarding the proposed development with any California Native American tribe that is traditionally and culturally affiliated with the geographic area, as described in Section 21080.3.1 of the Public Resources Code, of the proposed development. In order to expedite compliance with this subdivision, the local government shall contact the Native American Heritage Commission for assistance in identifying any California Native American tribe that is traditionally and culturally affiliated with the geographic area of the proposed development.
(iii) The timeline for noticing and commencing a scoping consultation in accordance with this subdivision shall be as follows:
(I) The local government shall provide a formal notice of a development proponent’s notice of intent to submit an application described in clause (i) to each California Native American tribe that is traditionally and culturally affiliated with the geographic area of the proposed development within 30 days of receiving that notice of intent. The formal notice provided pursuant to this subclause shall include all of the following:
(ia) A description of the proposed development.
(ib) The location of the proposed development.
(ic) An invitation to engage in a scoping consultation in accordance with this subdivision.
(II) Each California Native American tribe that receives a formal notice pursuant to this clause shall have 30 days from the receipt of that notice to accept the invitation to engage in a scoping consultation.
(III) If the local government receives a response accepting an invitation to engage in a scoping consultation pursuant to this subdivision, the local government shall commence the scoping consultation within 30 days of receiving that response.
(B) The scoping consultation shall recognize that California Native American tribes traditionally and culturally affiliated with a geographic area have knowledge and expertise concerning the resources at issue and shall take into account the cultural significance of the resource to the culturally affiliated California Native American tribe.
(C) The parties to a scoping consultation conducted pursuant to this subdivision shall be the local government and any California Native American tribe traditionally and culturally affiliated with the geographic area of the proposed development. More than one California Native American tribe traditionally and culturally affiliated with the geographic area of the proposed development may participate in the scoping consultation. However, the local government, upon the request of any California Native American tribe traditionally and culturally affiliated with the geographic area of the proposed development, shall engage in a separate scoping consultation with that California Native American tribe. The development proponent and its consultants may participate in a scoping consultation process conducted pursuant to this subdivision if all of the following conditions are met:
(i) The development proponent and its consultants agree to respect the principles set forth in this subdivision.
(ii) The development proponent and its consultants engage in the scoping consultation in good faith.
(iii) The California Native American tribe participating in the scoping consultation approves the participation of the development proponent and its consultants. The California Native American tribe may rescind its approval at any time during the scoping consultation, either for the duration of the scoping consultation or with respect to any particular meeting or discussion held as part of the scoping consultation.
(D) The participants to a scoping consultation pursuant to this subdivision shall comply with all of the following confidentiality requirements:
(i) Section 7927.000.
(ii) Section 7927.005.
(iii) Subdivision (c) of Section 21082.3 of the Public Resources Code.
(iv) Subdivision (d) of Section 15120 of Title 14 of the California Code of Regulations.
(v) Any additional confidentiality standards adopted by the California Native American tribe participating in the scoping consultation.
(E) The California Environmental Quality Act (Division 13 (commencing with Section 21000) of the Public Resources Code) shall not apply to a scoping consultation conducted pursuant to this subdivision.
(2) (A) If, after concluding the scoping consultation, the parties find that no potential tribal cultural resource would be affected by the proposed development, the development proponent may submit an application for the proposed development that is subject to the streamlined, ministerial approval process described in subdivision (c).
(B) If, after concluding the scoping consultation, the parties find that a potential tribal cultural resource could be affected by the proposed development and an enforceable agreement is documented between the California Native American tribe and the local government on methods, measures, and conditions for tribal cultural resource treatment, the development proponent may submit the application for a development subject to the streamlined, ministerial approval process described in subdivision (c). The local government shall ensure that the enforceable agreement is included in the requirements and conditions for the proposed development.
(C) If, after concluding the scoping consultation, the parties find that a potential tribal cultural resource could be affected by the proposed development and an enforceable agreement is not documented between the California Native American tribe and the local government regarding methods, measures, and conditions for tribal cultural resource treatment, the development shall not be eligible for the streamlined, ministerial approval process described in subdivision (c).
(D) For purposes of this paragraph, a scoping consultation shall be deemed to be concluded if either of the following occur:
(i) The parties to the scoping consultation document an enforceable agreement concerning methods, measures, and conditions to avoid or address potential impacts to tribal cultural resources that are or may be present.
(ii) One or more parties to the scoping consultation, acting in good faith and after reasonable effort, conclude that a mutual agreement on methods, measures, and conditions to avoid or address impacts to tribal cultural resources that are or may be present cannot be reached.
(E) If the development or environmental setting substantially changes after the completion of the scoping consultation, the local government shall notify the California Native American tribe of the changes and engage in a subsequent scoping consultation if requested by the California Native American tribe.
(3) A local government may only accept an application for streamlined, ministerial approval pursuant to this section if one of the following applies:
(A) A California Native American tribe that received a formal notice of the development proponent’s notice of intent to submit an application pursuant to subclause (I) of clause (iii) of subparagraph (A) of paragraph (1) did not accept the invitation to engage in a scoping consultation.
(B) The California Native American tribe accepted an invitation to engage in a scoping consultation pursuant to subclause (II) of clause (iii) of subparagraph (A) of paragraph (1) but substantially failed to engage in the scoping consultation after repeated documented attempts by the local government to engage the California Native American tribe.
(C) The parties to a scoping consultation pursuant to this subdivision find that no potential tribal cultural resource will be affected by the proposed development pursuant to subparagraph (A) of paragraph (2).
(D) A scoping consultation between a California Native American tribe and the local government has occurred in accordance with this subdivision and resulted in agreement pursuant to subparagraph (B) of paragraph (2).
(4) A project shall not be eligible for the streamlined, ministerial process described in subdivision (c) if any of the following apply:
(A) There is a tribal cultural resource that is on a national, state, tribal, or local historic register list located on the site of the project.
(B) There is a potential tribal cultural resource that could be affected by the proposed development and the parties to a scoping consultation conducted pursuant to this subdivision do not document an enforceable agreement on methods, measures, and conditions for tribal cultural resource treatment, as described in subparagraph (C) of paragraph (2).
(C) The parties to a scoping consultation conducted pursuant to this subdivision do not agree as to whether a potential tribal cultural resource will be affected by the proposed development.
(5) (A) If, after a scoping consultation conducted pursuant to this subdivision, a project is not eligible for the streamlined, ministerial process described in subdivision (c) for any or all of the following reasons, the local government shall provide written documentation of that fact, and an explanation of the reason for which the project is not eligible, to the development proponent and to any California Native American tribe that is a party to that scoping consultation:
(i) There is a tribal cultural resource that is on a national, state, tribal, or local historic register list located on the site of the project, as described in subparagraph (A) of paragraph (4).
(ii) The parties to the scoping consultation have not documented an enforceable agreement on methods, measures, and conditions for tribal cultural resource treatment, as described in subparagraph (C) of paragraph (2) and subparagraph (B) of paragraph (4).
(iii) The parties to the scoping consultation do not agree as to whether a potential tribal cultural resource will be affected by the proposed development, as described in subparagraph (C) of paragraph (4).
(B) The written documentation provided to a development proponent pursuant to this paragraph shall include information on how the development proponent may seek a conditional use permit or other discretionary approval of the development from the local government.
(6) This section is not intended, and shall not be construed, to limit consultation and discussion between a local government and a California Native American tribe pursuant to other applicable law, confidentiality provisions under other applicable law, the protection of religious exercise to the fullest extent permitted under state and federal law, or the ability of a California Native American tribe to submit information to the local government or participate in any process of the local government.
(7) For purposes of this subdivision:
(A) “Consultation” means the meaningful and timely process of seeking, discussing, and considering carefully the views of others, in a manner that is cognizant of all parties’ cultural values and, where feasible, seeking agreement. Consultation between local governments and Native American tribes shall be conducted in a way that is mutually respectful of each party’s sovereignty. Consultation shall also recognize the tribes’ potential needs for confidentiality with respect to places that have traditional tribal cultural importance. A lead agency shall consult the tribal consultation best practices described in the “State of California Tribal Consultation Guidelines: Supplement to the General Plan Guidelines” prepared by the Office of Planning and Research.
(B) “Scoping” means the act of participating in early discussions or investigations between the local government and California Native American tribe, and the development proponent if authorized by the California Native American tribe, regarding the potential effects a proposed development could have on a potential tribal cultural resource, as defined in Section 21074 of the Public Resources Code, or California Native American tribe, as defined in Section 21073 of the Public Resources Code.
(8) This subdivision shall not apply to any project that has been approved under the streamlined, ministerial approval process provided under this section before the effective date of the act adding this subdivision.
(c) (1) If a local government determines that a development submitted pursuant to this section is consistent with the objective planning standards specified in subdivision (a) and pursuant to paragraph (3) of this subdivision, it shall approve the development. If a local government determines that a development submitted pursuant to this section is in conflict with any of the objective planning standards specified in subdivision (a), it shall provide the development proponent written documentation of which standard or standards the development conflicts with, and an explanation for the reason or reasons the development conflicts with that standard or standards, as follows:
(A) Within 60 days of submittal of the development to the local government pursuant to this section if the development contains 150 or fewer housing units.
(B) Within 90 days of submittal of the development to the local government pursuant to this section if the development contains more than 150 housing units.
(2) If the local government fails to provide the required documentation pursuant to paragraph (1), the development shall be deemed to satisfy the objective planning standards specified in subdivision (a).
(3) For purposes of this section, a development is consistent with the objective planning standards specified in subdivision (a) if there is substantial evidence that would allow a reasonable person to conclude that the development is consistent with the objective planning standards. The local government shall not determine that a development, including an application for a modification under subdivision (g), is in conflict with the objective planning standards on the basis that application materials are not included, if the application contains substantial evidence that would allow a reasonable person to conclude that the development is consistent with the objective planning standards.
(d) (1) Any design review or public oversight of the development may be conducted by the local government’s planning commission or any equivalent board or commission responsible for review and approval of development projects, or the city council or board of supervisors, as appropriate. That design review or public oversight shall be objective and be strictly focused on assessing compliance with criteria required for streamlined projects, as well as any reasonable objective design standards published and adopted by ordinance or resolution by a local jurisdiction before submission of a development application, and shall be broadly applicable to development within the jurisdiction. That design review or public oversight shall be completed, and if the development is consistent with all objective standards, the local government shall approve the development as follows and shall not in any way inhibit, chill, or preclude the ministerial approval provided by this section or its effect, as applicable:
(A) Within 90 days of submittal of the development to the local government pursuant to this section if the development contains 150 or fewer housing units.
(B) Within 180 days of submittal of the development to the local government pursuant to this section if the development contains more than 150 housing units.
(2) If the development is consistent with the requirements of subparagraph (A) or (B) of paragraph (9) of subdivision (a) and is consistent with all objective subdivision standards in the local subdivision ordinance, an application for a subdivision pursuant to the Subdivision Map Act (Division 2 (commencing with Section 66410)) shall be exempt from the requirements of the California Environmental Quality Act (Division 13 (commencing with Section 21000) of the Public Resources Code) and shall be subject to the public oversight timelines set forth in paragraph (1).
(3) If a local government determines that a development submitted pursuant to this section is in conflict with any of the standards imposed pursuant to paragraph (1), it shall provide the development proponent written documentation of which objective standard or standards the development conflicts with, and an explanation for the reason or reasons the development conflicts with that objective standard or standards consistent with the timelines described in paragraph (1) of subdivision (c).
(e) (1) Notwithstanding any other law, a local government, whether or not it has adopted an ordinance governing automobile parking requirements in multifamily developments, shall not impose automobile parking standards for a streamlined development that was approved pursuant to this section in any of the following instances:
(A) The development is located within one-half mile of public transit.
(B) The development is located within an architecturally and historically significant historic district.
(C) When on-street parking permits are required but not offered to the occupants of the development.
(D) When there is a car share vehicle located within one block of the development.
(2) If the development does not fall within any of the categories described in paragraph (1), the local government shall not impose automobile parking requirements for streamlined developments approved pursuant to this section that exceed one parking space per unit.
(f) (1) If a local government approves a development pursuant to this section, then, notwithstanding any other law, that approval shall not expire if the project satisfies both of the following requirements:
(A) The project includes public investment in housing affordability, beyond tax credits.
(B) At least 50 percent of the units are affordable to households making at or below 80 percent of the area median income.
(2) (A) If a local government approves a development pursuant to this section, and the project does not satisfy the requirements of subparagraphs (A) and (B) of paragraph (1), that approval shall remain valid for three years from the date of the final action establishing that approval, or if litigation is filed challenging that approval, from the date of the final judgment upholding that approval. Approval shall remain valid for a project provided construction activity, including demolition and grading activity, on the development site has begun pursuant to a permit issued by the local jurisdiction and is in progress. For purposes of this subdivision, “in progress” means one of the following:
(i) The construction has begun and has not ceased for more than 180 days.
(ii) If the development requires multiple building permits, an initial phase has been completed, and the project proponent has applied for and is diligently pursuing a building permit for a subsequent phase, provided that once it has been issued, the building permit for the subsequent phase does not lapse.
(B) Notwithstanding subparagraph (A), a local government may grant a project a one-time, one-year extension if the project proponent can provide documentation that there has been significant progress toward getting the development construction ready, such as filing a building permit application.
(3) If the development proponent requests a modification pursuant to subdivision (g), then the time during which the approval shall remain valid shall be extended for the number of days between the submittal of a modification request and the date of its final approval, plus an additional 180 days to allow time to obtain a building permit. If litigation is filed relating to the modification request, the time shall be further extended during the pendency of the litigation. The extension required by this paragraph shall only apply to the first request for a modification submitted by the development proponent.
(4) The amendments made to this subdivision by the act that added this paragraph shall also be retroactively applied to developments approved prior to January 1, 2022.
(g) (1) (A) A development proponent may request a modification to a development that has been approved under the streamlined, ministerial approval process provided in subdivision (c) if that request is submitted to the local government before the issuance of the final building permit required for construction of the development.
(B) Except as provided in paragraph (3), the local government shall approve a modification if it determines that the modification is consistent with the objective planning standards specified in subdivision (a) that were in effect when the original development application was first submitted.
(C) The local government shall evaluate any modifications requested pursuant to this subdivision for consistency with the objective planning standards using the same assumptions and analytical methodology that the local government originally used to assess consistency for the development that was approved for streamlined, ministerial approval pursuant to subdivision (c).
(D) A guideline that was adopted or amended by the department pursuant to subdivision (l) after a development was approved through the streamlined, ministerial approval process described in subdivision (c) shall not be used as a basis to deny proposed modifications.
(2) Upon receipt of the development proponent’s application requesting a modification, the local government shall determine if the requested modification is consistent with the objective planning standard and either approve or deny the modification request within 60 days after submission of the modification, or within 90 days if design review is required.
(3) Notwithstanding paragraph (1), the local government may apply objective planning standards adopted after the development application was first submitted to the requested modification in any of the following instances:
(A) The development is revised such that the total number of residential units or total square footage of construction changes by 15 percent or more. The calculation of the square footage of construction changes shall not include underground space.
(B) The development is revised such that the total number of residential units or total square footage of construction changes by 5 percent or more and it is necessary to subject the development to an objective standard beyond those in effect when the development application was submitted in order to mitigate or avoid a specific, adverse impact, as that term is defined in subparagraph (A) of paragraph (1) of subdivision (j) of Section 65589.5, upon the public health or safety and there is no feasible alternative method to satisfactorily mitigate or avoid the adverse impact. The calculation of the square footage of construction changes shall not include underground space.
(C) (i) Objective building standards contained in the California Building Standards Code (Title 24 of the California Code of Regulations), including, but not limited to, building plumbing, electrical, fire, and grading codes, may be applied to all modification applications that are submitted prior to the first building permit application. Those standards may be applied to modification applications submitted after the first building permit application if agreed to by the development proponent.
(ii) The amendments made to clause (i) by the act that added clause (i) shall also be retroactively applied to modification applications submitted prior to January 1, 2022.
(4) The local government’s review of a modification request pursuant to this subdivision shall be strictly limited to determining whether the modification, including any modification to previously approved density bonus concessions or waivers, modify the development’s consistency with the objective planning standards and shall not reconsider prior determinations that are not affected by the modification.
(h) (1) A local government shall not adopt or impose any requirement, including, but not limited to, increased fees or inclusionary housing requirements, that applies to a project solely or partially on the basis that the project is eligible to receive ministerial or streamlined approval pursuant to this section.
(2) (A) A local government shall issue a subsequent permit required for a development approved under this section if the application substantially complies with the development as it was approved pursuant to subdivision (c). Upon receipt of an application for a subsequent permit, the local government shall process the permit without unreasonable delay and shall not impose any procedure or requirement that is not imposed on projects that are not approved pursuant to this section. The local government shall consider the application for subsequent permits based upon the objective standards specified in any state or local laws that were in effect when the original development application was submitted, unless the development proponent agrees to a change in objective standards. Issuance of subsequent permits shall implement the approved development, and review of the permit application shall not inhibit, chill, or preclude the development. For purposes of this paragraph, a “subsequent permit” means a permit required subsequent to receiving approval under subdivision (c), and includes, but is not limited to, demolition, grading, encroachment, and building permits and final maps, if necessary.
(B) The amendments made to subparagraph (A) by the act that added this subparagraph shall also be retroactively applied to subsequent permit applications submitted prior to January 1, 2022.
(3) (A) If a public improvement is necessary to implement a development that is subject to the streamlined, ministerial approval pursuant to this section, including, but not limited to, a bicycle lane, sidewalk or walkway, public transit stop, driveway, street paving or overlay, a curb or gutter, a modified intersection, a street sign or street light, landscape or hardscape, an above-ground or underground utility connection, a water line, fire hydrant, storm or sanitary sewer connection, retaining wall, and any related work, and that public improvement is located on land owned by the local government, to the extent that the public improvement requires approval from the local government, the local government shall not exercise its discretion over any approval relating to the public improvement in a manner that would inhibit, chill, or preclude the development.
(B) If an application for a public improvement described in subparagraph (A) is submitted to a local government, the local government shall do all of the following:
(i) Consider the application based upon any objective standards specified in any state or local laws that were in effect when the original development application was submitted.
(ii) Conduct its review and approval in the same manner as it would evaluate the public improvement if required by a project that is not eligible to receive ministerial or streamlined approval pursuant to this section.
(C) If an application for a public improvement described in subparagraph (A) is submitted to a local government, the local government shall not do either of the following:
(i) Adopt or impose any requirement that applies to a project solely or partially on the basis that the project is eligible to receive ministerial or streamlined approval pursuant to this section.
(ii) Unreasonably delay in its consideration, review, or approval of the application.
(i) (1) This section shall not affect a development proponent’s ability to use any alternative streamlined by right permit processing adopted by a local government, including the provisions of subdivision (i) of Section 65583.2.
(2) This section shall not prevent a development from also qualifying as a housing development project entitled to the protections of Section 65589.5. This paragraph does not constitute a change in, but is declaratory of, existing law.
(j) The California Environmental Quality Act (Division 13 (commencing with Section 21000) of the Public Resources Code) does not apply to actions taken by a state agency, local government, or the San Francisco Bay Area Rapid Transit District to:
(1) Lease, convey, or encumber land owned by the local government or the San Francisco Bay Area Rapid Transit District or to facilitate the lease, conveyance, or encumbrance of land owned by the local government, or for the lease of land owned by the San Francisco Bay Area Rapid Transit District in association with an eligible TOD project, as defined pursuant to Section 29010.1 of the Public Utilities Code, nor to any decisions associated with that lease, or to provide financial assistance to a development that receives streamlined approval pursuant to this section that is to be used for housing for persons and families of very low, low, or moderate income, as defined in Section 50093 of the Health and Safety Code.
(2) Approve improvements located on land owned by the local government or the San Francisco Bay Area Rapid Transit District that are necessary to implement a development that receives streamlined approval pursuant to this section that is to be used for housing for persons and families of very low, low, or moderate income, as defined in Section 50093 of the Health and Safety Code.
(k) For purposes of this section, the following terms have the following meanings:
(1) “Affordable housing cost” has the same meaning as set forth in Section 50052.5 of the Health and Safety Code.
(2) (A) Subject to the qualification provided by subparagraph (B), “affordable rent” has the same meaning as set forth in Section 50053 of the Health and Safety Code.
(B) For a development for which an application pursuant to this section was submitted prior to January 1, 2019, that includes 500 units or more of housing, and that dedicates 50 percent of the total number of units, before calculating any density bonus, to housing affordable to households making at, or below, 80 percent of the area median income, affordable rent for at least 30 percent of these units shall be set at an affordable rent as defined in subparagraph (A) and “affordable rent” for the remainder of these units shall mean a rent that is consistent with the maximum rent levels for a housing development that receives an allocation of state or federal low-income housing tax credits from the California Tax Credit Allocation Committee.
(3) “Department” means the Department of Housing and Community Development.
(4) “Development proponent” means the developer who submits an application for streamlined approval pursuant to this section.
(5) “Completed entitlements” means a housing development that has received all the required land use approvals or entitlements necessary for the issuance of a building permit.
(6) “Locality” or “local government” means a city, including a charter city, a county, including a charter county, or a city and county, including a charter city and county.
(7) “Moderate income housing units” means housing units with an affordable housing cost or affordable rent for persons and families of moderate income, as that term is defined in Section 50093 of the Health and Safety Code.
(8) “Production report” means the information reported pursuant to subparagraph (H) of paragraph (2) of subdivision (a) of Section 65400.
(9) “State agency” includes every state office, officer, department, division, bureau, board, and commission, but does not include the California State University or the University of California.
(10) “Subsidized” means units that are price or rent restricted such that the units are affordable to households meeting the definitions of very low and lower income, as defined in Sections 50079.5 and 50105 of the Health and Safety Code.
(11) “Reporting period” means either of the following:
(A) The first half of the regional housing needs assessment cycle.
(B) The last half of the regional housing needs assessment cycle.
(12) “Urban uses” means any current or former residential, commercial, public institutional, transit or transportation passenger facility, or retail use, or any combination of those uses.
(l) The department may review, adopt, amend, and repeal guidelines to implement uniform standards or criteria that supplement or clarify the terms, references, or standards set forth in this section. Any guidelines or terms adopted pursuant to this subdivision shall not be subject to Chapter 3.5 (commencing with Section 11340) of Part 1 of Division 3 of Title 2 of the Government Code.
(m) The determination of whether an application for a development is subject to the streamlined ministerial approval process provided by subdivision (c) is not a “project” as defined in Section 21065 of the Public Resources Code.
(n) It is the policy of the state that this section be interpreted and implemented in a manner to afford the fullest possible weight to the interest of, and the approval and provision of, increased housing supply.
(o) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2026, and as of that date is repealed.

SEC. 100.

 Section 68645.2 of the Government Code is amended to read:

68645.2.
 (a) By June 30, 2024, every court shall offer online ability-to-pay determinations using the tool developed by the Judicial Council. The following shall apply to ability-to-pay determinations made pursuant to this article:
(1) The defendant has the burden of establishing the inability to pay. Courts shall establish criteria for the determination of an inability to pay, and, in doing so, shall consider certain factors including, at a minimum, all of the following:
(A) Receipt of any of the public benefits listed in subdivision (a) of Section 68632.
(B) A monthly income of 125 percent or less of the current poverty guidelines, as updated periodically in the Federal Register by the United States Department of Health and Human Services pursuant to Section 9902 of Title 42 of the United States Code.
(2) The court has discretion to make an order consistent with the defendant’s present and reasonably discernible future financial circumstances. Except as provided for in paragraph (4), the court is not required to make express findings as to the factors bearing on the determination or the amount it orders payable by the defendant.
(3) Based on any ability-to-pay determination, a court may do any of the following:
(A) Waive or reduce the sum of the total amount due for an infraction violation. Notwithstanding any other law, if the total amount due is reduced, the revenues collected shall be distributed on a pro rata basis.
(B) Extend the time for payment or provide for payment on an installment plan, including those amounts due after any reduction under subparagraph (A).
(C) Allow the defendant to complete community service in lieu of the total amount due. If a defendant qualifies for a reduction in the total amount due, the court may allow the defendant to complete the community service in lieu of the payment on the reduced amount.
(D) Suspend the total amount due in whole or in part.
(E) Offer an alternative disposition.
(4) The online tool shall recommend a reduction of 50 percent or more of the total amount due for all defendants who are in receipt of benefits described in subparagraph (A) of paragraph (1). The court shall make express findings if it deviates from the online tool recommendation by ordering a defendant to pay an amount greater than the recommendation pursuant to this paragraph.
(5) The online tool shall recommend a payment of no more than twenty-five dollars ($25) per month for a defendant who is eligible for a reduction pursuant to paragraph (3) and requests an installment plan.
(6) For purposes of this section, the “total amount due” is the sum of the base fine, penalty assessments, civil assessments, and fees, including mandatory fees, owed and unpaid by the defendant.
(7) As feasible, courts shall notify defendants of the result of the ability-to-pay determination within 30 days.
(8) A defendant is not required to submit bail or pay any fines or fees prior to an ability-to-pay determination.
(9) A court or county shall not charge an administrative fee to an individual for requesting an ability-to-pay determination or participating in an installment payment plan, on a nondelinquent or delinquent account, ordered pursuant to this chapter.
(10) A court or county may recover costs associated with the administration of all installment payment plans ordered under this chapter through a comprehensive collection program pursuant to subdivision (d) of Section 1463.007 of the Penal Code. Recovered costs shall not exceed thirty-five dollars ($35) per nondelinquent installment plan approved.
(b) If a court is using the online tool, paragraphs (1) to (3), inclusive, and paragraphs (6) to (10), inclusive, of subdivision (a) apply to all ability-to-pay determinations conducted through means other than the online tool, which includes paper submissions or in-person applications. When an ability-to-pay determination is made through means other than the online tool, the court shall follow the recommendations stated in paragraphs (4) and (5) of subdivision (a), but may deviate from the recommendation in paragraph (4) of subdivision (a), as provided therein.
(c) The online tool shall provide information in English, Spanish, and any other languages the Judicial Council chooses.
(d) This section does not preclude a court that has not yet adopted online ability-to-pay determinations from adopting procedures or local rules in accordance with this section, unless the Judicial Council adopts rules of court or forms for purposes of this section.

SEC. 101.

 Section 1418.22 of the Health and Safety Code is amended to read:

1418.22.
 (a) The Legislature finds and declares that it is the public policy of this state to ensure the health and safety of highly vulnerable persons residing in skilled nursing facilities during power outages that may result from a public safety power shutoff, an emergency, a natural disaster, or other cause.
(b) (1) A skilled nursing facility shall have an alternative source of power to protect resident health and safety for no fewer than 96 hours during any type of power outage.
(2) For purposes of this section, “alternative source of power” means a source of electricity that is not received through an electric utility but is generated or stored onsite, which may include, but is not limited to, emergency generators using fuel, large capacity batteries, and renewable electrical generation facilities.
(c) For purposes of this section, “resident health and safety” includes, but is not limited to, maintaining a safe temperature for residents, maintaining availability of life-saving equipment, and maintaining availability of oxygen-generating devices.
(d) A facility that uses a generator as its alternative source of power shall maintain sufficient fuel onsite to maintain generator operation for no less than 96 hours or make arrangements for fuel delivery for an emergency event. If fuel is to be delivered during an emergency event, the facility shall ensure that fuel will be available with no delays.
(e) A facility that uses batteries or a combination of batteries in tandem with a renewable electrical generation facility as its alternative source of power shall have sufficient storage or generation capacity to maintain operation for no fewer than 96 hours. A facility shall also make arrangements for delivery of a generator and fuel in the event power is not restored within 96 hours and the generation capacity of the renewable electrical generation facility is unable to provide sufficient power to comply with state requirements for long-term care facilities.
(f) A facility shall comply with the requirements of this section by January 1, 2024.

SEC. 102.

 Section 1568.23 of the Health and Safety Code is amended to read:

1568.23.
 (a) No person shall operate, establish, manage, conduct, or maintain a medical foster home for veterans in this state without a current valid license, as provided in this chapter.
(b) A license is not transferable. No license issued pursuant to this chapter shall have any property value for sale or exchange purposes, and no person, including any owner, agent, or broker, shall sell or exchange any license for any commercial purpose.
(c) A medical foster home for veterans shall not be licensed to operate a community care facility, as defined in Section 1502, a residential care facility for the elderly, as defined in Section 1569.2, a residential care facility for persons with chronic, life-threatening illnesses, as defined in Section 1568.01, or a child day care facility, as defined in Section 1596.750, on the same premises used as the residence of the medical foster home for veterans.
(d) This chapter applies only to community residential care facilities for veterans that have been approved by the United States Department of Veterans Affairs in accordance with Section 17.63 of Title 38 of the Code of Federal Regulations.
(e) Whether unrelated persons are living together, a medical foster home for veterans shall be considered a residential use of property for the purposes of this chapter. In addition, the veteran residents and licensee of the home shall be considered a family for the purposes of any law or zoning ordinance that relates to the residential use of property pursuant to this chapter.
(f) No conditional use permit, zoning variance, or other zoning clearance shall be required of a medical foster home for veterans that is not required of a family dwelling of the same type in the same zone.

SEC. 103.

 Section 1568.28 of the Health and Safety Code is amended to read:

1568.28.
 (a) (1) No unlicensed medical foster home for veterans, as defined in paragraph (3), shall operate in this state.
(2) Upon discovery of an unlicensed medical foster home for veterans, the department shall refer residents to the appropriate placement or adult protective services agency or the appropriate local or state long-term care ombudsperson, if either of the following conditions exist:
(A) There is an immediate threat to a veteran resident’s health and safety.
(B) The medical foster home for veterans will not cooperate with the department to apply for a license, meet licensing standards, and obtain a valid license.
(3) A medical foster home for veterans shall be deemed to be an “unlicensed medical foster home for veterans” and “maintained and operated to provide residential care” if it is unlicensed, not exempt from licensure, and any one of the following conditions is satisfied:
(A) The medical foster home for veterans is providing care and supervision, as defined by this chapter or the rules, regulations, and written directives adopted pursuant to this chapter.
(B) The medical foster home for veterans is held out as, or represented as, providing care and supervision, as defined by this chapter or the rules, regulations, and written directives adopted pursuant to this chapter.
(C) The medical foster home for veterans accepts or retains veteran residents who demonstrate the need for care and supervision, as defined by this chapter or the rules, regulations, and written directives adopted pursuant to this chapter.
(D) The home represents itself as a licensed medical foster home for veterans in California.
(b) In addition to the suspension, temporary suspension, or revocation of a license issued under this chapter, the department shall issue a civil penalty as follows:
(1) (A) Notwithstanding any other provision of this chapter, a person who violates Section 1568.23 shall be assessed an immediate civil penalty in the amount of one hundred dollars ($100) per resident for each day of the violation.
(B) The civil penalty authorized in subparagraph (A) shall be doubled if an unlicensed medical foster home for veterans is operated and the operator refuses to seek licensure or the operator seeks licensure, the licensure application is denied, and the operator continues to operate the unlicensed medical foster home for veterans unless other remedies available to the department, including criminal prosecution, are deemed more effective by the department.
(2) For a violation that the department determines resulted in the death of a veteran resident, the civil penalty shall be seven thousand five hundred dollars ($7,500).
(3) For a violation that the department determines constitutes physical abuse, as defined in Section 15610.63 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, to a veteran resident the civil penalty shall be two thousand five hundred dollars ($2,500).
(4) For a violation that the department determines resulted in serious bodily injury, as defined in Section 15610.67 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, to a veteran resident the civil penalty shall be two thousand five hundred dollars ($2,500).
(c) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, revenues received by the department from payment of civil penalties imposed on a licensed medical foster home for veterans pursuant to this section shall be deposited into the Technical Assistance Fund created pursuant to Section 1523.2 and may be expended by the department for the technical assistance, training, and education of licensees.
(d) (1) (A) A licensee shall have the right to submit a written request for a formal review to the department for a civil penalty assessed pursuant to this section within 15 business days of receipt of the notice of a civil penalty assessment. The licensee shall provide all available supporting documentation that was unavailable at the time of submitting the request for review within 30 business days after submitting the request for review. If the department requires additional information from the licensee, it shall request that information within 30 business days after receiving the request for review.
(B) The licensee shall provide this additional information within 30 business days of receiving the request from the department. If the deputy director determines that the civil penalty was not assessed, or the finding of the deficiency that resulted in the assessment of the civil penalty was not made, in accordance with applicable statutes or rules, regulations, and written directives adopted by the department, they may amend or dismiss the civil penalty or finding of deficiency. The licensee shall be notified in writing of the deputy director’s decision within 60 business days of the date when all necessary information has been provided to the department by the licensee.
(2) Upon exhausting the review process described in paragraph (1), a licensee may further appeal that decision to an administrative law judge. Proceedings shall be conducted in accordance with Chapter 5 (commencing with Section 11500) of Part 1 of Division 3 of Title 2 of the Government Code, and the department shall have all the powers granted by those provisions. In a proceeding conducted in accordance with this section, the standard of proof shall be by a preponderance of the evidence.
(3) If, in addition to an assessment of civil penalties, the department elects to file an administrative action to suspend or revoke the medical foster home for veterans license that includes violations relating to the assessment of the civil penalties, the department review of the pending appeal shall cease and the assessment of the civil penalties shall be heard as part of the administrative action process.
(4) Civil penalties shall be due and payable when administrative appeals have been exhausted. Unless payment arrangements have been made that are acceptable to the department, a civil penalty not paid within 30 days shall be subject to late fees, as specified by rules, regulations, and written directives adopted by the department.
(5) If a reviewer determines that a notice of deficiency or a civil penalty assessment was not made in accordance with applicable statutes, rules, regulations, and written directives, the reviewer may amend or dismiss the notice of deficiency or civil penalty assessment.

SEC. 104.

 Section 1568.271 of the Health and Safety Code is amended to read:

1568.271.
 (a) Upon receipt of a complaint, other than a complaint alleging a denial of a statutory right of access to a medical foster home for veterans, the department shall make a preliminary review and, unless the department determines that the complaint is willfully intended to harass a licensee or is without a reasonable basis, conduct an onsite inspection within 10 days after receiving the complaint, except where the visit would adversely affect a licensing investigation or the investigation of other agencies, including, but not limited to, a law enforcement agency. In either event, the complainant shall be promptly informed of the department’s proposed course of action.
(b) Within 10 business days of completing an investigation of a complaint under this section, the department shall notify the complainant in writing of the department’s determination as a result of the investigation.
(c) A licensee, or employee of the licensee, shall not discriminate or retaliate in any manner, including, but not limited to, eviction or threat of eviction against a person receiving services from the licensee or against an employee of the licensee on the basis, or for the reason that, the person, employee, or any other person initiated or participated in the filing of a complaint, grievance, or a request for inspection with the department pursuant to this section or initiated or participated in the filing of a complaint, grievance, or request for investigation with the appropriate local or state ombudsperson.
(d) This section shall not be construed to limit the authority of the department to inspect, evaluate, or investigate a complaint or incident, or initiate a disciplinary action, against a medical foster home for veterans or to take any action it may deem necessary for the health and safety of veteran residents placed with a medical foster home for veterans.
(e) If a local or state ombudsman receives a complaint relating to a licensed medical foster home for veterans, the local and, where applicable, the state ombudsperson shall send a written report of the complaint to the department.
(f) If the department receives a complaint relating to a licensed medical foster home for veterans, the department shall send a copy of the complaint and the complaint findings to the United States Department of Veterans Affairs.
(g) If the department receives a complaint relating to a licensed medical foster home for veterans outside the department’s jurisdiction, the department shall cross-report the complaint to the appropriate agency.

SEC. 105.

 Section 1568.295 of the Health and Safety Code is amended to read:

1568.295.
 (a) The department may prohibit a person from being a licensee or a licensee from employing, continuing the employment of, allowing in a licensed medical foster home for veterans, or allowing contact with a veteran resident of a licensed medical foster home for veterans by an employee, prospective employee, or person who is not a veteran resident who has done any of the following:
(1) Violated, aided, or permitted the violation by any other person of any provisions of this chapter or of any rules, regulations, or written directives promulgated under this chapter.
(2) Engaged in conduct that is inimical to the health, morals, welfare, or safety of either the people of this state or an individual in, or receiving services from, a medical foster home for veterans.
(3) Been denied an exemption to work or to be present in a medical foster home for veterans when that person has been convicted of a crime, as defined in Section 1522.
(4) Engaged in any other conduct that would constitute a basis for disciplining a licensee or a medical foster home for veterans.
(5) Engaged in acts of financial malfeasance concerning the operation of a medical foster home for veterans, including, but not limited to, improper use or embezzlement of veteran resident moneys or property, fraudulent appropriation for personal gain of medical foster home for veterans moneys or property, or willful or negligent failure to provide services.
(b) The excluded person and the licensee shall be given written notice of the basis of the department’s action and of the excluded person’s right to an appeal. The notice shall be served either by personal service or by registered mail. Within 15 days of the department serving the notice, the excluded person may file with the department a written appeal of the exclusion order. If the excluded person fails to file a written appeal within the prescribed time, the department’s action shall be final.
(c) (1) The department may require the immediate exclusion of an employee, prospective employee, or person who is not a veteran resident from a medical foster home for veterans pending a final decision of the matter when, in the opinion of the director, the action is necessary to protect veteran residents from physical or mental abuse, abandonment, or any other substantial threat to their health or safety.
(2) If the department requires the immediate exclusion of an employee, prospective employee, or person who is not a veteran resident from a medical foster home for veterans, the department shall serve an order of immediate exclusion upon the excluded person that notifies the excluded person of the basis of the department’s action and of the excluded person’s right to a hearing.
(3) The department shall conduct an unannounced visit to a medical foster home for veterans within 30 days after the department serves an order of immediate exclusion from the medical foster home for veterans upon a person subject to immediate removal or exclusion from the medical foster home for veterans in order to ensure that the excluded person is not within the medical foster home for veterans, unless the department has previously verified that the excluded person is not within the medical foster home for veterans.
(4) Within 15 days after the department serves an order of immediate exclusion, the excluded person may file a written appeal of the exclusion with the department. The department’s action shall be final if the excluded person does not appeal the exclusion within the prescribed time. The department shall do both of the following upon receipt of a written appeal:
(A) Serve an accusation upon the excluded person within 30 days of receipt of the appeal.
(B) Conduct a hearing on the accusation within 60 days of receipt of a notice of defense from the excluded person, pursuant to Section 11506 of the Government Code.
(5) An order of immediate exclusion from a medical foster home for veterans shall remain in effect until the hearing is completed and the department has made a final determination on the merits.
(d) An excluded person who files a written appeal with the department pursuant to this section shall, as part of the written request, provide their current mailing address. The excluded person shall subsequently notify the department in writing of any change in mailing address until the hearing process has been completed or terminated.
(e) Hearings held pursuant to this section shall be conducted in accordance with Chapter 5 (commencing with Section 11500) of Part 1 of Division 3 of Title 2 of the Government Code. The standard of proof shall be the preponderance of the evidence, and the burden of proof shall be on the department.
(f) The department may do any of the following:
(1) Institute or continue a disciplinary proceeding against a licensee or an employee, prospective employee, or person who is not a veteran resident upon any ground provided by this section.
(2)  Enter an order prohibiting a person from being a licensee or prohibiting an excluded person’s employment or presence in the medical foster home for veterans.
(3) Take disciplinary action against an excluded person, notwithstanding any resignation, withdrawal of employment application, or change of duties by the excluded person or any discharge, failure to hire, or reassignment of the excluded person by the licensee.
(g) A licensee’s failure to comply with the department’s exclusion order after being notified of the order shall be grounds for disciplining the licensee pursuant to Section 1568.25.
(h) (1) (A) In a case where an excluded person appealed the exclusion order and there is a decision and order of the department upholding the exclusion order, or where the department informed an excluded person of their right to appeal the exclusion order and the excluded person does not appeal the exclusion order, the excluded person shall be prohibited for the remainder of the excluded person’s life, unless otherwise ordered by the department, from all of the following:
(i) Working or volunteering in any facility or organization licensed by the department if there is contact with clients, prospective clients, or confidential client information.
(ii) Licensure to operate a facility or organization licensed by the department.
(iii) Certification or approval as foster parent or resource family.
(iv) Registration as a Registered Home Care Aide or TrustLine Registrant or remaining registered on the Home Care Aide Registry.
(v) Serving as a member of the board of directors or governing body of, serving as an executive director or officer for, or being a licensee of a Home Care Organization or facility.
(vi) As a licensee, from employing, continuing the employment of, or allowing an individual to volunteer at a Home Care Organization or facility if there is contact with clients, prospective clients, or confidential client information.
(B) Pursuant to Section 11522 of the Government Code, an excluded person may petition the department for reinstatement one year after the effective date of the decision and order of the department upholding the exclusion order or after one year has elapsed from the date of the notification of the exclusion order if no appeal was made. The department shall provide the excluded person with a copy of Section 11522 of the Government Code with the appeal decision and order or with the exclusion order.

SEC. 106.

 Section 1596.955 of the Health and Safety Code is amended to read:

1596.955.
 (a) The department shall develop guidelines and procedures to permit licensed child daycare centers serving preschool age children to create a special program component for children between 18 months to three years of age. This optional toddler program shall be subject to the following basic conditions:
(1) An amended application is submitted to, and approved by, the department.
(2) Parents give permission for the placement of their children in the toddler program.
(3) A ratio of six children to each teacher is maintained for all children in attendance at the toddler program. An aide who is participating in on-the-job training may be substituted for a teacher when directly supervised by a fully qualified teacher.
(4) The maximum group size, with two teachers, or one fully qualified teacher and one aide, does not exceed 12 toddlers.
(5) The toddler program is conducted in areas separate from those used by older or younger children. Plans to alternate use of outdoor play space may be approved to achieve separation.
(6) All other regulations pertaining to preschool age children are complied with.
(b) The toddler program shall be considered an extension of the center license, without the need for a separate license.
(c) The department may extend the period for participation in the toddler program for a maximum of three months for a child in extenuating circumstances, on the request of a daycare center, if the center can establish that it is unable to find an alternative placement.
(d) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2024, and as of that date is repealed.

SEC. 107.

 Section 1748 of the Health and Safety Code is amended to read:

1748.
 (a) Except as otherwise provided in subdivision (b) or (d) of Section 1747, no person, political subdivision of the state, or other governmental agency shall establish, conduct, maintain, or represent itself as a hospice agency unless a license has been issued under this chapter. Multiple locations need not obtain a separate license. Multiple locations shall be listed on the license of the parent agency and each shall pay a licensing fee in the amount prescribed by subdivision (a) of Section 1750.
(b) Any person, political subdivision of the state, or other governmental agency desiring a license to establish a hospice agency shall file with the department a verified application on forms prescribed and furnished by the department that contain any information as may be required by the department for the proper administration and enforcement of this chapter.
(c) Any hospice agency that is not required to obtain a license under this chapter shall disclose in all advertisements and information provided to the public all of the following information:
(1) It is not required to be licensed and is not regulated by the department.
(2) Any complaint against the hospice agency should be directed to the local district attorney and the department.
(3) Any complaint against personnel licensed by a board or committee within the Department of Consumer Affairs and employed by the hospice agency should be directed to the respective board or committee. Any complaint against a certified home health aide or certified nurse assistant shall be directed to the department.
The address and telephone number of any state agency, board, or committee which is responsible for addressing complaints shall be provided by the hospice agency, upon request, to any patient of the hospice agency.
(d) A license shall not be transferable.
(e) The department shall not approve a change of ownership of a licensed hospice agency within five years of the date a license was initially issued to the licensee. Only the person, political subdivision of the state, or other governmental agency issued a license for the purposes of operating a hospice agency may use that license during the five-year period.
(f) Notwithstanding subdivision (e), the department may make an exception for extenuating circumstances and approve a change of ownership within the five-year period if the hospice agency demonstrates and provides evidence to the department of either of the following:
(1) The need to ensure continuity of care for existing patients of the hospice agency.
(2) Both a financial hardship and an unmet need of hospice services in the geographic area the hospice agency would serve.

SEC. 108.

 Section 11361.9 of the Health and Safety Code is amended to read:

11361.9.
 (a) On or before July 1, 2019, the Department of Justice shall review the records in the state summary criminal history information database and shall identify past convictions that are potentially eligible for recall or dismissal of sentence, dismissal and sealing, or redesignation pursuant to Section 11361.8. The department shall notify the prosecution of all cases in their jurisdiction that are eligible for recall or dismissal of sentence, dismissal and sealing, or redesignation.
(b) The prosecution shall have until July 1, 2020, to review all cases and determine whether to challenge the recall or dismissal of sentence, dismissal and sealing, or redesignation.
(c) (1) The prosecution may challenge the resentencing of a person who is still serving a sentence pursuant to this section when the person does not meet the criteria established in Section 11361.8.
(2) The prosecution may challenge the dismissal and sealing or redesignation of a person pursuant to this section who has completed their sentence for a conviction when the person does not meet the criteria established in Section 11361.8.
(3) On or before July 1, 2020, the prosecution shall inform the court and the public defender’s office in their county when they are challenging a particular recall or dismissal of sentence, dismissal and sealing, or redesignation. The prosecution shall inform the court when they are not challenging a particular recall or dismissal of sentence, dismissal and sealing, or redesignation.
(4) The public defender’s office, upon receiving notice from the prosecution pursuant to paragraph (3), shall make a reasonable effort to notify the person whose resentencing or dismissal is being challenged.
(d) (1) If the prosecution did not challenge the recall or dismissal of sentence, dismissal and sealing, or redesignation of a conviction on or before July 1, 2020, the conviction shall be deemed unchallenged, recalled, dismissed, and redesignated, as applicable, and the court shall issue an order recalling or dismissing the sentence, dismissing and sealing, or redesignating the conviction in each case pursuant to Section 11361.8 no later than March 1, 2023.
(2) On or before March 1, 2023, the court shall update its records in accordance with this section and shall report all convictions that have been recalled, dismissed, redesignated, or sealed to the Department of Justice for adjustment of the state summary criminal history information database.
(3) On or before July 1, 2023, the Department of Justice shall ensure all of the records in the state summary criminal history information database that have been recalled, dismissed, sealed, or redesignated pursuant to this section have been updated, and shall ensure that inaccurate state summary criminal history is not disseminated. For those individuals whose state summary criminal history information was disseminated pursuant to Section 11105 of the Penal Code in the 30 days prior to an update based on this section, and the requesting entity is still entitled to receive the state summary criminal history information, the Department of Justice shall provide a subsequent notice to the entity.
(e) The Department of Justice shall post general information on its internet website about the recall or dismissal of sentences, dismissal and sealing, or redesignation authorized in this section. The department shall conduct an awareness campaign about the recall or dismissal of sentences, dismissal and sealing, or redesignation authorized in this section so that individuals who may be impacted by this process are informed of the process, pursuant to Article 5 (commencing with Section 11120) of Chapter 1 of Title 1 of Part 4 of the Penal Code, to request their criminal history information to verify the updates or how to contact the courts, prosecution, or public defenders’ offices to assist in verifying the updates. If an individual requests their criminal history information to verify updates to their criminal history made pursuant to this section, the department may provide a one-time fee waiver of its fees under Section 11123 of the Penal Code for processing and responding to the request.
(f) A conviction, arrest, or other proceeding that has been ordered sealed pursuant to Section 11361.8 is deemed never to have occurred, and the person may reply accordingly to any inquiry about the events.
(g) Courts that have previously eliminated court records covered by this article pursuant to Sections 68152 and 68153 of the Government Code are compliant with the provisions of subdivision (c) of Section 11361.5. Courts that have previously eliminated court records covered by this article pursuant to Sections 68152 and 68153 of the Government Code shall report to the Department of Justice, in a manner prescribed by the Department of Justice, that the relevant records have been destroyed and that the records are otherwise reduced, dismissed, or sealed in accordance with this section.
(h) Beginning March 1, 2023, and until June 1, 2024, the Department of Justice, in consultation with the Judicial Council, shall submit quarterly joint progress reports to the Legislature that include, but are not limited to, all of the following information:
(1) Total number of cases recalled, dismissed, resentenced, sealed, and redesignated in each county and the status of the department’s update to the state summary criminal history database.
(2) Status of cases challenged by the prosecution and all relevant statistical information regarding the disposition of the challenged cases in each county.
(3) The number of past convictions in the state summary criminal history database that are potentially eligible for recall or dismissal of sentence, dismissal and sealing, or redesignation pursuant to Section 11361.8.
(4) The status of the department’s public awareness campaign to provide notification to impacted individuals.
(i) It is the intent of the Legislature that persons who are currently serving a sentence or who proactively petition for a recall or dismissal of sentence, dismissal and sealing, or redesignation pursuant to Section 11361.8 be prioritized for review.

SEC. 109.

 Section 18941.17 of the Health and Safety Code is amended to read:

18941.17.
 (a) As part of each triennial California Building Standards Code rulemaking cycle that commences on or after January 1, 2023, the commission shall convene a workshop or other collaborative process on electric vehicle charging infrastructure standards.
(b) The workshop or other collaborative process shall include the commission, the Department of Housing and Community Development, the Division of the State Architect, the State Air Resources Board, the State Energy Resources Conservation and Development Commission, and other relevant stakeholders.
(c) The workshop or other collaborative process shall consider, among other things, projected demand for electric vehicle charging infrastructure based on the state’s goals.
(d) As part of the State Energy Resources Conservation and Development Commission’s participation in the workshop or other collaborative process, the State Energy Resources Conservation and Development Commission shall incorporate the most recent update to the statewide assessment of electric vehicle charging infrastructure prepared pursuant to Section 25229 of the Public Resources Code, any relevant electric load forecasts, and the statewide transportation electrification goals.
(e) If the State Energy Resources Conservation and Development Commission recommends any electric vehicle charging infrastructure standard as part of the workshop or other collaborative process, the recommended standard shall be cost effective when taken in its entirety and when amortized over the economic life of the infrastructure compared with historic practice. When determining cost effectiveness, the State Energy Resources Conservation and Development Commission shall consider other relevant factors, as required by Sections 18930 and 18935, including, but not limited to, the impact on housing costs, the total statewide costs and benefits of the standard over its lifetime, the economic impact on California businesses, and any alternative approaches and their associated costs.

SEC. 110.

 Section 25173.7 of the Health and Safety Code, as amended by Section 43 of Chapter 258 of the Statutes of 2022, is amended to read:

25173.7.
 (a) It is the intent of the Legislature that funds deposited in the Toxic Substances Control Account shall be appropriated in the annual Budget Act each year in the following manner:
(1) An amount sufficient to pay for the estimated costs identified by the department in the report submitted pursuant to subdivision (c) to the Site Remediation Account in the General Fund for direct site remediation costs, as defined in Section 78260.
(2) Not less than ten million seven hundred fifty thousand dollars ($10,750,000) to the Site Remediation Account in the General Fund for direct site remediation costs, as defined in Section 78260.
(3) Not less than four hundred thousand dollars ($400,000) to the Expedited Site Remediation Trust Fund in the State Treasury, created pursuant to subdivision (a) of former Section 25399.1, for purposes of paying the orphan share of response costs pursuant to Chapter 6.86 (commencing with Section 25396).
(4) An amount that does not exceed the costs incurred by the State Board of Equalization, a private party, or other public agency, to administer and collect the fees imposed pursuant to Article 9.1 (commencing with Section 25205.1) and deposited into the Toxic Substances Control Account, for the purpose of reimbursing the State Board of Equalization, public agency, or private party, for those costs.
(5) Not less than one million fifty thousand dollars ($1,050,000) for purposes of establishing and implementing a program pursuant to Sections 25244.15.1, 25244.17.1, 25244.17.2, and 25244.22 to encourage hazardous waste generators to implement pollution prevention measures.
(6) Funds not appropriated as specified in paragraphs (1) to (5), inclusive, may be appropriated for any of the purposes specified in subdivision (b) of Section 25173.6, except the purposes specified in subparagraph (C) of paragraph (1) of, and paragraph (13) of, subdivision (b) of Section 25173.6.
(b) (1) The amounts specified in paragraphs (2) to (5), inclusive, of subdivision (a) shall be adjusted annually to reflect increases or decreases in the cost of living during the prior fiscal year, as measured by the Consumer Price Index issued by the Department of Industrial Relations or by a successor agency.
(2) Notwithstanding paragraph (1), the department may, upon the approval of the Legislature in a statute or the annual Budget Act, take either of the following actions:
(A) Reduce the amounts specified in paragraphs (1) to (5), inclusive, of subdivision (a), if there are insufficient funds in the Toxic Substances Control Account.
(B) Suspend the transfer specified in paragraph (3) of subdivision (a), if there are no orphan shares pending payment pursuant to Chapter 6.86 (commencing with Section 25396).
(c) The department shall submit to the Legislature with the Governor’s Budget each year a report that includes an estimate of the funding needed to fund direct site remediation costs at state orphan sites and meet the state’s obligation to pay for direct site remediation costs at federal Superfund orphan sites pursuant to paragraph (3) of subsection (c) of Section 104 of the federal Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act of 1980, as amended (42 U.S.C. Sec. 9604(c)(3)). The estimate shall include projected costs for the current budget year and the two following budget years, including, but not limited to, the state’s 10-percent funding obligation for remedial actions at federal Superfund orphan sites, the state’s 100-percent funding obligation for ongoing operation and maintenance at federal Superfund orphan sites, and ongoing operation and maintenance costs at state orphan sites.

SEC. 111.

 Section 25205.2 of the Health and Safety Code is amended to read:

25205.2.
 (a) (1) For purposes of subdivisions (c) and (d), a facility or unit is “small” if 0.5 tons (1,000 pounds) or less of hazardous waste remain after closure, “medium” if more than 0.5 tons (1,000 pounds), but less than 1,000 tons, of hazardous waste remain after closure, and “large” if 1,000 or more tons of hazardous waste remain after closure.
(2) Except as provided in subdivisions (h) and (k), and in accordance with Section 43152.6 of the Revenue and Taxation Code, the operator of a facility shall pay a facility fee for each reporting period, or any portion of a reporting period, to the California Department of Tax and Fee Administration based on the size and type of the facility, as specified in this section. The fee rate shall be the rate established for the fiscal year in which the payment is due. On or before October 1 of each calendar year, the department shall notify the California Department of Tax and Fee Administration of all known facility operators by facility type and size. The department shall also notify the California Department of Tax and Fee Administration of any operator who is issued a permit or grant of interim status within 30 days from the date that a permit or grant of interim status is issued to the operator.
(3) For the 2022–23 fiscal year, the fee rates established in this section shall apply. Commencing July 1, 2023, the fee rates established pursuant to Section 25205.2.1 shall apply.
(b) (1) The base rate for the fee imposed by this section is ninety-four thousand nine hundred ten dollars ($94,910).
(2) Except as provided in subdivision (c), in computing the facility fees, all of the following shall apply:
(A) The fee to be paid by a ministorage facility shall equal 25 percent of the base facility rate.
(B) The fee to be paid by a small storage facility shall equal the base facility rate.
(C) The fee to be paid by a large storage facility shall equal twice the base facility rate.
(D) The fee to be paid by a minitreatment facility shall equal 50 percent of the base facility rate.
(E) The fee to be paid by a small treatment facility shall equal twice the base facility rate.
(F) The fee to be paid by a large onsite treatment facility shall equal three times the base facility rate.
(G) The fee to be paid by a large offsite treatment facility shall be three times the base facility rate.
(H) The fee to be paid by a disposal facility shall equal 10 times the base facility rate.
(c) The fee to be paid by a facility with a postclosure permit during the first five years of the postclosure period shall be:
(1) Twenty-six thousand nine hundred eighty dollars ($26,980) annually for a small facility.
(2) Fifty-three thousand nine hundred sixty dollars ($53,960) annually for a medium facility.
(3) Eighty thousand nine hundred forty dollars ($80,940) annually for a large facility.
(d) The fee to be paid by a facility with a postclosure permit after the first five years of the postclosure care period shall be:
(1) Fourteen thousand three hundred seventy-five dollars ($14,375) annually for a small facility.
(2) Twenty-eight thousand seven hundred fifty dollars ($28,750) annually for a medium facility.
(3) Forty-eight thousand five hundred fifty dollars ($48,550) annually for a large facility.
(e) If a facility falls into more than one category listed in either subdivision (b) or (d), or any combination of categories, or if multiple operations under a single hazardous waste facilities permit or grant of interim status fall into more than one category listed in subdivision (b) or (d), or any combination of categories, the facility operator shall pay only the rate for the facility category that is the highest rate.
(f) Notwithstanding subdivision (b), the fee for a facility that has been issued a standardized permit shall be as follows:
(1) The fee to be paid for a facility that has been issued a Series A standardized permit shall be fifty-five thousand two hundred eighty dollars ($55,280).
(2) The fee to be paid for a facility that has been issued a Series B standardized permit shall be twenty-five thousand nine hundred ten dollars ($25,910).
(3) Except as specified in paragraph (4), the fee to be paid for a facility that has been issued a Series C standardized permit shall be twenty-one thousand seven hundred sixty dollars ($21,760).
(4) The fee for a facility that has been issued a Series C standardized permit is ten thousand eight hundred eighty dollars ($10,880) if the facility meets all of the following conditions:
(A) The facility treats not more than 1,500 gallons of liquid hazardous waste and not more than 3,000 pounds of solid hazardous waste in any calendar month.
(B) The total facility storage capacity does not exceed 15,000 gallons of liquid hazardous waste and 30,000 pounds of solid hazardous waste.
(C) If the facility both treats and stores hazardous waste, the facility does not exceed the volume limitations specified in subparagraphs (A) and (B) for each individual activity.
(g) The California Department of Tax and Fee Administration shall deposit all fees collected pursuant to this section into the Hazardous Waste Facilities Account in the Hazardous Waste Control Account. The fees so deposited may be expended by the department, upon appropriation by the Legislature, for the purposes specified in Section 25174.01.
(h) Notwithstanding subdivision (a), a person who is issued a variance by the department from the requirement of obtaining a hazardous waste facilities permit or grant of interim status is not subject to the fee, for any reporting period following the reporting period in which the variance was granted by the department.
(i) Operators subject to facility fee liability pursuant to this section shall pay the following amounts:
(1) The operator shall pay the applicable facility fee for each reporting period in which the facility actually engaged in the treatment, storage, or disposal of hazardous waste.
(2) The operator shall pay the applicable facility fee for one additional reporting period immediately following the final reporting period in which the facility actually engaged in that treatment or storage. The facility’s size for that additional reporting period shall be deemed to be the largest size at which the facility has ever been subject to the fee. If the department previously approved a unit or portion of the facility for a variance, closure, or permit-by-rule, the facility’s size for that reporting period shall be deemed to be its largest size since the department granted the approval.
(3) The operator of a disposal facility shall pay twice the applicable facility fee for one additional reporting period immediately following the final reporting period in which the facility actually engaged in disposal of hazardous waste.
(4) A facility shall not be deemed to have stopped treating, storing, or disposing of hazardous waste unless it has actually ceased that activity and has notified the department of its intent to close.
(j) (1) Except as provided in Section 25404.5, the owner or operator of a facility or transportable treatment unit operating pursuant to a permit-by-rule shall pay a fee to the California Department of Tax and Fee Administration per facility or transportable treatment unit for each reporting period, or portion of a reporting period. The fee for the 2022–23 fiscal year reporting period shall be four thousand six hundred dollars ($4,600). The department shall notify the California Department of Tax and Fee Administration of all known owners or operators operating pursuant to a permit-by-rule who are not exempted from this fee pursuant to Section 25404.5. The department shall also notify the California Department of Tax and Fee Administration of any owner or operator authorized to operate pursuant to a permit-by-rule, who is not exempted from this fee pursuant to Section 25404.5, within 60 days after the owner or operator is authorized.
(2) Except as provided in Section 25404.5, a generator operating under a grant of conditional authorization pursuant to Section 25200.3 shall pay a fee to the California Department of Tax and Fee Administration per facility for each reporting period, or portion of a reporting period, unless the generator is subject to a fee under a permit-by-rule. The fee for the 2022–23 fiscal year reporting period shall be four thousand six hundred dollars ($4,600). The department shall notify the California Department of Tax and Fee Administration of all known generators operating pursuant to a grant of conditional authorization under Section 25200.3 who are not exempted from this fee pursuant to Section 25404.5. The department shall also notify the California Department of Tax and Fee Administration of any generator authorized to operate under a grant of conditional authorization, who is not exempted from this fee pursuant to Section 25404.5, within 60 days of the receipt of notification.
(3) Except as provided in Section 25404.5, the fee for a generator performing treatment conditionally exempted pursuant to Section 25144.6 or subdivision (a) or (c) of Section 25201.5 for the 2022–23 fiscal year reporting period shall be one hundred eighty dollars ($180) paid to the California Department of Tax and Fee Administration per facility for each reporting period, unless that generator is subject to a fee under a permit-by-rule or a conditional authorization pursuant to Section 25200.3. The department shall notify the California Department of Tax and Fee Administration of all known facilities performing treatment conditionally exempted by Section 25144.6 or subdivision (a) or (c) of Section 25201.5 who are not exempted from this fee pursuant to Section 25404.5. The department shall also notify the California Department of Tax and Fee Administration of any generator who notifies the department that the generator is conducting a conditionally exempt treatment operation, and who is not exempted from this fee pursuant to Section 25404.5, within 60 days of the receipt of the notification.
(k) A treatment facility is not subject to the facility fee established pursuant to this section, if the facility engages in treatment exclusively to accomplish a removal or remedial action or a corrective action in accordance with an order issued by the United States Environmental Protection Agency pursuant to the federal act or in accordance with an order issued by the department pursuant to Section 25187, or if the removal or remedial action is carried out pursuant to a removal action work plan or a remedial action plan prepared pursuant to Section Article 12 (commencing with Section 79195) of Chapter 5 of Part 2 of Division 45 and is authorized to operate pursuant to Section Article 14 (commencing with Section 79290) of Chapter 5 of Part 2 of Division 45, if the facility was put in operation solely for purposes of complying with that order. The department shall instead assess a fee for that facility for the actual time spent by the department for the inspection and oversight of that facility. The department shall base the fee on the department’s work standards and shall assess the fee on an hourly basis.
(l) The fee imposed pursuant to this section shall be paid in accordance with Part 22 (commencing with Section 43001) of Division 2 of the Revenue and Taxation Code.
(m) This section shall become operative on July 1, 2022, and shall apply to the annual facility fees due for the 2022–23 fiscal year, and each fiscal year thereafter.

SEC. 112.

 Section 25214.8.11.2 of the Health and Safety Code is amended to read:

25214.8.11.2.
 (a) (1) (A) On or before September 30, 2022, and on or before September 30 of each year thereafter until September 30, 2028, each manufacturer shall, in accordance with this section, individually, or collectively with a group of manufacturers, do both of the following:
(i) Pay to the department an aggregate total, calculated in accordance with paragraph (2), and not to exceed four hundred thousand dollars ($400,000), to cover the actual and reasonable regulatory costs incurred by the department to administer, implement, and enforce this act for the fiscal year in which the payment is made.
(ii) Pay to the qualified third party the amount required pursuant to the annual payment schedule outlined in paragraph (1) of subdivision (e) and provide to the department written notice of each payment.
(B) On or before September 30, 2022, each manufacturer shall, in accordance with this section, individually, or collectively with a group of manufacturers, pay to the department an amount equal to the department’s actual and reasonable regulatory costs incurred to administer, implement, and enforce this act from January 1, 2022, to June 30, 2022, inclusive.
(C) If September 30 falls on a Saturday or Sunday, a payment required pursuant to subparagraphs (A) and (B) shall be due on the following Monday.
(D) A late payment pursuant to clause (i) of subparagraph (A) or subparagraph (B) shall be subject to interest beginning October 1 at a rate of 10 percent per annum pursuant to subdivision (a) of Section 79655.
(2) The total aggregate amount required to be paid to the department pursuant to clause (i) of subparagraph (A) of paragraph (1) shall be based on the sum of both of the following, less the amount of any fees paid by a manufacturer, or group of manufacturers, for the prior fiscal year that exceeded the department’s actual and reasonable regulatory costs to administer, implement, and enforce this act for that prior fiscal year:
(A) An amount that conforms to the total amount of moneys appropriated by the Legislature for expenditure that fiscal year from the fund, which shall not exceed the department’s actual and reasonable regulatory costs to administer, implement, and enforce this act for that fiscal year.
(B) An amount necessary to ensure a reasonable reserve in the fund that fiscal year for contingencies, including to ensure that funded programs will not be adversely affected by additional baseline expenditure adjustments that may occur in that fiscal year, as determined by the Department of Finance.
(3) (A) The department shall deposit all moneys paid by a manufacturer, or group of manufacturers, to the department pursuant to clause (i) of subparagraph (A) of paragraph (1) and subparagraph (B) of paragraph (1) into the Mercury Thermostat Collection Program Fund, which is hereby established.
(B) Upon appropriation by the Legislature, moneys in the Mercury Thermostat Collection Program Fund shall be used only for the following purposes:
(i) The department’s actual and reasonable regulatory costs in administering, implementing, and enforcing this act.
(ii) Reimbursement of any loans made to the Mercury Thermostat Collection Program Fund or repayment of any expenditures made from any other fund to finance the department’s actual and reasonable regulatory costs incurred to administer, implement, and enforce this act from January 1, 2022, to June 30, 2022, inclusive.
(iii) The actual and reasonable regulatory costs incurred by any other agency assisting the department in administering, implementing, and enforcing this act.
(C) Notwithstanding any other law, moneys in the Mercury Thermostat Collection Program Fund shall not be loaned to, or borrowed by, any other special fund or the General Fund.
(D) Moneys in the Mercury Thermostat Collection Program Fund shall not be expended for any purpose not enumerated in this act.
(b) (1) A manufacturer may individually remit a payment required pursuant to subparagraph (A) or (B) of paragraph (1) of subdivision (a), or a group of manufacturers may remit a payment on behalf of a group of manufacturers. Manufacturers shall apportion a payment or payments required pursuant to subparagraphs (A) and (B) of paragraph (1) of subdivision (a) among themselves in a fair and reasonable manner.
(2) If a payment required pursuant to subparagraph (A) or (B) of paragraph (1) of subdivision (a) is made on behalf of a group of manufacturers, the names of the manufacturers shall be included with the payment and in the written notice to the department required pursuant to clause (ii) of subparagraph (A) of paragraph (1) of subdivision (a) so the department can determine each manufacturer’s compliance with this act. If a manufacturer that is part of a group of manufacturers making a payment required pursuant to subparagraph (A) or (B) of paragraph (1) of subdivision (a) fails to make a payment, the group of manufacturers shall provide to the department a written notice of the nonpaying manufacturer’s identity and the apportioned payment amount for which the nonpaying manufacturer is responsible.
(c) If a manufacturer fails to make a payment pursuant to subparagraph (A) or (B) of paragraph (1) of subdivision (a) in accordance with this section, or pursuant to subdivision (f), the manufacturer’s thermostats shall be subject to a sales ban pursuant to subdivision (b) of Section 25214.8.12.
(d) (1) The Legislature intends that, by timely making all payments required pursuant to subparagraphs (A) and (B) of paragraph (1) of subdivision (a) and all payments required pursuant to subdivision (f), a manufacturer shall be deemed to have satisfied, and will have discharged or be released from, any liability, obligation, or violation established or alleged pursuant to this article, including the regulations adopted by the department pursuant to former Section 25214.8.17, as it existed before January 1, 2022.
(2) If a manufacturer timely makes all payments required pursuant to subparagraphs (A) and (B) of paragraph (1) of subdivision (a) and all payments required pursuant to subdivision (f), any consent order, summary of violation or violations, or other instrument or document, including, but not limited to, the February 10, 2016, Consent Order entered into between the department and 25 mercury-added thermostat manufacturers pursuant to Section 25187 and former Section 25214.8.17, establishing or alleging liability, obligations, or violations of that manufacturer pursuant to this article, including the regulations adopted by the department pursuant to former Section 25214.8.17, as it existed before January 1, 2022, shall be deemed stayed prior to the expiration of this act and deemed satisfied, discharged, released, or terminated upon the expiration of this act.
(e) (1) A manufacturer, or group of manufacturers, shall do all of the following:
(A) Provide to the qualified third party two million dollars ($2,000,000) in the first program year to effectively and efficiently develop and implement the education and outreach campaign required pursuant to subdivisions (c) to (f), inclusive, of Section 25214.8.11.5.
(B) Provide to the qualified third party one million two hundred thousand dollars ($1,200,000) annually in each of the subsequent five program years to carry out the education and outreach campaign required pursuant to subdivisions (c) to (f), inclusive, of Section 25214.8.11.5.
(C) Provide to the qualified third party one million one hundred thousand dollars ($1,100,000) in the seventh program year to carry out the education and outreach campaign required pursuant to subdivisions (c) to (f), inclusive, of Section 25214.8.11.5.
(D) Provide to the qualified third party an amount equal to the annual costs estimated by the qualified third party to develop and implement the program pursuant to this act.
(2) Any funds provided to the qualified third party pursuant to paragraph (1) that are not expended by the qualified third party in the program year in which the funds were received may be used by the qualified third party the following program year for the education and outreach campaign required pursuant to subdivisions (c) to (f), inclusive, of Section 25214.8.11.5.
(f) A manufacturer, or group of manufacturers, on or before January 1, 2023, and on or before January 1 of each year thereafter until January 1, 2029, shall provide to the qualified third party an amount equal to the actual costs incurred by the qualified third party that exceed the amount provided to the qualified third party pursuant to subparagraph (D) of paragraph (1) of subdivision (e).

SEC. 113.

 Section 25214.8.11.6 of the Health and Safety Code is amended to read:

25214.8.11.6.
 (a) On or before June 1, 2022, the qualified third party shall provide to the department for review and approval the plan developed by the qualified third party to carry out the program elements identified in Sections 25214.8.11.5 and 25214.8.13.
(b) (1) Within 30 days of receipt of the qualified third party’s plan pursuant to subdivision (a), the department shall review the plan, determine whether the plan is complete, and notify the qualified third party, in writing, of the department’s determination. For the purpose of the department’s determination, the qualified third party’s plan shall be deemed complete if the plan addresses each program element identified in Sections 25214.8.11.5 and 25214.8.13.
(2) If the department determines that the plan is incomplete, the department shall identify, in writing, what additional information or modifications must be submitted to the department by the qualified third party to complete the plan. The qualified third party shall submit to the department a revised plan within 30 days of the date of the department’s written notification. The department shall review the revised plan within 30 days of receipt of the plan.
(c) (1) If the department determines that the plan submitted pursuant to subdivision (a) or revised plan submitted pursuant to paragraph (2) of subdivision (b) is complete, the department shall have 30 days from the date of its determination to review and approve the plan or revised plan.
(2) The department shall review the plan or revised plan for compliance with this act and shall do any of the following:
(A) Approve the plan or revised plan, in which case the department shall provide written notification to the qualified third party of the department’s approval of the plan.
(B) Conditionally approve the plan or revised plan, in which case the department shall provide written notification to the qualified third party of the department’s conditional approval of the plan. The department shall include in its written notification the basis for its conditional approval and describe, in detail, the requirements with which the qualified third party needs to comply in order to proceed to implement the plan in compliance with this act.
(C) (i) Disapprove the plan or revised plan, in which case the department shall provide written notification to the qualified third party of the department’s disapproval of the plan. The department shall include in its written notification the basis for its disapproval and require the qualified third party to submit to the department a revised plan within 30 days of the date of the department’s written notification disapproving the plan. The department shall review the revised plan within 15 days of receipt.
(ii) If the department determines that the revised plan submitted pursuant to clause (i) does not comply with this act, the manufacturer, or group of manufacturers, that contracted with or retained the qualified third party shall not be deemed to be in compliance with this act until the qualified third party submits, and the department approves or conditionally approves, a plan that complies with the requirements of this act.
(d) The time taken by the department to review and approve the qualified third party’s plan or revised plan pursuant to this section shall toll the qualified third party’s July 1, 2022, deadline to develop and implement the statewide educational and outreach campaign required pursuant to subdivisions (c) to (f), inclusive, of Section 25214.8.11.5 and the July 1, 2022, deadlines pursuant to clauses (ii) to (iv), inclusive, of subparagraph (A) of paragraph (1) of subdivision (a) of Section 25214.8.13.
(e) The program required by this article as it existed before January 1, 2022, shall remain in effect until the plan submitted by the qualified third party pursuant to this section is approved by the department and fully implemented by the qualified third party.

SEC. 114.

 Section 25269.2 of the Health and Safety Code, as amended by Section 71 of Chapter 258 of the Statutes of 2022, is amended to read:

25269.2.
 (a) The department shall comply with this chapter when recovering oversight costs for corrective action pursuant to Chapter 6.5 (commencing with Section 25100), for removal or remedial action pursuant to Part 2 (commencing with Section 78000) of Division 45, and for response actions pursuant to Chapter 6.86 (commencing with Section 25396).
(b) The department shall develop a concise statement of its cost recovery policies and billing procedures, including dispute resolution procedures and availability of program guidance and policies, and distribute the statement to all responsible parties.

SEC. 115.

 Section 25403.1 of the Health and Safety Code, as amended by Section 91 of Chapter 258 of the Statutes of 2022, is amended to read:

25403.1.
 (a) (1) (A) A local agency may, in accordance with this chapter, take any action that the local agency determines is necessary and that is consistent with other state and federal laws to investigate or clean up a release on, under, or from blighted property that the local agency has found to be within a blighted area within the local agency’s boundaries due to the presence of hazardous materials following a Phase I or Phase II environmental assessment pursuant to subdivision (f), whether the local agency owns that property or not. When taking action pursuant to this chapter, if the local agency does not own property that is the subject of the investigation and cleanup activities, the local agency has the right to enter that property, if, upon providing notice to the owner of that property in accordance with subparagraph (A) of paragraph (2) of subdivision (b), the owner of the property does not respond to the notice or the local agency reasonably deems the response inadequate.
(B) The local agency shall contact the department or the appropriate regional board prior to issuing a notice pursuant to paragraph (2) of subdivision (b) in connection with a property on the National Priority List or a property or release subject to any of the following:
(i) Chapter 6.5 (commencing with Section 25100).
(ii) A Cease and Desist Order issued under Section 13301 of the Water Code.
(iii) A Cleanup and Abatement Order issued under Section 13304 of the Water Code.
(iv) An existing voluntary cleanup agreement between the regional board or the department and a responsible party that requires a cleanup by a specified date.
(v) An order issued by a regional board pursuant to Section 13267 of the Water Code, or an agreement entered into by the department pursuant to Article 1 (commencing with Section 78650) of Chapter 4 of Part 2 of Division 45 or Section 25187, 78870, or 79055, for the investigation or cleanup at a site.
(vi) A remedial action order, an imminent or substantial endangerment order or agreement, a prospective purchase agreement, or an order on consent issued pursuant to Section 78660, 78870, 79020, or 79055, as applicable.
(vii) An expedited remediation order issued pursuant to the Chapter 6.86 (commencing with Section 25396).
(viii) An agreement entered into pursuant to the California Land Reuse and Revitalization Act (Chapter 6.82 (commencing with Section 25395.60)), as specified in Section 25395.92.
(ix) An agreement for the environmental oversight of schools entered into pursuant to Section 17213.1 of the Education Code and in accordance with Sections 17201 and 17210.1 of the Education Code.
(C) (i) If the department or the regional board objects within 30 days to the local agency issuing the notice, the local agency and the department or regional board shall promptly meet and confer to resolve the department’s or regional board’s concerns. If the local agency and the department or the regional board cannot reach a mutually acceptable resolution on sites identified in clause (iv) of subparagraph (B) of paragraph (1), the matter shall be submitted to the site designation committee created pursuant to Section 25261.
(ii) Notwithstanding subdivision (a) of Section 25261, the designee of the department or the regional board on the site designation committee shall not participate in the review of a dispute involving the department or a regional board, respectively. The decision of the site designation committee shall resolve the matter impartially, by majority vote, and within 45 days of the date on which the matter is presented. Either party to the dispute may present the matter to the site designation committee, and each party shall be given a reasonable opportunity to be heard.
(2)  A local agency shall, before taking action to clean up the release, do all of the following:
(A) If the investigation has not been completed or additional investigation is necessary, have an investigation plan prepared by an independent qualified contractor.
(B) Submit an investigation plan and cost recovery agreement to the regional board or the department for review and approval.
(C) After completion of the investigation plan, have a cleanup plan prepared by an independent qualified contractor.
(D) Submit a cleanup plan and existing applicable documents required pursuant to the California Environmental Quality Act (Division 13 (commencing with Section 21000) of the Public Resources Code) to the regional board or to the department for approval.
(E) Comply with the public participation requirements specified in Section 25403.7.
(3) The regional board or the department shall act on the investigation plan within 30 days of receipt of the investigation plan.
(4) The regional board or the department shall respond to the local agency’s request for approval of a cleanup plan within 60 days of the receipt of the plan.
(5) Within 60 days after approval of the cleanup plan, pursuant to applicable statutes and regulations, the director or the regional board, as appropriate, shall acknowledge, in writing, that upon proper completion of the cleanup in accordance with the cleanup plan, the immunity provided by Section 25403.2 shall apply.
(6) The local agency shall notify the department and local health and building departments and the regional board of any cleanup activity pursuant to this section at least 30 days before the commencement of the activity.
(7) If an action taken by a local agency or a responsible party to clean up a release of a hazardous material does not meet, or is not consistent with, a cleanup plan approved by the regional board or the department, the department or the regional board that approved the cleanup plan may require the responsible party or local agency to take, or cause the taking of, additional action to clean up the release, as provided by applicable law.
(8) If an administering agency for the site has been designated pursuant to Section 25262, the department or the regional board may impose any requirements for additional action pursuant to paragraph (7) only as provided in Sections 26263 and 25265.
(9) If methane or landfill gas is present, the local agency shall obtain written approval from the Department of Resources Recycling and Recovery prior to taking action authorized under this subdivision.
(b) Except as provided in subdivision (c), a local agency may take the actions specified in subdivision (a) only under one of the following conditions:
(1) There is no responsible party for the release identified by the local agency.
(2) Both of the following apply:
(A) A party determined by the local agency to be a responsible party for the release has been notified by the local agency, or has received adequate notice from the department, a regional board, the California Environmental Protection Agency, or other governmental agency with relevant authority, and has been given 60 days to respond and to propose an investigation plan and schedule if in the opinion of the responsible party’s qualified independent contractor there is not enough site-specific data to prepare a cleanup plan, and 60 days to propose a cleanup plan and schedule following completion of the investigation plan in accordance with the investigation plan schedule approved by the local agency.
(B) The responsible party specified in subparagraph (A) has not agreed within an additional 60 days to implement an investigation plan and schedule to investigate or clean up the release that meets both of the following requirements:
(i) The investigation plan and schedule and the cleanup plan and schedule are acceptable to the local agency.
(ii) The local agency makes a finding that the investigation plan and schedule and the cleanup plan and schedule are consistent with the intended development schedule and use of the property.
(3) (A) The party determined by the local agency to be the responsible party for the hazardous material release entered into an agreement with the local agency to prepare an investigation plan or cleanup plan for approval by the department, the regional board, or the appropriate local agency, and to implement the investigation plan or cleanup plan in accordance with an agreed schedule, but failed to do any of the following:
(i) Prepare the investigation plan or cleanup plan.
(ii) Implement the investigation plan or cleanup plan in accordance with the agreed schedule.
(iii) Otherwise failed to carry out the investigation in an appropriate and timely manner.
(B) An action taken by the local agency pursuant to this paragraph shall be consistent with any agreement between the local agency and the responsible party and with the requirements of the state agency or the designated agency that approved or will approve the cleanup plan and is overseeing or will oversee the preparation and implementation of the cleanup plan.
(c) The responsible party specified in subparagraph (A) of paragraph (2) of subdivision (b) may appeal a 60-day notice issued pursuant to this section to the local agency’s governing body by filing a written request to appeal the notice with the clerk of the local agency within 30 days of receipt of the notice. Filing an appeal to the local agency’s governing body tolls the 60-day notice period until the appeal is heard and decided by the local agency’s governing body. Any challenge to the decision reached by the local agency’s governing body shall be presented only as part of a cost recovery or injunctive proceeding initiated by the local agency under Section 25403.5. The local agency’s decision shall be upheld if supported by substantial evidence presented in the action commenced under Section 25403.5, and shall not be invalidated on the grounds that the local agency failed to include all responsible parties in a 60-day notice issued pursuant to this section. A claim of failure to include all responsible parties in a 60-day notice issued pursuant to this section shall not be a defense to the liability provided for in Section 25403.5.
(d) Subdivision (b) does not apply to either of the following:
(1) A local agency taking actions to conduct a Phase I or Phase II environmental assessment in accordance with standard real estate practices.
(2) A local agency taking the actions specified in subdivision (a) if the local agency determines that conditions require immediate action due to an imminent threat to human health or the environment.
(e) (1) A local agency may designate another agency, in lieu of the department or the regional board, to review and approve a cleanup plan and to oversee the cleanup of hazardous materials from a specific hazardous material release site if the agency is designated as the administering agency under Section 25262. In that event, the designated agency shall conduct the oversight of the cleanup in accordance with Chapter 6.65 (commencing with Section 25260), and all provisions of that chapter shall apply to the cleanup.
(2) A local agency may designate another agency to review and approve a cleanup plan for a site and oversee the cleanup at the site if all of the following conditions exist:
(A) The designated agency is certified as a CUPA.
(B) The site is an underground storage tank site subject to Chapter 6.7 (commencing with Section 25280).
(C) The designated agency is certified pursuant to Section 25297.01 and the state board has entered into an agreement with the designated agency pursuant to Section 25297.1.
(D) The designated agency determines that the site is within the guidelines and protocols established in, and pursuant to, the agreement specified in subparagraph (C).
(E) The designated agency consents to the designation.
(3) Within 60 days after approving a cleanup plan pursuant to paragraph (1) or (2), the designated agency shall issue a notice that, upon proper completion of the cleanup plan, the immunity specified in Section 25403.2 shall apply. If the designated agency was formed by the local agency, the cleanup plan shall also be subject to the approval of the department or regional board.
(4) (A) An agency may not consent to the designation pursuant to paragraph (1) or (2) unless the designated agency determines that it has adequate staff resources and the requisite technical expertise and capabilities available to adequately supervise the cleanup.
(B) If an agency has been designated pursuant to paragraph (2), the department or a regional board may require the designated agency to withdraw from the designation or stop taking action pursuant to that designation, after providing the designated agency with adequate notice, if both of the following conditions are met:
(i) The department or a regional board determines that the agency’s designation was not consistent with paragraph (2), or makes one of the findings specified in subdivision (d) of Section 101480.
(ii) The department or a regional board determines that it has adequate staff resources and capabilities available to adequately supervise the cleanup, and assumes that responsibility.
(C) This paragraph does not prevent a regional board from taking an action pursuant to Division 7 (commencing with Section 13000) of the Water Code.
(5) If an agency has been designated pursuant to paragraph (1) or (2), the designated agency may, after providing the local agency with adequate notice, withdraw from its designation or stop taking action pursuant to that designation after making one of the findings specified in subdivision (d) of Section 101480.
(f) (1) To facilitate remedial planning, the local agency may require the owner or operator of a site within the local agency’s jurisdictional boundaries to provide the local agency with all existing environmental information pertaining to the site, including the results of any phase I or subsequent environmental assessment, any assessment conducted pursuant to an order from, or agreement with, any federal, state, or local agency, and any other environmental assessment information, except that which is determined to be privileged.
(2) A person requested to furnish the information pursuant to paragraph (1) shall be required only to furnish that information that may be within that person’s possession or control, including actual knowledge of information within the possession or control of any other party. If environmental assessment information is not available, the local agency may require the owner of the property to conduct, and to pay the expenses of conducting, an assessment in accordance with standard real estate practices for conducting phase I or phase II environmental assessments. If the local agency conducts the phase I or phase II environmental assessment because the owner or operator failed to provide this information, the local agency shall have a right of entry, upon reasonable notice, to enter the property and conduct the phase I or phase II environmental assessment. The local agency may recover the costs of the phase I or phase II environmental assessment in accordance with Section 25403.5.

SEC. 116.

 Section 25404 of the Health and Safety Code, as amended by Section 94 of Chapter 258 of the Statutes of 2022, is amended to read:

25404.
 (a) For purposes of this chapter, the following terms shall have the following meanings:
(1) (A) “Certified Unified Program Agency” or “CUPA” means the agency certified by the secretary to implement the unified program specified in this chapter within a jurisdiction.
(B) “Participating Agency” or “PA” means a state or local agency that has a written agreement with the CUPA pursuant to subdivision (d) of Section 25404.3, and is approved by the secretary, to implement or enforce one or more of the unified program elements specified in subdivision (c), in accordance with Sections 25404.1 and 25404.2.
(C) “Unified Program Agency” or “UPA” means the CUPA, or its participating agencies to the extent each PA has been designated by the CUPA, pursuant to a written agreement, to implement or enforce a particular unified program element specified in subdivision (c). The UPAs have the responsibility and authority to implement and enforce the requirements listed in subdivision (c), and the regulations adopted to implement the requirements listed in subdivision (c), to the extent provided by Chapter 6.5 (commencing with Section 25100), Chapter 6.67 (commencing with Section 25270), Chapter 6.7 (commencing with Section 25280), Chapter 6.95 (commencing with Section 25500), and Sections 25404.1 to 25404.2, inclusive. After a CUPA has been certified by the secretary, the unified program agencies and the state agencies carrying out responsibilities under this chapter shall be the only agencies authorized to enforce the requirements listed in subdivision (c) within the jurisdiction of the CUPA.
(2) “Department” means the Department of Toxic Substances Control.
(3) “Minor violation” means the failure of a person to comply with a requirement or condition of an applicable law, regulation, permit, information request, order, variance, or other requirement, whether procedural or substantive, of the unified program that the UPA is authorized to implement or enforce pursuant to this chapter, and that does not otherwise include any of the following:
(A) A violation that results in injury to persons or property, or that presents a significant threat to human health or the environment.
(B) A knowing, willful, or intentional violation.
(C) A violation that is a chronic violation, or that is committed by a recalcitrant violator. In determining whether a violation is chronic or a violator is recalcitrant, the UPA shall consider whether there is evidence indicating that the violator has engaged in a pattern of neglect or disregard with respect to applicable regulatory requirements.
(D) A violation that results in an emergency response from a public safety agency.
(E) A violation that enables the violator to benefit economically from the noncompliance, either by reduced costs or competitive advantage.
(F) A class I violation, as provided in Section 25110.8.5.
(G) A violation that hinders the ability of the UPA to determine compliance with any other applicable local, state, or federal rule, regulation, information request, order, variance, permit, or other requirement.
(4) “Secretary” means the Secretary for Environmental Protection.
(5) “Unified program facility” means all contiguous land and structures, other appurtenances, and improvements on the land that are subject to the requirements listed in subdivision (c).
(6) “Unified program facility permit” means a permit issued pursuant to this chapter. For purposes of this chapter, a unified program facility permit encompasses the permitting requirements of Section 25284, and permit or authorization requirements under a local ordinance or regulation relating to the generation or handling of hazardous waste or hazardous materials, but does not encompass the permitting requirements of a local ordinance that incorporates provisions of the California Fire Code or the California Building Code.
(b) The secretary shall adopt implementing regulations and implement a unified hazardous waste and hazardous materials management regulatory program, which shall be known as the unified program, after holding an appropriate number of public hearings throughout the state. The unified program shall be developed in close consultation with the director, the Director of Emergency Services, the State Fire Marshal, the executive officers and chairpersons of the State Water Resources Control Board and the California regional water quality control boards, the local health officers, local fire services, and other appropriate officers of interested local agencies, and affected businesses and interested members of the public, including environmental organizations.
(c) The unified program shall consolidate the administration of the following requirements and, to the maximum extent feasible within statutory constraints, shall ensure the coordination and consistency of any regulations adopted pursuant to those requirements:
(1) (A) Except as provided in subparagraphs (B) and (C), the requirements of Chapter 6.5 (commencing with Section 25100), and the regulations adopted by the department pursuant to that chapter, that are applicable to all of the following:
(i) Hazardous waste generators, persons operating pursuant to a permit-by-rule, conditional authorization, or conditional exemption, pursuant to Chapter 6.5 (commencing with Section 25100) or the regulations adopted by the department.
(ii) Persons managing perchlorate materials.
(iii) Persons subject to Article 10.1 (commencing with Section 25211) of Chapter 6.5.
(iv) Persons operating a collection location that has been established under an architectural paint stewardship plan approved by the Department of Resources Recycling and Recovery pursuant to the architectural paint recovery program established pursuant to Chapter 5 (commencing with Section 48700) of Part 7 of Division 30 of the Public Resources Code.
(v) A transfer facility, as defined in paragraph (3) of subdivision (a) of Section 25123.3, that is operated by a door-to-door household hazardous waste collection program or household hazardous waste residential pickup service, as defined in subdivision (c) of Section 25218.1.
(vi) Persons who receive used oil from consumers pursuant to Section 25250.11.
(B) The unified program shall not include the requirements of paragraph (3) of subdivision (c) of Section 25200.3, the requirements of Sections 25200.10 and 25200.14, and the authority to issue an order under Sections 25187 and 25187.1, with regard to those portions of a unified program facility that are subject to one of the following:
(i) A corrective action order issued by the department pursuant to Section 25187.
(ii) An order issued by the department pursuant to Chapter 6.86 (commencing with Section 25396) of this division or Part 2 (commencing with Section 78000) of Division 45.
(iii) A remedial action plan approved pursuant to Chapter 6.86 (commencing with Section 25396) of this division or Part 2 (commencing with Section 78000) of Division 45.
(iv) A cleanup and abatement order issued by a California regional water quality control board pursuant to Section 13304 of the Water Code, to the extent that the cleanup and abatement order addresses the requirements of the applicable section or sections listed in this subparagraph.
(v) Corrective action required under subsection (u) of Section 6924 of Title 42 of the United States Code or subsection (h) of Section 6928 of Title 42 of the United States Code.
(vi) An environmental assessment pursuant to Section 25200.14 or a corrective action pursuant to Section 25200.10 or paragraph (3) of subdivision (c) of Section 25200.3, that is being overseen by the department.
(C) The unified program shall not include the requirements of Chapter 6.5 (commencing with Section 25100), and the regulations adopted by the department pursuant to that chapter, applicable to persons operating transportable treatment units, except that any required notice regarding transportable treatment units shall also be provided to the CUPAs.
(2) The requirements of Chapter 6.67 (commencing with Section 25270) concerning aboveground storage tanks.
(3) (A) Except as provided in subparagraphs (B) and (C), the requirements of Chapter 6.7 (commencing with Section 25280) concerning underground storage tanks and the requirements of any underground storage tank ordinance adopted by a city or county.
(B) The unified program shall not include the responsibilities assigned to the State Water Resources Control Board pursuant to Section 25297.1.
(C) The unified program shall not include the corrective action requirements of Sections 25296.10 to 25296.40, inclusive.
(4) The requirements of Article 1 (commencing with Section 25500) of Chapter 6.95 concerning hazardous material release response plans and inventories.
(5) The requirements of Article 2 (commencing with Section 25531) of Chapter 6.95, concerning the accidental release prevention program.
(6) The requirements for the hazardous materials plan and hazardous materials inventory statement of the California Fire Code, as adopted by the State Fire Marshal pursuant to Section 13143.9.
(d) To the maximum extent feasible within statutory constraints, the secretary shall consolidate, coordinate, and make consistent these requirements of the unified program with other requirements imposed by other federal, state, regional, or local agencies upon facilities regulated by the unified program.
(e) (1) The secretary shall establish standards applicable to CUPAs, participating agencies, state agencies, and businesses specifying the data to be collected and submitted by unified program agencies in administering the programs listed in subdivision (c).
(2) (A) The secretary shall establish a statewide information management system capable of receiving all data collected by the unified program agencies and reported by regulated businesses pursuant to this subdivision, in a manner that is most cost efficient and effective for both the regulated businesses and state and local agencies. The secretary shall prescribe an XML or other compatible web-based format for the transfer of data from CUPAs and regulated businesses and make all nonconfidential data available on the internet.
(B) The secretary shall establish milestones to measure the implementation of the statewide information management system and shall provide periodic status updates to interested parties.
(3) (A) (i) Except as provided in subparagraph (B), in addition to any other funding that becomes available, the secretary shall increase the oversight surcharge provided for in subdivision (b) of Section 25404.5 by an amount necessary to meet the requirements of this subdivision for a period of three years, to establish the statewide information management system, consistent with paragraph (2). The increase in the oversight surcharge shall not exceed twenty-five dollars ($25) in any one year of the three-year period. The secretary shall thereafter maintain the statewide information management system, funded by the assessment the secretary is authorized to impose pursuant to Section 25404.5.
(ii) No less than 75 percent of the additional funding raised pursuant to clause (i) shall be provided to CUPAs and PAs through grant funds or statewide contract services, in the amounts determined by the secretary to assist these local agencies in meeting these information management system requirements.
(B) A facility that is owned or operated by the federal government and that is subject to the unified program shall pay the surcharge required by this paragraph to the extent authorized by federal law.
(C) The secretary, or one or more of the boards, departments, or offices within the California Environmental Protection Agency, shall seek available federal funding for purposes of implementing this subdivision.
(4) No later than three years after the statewide information management system is established, each CUPA, PA, and regulated business shall report program data electronically. The secretary shall work with the CUPAs to develop a phase-in schedule for the electronic collection and submittal of information to be included in the statewide information management system, giving first priority to information relating to those chemicals determined by the secretary to be of greatest concern. The secretary, in making this determination shall consult with the CUPAs, the California Emergency Management Agency, the State Fire Marshal, and the boards, departments, and offices within the California Environmental Protection Agency.
(5) The secretary, in collaboration with the CUPAs, shall provide technical assistance to regulated businesses to comply with the electronic reporting requirements and may expend funds identified in clause (i) of subparagraph (A) of paragraph (3) for that purpose.

SEC. 117.

 Section 25501 of the Health and Safety Code is amended to read:

25501.
 Unless the context indicates otherwise, the following definitions govern the construction of this article:
(a) “Agricultural handler” means a business operating a farm that is subject to the exemption specified in Section 25507.1.
(b) “Area plan” means a plan established pursuant to Section 25503 by a unified program agency for emergency response to a release or threatened release of a hazardous material within a city or county.
(c) “Business” means all of the following:
(1) An employer, self-employed individual, trust, firm, joint stock company, corporation, partnership, limited liability partnership or company, or other business entity.
(2) A business organized for profit and a nonprofit business.
(3) The federal government, to the extent authorized by law.
(4) An agency, department, office, board, commission, or bureau of state government, including, but not limited to, the campuses of the California Community Colleges, the California State University, and the University of California.
(5) An agency, department, office, board, commission, or bureau of a city, county, or district.
(6) A handler that operates or owns a unified program facility.
(d) “Business plan” means a separate plan for each unified program facility, site, or branch of a business that meets the requirements of Section 25505.
(e) (1) “Certified unified program agency” or “CUPA” means the agency certified by the secretary to implement the unified program specified in Chapter 6.11 (commencing with Section 25404) within a jurisdiction.
(2) “Participating agency” or “PA” means an agency that has a written agreement with the CUPA pursuant to subdivision (d) of Section 25404.3, and is approved by the secretary, to implement or enforce one or more of the unified program elements specified in paragraphs (4) and (5) of subdivision (c) of Section 25404, in accordance with Sections 25404.1 and 25404.2.
(3) “Unified program agency” or “UPA” means the CUPA, or its participating agencies to the extent each PA has been designated by the CUPA, pursuant to a written agreement, to implement or enforce a particular unified program element specified in paragraphs (4) and (5) of subdivision (c) of Section 25404. For purposes of this article and Article 2 (commencing with Section 25531), the UPAs have the responsibility and authority, to the extent provided by this article and Article 2 (commencing with Section 25531) and Sections 25404.1 and 25404.2, to implement and enforce only those requirements of this article and Article 2 (commencing with Section 25531) listed in paragraphs (4) and (5) of subdivision (c) of Section 25404.
(4) The UPAs also have the responsibility and authority, to the extent provided by this article and Article 2 (commencing with Section 25531) and Sections 25404.1 and 25404.2, to implement and enforce the regulations adopted to implement the requirements of this article and Article 2 (commencing with Section 25531) listed in paragraphs (4) and (5) of subdivision (c) of Section 25404. After a CUPA has been certified by the secretary, the unified program agencies shall be the only local agencies authorized to enforce the requirements of this article and Article 2 (commencing with Section 25531) listed in paragraphs (4) and (5) of subdivision (c) of Section 25404 within the jurisdiction of the CUPA.
(f) “City” includes any city and county.
(g) “Chemical name” means the scientific designation of a substance in accordance with the nomenclature system developed by the International Union of Pure and Applied Chemistry or the system developed by the Chemical Abstracts Service.
(h) “Common name” means any designation or identification, such as a code name, code number, trade name, or brand name, used to identify a substance by other than its chemical name.
(i) “Compressed gas” means a material, or mixture of materials, that meets either of the following:
(1) The definition of compressed gas or cryogenic fluid found in the California Fire Code.
(2) Compressed gas that is regulated pursuant to Part 1 (commencing with Section 6300) of Division 5 of the Labor Code.
(j) “Consumer product” means a commodity that is used for personal, family, or household purposes, or that is present in the same form, concentration, and quantity as a product prepackaged for distribution to a consumer for personal, family, or household purposes. A product that is not sold for personal, family, or household use is not a “consumer product.”
(k) “Emergency response personnel” means a public employee, including, but not limited to, a firefighter or emergency rescue personnel, as defined in Section 245.1 of the Penal Code, or personnel of a local emergency medical services (EMS) agency, as designated pursuant to Section 1797.200, who is responsible for response, mitigation, or recovery activities in a medical, fire, or hazardous material incident, or natural disaster where public health, public safety, or the environment may be impacted.
(l) “Handle” means all of the following:
(1) (A) To use, generate, process, produce, package, treat, store, emit, discharge, or dispose of a hazardous material in any fashion.
(B) For purposes of subparagraph (A), “store” does not include the storage of hazardous materials incidental to transportation, as described in Title 49 of the Code of Federal Regulations, with regard to the inventory requirements of Section 25506.
(2) (A) The use or potential use of a quantity of hazardous material by the connection of a marine vessel, tank vehicle, tank car, or container to a system or process for any purpose.
(B) For purposes of subparagraph (A), the use or potential use does not include the immediate transfer to or from an approved atmospheric tank or approved portable tank that is regulated as loading or unloading incidental to transportation by Title 49 of the Code of Federal Regulations.
(m) “Handler” means a business that handles a hazardous material.
(n) (1) “Hazardous material” means a material listed in paragraph (2) that, because of its quantity, concentration, or physical or chemical characteristics, poses a significant present or potential hazard to human health and safety or to the environment if released into the workplace or the environment, or a material specified in an ordinance adopted pursuant to paragraph (3).
(2) Hazardous materials include all of the following:
(A) A substance or product for which the manufacturer or producer is required to prepare a material safety data sheet pursuant to the Hazardous Substances Information and Training Act (Chapter 2.5 (commencing with Section 6360) of Part 1 of Division 5 of the Labor Code) or pursuant to any applicable federal law or regulation.
(B) A substance listed as a radioactive material in Appendix B of Part 30 (commencing with Section 30.1) of Title 10 of the Code of Federal Regulations, as maintained and updated by the United States Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
(C) A substance listed pursuant to Title 49 of the Code of Federal Regulations.
(D) A substance listed in Section 339 of Title 8 of the California Code of Regulations.
(E) A material listed as an extremely hazardous waste, as defined in Section 25115, a hazardous waste, as defined in Section 25117, or a hazardous substance, as defined in subdivision (a) of Section 78075.
(3) The governing body of a unified program agency may adopt an ordinance that provides that, within the jurisdiction of the unified program agency, a material not listed in paragraph (2) is a hazardous material for purposes of this article if a handler has a reasonable basis for believing that the material would be injurious to the health and safety of persons or harmful to the environment if released into the workplace or the environment, and requests the governing body of the unified program agency to adopt that ordinance, or if the governing body of the unified program agency has a reasonable basis for believing that the material would be injurious to the health and safety of persons or harmful to the environment if released into the workplace or the environment. The handler or the unified program agency shall notify the secretary no later than 30 days after the date an ordinance is adopted pursuant to this paragraph.
(o) “Release” means any spilling, leaking, pumping, pouring, emitting, emptying, discharging, injecting, escaping, leaching, dumping, or disposing into the environment, unless permitted or authorized by a regulatory agency.
(p) “Retail establishment” means a business that sells consumer products prepackaged for direct distribution to, and intended for use by, the end user. A retail establishment may include storage areas or storerooms in establishments that are separated from shelves for display areas but maintained within the physical confines of the retail establishment. A retail establishment does not include a pest control dealer, as defined in Section 11407 of the Food and Agricultural Code.
(q) “Secretary” means the Secretary for Environmental Protection.
(r) “Statewide information management system” means the statewide information management system established pursuant to subdivision (e) of Section 25404 that provides for the combination of state and local information management systems for the purposes of managing unified program data.
(s) “Supplier” means a manufacturer, distributor, wholesaler, or retailer in the state that sells or provides hazardous materials to a business in the state.
(t) “Threatened release” means a condition, circumstance, or incident making it necessary to take immediate action to prevent, reduce, or mitigate a release that has the potential to cause damage or harm to persons, property, or the environment.
(u) “Trade secret” means trade secrets as defined in either subdivision (f) of Section 7924.510 of the Government Code or paragraph (1) of subdivision (a) of Section 1061 of the Evidence Code.
(v) “Unified program facility” means all contiguous land and structures, other appurtenances, and improvements on the land that are subject to the requirements of paragraphs (4) and (5) of subdivision (c) of Section 25404. For purposes of this article, “facility” has the same meaning as unified program facility.

SEC. 118.

 Section 38561.3 of the Health and Safety Code is amended to read:

38561.3.
 (a) (1) By July 1, 2025, the state board, in consultation with relevant stakeholders, including, but not limited to, the California Building Standards Commission, the Department of Housing and Community Development, and the State Energy Resources Conservation and Development Commission, shall develop a framework for measuring and then reducing the average carbon intensity of the materials used in the construction of new buildings, including those for residential uses, compared to the baseline. The framework shall include a comprehensive strategy for the state’s building sector to achieve a 40-percent net reduction in greenhouse gas emissions of building materials as soon as possible, but no later than December 31, 2035. The baseline for the 40-percent net reduction shall be established based on an industry average of environmental product declarations reported during the 2026 calendar year. The state board shall determine the industry average by consulting recognized databases of environmental product declarations and data submitted to the state board by material manufacturers during the 2026 reporting year. If the state board determines that the environmental product declarations available do not adequately represent the industry as a whole, the state board may use industrywide environmental product declarations based on domestic production data for its calculation of the industry average.
(2) To ensure adequate progress is made toward achieving the goal established in paragraph (1), the state board shall utilize an interim target of 20-percent net reduction by December 31, 2030.
(3) (A) By July 1, 2029, the state board shall evaluate the feasibility and cost impact of achieving the interim target established under paragraph (2). The state board may adjust the interim target upward or downward to reflect technological advancements and progress in addressing barriers to the deployment of greenhouse gas emissions reduction technologies and processes in the manufacturing of building materials.
(B) If the state board reduces the interim target of 20-percent net reduction established under paragraph (2), the state board shall document the feasibility and cost impact constraints the state board has identified and recommend measures and actions, including proposed statutory changes, necessary to overcome those constraints to enable the building sector to achieve a 40-percent net reduction in emissions of greenhouse gases of building materials as soon as possible, but no later than December 31, 2035.
(b) The framework developed pursuant to subdivision (a) shall include both of the following:
(1) A requirement for the submission by an entity undertaking the construction of a project with a minimum size of five new residential units or 10,000 square feet of nonresidential building space of a life-cycle assessment, as defined in the International Organization for Standardization (ISO) 14040 series of standards with a focus on the Product Stage phases (A1-A3), to determine the carbon intensity of the materials used in new residential and nonresidential buildings.
(2) A requirement for the submission by the manufacturer of a building material of an Environmental Product Declaration, Type III, as defined by the International Organization for Standardization (ISO) Standard 14025, or similarly robust life-cycle assessment methods that have uniform standards in data collection consistent with ISO Standard 14025, industry acceptance, and integrity for construction materials used for the building. The state board shall determine how to proceed in the event that insufficient life-cycle assessments or Environmental Product Declarations exist, or in the event of significant supply chain issues.
(c) The framework developed pursuant to subdivision (a) may include a tracking and reporting mechanism that would facilitate the achievement of the goals set forth in this section. Except for a fee to reimburse the state board for any administrative costs incurred in administering the reporting mechanism, the state board shall not impose any other charges on the participants in the reporting mechanism authorized under this subdivision.
(d) Based on the information submitted by an entity undertaking the construction of a covered project pursuant to paragraph (1) of subdivision (h), the state board shall evaluate the cost impact and feasibility of implementation, and establish a system for addressing known cost impact and feasibility issues in strategy implementation.
(e) As used in this section the following terms have the following meanings:
(1) “Feasibility,” in regard to the use of a material, means all of the following:
(A) The material is capable of being installed in a successful manner within a reasonable period of time, taking into account economic, environmental, legal, social, and technological factors.
(B) The material does not harm the health or safety of those who install the materials or occupy the building.
(C) The building using the material can be designed to provide an equivalent function and, at a minimum, the same useful life, performance, and durability as the building made with baseline materials.
(D) The material is commercially available to the region of the project.
(E) The material has not been involved in a claim for a construction or design defect, breach of express or implied warranty, fraud, or misrepresentation.
(F) The material provides an equivalent function and at least the same useful life, performance, and durability as the baseline material.
(2) (A) “Cost impact” means a significant overall material or operational cost increase or schedule delay resulting from incorporating the lower carbon material.
(B) As used in subparagraph (A), “significant” means an increase of 5 percent or more in the operational or overall material cost at the location of the project or time schedule delay that is attributable to incorporating a lower carbon material compared to the baseline material for which it is a substitute in the project. For purposes of this paragraph, the baseline material shall be the material that would have been used by the entity undertaking the construction of the project if this section did not apply to the project at the time the application for the building permit is submitted for a model home or project pursuant to subdivision (h).
(f) The state board shall allow the entity undertaking the construction of a project to use the same persons as those responsible for the Certificate of Installation pursuant to paragraph (3) of subdivision (a) of Section 10-103 of Title 25 of the California Code of Regulations in submitting, reporting, notifying, tracking, or otherwise conveying information to the state board.
(g) The targets established by this section shall begin to apply no sooner than January 1, 2027. The applicable target for each residential unit built within a project shall be the target that applied at the time the application was submitted for a building permit of the first model home in the project. For projects that do not use model homes, the applicable target shall be the target in effect at the time of submission of the application for the building permit.
(h) (1) The incorporation of lower carbon materials shall be limited or excluded to the extent that it has a cost impact or is unfeasible. If the entity undertaking the construction of a project finds that it is unable to achieve the applicable target due to unfeasibility or cost impact and there are no alternative materials or methods that are feasible and without cost impact that would allow the project to achieve the target, then the project shall be deemed to comply with the applicable target. In such a case, the entity undertaking the construction of a project shall provide the state board with information that explains the steps they took to meet the target and why they were unable to meet the target.
(2) (A) The state board shall form and maintain a technical advisory committee composed of representatives of building product manufacturers, builders, and design professionals. The technical advisory committee shall review information submitted pursuant to paragraph (1).
(B) After the entity completes the project, the technical advisory committee shall make recommendations to the entity on what steps it could take for future similar projects that would increase the entity’s ability to meet the target.
(C) The state board and the technical advisory committee shall not have the authority to approve, deny, or delay the planning, use, development, design, or construction of a project.
(i) The provisions of this section do not apply to appliances.
(j) For purposes of the California Environmental Quality Act (Division 13 (commencing with Section 21000) of the Public Resources Code), no adverse environmental impact associated with the manufacture of building materials may be attributed, directly or indirectly, to the project incorporating the building material. This subdivision does not relieve the entity undertaking the construction of a covered project from complying with any other provision within this section.
(k) The state board shall do both of the following:
(1) Research and prioritize actions and provisions that leverage state and federal incentives, where applicable, to reduce costs of implementing greenhouse gas emissions reduction technologies, processes, and materials used in construction-related projects for the construction industry, homeowners, and developers, and to increase economic value for the state.
(2) Evaluate measures to support market demand and financial incentives to encourage the production and use of materials used in construction-related projects with low greenhouse gas intensity, including, but not limited to, consideration of both of the following measures:
(A) Measures to expedite the adoption for use in projects undertaken by state agencies, including the Department of Transportation and the Department of General Services.
(B) Measures to provide financial support and incentives for research, development, and demonstration of technologies to mitigate emissions of greenhouse gases from the manufacture of materials used in construction-related projects, with the objective of accelerating commercial availability of those technologies.

SEC. 119.

 Section 39741.5 of the Health and Safety Code is amended to read:

39741.5.
 In furtherance of the objectives in Section 39741.1, the state board shall, no later than January 1, 2025, and consistent with Section 71464 of the Public Resources Code, adopt regulations for financial responsibility for carbon dioxide capture, removal, or sequestration project in accordance with Section 71464 of the Public Resources Code that are no less stringent than those contained in Section 146.85 of Title 40 of the Code of Federal Regulations, as that section read on January 1, 2022. The regulations shall require an operator of a carbon dioxide capture, removal, or sequestration projects to maintain financial responsibility for a period of time that is sufficiently long enough to demonstrate that the risk of carbon dioxide leakage poses no material threat to public health, safety, and the environment and to achievement of net zero greenhouse gas emissions in California and that terminates no earlier than 100 years after the last date of injection of carbon dioxide into a geologic storage reservoir.

SEC. 120.

 Section 44225 of the Health and Safety Code, as amended by Section 5 of Chapter 355 of the Statutes of 2022, is amended to read:

44225.
 (a) A district may increase the fee established under Section 44223 to up to six dollars ($6). A district may increase the fee only if both of the following conditions are met:
(1) A resolution providing for both the fee increase and a corresponding program for expenditure of the increased fees for the reduction of air pollution from motor vehicles pursuant to, and for related planning, monitoring, enforcement, and technical studies necessary for the implementation of, the California Clean Air Act of 1988 (Chapter 1568 of the Statutes of 1988), or for the attainment or maintenance of state or federal ambient air quality standards or the reduction of toxic air contaminant emissions from motor vehicles, is adopted and approved by the governing board of the district.
(2) In districts with nonelected officials on their governing boards, the resolution shall be adopted and approved by both a majority of the governing board and a majority of the board members who are elected officials.
(b) An increase in fees established pursuant to this section shall become effective on either April 1 or October 1, as provided in the resolution adopted by the board pursuant to subdivision (a).
(c) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2034, and as of that date is repealed, unless a later enacted statute, that is enacted before January 1, 2034, deletes or extends that date.

SEC. 121.

 Section 44287 of the Health and Safety Code, as amended by Section 18 of Chapter 355 of the Statutes of 2022, is amended to read:

44287.
 (a) The state board shall establish grant criteria and guidelines consistent with this chapter for covered vehicle projects as soon as practicable, but not later than January 1, 2000. The adoption of guidelines is exempt from the rulemaking provisions of the Administrative Procedure Act, Chapter 3.5 (commencing with Section 11340) of Part 1 of Division 3 of Title 2 of the Government Code. The state board shall solicit input and comment from the districts during the development of the criteria and guidelines and shall make every effort to develop criteria and guidelines that are compatible with existing district programs that are also consistent with this chapter. Guidelines shall include protocols to calculate project cost-effectiveness. The grant criteria and guidelines shall include safeguards to ensure that the project generates surplus emissions reductions. Guidelines shall enable and encourage districts to cofund projects that provide emissions reductions in more than one district. The state board shall make draft criteria and guidelines available to the public 45 days before final adoption, and shall hold at least one public meeting to consider public comments before final adoption.
(b) The state board, in consultation with the participating districts, may propose revisions to the criteria and guidelines established pursuant to subdivision (a) as necessary to improve the ability of the program to achieve its goals. A proposed revision shall be made available to the public 45 days before final adoption of the revision and the state board shall hold at least one public meeting to consider public comments before final adoption of the revision.
(c) The state board shall reserve funds for, and disburse funds to, districts from the fund for administration pursuant to this section and Section 44299.1.
(d) The state board shall develop guidelines for a district to follow in applying for the reservation of funds, in accordance with this chapter. It is the intent of the Legislature that district administration of any reserved funds be in accordance with the project selection criteria specified in Sections 44281, 44282, and 44283 and all other provisions of this chapter. The guidelines shall be established and published by the state board as soon as practicable, but not later than January 1, 2000.
(e) Funds shall be reserved by the state board for administration by a district that adopts an eligible program pursuant to this chapter and offers matching funds at a ratio of one dollar ($1) of matching funds committed by the district or the Mobile Source Air Pollution Reduction Review Committee for every two dollars ($2) committed from the fund. Funds available to the Mobile Source Air Pollution Reduction Review Committee may be counted as matching funds for projects in the South Coast Air Basin only if the committee approves the use of these funds for matching purposes. Matching funds may be any funds under the district’s budget authority that are committed to be expended in accordance with the program. Funds committed by a port authority or a local government, in cooperation with a district, to be expended in accordance with the program may also be counted as district matching funds. Matching funds provided by a port authority or a local government may not exceed 30 percent of the total required matching funds in any district that applies for more than three hundred thousand dollars ($300,000) of the state board funds. Only a district, or a port authority or a local government teamed with a district, may provide matching funds.
(f) The state board may adjust the ratio of matching funds described in subdivision (e), if it determines that an adjustment is necessary in order to maximize the use of, or the air quality benefits provided by, the program, based on a consideration of the financial resources of the district.
(g) Notwithstanding subdivision (e), a district need not provide matching funds for state board funds allocated to the district for program outreach activities pursuant to paragraph (2) of subdivision (a) of Section 44299.1.
(h) A district may include within its matching funds a reasonable estimate of direct or in-kind costs for assistance in providing program outreach and application evaluation. In-kind and direct matching funds shall not exceed 15 percent of the total matching funds offered by a district. A district may also include within its matching funds any money spent on or after February 25, 1999, that would have qualified as matching funds but were not previously claimed as matching funds.
(i) A district desiring a reservation of funds shall apply to the state board following the application guidelines established pursuant to this section. The state board shall approve or disapprove a district application not later than 60 days after receipt. Upon approval of any district application, the state board shall simultaneously approve a reservation of funding for that district to administer. Reserved funds shall be disbursed to the district so that funding of a district-approved project is not impeded.
(j) Notwithstanding any other provision of this chapter, districts and the Mobile Source Air Pollution Reduction Review Committee shall not use funds collected pursuant to Section 41081 or Chapter 7 (commencing with Section 44220), or pursuant to Section 9250.11 of the Vehicle Code, as matching funds to fund a project with stationary or portable engines, locomotives, or marine vessels.
(k) Any funds reserved for a district pursuant to this section are available to the district for a period of not more than two years from the time of reservation. Funds not expended by June 30 of the second calendar year following the date of the reservation shall revert back to the state board as of that June 30, and shall be deposited in the fund for use by the program. The funds may then be redirected based on applications to the fund. Regardless of any reversion of funds back to the state board, the district may continue to request other reservations of funds for local administration. Each reservation of funds shall be accounted for separately, and unused funds from each application shall revert back to the state board as specified in this subdivision.
(l) The state board shall specify a date each year when district applications are due. If the eligible applications received in any year oversubscribe the available funds, the state board shall reserve funds on an allocation basis, pursuant to subdivision (b) of Section 44299.1. The state board may accept a district application after the due date for a period of months specified by the state board. Funds may be reserved in response to those applications, in accordance with this chapter, out of funds remaining after the original reservation of funds for the year.
(m) Guidelines for a district application shall require information from an applicant district to the extent necessary to meet the requirements of this chapter, but shall otherwise minimize the information required of a district.
(n) A district application shall be reviewed by the state board immediately upon receipt. If the state board determines that an application is incomplete, the applicant shall be notified within 10 working days with an explanation of what is missing from the application. A completed application fulfilling the criteria shall be approved as soon as practicable, but not later than 60 working days after receipt.
(o) The state board, in consultation with the districts, shall establish project approval criteria and guidelines for infrastructure projects consistent with Section 44284 as soon as practicable, but not later than February 15, 2000. The commission shall make draft criteria and guidelines available to the public 45 days before final adoption, and shall hold at least one public meeting to consider public comments before final adoption.
(p) The state board, in consultation with the participating districts, may propose revisions to the criteria and guidelines established pursuant to subdivision (o) as necessary to improve the ability of the program to achieve its goals. A revision may be proposed at any time, or may be proposed in response to a finding made in the annual report on the program published by the state board pursuant to Section 44295. A proposed revision shall be made available to the public 45 days before final adoption of the revision and the commission shall hold at least one public meeting to consider public comments before final adoption of the revision.
(q) This section shall become operative on January 1, 2034.

SEC. 122.

 Section 44287 of the Health and Safety Code, as amended by Section 19 of Chapter 355 of the Statutes of 2022, is amended to read:

44287.
 (a) The state board shall establish or update grant criteria and guidelines consistent with this chapter for covered vehicle and infrastructure projects as soon as practicable, but not later than July 1, 2017. The adoption of guidelines is exempt from the rulemaking provisions of the Administrative Procedure Act (Chapter 3.5 (commencing with Section 11340) of Part 1 of Division 3 of Title 2 of the Government Code). The state board shall solicit input and comment from the districts during the development of the criteria and guidelines and shall make every effort to develop criteria and guidelines that are compatible with existing district programs that are also consistent with this chapter. Guidelines shall include protocols to calculate project cost-effectiveness. The grant criteria and guidelines shall include safeguards to ensure that the project generates surplus emissions reductions. Guidelines shall enable and encourage districts to cofund projects that provide emissions reductions in more than one district. The state board shall make draft criteria and guidelines available to the public 45 days before final adoption, and shall hold at least one public meeting to consider public comments before final adoption. The state board may develop separate guidelines and criteria for the different types of eligible projects described in subdivision (a) of Section 44281.
(b) The state board, in consultation with the participating districts, may propose revisions to the criteria and guidelines established pursuant to subdivision (a) as necessary to improve the ability of the program to achieve its goals. A proposed revision shall be made available to the public 45 days before final adoption of the revision and the state board shall hold at least one public meeting to consider public comments before final adoption of the revision.
(c) The state board shall reserve funds for, and disburse funds to, districts from the fund for administration pursuant to this section and Section 44299.1.
(d) The state board shall develop guidelines for a district to follow in applying for the reservation of funds, in accordance with this chapter. It is the intent of the Legislature that district administration of any reserved funds be in accordance with the project selection criteria specified in Sections 44281, 44282, and 44283 and all other provisions of this chapter. The guidelines shall be established and published by the state board as soon as practicable, but not later than January 1, 2006.
(e) Funds shall be reserved by the state board for administration by a district that adopts an eligible program pursuant to this chapter and offers matching funds at a ratio of one dollar ($1) of matching funds committed by the district or the Mobile Source Air Pollution Reduction Review Committee for every two dollars ($2) committed from the fund. Funds available to the Mobile Source Air Pollution Reduction Review Committee may be counted as matching funds for projects in the South Coast Air Basin only if the committee approves the use of these funds for matching purposes. Matching funds may be any funds under the district’s budget authority that are committed to be expended in accordance with the program. Funds committed by a port authority or a local government, in cooperation with a district, to be expended in accordance with the program may also be counted as district matching funds. Matching funds provided by a port authority or a local government shall not exceed 30 percent of the total required matching funds in any district that applies for more than three hundred thousand dollars ($300,000) of the state board funds. Only a district, or a port authority or a local government teamed with a district, may provide matching funds.
(f) The state board may adjust the ratio of matching funds described in subdivision (e), if it determines that an adjustment is necessary in order to maximize the use of, or the air quality benefits provided by, the program, based on a consideration of the financial resources of the district.
(g) Notwithstanding subdivision (e), a district need not provide matching funds for state board funds allocated to the district for program outreach activities pursuant to paragraph (2) of subdivision (a) of Section 44299.1.
(h) A district may include within its matching funds a reasonable estimate of direct or in-kind costs for assistance in providing program outreach and application evaluation. In-kind and direct matching funds shall not exceed 15 percent of the total matching funds offered by a district. A district may also include within its matching funds any money spent on or after February 25, 1999, that would have qualified as matching funds but were not previously claimed as matching funds.
(i) A district desiring a reservation of funds shall apply to the state board following the application guidelines established pursuant to this section. The state board shall approve or disapprove a district application not later than 60 days after receipt. Upon approval of any district application, the state board shall simultaneously approve a reservation of funding for that district to administer. Reserved funds shall be disbursed to the district so that funding of a district-approved project is not impeded.
(j) Any funds reserved for a district by the state board pursuant to this section are available for disbursement to the district for a period of not more than two years from the time of reservation. Funds not liquidated by a district by June 30 of the fourth calendar year following the date of the reservation shall be returned to the state board within 90 days for future allocation pursuant to this chapter. Each reservation of funds shall be accounted for separately, and unused funds from each application shall revert back to the state board for use pursuant to this chapter as specified in this subdivision.
(k) The state board shall specify a date each year when district applications are due. If the eligible applications received in any year oversubscribe the available funds, the state board shall reserve funds on an allocation basis, pursuant to Section 44299.2. The state board may accept a district application after the due date for a period of months specified by the state board. Funds may be reserved in response to those applications, in accordance with this chapter, out of funds remaining after the original reservation of funds for the year.
(l) Guidelines for a district application shall require information from an applicant district to the extent necessary to meet the requirements of this chapter, but shall otherwise minimize the information required of a district.
(m) A district application shall be reviewed by the state board immediately upon receipt. If the state board determines that an application is incomplete, the applicant shall be notified within 10 working days with an explanation of what is missing from the application. A completed application fulfilling the criteria shall be approved as soon as practicable, but not later than 60 working days after receipt.
(n) The commission, in consultation with the districts, shall establish project approval criteria and guidelines for infrastructure projects consistent with Section 44284 as soon as practicable, but not later than February 15, 2000. The commission shall make draft criteria and guidelines available to the public 45 days before final adoption, and shall hold at least one public meeting to consider public comments before final adoption.
(o) The commission, in consultation with the participating districts, may propose revisions to the criteria and guidelines established pursuant to subdivision (n) as necessary to improve the ability of the program to achieve its goals. A revision may be proposed at any time, or may be proposed in response to a finding made in the annual report on the program published by the state board pursuant to Section 44295. A proposed revision shall be made available to the public 45 days before final adoption of the revision and the commission shall hold at least one public meeting to consider public comments before final adoption of the revision.
(p) Unclaimed funds will be allocated by the state board in accordance with Section 44299.2.
(q) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2034, and as of that date is repealed, unless a later enacted statute, that is enacted before January 1, 2034, deletes or extends that date.

SEC. 123.

 Section 50199.23 of the Health and Safety Code is amended to read:

50199.23.
 (a) For the purposes of this section, the following definitions apply:
(1) “Control” means exercising the power to make policy decisions and active involvement in the day-to-day management of a business enterprise. Being an officer or director does not alone demonstrate active involvement.
(2) “Disabled veteran business enterprise” has the same meaning as defined in Section 999 of the Military and Veterans Code.
(3) “LGBT business enterprise” means a business enterprise that is at least 51-percent owned by a lesbian, gay, bisexual, or transgender person or persons; or, in the case of any publicly owned business, at least 51 percent of the stock of which is owned by one or more lesbian, gay, bisexual, or transgender persons; and whose management and daily business operations are controlled by one or more of those individuals.
(4) “Minority business enterprise” means a business enterprise that is at least 51-percent owned by a minority group or groups, or, in the case of any publicly owned business, at least 51 percent of the stock of which is owned by one or more minority groups, and whose management and daily business operations are controlled by one or more of those individuals. The contracting utility shall presume that minority includes African Americans, Hispanic Americans, Native Americans, and Asian Pacific Americans.
(5) “Women business enterprise” means a business enterprise that is at least 51-percent owned by a woman or women, or, in the case of any publicly owned business, at least 51 percent of the stock of which is owned by one or more women, and whose management and daily business operations are controlled by one or more of those individuals.
(b) (1) Subject to subdivision (c), a housing sponsor that receives an allocation on or after January 1, 2024, shall annually submit a report to the committee, in a form that the committee shall require, and at the time that the committee shall annually designate.
(2) The reporting period shall cover all contract activities directly related to the development and construction of a housing project from the first day following receipt of the credit allocation with an option for the housing sponsor to include prior contracting activities. The final report shall cover the year that the project is placed in service.
(3) The report shall include all of the following:
(A) A detailed and verifiable plan for increasing procurement opportunities for women, minority, disabled veteran, and LGBT business enterprises in all categories used in the development and construction of the housing projects, including technology, goods, services, and construction.
(B) In the second year of reporting, short- and long-term diversity goals and timetables, but not quotas, related to contractor race and ethnicity, contractor gender, and contractor census-tract income distribution.
(C) In the third year of reporting, aggregate level data for contractors headquartered or having a primary location in low-income census tracts in the state.
(D) Proposed methods and strategies for increasing the diversity of suppliers and subcontractors engaged by housing sponsors and prime contractors, such as women, minority, disabled veteran, and LGBT business enterprises.
(E) Procurement data for the year and the aggregate data for each project funded in whole or in part with moneys raised by a credit allocated on or after January 1, 2024. The data shall include all of the following:
(i) The number and dollar amount of all contracts in all categories, and by each category of contract, that was issued during the year. The categories of contracts shall include technology, goods, services, and construction.
(ii) The number and dollar amount of all contracts in all categories, and by each category of contract, that was issued during the year to each business-owner group, including women business enterprises, minority business enterprises, disabled veteran business enterprises, and LGBT business enterprises.
(iii) The total number and dollar amount of contracts issued to subcontractors for each business-owner group, including women business enterprises, minority business enterprises, disabled veteran business enterprises, and LGBT business enterprises, by each category of contract.
(iv) The number and dollar amount of all contracts, including subcontracts, and by each category of contract issued during the year, for businesses headquartered or having a primary location in a low-income census tracts in the state.
(v) The number and dollar amount of all contracts in all categories, and by each category of contract, that were issued for a project funded in whole or in part through moneys raised by notice of allocation of a credit on or after January 1, 2024. This may include information on contracts related to the project that were issued prior to the credit allocation.
(vi) The number and dollar amount of all contracts in all categories, and in each category of contract, that were issued for a project specified in clause (v) to each business-owner group, including women business enterprises, minority business enterprises, disabled veteran business enterprises, and LGBT business enterprises.
(vii) The total number and dollar amount of contracts issued to subcontractors for each business-owner group specified in clause (vi) by each category of contract.
(viii) The number and dollar amount of all contracts, including subcontracts, for a project specified in clause (iv) for businesses headquartered or having a primary location in low-income census tracts in the state.
(4) Commencing in 2029, the goals established by the committee pursuant to paragraph (3) of subdivision (d) shall be incorporated into the annual reports. Housing sponsors may adopt higher goals for their own activities.
(c) (1) The requirement to develop a plan and submit a report pursuant to subdivision (b) applies to all housing sponsors that have completed five or more housing projects by January 1, 2023, or that have received an annual low-income housing tax credit allocation of one million dollars ($1,000,000) or more. For housing sponsors that have not completed five or more housing projects by January 1, 2023, or have not received an annual low-income housing tax credit allocation of one million dollars ($1,000,000) or more, the plan and reporting requirements shall begin in the year following the commencement of construction on their fifth housing project for which they have received public money or in the year following the receipt of an annual low-income housing tax credit allocation of one million dollars ($1,000,000) or more, as applicable.
(2) It is the Legislature’s intent that housing sponsors that are not required to adopt a supplier and contractor diversity plan, pursuant to this section, are encouraged to voluntarily adopt a plan and report on the outcomes of those plans for increasing women, minority, disabled veteran, and LGBT business enterprise procurement in all categories of contracts, including technology, goods, services, and construction.
(d) (1) The committee shall develop guidelines, consistent with the requirements of this section, for housing sponsors that have received a credit allocation on or after January 1, 2024, except as provided in subdivision (c), to use in preparing detailed and verifiable supplier and contractor diversity plans required in subdivision (b).
(A) The guidelines shall include a requirement that women, minority, disabled veteran, and LGBT business enterprises be certified by a third party. The committee may align its certification policies with those used by the Public Utilities Commission in implementing Article 5 (commencing with Section 8281) of Chapter 7 of Division 4 the Public Utilities Code.
(B) When developing the reporting guidelines, the committee shall consider the reporting frameworks, forms, and definitions used in other supplier and contractor diversity programs in which housing sponsors may be reporting.
(C) The purpose of the guidelines is to encourage greater economic opportunity for women, minority, disabled veteran, and LGBT business enterprises.
(2) The committee shall annually consider the information and data from the reports submitted pursuant to this section and may modify the guidelines adopted pursuant to this subdivision.
(3) By March 1, 2028, the committee shall establish supplier and contractor participation goals for women, minority, disabled veteran, and LGBT business enterprises.
(4) The committee shall post the individual reports received from the housing sponsors, as required pursuant to subdivision (b), on the committee internet website.
(e) This section shall not limit or otherwise affect eligibility for any credit under, or the requirements for compliance with, Section 12206, 17058, or 23610.5 of the Revenue and Taxation Code.
(f) The provisions of this section are severable. If any provision of this section or its application is held invalid, that invalidity shall not affect other provisions or applications that can be given effect without the invalid provision or application.

SEC. 124.

 Section 50254 of the Health and Safety Code is amended to read:

50254.
 (a) Notwithstanding any other law, all recipients of funds pursuant to this chapter shall provide data elements, including, but not limited to, health information, in a manner consistent with state and federal law, to their local Homeless Management Information System for tracking in the statewide Homeless Data Integration System.
(b) (1) The council shall specify the form and substance of the required data elements.
(2) The council may, as required by operational necessity, amend or modify data elements, disclosure formats, or disclosure frequency.
(3) Grantees shall report individual, client-level data for persons served by grant funding to the council, in addition to any data reported through local Homeless Management Information System, as required by the council for the purposes of research and evaluation of grant performance, service pathways, and outcomes for people served.
(4) Council staff may use information reported directly from grantees and through statewide Homeless Data Integration System for the purposes of research and evaluation of grant performance, service pathways, and outcomes for people served.
(c) Any health information or personal identifying information provided to or maintained within the statewide Homeless Data Integration System pursuant to this section shall not be subject to public inspection or disclosure under the California Public Records Act (Division 10 (commencing with Section 7920.000) of Title 1 of the Government Code).
(d) For purposes of this paragraph, “health information” includes “protected health information,” as defined in Part 160.103 of Title 45 of the Code of Federal Regulations, and “medical information,” as defined in subdivision (j) of Section 56.05 of the Civil Code.
(e) All recipients shall provide information and products developed with grant funds on service delivery models in support of the overall program goal to mitigate risk and address safety concerns in encampments, while ensuring a pathway for individuals living in encampments to move into safe and stable housing, in a format and timeframe specified by the council.
(f) The council shall evaluate the data and outcomes reported by recipients to assess efficacy of programs and identify scalable best practices for encampment resolution that can be replicated across the state.
(g) The council shall report to the chairs of the relevant fiscal and policy committees in both houses on the outcomes, learnings, and best practice models identified through this program. The report shall be submitted in compliance with Section 9795.
(h) Contracts entered into to implement this chapter shall be exempt from all of the following:
(1) Chapter 6 (commencing with Section 14825) of Part 5.5 of Division 3 of Title 2 of the Government Code.
(2) The personal services contracting requirements of Article 4 (commencing with Section 19130) of Chapter 5 of Part 2 of Division 5 of Title 2 of the Government Code.
(3) Part 2 (commencing with Section 10100) of Division 2 of the Public Contract Code and the State Contracting Manual.
(4) Notwithstanding Section 11546 of the Government Code, from review or approval of any division of the Department of Technology, upon approval from the Department of Finance.
(5) From the review or approval of any division of the Department of General Services.

SEC. 125.

 Section 50720.2 of the Health and Safety Code is amended to read:

50720.2.
 (a) The Foreclosure Intervention Housing Preservation Program is hereby established. The department shall administer the program for the purpose of preserving affordable housing and promoting resident ownership or nonprofit organization ownership of residential real property.
(b) (1) Upon appropriation by the Legislature, the program shall be administered by the department to provide loans and grants to eligible borrowers to support the acquisition of 1 to 25 unit properties meeting any of the following criteria:
(A) Real property subject to a trustee’s sale pursuant to Section 2924m of the Civil Code wherein an eligible bidder has made a bid or represents an intention to bid using funds from the program.
(B) Real property subject to a preforeclosure intervention sale.
(C) Real property subject to a foreclosure risk intervention sale.
(D) Real property subject to a recorded notice of default.
(2) Eligible borrowers shall be any one of the following:
(A) Eligible bidders in Section 2924m of the Civil Code other than “prospective owner-occupants” as defined in paragraph (1) of subdivision (a) of Section 2924m of the Civil Code.
(B) An organization whose primary activity is the development and preservation of affordable housing that is at least one of the following:
(i) An incorporated nonprofit organization as described in Section 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code (26 U.S.C. Sec. 501(c)(3)) that is exempt from taxation under Section 501(a) of that code (26 U.S.C. Sec. 501(a)).
(ii) A nonprofit corporation as that term is defined in Section 50091.
(C) A limited liability company that satisfies both of the following criteria:
(i) A community land trust, as defined in clause (ii) of subparagraph (C) of paragraph (11) of subdivision (a) of Section 402.1 of the Revenue and Taxation Code, holds a controlling interest in the company.
(ii) A community land trust, as defined in clause (ii) of subparagraph (C) of paragraph (11) of subdivision (a) of Section 402.1 of the Revenue and Taxation Code, is the managing member of the company.
(3) Up to 20 percent of the funds appropriated for this program may be expended for the costs to administer the program. Costs to administer the program include, but are not limited to, all of the following:
(A) Costs to develop the guidelines required by this chapter, which may include, but is not limited to, the following:
(i) Department staffing expenses incurred in developing the guidelines.
(ii) Contracting with one or more program fund managers to develop the guidelines.
(iii) Contracting with third-party consultants to develop guidelines.
(B) Costs to develop lending criteria.
(C) Costs to advertise the program.
(D) Costs to develop technical assistance tools to support qualified entities in navigating the requirements and processes to apply for funding, including, but not limited to, the following:
(i) Training modules.
(ii) Acquisition-rehabilitation specific financing templates and guidance, such as pro formas and worksheets.
(iii) Best practice guides for engaging tenants before and after property acquisition, managing safe and accessible rehabilitation of occupied buildings, facilitating resident ownership, and any other topic deemed appropriate by the department.
(iv) Technical assistance with resident engagement and education, property assessment and due diligence, affordable housing operations management, acquisition-rehabilitation project financial assistance, construction, and property management.
(E) Administrative costs of fund managers to implement the program pursuant to Section 50720.6.
(4) Funds not committed to fund managers pursuant to Section 50720.6 as of December 31, 2025, or any funds returned from fund managers, shall be deposited into the Housing Rehabilitation Loan Fund to be made available for loans authorized by Chapter 5.5 (commencing with Section 50606) or for loans authorized by Chapter 6.7 (commencing with Section 50675). Notwithstanding the requirements of Chapter 5.5, uncommitted or returned funds made available for purposes of Chapter 5.5 may be used to assist projects funded by the department or other public entities.
(5) Not later than May 15, 2023, the department shall report to the chairs of the Assembly Committee on Budget and the Senate Committee on Budget and Fiscal Review on the implementation of this program, including the amount of funding disbursed and number, location, and cost of acquired properties, as well as the number of units acquired.
(c) All repayments of program funds to fund managers, including loan principal and any interest collected on those loans, and any interest earned on the funds held by the fund managers shall be deposited into separately maintained reuse accounts held by fund managers for purposes of the program. Fund managers shall use funds held in those reuse accounts for purposes of the program, which may include, but not be limited to, loans and grants to pay for repairs, maintenance, or improvements on properties acquired pursuant to the program.

SEC. 126.

 Section 53559 of the Health and Safety Code is amended to read:

53559.
 (a) The Infill Infrastructure Grant Program of 2019 is hereby established to be administered by the department.
(b) Upon appropriation by the Legislature of funds for purposes of this part, the department shall establish and administer a grant program to allocate those funds to selected capital improvement projects that are an integral part of, or necessary to facilitate the development of, a qualifying infill project, qualifying infill area, or catalytic qualifying infill area pursuant to the requirements of this section. The department shall determine amounts, if any, to be made available for qualifying infill projects, qualifying infill areas, or catalytic qualifying infill areas.
(c) (1)  Except for funds appropriated or set aside for small jurisdictions for grants pursuant to subdivision (e), the department shall administer a competitive application process for capital improvement projects for large jurisdictions pursuant to this subdivision.
(2) Except for grants for qualifying infill areas or catalytic qualifying infill areas, the department shall do all of the following for grants made pursuant to this subdivision:
(A) Make program funds available at the same time it makes funds, if any, available under the Multifamily Housing Program (Chapter 6.7 (commencing with Section 50675) of Part 2).
(B) Rate and rank applications in a manner consistent with the Multifamily Housing Program (Chapter 6.7 (commencing with Section 50675) of Part 2), except that the department may establish additional point categories for the purposes of rating and ranking applications that seek funding pursuant to this part in addition to those used in the Multifamily Housing Program.
(C) Administer funds in a manner consistent with the Multifamily Housing Program (Chapter 6.7 (commencing with Section 50675) of Part 2).
(d) (1) In its review and ranking of applications for the award of capital improvement project grants, the department shall rank the affected qualifying infill projects and qualifying infill areas based on the following priorities:
(A) Project readiness, which shall include all of the following:
(i) A demonstration that the project or area development can complete environmental review and secure necessary entitlements from the local jurisdiction within a reasonable period of time following the submission of a grant application.
(ii) A demonstration that the eligible applicant can secure sufficient funding commitments derived from sources other than this part for the timely development of a qualifying infill project or development of a qualifying infill area.
(B) The depth and duration of the affordability of the housing proposed for a qualifying infill project or qualifying infill area.
(C) The extent to which the average residential densities on the parcels to be developed exceed the density standards contained in paragraph (3) of subdivision (g).
(D) The qualifying infill project’s or qualifying infill area’s inclusion of, or proximity or accessibility to, a transit station or major transit stop.
(E) The proximity of housing to parks, employment or retail centers, schools, or social services.
(F) The qualifying infill project or qualifying infill area location’s consistency with an adopted sustainable communities strategy pursuant to Section 65080 of the Government Code, alternative planning strategy pursuant to Section 65450 of the Government Code, or other adopted regional growth plan intended to foster efficient land use.
(G) For qualifying infill areas, in awarding funds under the program, the department shall provide additional points or preference to projects located in jurisdictions that are designated prohousing pursuant to subdivision (c) of Section 65589.9 of the Government Code, in the manner determined by the department pursuant to subdivision (d) of Section 65589.9 of the Government Code.
(2) In allocating funds pursuant to this subdivision, the department, to the maximum extent feasible, shall ensure a reasonable geographic distribution of funds.
(3) For purposes of awarding grants pursuant to the competitive application process required by this subdivision:
(A) “Qualifying infill area” means a contiguous area located within an urbanized area (i) that has been previously developed, or where at least 75 percent of the perimeter of the area adjoins parcels that are developed with urban uses, and (ii) in which at least one development application has been approved or is pending approval for a residential or mixed-use residential project that meets the definition and criteria in this section for a qualifying infill project.
(B) “Qualifying infill project” means a residential or mixed-use residential project located within an urbanized area on a site that has been previously developed, or on a vacant site where at least 75 percent of the perimeter of the site adjoins parcels that are developed with urban uses.
(e) (1) The department shall administer an over-the-counter application process for grants funded by the allocation specified in the appropriation or paragraph (2) of subdivision (a) of Section 53559.2 for capital improvement projects for small jurisdictions, pursuant to this subdivision.
(2) Eligible applicants shall submit the following information in the application request for funding:
(A) A complete description of the qualifying infill project or qualifying infill area and documentation of how the infill project or infill area meets the requirements of this section.
(B) A complete description of the capital improvement project and requested grant funding for the project, how the project is necessary to support the development of housing, and how it meets the criteria of this section.
(C) Documentation that specifies how the application meets all of the requirements of subdivision (g).
(D) (i) Except as provided in clause (ii), a financial document that shows the gap financing needed for the project.
(ii) For a qualifying infill project located in the unincorporated area of the county, the department shall allow an applicant to meet the requirement described in clause (i) by submitting copies of an application or applications for other sources of state or federal funding for a qualifying infill project.
(E) (i) Except as provided by clause (ii), documentation of all necessary entitlement and permits, and a certification from the applicant that the project is shovel-ready.
(ii) For a qualifying infill project located in the unincorporated area of the county, the department shall allow the applicant to meet the requirement described in clause (i) by submitting a letter of intent from a willing affordable housing developer that has previously completed at least one comparable housing project, certifying that the developer is willing to submit an application to the county for approval by the county of a qualifying infill project within the area in the event that the funding requested pursuant to this subdivision is awarded.
(3) The department may establish a per-unit formula to determine the amount of funds awarded pursuant to this subdivision.
(4) For purposes of awarding grants pursuant to the over-the-counter application process required by this subdivision:
(A) “Qualifying infill area” means a contiguous area located within an urbanized area that meets either of the following criteria:
(i) The area contains sites included on the inventory of land suitable and available for residential development in the housing element of the applicable city or county general plan pursuant to paragraph (3) of subdivision (a) of Section 65583 of the Government Code, and at least 50 percent of the perimeter of the area shall adjoin parcels that are developed with urban uses.
(ii) The capital improvement project for which funding is requested is necessary, as documented by an environmental review or some other adopted planning document, to make the area suitable and available for residential development, or to allow the area to accommodate housing for additional income levels, and the area otherwise meets the requirements for inclusion on the inventory of land suitable and available for residential development in the housing element of the applicable city or county general plan pursuant to paragraph (3) of subdivision (a) of Section 65583 of the Government Code. At least 50 percent of the perimeter of the area shall adjoin parcels that are developed with urban uses.
(B) “Qualifying infill project” means a residential or mixed-use residential project located within an urbanized area on a site that has been previously developed, or on a vacant site where at least 50 percent of the perimeter of the site adjoins parcels that are developed with urban uses.
(f) (1) For catalytic qualifying infill areas, grants for small jurisdictions and large jurisdictions shall be provided using a selection process established by the department that meets all of the following requirements:
(A) Applicants shall meet both of the following minimum threshold requirements:
(i) Readiness, which includes both of the following:
(I) A demonstration that the catalytic qualifying infill area development can complete environmental review and secure necessary entitlements from the local jurisdiction within a reasonable period of time following the submission of a grant application.
(II) A demonstration that the eligible applicant has a viable plan to secure sufficient funding, derived from sources other than this part for the timely development of housing within a catalytic qualifying infill area.
(ii) A demonstration of the catalytic qualifying infill area location’s consistency with an adopted sustainable communities strategy or alternative planning strategy pursuant to Section 65080 of the Government Code.
(B) The department shall, at a minimum, rank the affected catalytic qualifying infill areas applications for small jurisdictions and large jurisdictions based on the following:
(i) The number of housing units, including affordable units as required in paragraph (2) of subdivision (g) to be developed within the catalytic qualifying infill area.
(ii) The depth and duration of the affordability of the housing proposed for within the catalytic qualifying infill area.
(iii) The extent to which the average residential densities on the parcel or parcels to be developed exceeds the density standards contained in paragraph (3) of subdivision (g).
(iv) The catalytic qualifying infill area’s inclusion of, or proximity or accessibility to, a transit station, major transit stop, or other areas yielding significant reductions in vehicle miles traveled.
(v) The proximity of planned housing within the catalytic qualifying infill area used in the calculation of the eligible grant amount to existing or planned parks, employment or retail centers, schools, or social services.
(vi) Existing or planned ordinances and other zoning or building provisions that facilitate adaptive reuse, including, but not limited to, demonstration that, if the existing commercial, office, or retail structure intended for reuse as housing does not occupy the entirety of the underlying parcel, the adaptive reuse project will be permitted to add to the existing building or structure provided that the addition is consistent with the existing or planned zoning of the parcel.
(vii) The extent to which local strategies or programs are in place to prevent the direct or indirect displacement of local community residents and businesses from the area within and surrounding the catalytic qualifying infill area.
(viii) The level of community outreach and engagement in project planning, including efforts to involve disadvantaged communities and low-income residents, particularly local community residents and businesses from the area within and surrounding the catalytic qualifying infill area.
(ix) Inclusion of any publicly owned lands within the designated catalytic qualifying infill area.
(x) Streamlining provisions related to California Environmental Quality Act (Division 13 (commencing with Section 21000) of the Public Resources Code), including, but not limited to, establishment of streamlined, program-level California Environmental Quality Act analysis and certification of general plans, community plans, specific plans with accompanying environmental impact reports, and related documents and streamlining proposed projects, such as enabling a by-right approval process or by utilizing statutory and categorical exemptions as authorized by applicable law.
(C) Eligible applicants shall submit the following information in the application request for funding:
(i) A complete description of the catalytic qualifying infill area and documentation of how the catalytic qualifying infill area meets the requirements of this section.
(ii) A complete description of the capital improvement project and requested grant funding, how the capital improvement project is necessary to support the development of housing, and how it meets the criteria of this section.
(iii) Documentation that specifies how the application meets all of the requirements of subdivision (g).
(iv) (I) Except as provided in subclause (II), a financial document that shows the gap financing needed for the project.
(II) For a qualifying infill project located in the unincorporated area of the county, the department shall allow an applicant to meet the requirement described in subclause (I) by submitting copies of an application or applications for other sources of state or federal funding for a qualifying infill project.
(v) (I) Except as provided by subclause (II), documentation of all necessary entitlements and permits, and a certification from the applicant that the capital improvement project is shovel-ready.
(II) For a catalytic qualifying infill project located in the unincorporated area of the county, the department shall allow the applicant to meet the requirement described in subclause (I) by submitting a letter of intent from a willing affordable housing developer that has previously completed at least one comparable housing project, certifying that the developer is willing to submit an application to the county for approval by the county of a qualifying infill project within the area in the event that the funding requested pursuant to this subdivision is awarded.
(2) In allocating funds pursuant to this subdivision, the department, to the maximum extent feasible, shall ensure a reasonable distribution of funds, including consideration of differing population sizes of localities and geographic location. Applications shall be considered and ranked against applications of localities of similar size and scope. For the purposes of this paragraph, the population of a county shall be the population in the unincorporated area.
(3) The department shall report the following information to the relevant fiscal and policy committees of the Legislature by January 1, 2024:
(A) Specific uses of the funds for capital improvement projects.
(B) Locations of awarded catalytic qualifying infill area grants, including both of the following:
(i) Number of awards by geography, including urban and rural.
(ii) The types of buildings adapted to residential use.
(C) Total units to be created within the awarded qualifying infill areas, including anticipated affordability levels.
(D) Data on catalytic qualifying infill area projects funded, such as project sizes, adaptive reuse ordinances adopted, and by-right sites.
(g) A qualifying infill project, qualifying infill area, or catalytic qualifying infill area for which a capital improvement project grant may be awarded pursuant to either subdivision (d), (e), or (f) shall meet all of the following conditions:
(1)  A qualifying infill area or catalytic qualifying infill area shall be located in a city, county, or city and county in which the general plan of the city, county, or city and county has an adopted housing element that has been found by the department, pursuant to Section 65585 of the Government Code, to be in compliance with the requirements of Article 10.6 (commencing with Section 65580) of Chapter 3 of Division 1 of Title 7 of the Government Code. This paragraph does not apply to a qualifying infill project.
(2) Include not less than 15 percent of affordable units, as follows:
(A) For projects that contain both rental and ownership units, units of either or both product types may be included in the calculation of the affordability criteria.
(B) (i) To the extent included in a project grant application, for the purpose of calculating the percentage of affordable units, the department may consider the entire master development in which the development seeking grant funding is included.
(ii) Where applicable, an applicant may include a replacement housing plan to ensure that dwelling units housing persons and families of low or moderate income are not removed from the low- and moderate-income housing market. Residential units to be replaced shall not be counted toward meeting the affordability threshold required for eligibility for funding under this section.
(C) For the purposes of this subdivision, “affordable unit” means a unit that is made available at an affordable rent, as defined in Section 50053, to a household earning no more than 60 percent of the area median income or at an affordable housing cost, as defined in Section 50052.5, to a household earning no more than 120 percent of the area median income. Rental units shall be subject to a recorded covenant that ensures affordability for at least 55 years. Ownership units shall initially be sold to and occupied by a qualified household, and shall be subject to a recorded covenant that includes either a resale restriction for at least 30 years or equity sharing upon resale.
(3) Include average residential densities on the parcels to be developed that are equal to or greater than the densities described in subparagraph (B) of paragraph (3) of subdivision (c) of Section 65583.2 of the Government Code, except that a project located in a rural area as defined in Section 50199.21 shall include average residential densities on the parcels to be developed of at least 10 units per acre.
(4) Be located in an area designated for mixed-use or residential development pursuant to one of the following:
(A) A general plan adopted pursuant to Section 65300 of the Government Code.
(B) A sustainable communities strategy adopted pursuant to Section 65080 of the Government Code.
(C) A specific plan adopted pursuant to Section 65450 of the Government Code.
(D) A Workforce Housing Opportunity Zone established pursuant to Section 65620 of the Government Code.
(E) A Housing Sustainability District established pursuant to Section 66201 of the Government Code.
(h) Funds awarded pursuant to this section shall supplement, not supplant, other available funding.
(i) The department shall adopt guidelines for the operation of the grant program. The guidelines shall include performance standards and authorize the reversion of grant awards if the awardee has not substantially met the performance standards.
(1) Performance standards shall include timelines for commencement of construction of a capital improvement project, completion of a capital improvement project, and commencement and completion of associated housing development on an identified infill site, as identified in the qualifying infill project, qualifying infill area, or catalytic qualifying infill area application.
(2) Catalytic qualifying infill area awards may be conditioned upon the local jurisdiction completing any actions to expedite housing development rezoning to accommodate density, completing environmental reviews to support ministerial approvals of housing, and granting fee waivers or other incentives to expedite housing developments that were used in qualifying for an award.
(j) The department shall require recipients of funds to report on progress of capital improvement projects, including, but not limited to, substantiation of grant expenditures and housing outcomes, including levels of affordability as provided in the application.
(k) The guidelines may also provide for recapture of grants awarded, but for which development of the related housing units has not progressed in a reasonable period of time from the date of the grant award, as determined by the department. The guidelines shall not be subject to the requirements of Chapter 3.5 (commencing with Section 11340) of Part 1 of Division 3 of Title 2 of the Government Code.
(l) For each fiscal year within the duration of the grant program, the department shall include within the report to the Governor and the Legislature, required by Section 50408, information on its activities relating to the grant program activities related to qualifying infill projects and qualifying infill areas, including small jurisdiction funding activities. The report shall include, but is not limited to, the following information:
(1) A summary of the projects that received grants under the program for each fiscal year that grants were awarded.
(2) The description, location, and estimated date of completion for each project that received a grant award under the program.
(3) An update on the status of each project that received a grant award under the program, and the number of housing units created or facilitated by the program.
(m) Notwithstanding paragraph (3) of subdivision (g), a city with a population greater than 100,000 in a standard metropolitan statistical area or a population of less than 2,000,000 may petition the department for, and the department may grant, an exception to the jurisdiction’s classification pursuant to subdivisions (d) to (f), inclusive, of Section 65583.2 of the Government Code, if the city believes it is unable to meet the density requirements specified in paragraph (3) of subdivision (g). The city shall submit the petition with its application and shall include the reasons why the city believes the exception is warranted. The city shall provide information supporting the need for the exception, including, but not limited to, any limitations that the city may encounter in meeting the density requirements specified in paragraph (3) of subdivision (g). Any exception shall be for the purposes of this section only. This subdivision shall become inoperative on January 1, 2026.

SEC. 127.

 Section 105250.5 of the Health and Safety Code is amended to read:

105250.5.
 (a) The department shall review and amend its regulations governing lead-related construction work, including training and certification for workers and accreditation for trainers in lead-safe work practices, to comply with regulations adopted pursuant to Sections 105250 and 124160 and the United States Environmental Protection Agency’s Lead Renovation, Repair and Painting Rule (40 C.F.R. 745).
(b) The amended regulations adopted pursuant to subdivision (a) shall include, but not be limited to, requiring a copy of the worker and firm certification to be provided before the start of the job to the prime contractor or other employers on the site and to be posted on the job site beside the Division of Occupational Safety and Health Lead-Work Pre-Job Notification required by subdivision (p) of Section 1532.1 of Title 8 of the California Code of Regulations.
(c) Consistent with Section 105250, the department shall also adopt regulations establishing fees for the certifications or accreditations established pursuant to this section. The fees imposed under this section shall be established at levels not exceeding an amount sufficient to cover the costs of developing, administering, and enforcing the standards and regulations adopted under this section. The fees established pursuant to this section shall be deposited into the Lead-Related Construction Fund, established pursuant to Section 105250.
(d) (1) Notwithstanding the rulemaking provisions of the Administrative Procedure Act (Chapter 3.5 (commencing with Section 11340) of Part 1 of Division 3 of Title 2 of the Government Code), the department may implement and administer this section through all-county letters or similar instructions from the department until regulations are adopted. The department shall adopt emergency regulations implementing these provisions. The department may readopt any emergency regulation authorized by this section that is the same as, or substantially equivalent to, an emergency regulation previously adopted under this section.
(2) The initial adoption of emergency regulations pursuant to this section and two readoptions of emergency regulations shall be deemed an emergency and necessary for the immediate preservation of the public peace, health, safety, or general welfare. Initial emergency regulations and the two readoptions of emergency regulations authorized by this section shall be exempt from review by the Office of Administrative Law. The initial emergency regulations and the two readoptions of emergency regulations authorized by this section shall be submitted to the Office of Administrative Law for filing with the Secretary of State and each shall remain in effect for no more than 180 days, by which time final regulations may be adopted.

SEC. 128.

 Section 105254 of the Health and Safety Code is amended to read:

105254.
 (a) The following persons engaged in the following types of lead construction work shall have a certificate:
(1) Persons who receive pay for doing lead hazard evaluations, including, but not limited to, lead inspections, lead risk assessments, or lead clearance inspections, in residential or public buildings.
(2) Persons preparing or designing plans for the abatement of lead-based paint or lead hazards from residential or public buildings.
(3) Persons doing work designed to reduce or eliminate lead hazards on a permanent basis (to last 20 years or more) from residential or public buildings.
(4) Persons inspecting for lead or doing lead abatement activities in a public elementary school, preschool, or daycare center.
(5) Persons doing lead-related construction work in a residential or public building that will expose a person to airborne lead at or above the eight-hour permissible exposure limit of 50 micrograms per cubic meter.
(b) On and after January 1, 2024, the following shall also have a certificate: a firm, as defined by Section 745.83 of Title 40 of the Code of Federal Regulations, and at least one person onsite and employed by a firm, doing renovation, repair, or painting work for compensation in a residential or public building that will disturb lead-based paint, as defined in Section 35033 of Title 17 of the California Code of Regulations, or presumed lead-based paint, as defined in Section 35043 of Title 17 of the California Code of Regulations, which regulations were adopted by the State Department of Public Health pursuant to Sections 105250 and 124160.
(c) Persons performing routine maintenance and repairs in housing are not required to have a certificate if they are not performing any of the activities listed under subdivisions (a) and (b).
(d) The department may adopt regulations to modify certification requirements for persons engaged in lead construction work based on changes to state or federal law or programmatic need.
(e) The department or any local enforcement agency may, consistent with Section 17972, enter, inspect, and photograph any premises where abatement, a lead hazard evaluation, or renovation, repair, or painting is being conducted or has been ordered, enter the place of business of any person who conducts abatement, lead hazard evaluations, or renovation, repair, or painting, and inspect and copy any business record of any person who conducts abatement, lead hazard evaluation, or renovation, repair, or painting to determine whether the person is complying with this section.
(f) (1) A violation of subdivision (a) shall be punishable by a civil penalty of no less than five thousand dollars ($5,000) per violation per day.
(2) A violation of subdivision (b) shall be punishable by a civil penalty of no less than ten thousand dollars ($10,000) per violation per day.
(3) Each subsequent violation of this section may be subject to imposition of a civil penalty of no more than thirty-seven thousand five hundred dollars ($37,500) per violation per day or punishable by imprisonment for no more than six months in the county jail, a fine of no more than one thousand dollars ($1,000), or by both that imprisonment and fine. In assessing the amount of the criminal or civil penalty, any one or more of the relevant circumstances shall be considered: the nature and seriousness of the misconduct, the number of violations, the persistence of the misconduct, the length of time over which the misconduct occurred, the willfulness of the misconduct, and the violator’s assets, liabilities, net worth, and other relevant factors.
(g) (1) The State Department of Public Health shall develop and implement an education and outreach program for every person and firm that is required to have a certificate pursuant to subdivisions (a) and (b). The program shall include information on who is required to have a certificate and the requirements and process to obtain a certificate. The program shall be implemented on or before July 1, 2023.
(2) The department shall provide educational and outreach materials to the Contractors State License Board for the board to make the materials available to contractors and consumers on its internet website.

SEC. 129.

 Section 127501.4 of the Health and Safety Code is amended to read:

127501.4.
 (a) (1) Notwithstanding any other state or local law, the office shall collect data and other information it determines necessary from health care entities, except exempted providers, to carry out the functions of the office. To the extent consistent with federal law and to the greatest extent possible, the office may use existing and emerging public and private data sources to minimize administrative burdens and duplicative reporting, including data or information from federal agencies as well as state agencies. The office may request data and information from, or enter into a data sharing agreement with, the State Department of Health Care Services, Covered California, the Department of Managed Health Care, the Department of Insurance, the Labor and Workforce Development Agency, the Business, Consumer Services, and Housing Agency, and other relevant state agencies that monitor compliance of plans and providers with access standards, including timely access, language access, geographic access, and other access standards as provided by law and regulation. The office may also enter into a data sharing agreement with these state agencies that collect payer and provider financial data or other data or information about the health care workforce.
(2) In furtherance of this chapter, and with the intent to reduce administrative burdens, the office shall coordinate with the State Department of Health Care Services on data and other information necessary to report both of the following:
(A) Total health care expenditures and per capita total health care expenditures for Medi-Cal services.
(B) Medical loss ratios required under applicable state and federal laws.
(C) Quality and equity measures to assess performance for the Medi-Cal program or other programs administered by the State Department of Health Care Services.
(3) (A) The office shall obtain from the Department of Managed Health Care and the Department of Insurance information about health care services plans, as defined in subdivision (b) of Section 1345, and insurers offering policies of health insurance, as defined in subdivision (b) of Section 106 of the Insurance Code. The information shall be for coverage in the individual, small group, and large group markets for both grandfathered and nongrandfathered products. The information shall include, but not be limited to, all of the following:
(i) Information on premiums, cost sharing, benefits, and other information required under Article 6.2 (commencing with Section 1385.01) of Chapter 2.2 of Division 2 of this code and Article 4.5 (commencing with Section 10181) of Chapter 1 of Part 2 of Division 2 of the Insurance Code.
(ii) Trend factors by benefit category, such as inpatient hospitalization and physician services, including price, utilization, and cost as a percentage of Medicare, as required by Section 1385.045 of this code and Section 10181.45 of the Insurance Code.
(iii) Medical loss ratio for each health care service plan or health insurer under applicable state and federal laws.
(iv) Cost containment and quality improvement efforts reported consistent with Sections 1385.03 and 1385.045 of this code and Sections 10181.3 and 10181.45 of the Insurance Code.
(v) Prescription drug costs consistent with Section 1367.243 and Article 6.1 (commencing with Section 1385.001) of Chapter 2.2 of Division 2 of this code and Section 10123.205 of the Insurance Code.
(vi) Information regarding health equity and quality required under Article 11.9 (commencing with Section 1399.870) of Chapter 2.2 of Division 2, including data and results.
(B) The Department of Managed Health Care and the Department of Insurance shall provide the above information in the initial submission of data to the office for the five years prior to 2023, to the extent that information is available, and annually thereafter.
(b) The office shall establish requirements for payers and fully integrated delivery systems to submit data and other information necessary to do all of the following:
(1) Measure total health care expenditures and per capita total health care expenditures.
(2) Determine whether health care entities met health care cost targets.
(3) Identify the annual change in health care costs of health care entities.
(4) Approve and monitor implementation of performance improvement plans.
(5) Assess performance on quality and equity measures.
(c) The office shall, in a manner prescribed by the office, establish requirements for providers to submit data in support of this section as necessary to carry out the functions of the office.
(d) (1) For the purpose of the baseline health care spending report published pursuant to subdivision (a) of Section 127501.6, payers and fully integrated delivery systems shall submit data on total health care expenditures for the 2022 and 2023 calendar years on or before September 1, 2024. Enforcement shall not be implemented pursuant to this baseline report, except any enforcement actions necessary to ensure compliance with the deadline for submitting data.
(2) For the first annual report, published pursuant to subdivision (b) of Section 127501.6, payers and fully integrated delivery systems shall submit data on total health care expenditures for the 2024 and 2025 calendar years based on a reporting schedule established by the office. For subsequent annual reports, payers and fully integrated delivery systems shall submit data for the relevant calendar years according to the reporting schedule established by the office.
(e) (1) The office shall require health care entities to submit data and other information as necessary to fulfill its functions and measure total health care expenditures and per capita total health care expenditures by sectors.
(2) For the calculation of total health care expenditures and per capita total health care expenditures by sectors, the office shall use the Health Care Payments Data Program, established pursuant to Chapter 8.5 (commencing with Section 127671), to the greatest extent possible, to minimize reporting burdens for health care entities, and may also use data from federal agencies.
(f) The office shall require payers, fully integrated delivery systems, hospitals, and physician organizations to report data and other information, as necessary, for the single set of standard quality measures pursuant to Section 127503.
(g) (1) The office shall require payers, fully integrated delivery systems, restricted health care service plans, and limited health care service plans, as defined in Section 1300.49 of Title 28 of the California Code of Regulations, to submit data and other information to measure the adoption of alternative payment models pursuant to Section 127504.
(2) The office shall establish requirements for payers, fully integrated delivery systems, restricted health care service plans, and limited health care service plans, as defined in Section 1300.49 of Title 28 of the California Code of Regulations, to report data and other information, including, but not limited to, the types of payment models, adoption by line of business, the number of members covered by alternative payment models, the percent of budget dedicated to alternative payments, or cost and quality performance measures tied to those payment models.
(h) (1) The office shall require payers, fully integrated delivery systems, restricted health care service plans, and limited health care service plans, as defined in Section 1300.49 of Title 28 of the California Code of Regulations, to submit data and other information to measure the percentage of total health care expenditures allocated to primary care and behavioral health pursuant to Section 127505.
(2) For the calculation of total health care expenditures allocated to primary care and behavioral health, the office shall do all of the following:
(A) Use the Health Care Payments Data Program, established pursuant to Chapter 8.5 (commencing with Section 127671), to the greatest extent possible, to minimize reporting burdens for health care entities.
(B) Determine the categories of health care professionals who should be considered primary care and behavioral health providers and consider existing state and national approaches, as appropriate.
(C) Determine specific procedure codes that should be considered primary care and behavioral health services and consider existing state and national approaches, as appropriate.
(D) Determine the categories of payments to primary care or behavioral health care providers and practices, including non-claims-based payments, such as alternative payment models, that should be included when determining the total amount spent on primary care and behavioral health.
(i) (1) With consideration to minimizing reporting burdens and expenses, the office shall require providers and any physician organizations that are part of a fully integrated delivery system to submit audited financial reports, similar to those required in paragraphs (a) to (e), inclusive, of Section 128735. This paragraph does not apply to exempted providers.
(2) For physician organizations defined in paragraph (5) of subdivision (p) of Section 127500, and providers that do not routinely prepare audited financial reports, the office shall require a comprehensive financial statement that includes details regarding annual costs, annual receipts, realized capital gains and losses, and accumulated surplus and accumulated reserves using the standard accounting method routinely used by the physician organization or provider. The comprehensive financial statement shall be supported by sworn written declarations by the chief financial officer, chief executive officer, or other officer who has financial management and oversight responsibilities for the physician organization or provider, certifying that the financial statement is complete, true, and correct in all material matters to the best of their knowledge, and that the provider does not routinely prepare audited financial reports. This paragraph does not apply to exempted providers and physician organizations that are part of a fully integrated delivery system.
(3) The board, members of the board, the office, the department, and the employees, contractors, and advisors of the office and the department shall keep the audited financial reports and comprehensive financial statements confidential, and shall use the confidential information and documents only as necessary for the function of the office.
(4) This subdivision does not apply to providers that are already required to report under Section 128735 or risk bearing organizations (RBOs) that are required to file quarterly and annual financial statements under Section 1375.4 of this code and Section 1300.75.4.2 of Title 28 of the California Code of Regulations.
(5) Notwithstanding any other law, all information and documents obtained under this subdivision shall not be required to be disclosed pursuant to the California Public Records Act (Division 10 (commencing with Section 7920.000) of Title 1 of the Government Code) or any similar local law requiring the disclosure of public records.
(j) (1) Consistent with subdivision (a), the office shall obtain data from existing state and federal data sources and from regulated entities to effectively monitor impacts to health care workforce stability and training needs.
(2) In order for an adjustment to cost targets to be made under paragraph (7) of subdivision (d) of Section 127502, a provider, a fully integrated delivery system, or other associated party shall produce actual or projected nonsupervisory employee organized labor costs, including increased expenditures related to compensation, and any other supporting information to validate the adjustment, as may be requested by the office pertaining to the actual or projected organized labor costs.
(3) The office may collect all of the following types of data and make it accessible to the public:
(A) Overall trends in the health care workforce, including, but not limited to, statewide and regional workforce supply, unemployment and wage data, trends and projections of wages and compensation, projections of workforce supply by region and specialty, training needs, and other future trends in the health care workforce.
(B) The number and classification of workers in internship, clinical placements, apprenticeships, and other training programs sponsored by an employer.
(C) The percentage of employees employed through a registry or casual employment.
(D) The number of workers at health care entities that were retrained through established public training programs.
(E) Investments by health care entities in private training and retraining programs.
(F) The number of workers subject to relocation, termination, or mass layoff as described in Chapter 4 (commencing with Section 1400) of Part 4 of Division 2 of the Labor Code.
(4) The office may request additional data from health care entities if it finds that the data is needed to effectively monitor impacts to health care workforce stability and training needs.
(5) The office may annually request from health care entities that are in compliance with the cost target, a summary of best practices used for improving health care affordability, if any.
(k) In furtherance of this section, the office shall promulgate regulations to collect data and other information it determines necessary from health care entities, except exempted providers, to carry out the functions of the office. The regulations may include, but are not limited to, detailed reporting schedules, technical specifications, and other resources to ensure the submission of accurate data in a standardized format within the specified timeframes. Prior to adopting regulations and approving the reporting schedules, technical specifications, and other resources, the office shall engage relevant stakeholders, hold a public meeting to solicit input, and provide a response to input received.

SEC. 130.

 Section 127502.5 of the Health and Safety Code is amended to read:

127502.5.
 (a) The director shall enforce the cost targets established by this chapter against health care entities in a manner that ensures compliance with targets, allows each health care entity opportunities for remediation, and ensures health care entities do not implement performance improvement plans in ways that are likely to erode access, quality, equity, or workforce stability. The director shall consider each entity’s contribution to cost growth in excess of the applicable target and any actions by the entity that have eroded, or are likely to erode, access, quality, equity, or workforce stability, factors that contribute to spending in excess of the applicable target, and the extent to which each entity has control over the applicable components of its cost target. The director shall review information and other relevant data from additional sources, as appropriate, including data from the Health Care Payments Data Program, to determine the appropriate health care entity that may be subject to enforcement actions under this section. Commensurate with the health care entity’s offense or violation, the director may take the following progressive enforcement actions:
(1) Provide technical assistance to the entity to assist it to come into compliance.
(2) Require or compel public testimony by the health care entity regarding its failure to comply with the target.
(3) Require submission and implementation of performance improvement plans, including input from the board.
(4) Assess administrative penalties in amounts initially commensurate with the failure to meet the targets, and in escalating amounts for repeated or continuing failure to meet the targets.
(b) Prior to taking any enforcement action, the office shall do all of the following:
(1) Notify the health care entity that it has exceeded the health care cost target.
(2) Give the health care entity not less than 45 days to respond and provide additional data, including information in support of a waiver described in subdivision (i).
(3) If the office determines that the additional data and information meets the burden established by the office to explain all or a portion of the entity’s cost growth in excess of the applicable target, the office may modify its findings, as appropriate.
(4) The director shall consult with the Director of Managed Health Care, the Director of Health Care Services, or the Insurance Commissioner, as applicable, prior to taking any of the enforcement actions specified in this section with respect to a payer regulated by the respective department to ensure any technical assistance, performance improvement plans, or other measures authorized by this section are consistent with laws applicable to regulating health care service plans, health insurers, or a Medi-Cal managed care plan contracted with the State Department of Health Care Services.
(c) (1) If a health care entity exceeds an applicable cost target, the office shall notify the health care entity of their status and provide technical assistance. The office shall make public the extent to which the health care entity exceeded the target. The office may require a health care entity to submit and implement a performance improvement plan that identifies the causes for spending growth and shall include, but not be limited to, specific strategies, adjustments, and action steps the health care entity proposes to implement to improve spending performance during a specified time period. The office shall request further information, as needed, in order to approve a proposed performance improvement plan. The director may approve a performance improvement plan consistent with those areas requiring specific performance or correction for up to three years. The director shall not approve a performance improvement plan that proposes to meet cost targets in ways that are likely to erode access, quality, equity, or workforce stability. The standards developed under Article 7 (commencing with Section 127506) may be considered in the approval of a performance improvement plan.
(2) The office shall monitor the health care entity for compliance with the performance improvement plan. The office shall publicly post the identity of a health care entity implementing a performance improvement plan and, at a minimum, a detailed summary of the entity’s compliance with the requirements of the performance improvement plan while the plan remains in effect and shall transmit an approved performance improvement plan to appropriate state regulators for the entity.
(3) A health care entity shall work to implement the performance improvement plan as submitted to, and approved by, the office. The office shall monitor the health care entity for compliance with the performance improvement plan.
(4) The board, the members of the board, the office, the department, and employees, contractors, and advisors of the office and the department shall keep confidential all nonpublic information and documents obtained under this subdivision, and shall not disclose the confidential information or documents to any person, other than the Attorney General, without the consent of the source of the information or documents, except in an administrative penalty action, or a public meeting under this section if the office believes that disclosure should be made in the public interest after taking into account any privacy, trade secret, or anticompetitive considerations. Prior to disclosure in a public meeting, the office shall notify the relevant party and provide the source of nonpublic information an opportunity to specify facts documenting why release of the information is damaging or prejudicial to the source of the information and why the public interest is served in withholding the information. Information that is otherwise publicly available, or that has not been confidentially maintained by the source, shall not be considered nonpublic information. This paragraph does not limit the board’s discussion of nonpublic information during closed sessions of board meetings.
(5) Notwithstanding any other law, all nonpublic information and documents obtained under this subdivision shall not be required to be disclosed pursuant to the California Public Records Act (Division 10 (commencing with Section 7920.000) of Title 1 of the Government Code), or any similar local law requiring the disclosure of public records.
(d) (1) If the director determines that a health care entity is not compliant with an approved performance improvement plan and does not meet the cost target, the director may assess administrative penalties commensurate with the failure of the health care entity to meet the target. An entity that has fully complied with an approved performance improvement plan by the deadline established by the office shall not be assessed administrative penalties. However, the director may require a modification to the performance improvement plan until the cost target is met.
(2) The administrative penalty shall be deposited into the Health Care Affordability Fund.
(3) Prior to assessing an administrative penalty against a health care entity, the director may consider related provision of nonfederal share, determined to be appropriate by the Director of Health Care Services, associated with Medi-Cal payments, such as expenditures by providers or provider-affiliated entities that serve as the nonfederal share associated with Medi-Cal reimbursement.
(4) To the extent that an administrative penalty is related to a Medi-Cal expenditure, including federal financial participation, the office shall coordinate with the State Department of Health Care Services to ensure appropriate treatment and return of any federal funds pursuant to Subpart F commencing with Section 433.300 of Part 433 of Title 42 of the Code of Federal Regulations.
(5) If, after the implementation of one or more performance improvement plans, the health care entity is repeatedly noncompliant with the performance improvement plan, the director may assess escalating administrative penalties that exceed the penalties imposed under paragraphs (1) and (2) of this subdivision and paragraph (4) of subdivision (a).
(6) The director shall consider all of the following to determine the penalty:
(A) The nature, number, and gravity of the offenses.
(B) The fiscal condition of the health care entity, including revenues, reserves, profits, and assets of the entity, as well as any affiliates, subsidiaries, or other entities that control, govern, or are financially responsible for the entity or are subject to the control, governance, or financial control of the entity.
(C) The market impact of the entity.
(e) Administrative penalties shall not constitute expenditures for the purpose of meeting cost targets. The imposition of administrative penalties shall not alter or otherwise relieve the health care entity of the obligation to meet a previously established cost target or a cost target for subsequent years.
(f) (1) For payers and fully integrated delivery systems, the director also shall enforce cost targets established by Section 127502 against the cost growth for administrative costs and profits.
(2) If a payer exceeds the target for per capita growth in total health care expenditures, but has met its target for administrative costs and profits, the payer shall submit relevant documentation or supporting evidence for the drivers of excess cost growth.
(3) This subdivision does not relieve a payer of its obligation to meet targets for per capita growth in total health care expenditures established by Section 127502, and does not limit enforcement actions for payers under this section.
(g) If data indicate adverse impacts on cost, access, quality, equity, or workforce stability from consolidation, market power, or other market failures, the director may, at any point, require that a cost and market impact review be performed on a health care entity, consistent with Section 127507.2.
(h) (1) The director may directly assess administrative penalties when a health care entity has failed to comply with this chapter by doing any of the following:
(A) Willfully failing to report complete and accurate data.
(B) Repeatedly neglecting to file a performance improvement plan with the office.
(C) Repeatedly failing to file an acceptable performance improvement plan with the office.
(D) Repeatedly failing to implement the performance improvement plan.
(E) Knowingly failing to provide information required by this section to the office.
(F) Knowingly falsifying information required by this section.
(2) The director may call a public meeting to notify the public about the health care entity’s violation and declare the entity as imperiling the state’s ability to monitor and control health care cost growth.
(i) The office may establish requirements for health care entities to file for a waiver of enforcement actions due to reasonable factors outside the entity’s control, such as changes in state or federal law or anticipated costs for investments and initiatives to minimize future costly care, such as increasing access to primary and preventive services, or under extraordinary circumstances, such as an act of God or catastrophic event. The entity shall submit documentation or supporting evidence of the reasonable factors, anticipated costs, or extraordinary circumstances. The office shall request further information, as needed, in order to approve or deny an application for a waiver.
(j) As applied to the administrative penalties for acts in violation of this chapter, the remedies provided by this section and by any other law are not exclusive and may be sought and employed in any combination to enforce this chapter.
(k) Following an administrative hearing, a health care entity adversely affected by a final order imposing an administrative penalty authorized by this chapter may seek independent judicial review by filing a petition for a writ of mandate in accordance with Section 1094.5 of the Code of Civil Procedure.
(l) After an order imposing an administrative penalty becomes final, and if a petition for a writ of mandate has not been filed within the time limits prescribed in Section 11523 of the Government Code, the office may apply to the clerk of the appropriate court for a judgment in the amount of the administrative penalty. The application, which shall include a certified copy of the final order of the administrative hearing officer, shall constitute a sufficient showing to warrant the issuance of the judgment. The court clerk shall enter the judgment immediately in conformity with the application. The judgment so entered has the same force and effect as, and is subject to all the provisions of law relating to, a judgment in a civil action, and may be enforced in the same manner as any other judgment of the court in which it is entered.

SEC. 131.

 Section 127507.2 of the Health and Safety Code is amended to read:

127507.2.
 (a) (1) If the office finds that a material change noticed pursuant to Section 127507 is likely to have a risk of a significant impact on market competitions, the state’s ability to meet cost targets, or costs for purchasers and consumers, the office shall conduct a cost and market impact review that examines factors relating to a health care entity’s business and its relative market position, including, but not limited to, changes in size and market share in a given service or geographic region, prices for services compared to other providers for the same services, quality, equity, cost, access, or any other factors the office determines to be in the public interest. The office also may conduct cost and market impact reviews on any health care entity based on a determination by the director under subdivision (g) of Section 127502.5, or in association with agreements or transactions referred to the office by a reviewing authority listed in paragraphs (1) to (4), inclusive, of subdivision (d) of Section 127507.
(2) In conducting the review, the office shall consider the benefits of the material change to consumers of health care services, where those benefits could not be achieved without that transaction, including, but not limited to, increased access to health care services, higher quality, and more efficient health care services where consumers of health care services benefit directly from those efficiencies. The party subject to the review may provide information demonstrating the benefits of the material change or information demonstrating the benefits of an integrated organization where the material change would increase those benefits, and where the benefits involve cost, quality, or access to care for consumers of health care services.
(3) (A) Within 60 days of receipt of a notice of material change, the office shall either advise the noticing health care entity of the office’s determination to conduct a cost and market impact review or provide a written waiver from the review. An agreement or transaction for which a cost and market impact review proceeds shall not be implemented until 60 days after the office issues a final report.
(B) The office may adopt regulations that expedite these timelines, as warranted, depending on the nature of the agreement or transaction.
(4) In furtherance of this article, the office shall conduct investigations, including, but not limited to, compelling, by subpoena, health care entities and other relevant market participants to submit data and documents.
(5) Upon completion of the cost and market impact review, the office shall make factual findings and issue a preliminary report of its findings. After allowing for the affected parties and the public to respond in writing to the findings in the preliminary report, the office shall issue its final report.
(b) The office shall adopt regulations for notification to affected parties for the basis of the review, factors considered in the review, requests for data and information from affected parties, the public, and other relevant market participants, and relevant timelines.
(c) (1) The office, the department, employees, contractors, and advisors of the office and the department, the board, and the board members shall keep confidential all nonpublic information and documents obtained under this article that were not required with the notice of material change or from the parties to the transaction, and shall not disclose the confidential information or documents to any person, other than the Attorney General, without the consent of the source of the information or documents, except in a preliminary report or final report under this section if the office believes that disclosure should be made in the public interest after taking into account any privacy, trade secret, or anticompetitive considerations. Prior to disclosure in a report, the office shall notify the relevant party and provide the source of nonpublic information an opportunity to specify facts documenting why release of the information is damaging or prejudicial to the source of the information and why the public interest is served in withholding the information. Information that is otherwise publicly available, or that has not been confidentially maintained by the source, shall not be considered nonpublic information.
(2) Notwithstanding any other law, all nonpublic information and documents obtained under this article shall not be required to be disclosed pursuant to the California Public Records Act (Division 10 (commencing with Section 7920.000) of Title 1 of the Government Code), or any similar local law requiring the disclosure of public records.
(d) (1) The office may refer its findings, including the totality of documents gathered and data analysis performed, to the Attorney General for further review of any unfair methods of competition, anticompetitive behavior, or anticompetitive effects.
(2) This section does not limit the authority of the Attorney General to protect consumers in the health care market or to protect the economy of the state, or any significant part thereof, insofar as health care is concerned, under any state or federal law. The authority of the Attorney General to maintain competitive markets and prosecute state and federal antitrust and unfair competition violations shall not be narrowed, abrogated, or otherwise altered by this section.

SEC. 132.

 Section 128736 of the Health and Safety Code is amended to read:

128736.
 (a)  Each hospital shall file an Emergency Care Data Record for each patient encounter in a hospital emergency department. The Emergency Care Data Record shall include all of the following:
(1)  Date of birth.
(2)  Sex.
(3)  Race.
(4)  Ethnicity.
(5)  Preferred language spoken.
(6)  ZIP Code.
(7)  Patient social security number, if it is contained in the patient’s medical record.
(8)  Service date.
(9)  Principal diagnosis.
(10)  Other diagnoses.
(11)  External causes of morbidity.
(12) Principal procedure.
(13) Other procedures.
(14) Disposition of patient.
(15) Expected source of payment.
(16) Elements added pursuant to Section 128738.
(b)  It is the expressed intent of the Legislature that the patient’s rights of confidentiality shall not be violated in any manner. Patient social security numbers and any other data elements that the department believes could be used to determine the identity of an individual patient shall be exempt from the disclosure requirements of the California Public Records Act (Division 10 (commencing with Section 7920.000) of Title 1 of the Government Code).
(c)  No person reporting data pursuant to this section shall be liable for damages in any action based on the use or misuse of patient-identifiable data that has been mailed or otherwise transmitted to the department pursuant to the requirements of subdivision (a).
(d)  Data reporting requirements established by the department shall be consistent with national standards as applicable.
(e)  This section shall become operative on January 1, 2004.

SEC. 133.

 Section 150204.5 of the Health and Safety Code is amended to read:

150204.5.
 (a) A regional pilot program may be established in the Counties of Santa Clara and San Mateo and the City and County of San Francisco to determine the feasibility and benefits of implementing and maintaining a repository and distribution program. The regional pilot program shall run until January 1, 2030.
(b) Participating pharmacies in the regional pilot program shall be owned or operated by the Counties of Santa Clara or San Mateo or the City and County of San Francisco, licensed in California, and not on probation with the California State Board of Pharmacy.
(c) (1) Participants in the regional pilot program shall develop and implement their programs in accordance with this division.
(2) While participating in the regional pilot program, participants shall continue to meet all other legal responsibilities and requirements relating to pharmacy services and comply with all relevant state and federal statutes when administering their programs.
(d) Section 150204 shall not apply to a pilot program established pursuant to this section and Section 150204.6.

SEC. 134.

 Section 150204.6 of the Health and Safety Code is amended to read:

150204.6.
 (a) (1) A county specified in Section 150204.5 may establish, by an action of the county board of supervisors or by an action of the public health officer of the county, as directed by the county board of supervisors, a repository and distribution program for purposes of this division. The county shall advise the California State Board of Pharmacy within 30 days from the date it establishes a repository and distribution program.
(2) Only an eligible entity, pursuant to Section 150201, may participate in this program to dispense medication donated to the drug repository and distribution program.
(3) An eligible entity that seeks to participate in the program shall inform the county health department and the California State Board of Pharmacy in writing of its intent to participate in the program. An eligible entity may not participate in the program until it has received written or electronic documentation from the county health department confirming that the department has received its notice of intent.
(4) (A) A participating primary care clinic, as described in Section 150201, shall disclose to the county health department the name of the licensed physician who shall be accountable to the California State Board of Pharmacy for the clinic’s program operations pursuant to this division. This physician shall be the professional director, as defined in subdivision (c) of Section 4182 of the Business and Professions Code.
(B) The county board of supervisors or public health officer of the county shall, upon request, make available to the California State Board of Pharmacy the information in this division.
(5) The county board of supervisors, the public health officer of the county, and the California State Board of Pharmacy may prohibit an eligible or participating entity from participating in the program if the entity does not comply with the provisions of the program, pursuant to this division. If the county board of supervisors, the public health officer of the county, or the California State Board of Pharmacy prohibits an eligible or participating entity from participating in the program, it shall provide written notice to the prohibited entity within 15 days of making this determination. The county board of supervisors, the public health officer of the county, and the California State Board of Pharmacy shall each ensure that this notice is also provided to the other two entities.
(b) A county that elects to establish a repository and distribution program pursuant to this division shall establish written procedures for, at a minimum, all of the following:
(1) Establishing eligibility for medically indigent patients who may participate in the program.
(2) Ensuring that patients eligible for the program shall not be charged for any medications provided under the program.
(3) Developing a formulary of medications appropriate for the repository and distribution program.
(4) Ensuring proper safety and management of any medications collected by and maintained under the authority of a participating entity.
(5) Ensuring the privacy of individuals for whom the medication was originally prescribed.
(c) Medication donated to the repository and distribution program or transferred between participating entities shall comply with the requirements specified in this division. Medication donated to the repository and distribution program shall meet all of the following criteria:
(1) The medication shall not be a controlled substance.
(2) The medication shall not have been adulterated, misbranded, or stored under conditions contrary to standards set by the United States Pharmacopoeia (USP) or the product manufacturer.
(3) The medication shall not have been in the possession of a patient or any individual member of the public, and in the case of medications donated by a hospital, facility, or entity, as described in Section 150202, shall have been under the control of a staff member of the health or care facility who is licensed in California as a health care professional or has completed, at a minimum, the training requirements specified in Section 1569.69.
(d) (1) Only medication that is donated in unopened, tamper-evident packaging or modified unit dose containers that meet USP standards is eligible for donation to the repository and distribution program, provided lot numbers and expiration dates are affixed. Medication donated in opened containers shall not be dispensed by the repository and distribution program, and once identified, shall be quarantined immediately and handled and disposed of in accordance with the Medical Waste Management Act (Part 14 (commencing with Section 117600) of Division 104).
(2) (A) A medication that is the subject of a United States Food and Drug Administration managed risk evaluation and mitigation strategy pursuant to Section 355-1 of Title 21 of the United States Code shall not be donated if this inventory transfer is prohibited by that strategy, or if the inventory transfer requires prior authorization from the manufacturer of the medication.
(B) A medication that is the subject of a United States Food and Drug Administration managed risk evaluation and mitigation strategy pursuant to Section 355-1 of Title 21 of the United States Code, the donation of which is not prohibited pursuant to subparagraph (A), shall be managed and dispensed according to the requirements of that strategy.
(e) A pharmacist or physician at a participating entity shall use their professional judgment in determining whether donated medication meets the standards of this division before accepting or dispensing medication under the repository and distribution program.
(f) A pharmacist or physician shall adhere to standard pharmacy practices, as required by state and federal law, when dispensing all medications.
(g) Medication that is donated to the repository and distribution program shall be handled in the following ways:
(1) Dispensed to an eligible patient.
(2) Destroyed.
(3) Returned to a reverse distributor or licensed waste hauler.
(4) (A) Transferred to another participating entity within the county to be dispensed to eligible patients pursuant to this division. Notwithstanding this paragraph, a participating county-owned pharmacy may transfer eligible donated medication to a participating county-owned pharmacy within another adjacent county that has adopted a program pursuant to this division, if the pharmacies transferring the medication have a written agreement between the entities that outlines protocols and procedures for safe and appropriate drug transfer that are consistent with this division.
(B) Medication donated under this division may be transferred more than once only within the county and after the final transfer shall be dispensed to an eligible patient, destroyed, or returned to a reverse distributor or licensed waste hauler.
(C) Medication transferred pursuant to this paragraph shall be transferred with documentation that identifies the drug name, strength, and quantity of the medication, original manufacturer lot numbers, and current expiration date. The document shall include a statement that the medication shall be handled pursuant to subparagraph (B). A copy of this document shall be kept by the participating entity transferring the medication and the participating entity receiving the medication.
(D) Medication donated from multiple facilities under this division may be commingled by the participating entity. However, in the event of a recall, recalled medication shall be destroyed at the National Drug Code level.
(E) Participating facilities shall maintain a system for recording and logging donated medication which allows the tracking of medication in each repackaged container back to the facility or facilities that donated the medication.
(h) Medication that is donated to the repository and distribution program that does not meet the requirements of this division shall not be distributed or transferred under this program and shall be either destroyed or returned to a reverse distributor. Donated medication that does not meet the requirements of this division shall not be sold, dispensed, or otherwise transferred to any other entity.
(i) (1) When dispensed to an eligible patient under this program, the donated medication shall be in a new, properly labeled container, specific to the eligible patient and ensuring the privacy of the individuals for whom the medication was initially dispensed. However, medications donated in sealed manufacturer’s packaging are not required to be placed into a new container, but shall otherwise be appropriately labeled. Expired medication shall not be dispensed.
(2) The pharmacy shall have repackaging policies and procedures in place for identifying and recalling medications. Medication that is repackaged shall be labeled with the earliest expiration date. Repackaged medication can only be dispensed to patients within the county.
(j) A participating entity shall keep complete records of the acquisition and disposition of medication donated to, and transferred, dispensed, and destroyed under, the repository and distribution program. Notwithstanding any other law, the acquisition record created by a participating entity may be used as the donation, destruction, or disposition record required of a donor organization for donated medication.
(k) Local and county protocols established pursuant to this division shall conform to the Pharmacy Law regarding packaging, transporting, storing, and dispensing all medications.
(l) County protocols established for packaging, transporting, storing, and dispensing medications that require refrigeration, including, but not limited to, a biological product as defined in Section 351 of the federal Public Health Service Act (42 U.S.C. Sec. 262), an intravenously injected drug, or an infused drug, shall include specific procedures to ensure that these medications are packaged, transported, stored, and dispensed at appropriate temperatures and in accordance with USP standards and the Pharmacy Law.
(m) Notwithstanding any other law, a participating entity shall follow the same federal and state procedural drug pedigree requirements for donated drugs as it would follow for drugs purchased from a wholesaler or directly from a drug manufacturer.
(n) On January 1, 2028, the California State Board of Pharmacy shall submit to the Legislature an evaluation of the regional pilot programs and pilot participants’ compliance to program requirements as specified in this division. The report shall comply with Section 9795 of the Government Code.
(o) A participating entity shall disclose to the California State Board of Pharmacy any “medication errors,” as that term is described in Section 1716 of Title 16 of the California Code of Regulations, arising out of a program under this division, within 30 days of a participating entity discovering the medication error.
(p) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2030, and as of that date is repealed.

SEC. 135.

 Section 1156.35 of the Labor Code is amended to read:

1156.35.
 (a) As an alternative procedure to the polling place election process set forth in Section 1156.3, a labor organization may be certified as the exclusive bargaining representative of a bargaining unit through either a labor peace election or a non-labor peace election, dependent on whether an employer enrolls and agrees to a labor peace election for labor organization representation campaigns. A labor peace election or a non-labor peace election permits a bargaining unit to summarily select a labor organization as its representative for collective bargaining purposes without holding a polling place election.
(b) Every agricultural employer in this state shall have the option to indicate to the board whether they agree to a labor peace compact for purposes of this section. For calendar year 2023, this choice shall be made during the time period of January 1, 2023, through February 1, 2023. For all subsequent years, an agricultural employer shall exercise this option in the 30 days prior to January 1 of the following year.
(c) As used in this section, “labor peace compact” means an agreement by the employer that includes all of the following provisions:
(1) An agreement to make no statements for or against union representation to its employees or publicly, in any written or oral form, at any time during employee hire, rehire, or orientation, or after a Notice of Intent to Organize, Notice to Take Access, or petition for any type of election is filed.
(2) An agreement by the employer to voluntarily allow labor organization access as previously permitted under this part prior to the June 23, 2021, decision of the United States Supreme Court in Cedar Point Nursery v. Hassid (2021) 141 S.Ct. 2063.
(3) An agreement not to engage in any captive audience meetings. For purposes of this paragraph “captive audience meeting” means any meeting or communication between an employer or employer’s management, supervisors, representatives, or agents and one or more agricultural employees, whether voluntary or mandatory, or paid or unpaid, where there is any discussion of unions, union representation, unionization efforts, or other protected concerted activity, in any way.
(4) An agreement not to disparage the union in any written or verbal communications to employees or to the public.
(5) An agreement not to express any preference for one union over another union.
(d) A labor peace compact shall not prohibit an employer from communicating truthful statements to employees regarding workplace policies or benefits, providing that such communications make no reference to any union, unionization efforts, or other protected concerted activity.
(e) A labor peace compact shall be followed during employee hire, rehire, or orientation, or after a Notice of Intent to Organize, Notice to Take Access, or petition for any type of election is filed. Where a petition for an election has been filed, the labor peace compact requirements shall continue until after an election concludes and the board issues a certification of the vote. A farm labor contractor shall be bound by the labor peace election choice of the agricultural employer for whom it performs work. A labor peace election choice shall remain valid for one year or for the duration of a mail ballot election campaign, whichever is longer, and shall automatically renew for successive years, unless revoked in the 30-day period prior to the commencement of the next calendar year in January. The board shall develop an online web-based labor peace election process that will allow employers to indicate their labor peace choice online, and that will allow labor organizations to see whether a specific agricultural employer has agreed to a labor peace election campaign. If an agricultural employer does not agree to a labor peace election campaign, the agricultural employer shall be deemed to be against that labor peace election choice
(f) If an agricultural employer agrees to a labor peace election campaign, then employees may make a choice regarding union representation through a mail ballot election as described in Section 1156.36. If an agricultural employer does not agree to a labor peace election campaign, then employees may make a choice regarding union representation through a non-labor peace election as described in Section 1156.37.
(g) If an agricultural employer violates its labor peace election campaign choice in any way during a mail ballot campaign, a labor organization may still be certified as representative of the affected bargaining unit, as outlined in Section 1156.36. If an agricultural employer violates its labor peace election campaign choice in any way and there is no certification through a mail ballot election or election objections process, the petitioning labor organization may conduct a non-labor peace election following the labor peace compact violation. A violation of a labor peace compact shall be determined by the board based on an administrative investigation regarding whether an employer made any statements for or against union representation to its employees or publicly, or whether it denied access to a labor organization. If the board requires a hearing to determine whether a violation occurred, the board shall expedite that hearing.
(h) As used in this section “polling place election” means the election process described in subdivision (b) of Section 1156.3.
(i) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2028, and as of that date is repealed.

SEC. 136.

 Section 1410 of the Labor Code is amended to read:

1410.
 (a) A call center employer shall not order a relocation of its call center, or one or more of its facilities or operating units within a call center, unless notice of the relocation is provided in accordance with Section 1401. If a call center employer is required to provide notice under subdivision (a) of Section 1401 and this section, the call center employer may provide a single notice. However, a notice of the relocation of a call center shall include “This notice is for the relocation of a call center” at the top of the notice.
(b) The Employment Development Department shall compile and publish semiannually, on its internet website, a list of call center employers operating a call center that provided notice pursuant to subdivision (a). This list shall include elements required by the federal Worker Adjustment and Retraining Notification Act (29 U.S.C. Sec. 2101 et seq.).
(c) The Employment Development Department and local workforce development boards shall provide workforce services to call center employers and their call center employees who are laid off as a result of the relocation of a call center, as defined in Section 1409.

SEC. 137.

 Section 1471 of the Labor Code is amended to read:

1471.
 (a) (1) The Fast Food Council is hereby established within the Department of Industrial Relations to consist of the following 10 members:
(A) One representative from the Department of Industrial Relations.
(B) Two representatives of fast food restaurant franchisors.
(C) Two representatives of fast food restaurant franchisees.
(D) Two representatives of fast food restaurant employees.
(E) Two representatives of advocates for fast food restaurant employees.
(F) One representative from the Governor’s Office of Business and Economic Development.
(2) The Governor shall appoint the representatives of the state agencies, fast food restaurant employees, fast food restaurant franchisees, and fast food restaurant franchisors. The Speaker of the Assembly and the Senate Rules Committee shall each appoint one representative of an advocate for fast food restaurant employees.
(3) The appointments shall be at the will of each appointing power and each member of the council shall serve for a term of four years except that all terms shall end on the date this section becomes inoperative. All terms that end prior to the date that this section becomes inoperative shall end on January 1. Vacancies occurring prior to the expiration of the term shall be filled by appointment for the unexpired term. A council member shall not serve more than two consecutive terms.
(4) The Governor shall designate the chairperson of the council from the membership for the council. The chairperson shall be responsible for convening the council. The person so designated shall hold the office of chairperson at the pleasure of the Governor. The chairperson shall designate a member of the council to act as chairperson in their absence.
(5) Each member of the council shall receive one hundred dollars ($100) for each day of their actual attendance at meetings of the council and other official business of the council, in addition to their actual necessary traveling expenses incurred in the performance of their duty as a member.
(6) The council may employ necessary assistants, officers, experts, and other employees as it deems necessary, subject to appropriation. All personnel of the council shall be under the supervision of the chairperson or an executive officer to whom the chairperson delegates such responsibility. All such personnel shall be appointed pursuant to the State Civil Service Act (Part 1 (commencing with Section 18000) of Division 5 of Title 2 of the Government Code), except for the one exempt deputy or employee allowed by subdivision (e) of Section 4 of Article VII of the California Constitution.
(7) All meetings of the council shall be subject to the Bagley-Keene Open Meeting Act (Article 9 (commencing with Section 11120) of Chapter 1 of Part 1 of Division 3 of Title 2 of the Government Code).
(b) The council’s purposes are to establish sectorwide minimum standards on wages, working hours, and other working conditions adequate to ensure and maintain the health, safety, and welfare of, and to supply the necessary cost of proper living to, fast food restaurant workers and to ensure and effect interagency coordination and prompt agency responses regarding issues affecting the health, safety, and employment of fast food restaurant workers.
(c) (1) The council shall provide direction to, and coordinate with, the Governor, executive agencies, and local agencies regarding the health, safety, and employment of fast food restaurant workers.
(2) The council shall not promulgate, petition for, issue, amend, or repeal, any standards, rules, or regulations pursuant to subdivision (d) or (e) until after the Director of Industrial Relations receives a petition approving the creation of the council signed by at least 10,000 California fast food restaurant employees.
(A) Only a person who is employed by a fast food restaurant in California at the time of signing the petition is entitled to sign it. Each signer shall provide the following on the petition:
(i) First and last name.
(ii) Name of the fast food restaurant where the signer is employed at the time of signature.
(iii) The California city where the fast food restaurant is located.
(iv) Signature, which may be an electronic signature.
(v) Date of signature.
(B) If a signer provides the information specified in subparagraph (A), it shall be presumed that the signature is genuine and the person signing is a fast food restaurant employee.
(C) Within 45 days of receipt of the petition, the Director of Industrial Relations shall verify whether the petition meets the requirements of this subdivision. Verification shall be limited to determining whether the petition contains at least 10,000 signatures and whether the signatures contain the required information. The director may use a random sampling technique to verify whether the signatures contain the required information.
(D) If the director verifies that a petition meets the requirements of this subdivision, the council shall convene its first meeting within 90 days of the date of verification.
(d) (1) (A) The council shall promulgate minimum fast food restaurant employment standards, including, as appropriate, standards on wages, working conditions, and training, as are reasonably necessary or appropriate to protect and ensure the welfare, including the physical well-being and security, of fast food restaurant workers or to otherwise meet the purposes of this section, subject to the limitations of subdivision (e). The council may also issue, amend, or repeal any other rules and regulations as necessary to carry out its duties under this section or meet the purposes of this section, subject to the limitations of subdivision (e). To the extent there is a conflict between standards, rules, or regulations issued by the council and the rules or regulations issued by another state agency, the standards, rules, or regulations issued by the council shall apply to fast food restaurant workers and fast food restaurant franchisees and franchisors, and the conflicting rules or regulations of the other state agency shall not have force or effect with respect to fast food restaurant workers, franchisees, or franchisors. Decisions by the council regarding standards, rules, and regulations shall be made by an affirmative vote of at least six of the council members. All standards, rules, and regulations by the council shall be issued, amended, or repealed, as applicable, in the manner prescribed in Chapter 3.5 (commencing with Section 11340) of Part 1 of Division 3 of Title 2 of the Government Code.
(B) The council shall submit, to the appropriate committees on labor of each house of the Legislature and pursuant to Section 9795 of the Government Code, a report that contains a copy of that standard, repeal, or amendment and a statement of the council’s reasons for adopting that standard, repeal, or amendment by January 15. The standard, repeal, or amendment shall not take effect before October 15 of that same year. Nothing herein restrains the Legislature from enacting legislation that prevents a standard, repeal, or amendment from taking effect.
(C) This paragraph shall not apply to emergency standards adopted pursuant to Sections 11346.1 and 11349.6 of the Government Code.
(2) (A) Any minimum wage established by the council from January 1, 2023, to December 31, 2023, inclusive, shall not be greater than twenty-two dollars ($22) per hour.
(B) On January 1, 2024, and annually thereafter, the highest hourly minimum wage that may be established by the council shall increase by no more than the lesser of one of the following, rounded to the nearest ten cents ($0.10):
(i) 3.5 percent.
(ii) The rate of change in the averages of the most recent July 1 to June 30, inclusive, period over the preceding July 1 to June 30, inclusive, period for the United States Bureau of Labor Statistics nonseasonally adjusted United States Consumer Price Index for Urban Wage Earners and Clerical Workers (U.S. CPI-W).
(3) Standards promulgated by the council shall be subject to any suspension of increases in the statewide minimum wage made pursuant to subdivision (d) of Section 1182.12.
(4) Standards promulgated by the council shall not alter or amend the requirements in the California Retail Food Code (Part 7 (commencing with Section 113700) of Division 104 of the Health and Safety Code).
(5) The council shall provide information as requested by the appropriate committees of the Legislature on labor to facilitate a review of the council’s performance and standards under this section, which review may be conducted in a joint hearing held every three years or as otherwise designated by the appropriate committees of the Legislature on labor.
(6) Nothing in this section shall be construed to give the council the authority to create or amend statutes.
(7) Nothing in this section shall be construed to permit the council to promulgate regulations creating new paid time off benefits, such as paid sick leave or paid vacation. For purposes of this paragraph, paid time off benefits do not include paid rest periods.
(8) Nothing in this section shall be construed to permit the council to promulgate regulations regarding predictable scheduling. Predictable scheduling does not include reporting time pay. The council may create a report containing a recommendation to the Legislature to enact laws regarding predictable scheduling.
(e) To the extent that any minimum standards that the council finds are reasonably necessary to protect fast food restaurant employee health and safety fall within the jurisdiction of the Occupational Safety and Health Standards Board, the council is not authorized to promulgate the standards pursuant to Section 142.3, but rather shall petition the Occupational Safety and Health Standards Board for the adoption, amendment, or repeal of any occupational safety and health standard. The Occupational Safety and Health Standards Board shall consider and respond to the petition no later than six months following receipt of the petition in accordance with Section 142.2, or no later than three months, if the petition relates to an emergency as defined in Section 11342.545 of the Government Code. The Occupational Safety and Health Standards Board shall not adopt a standard recommended by the council if it reduces occupational safety and health protections for employees.
(f) The council shall conduct a full review of the adequacy of the minimum fast food restaurant health, safety, and employment standards at least once every three years. Upon that review, the council shall issue, amend, or repeal, or make recommendations to issue, amend, or repeal, any fast food employment, health or safety standard applicable to fast food restaurants, or a portion of any such standard, as appropriate to meet the purposes of this section. Any change to existing regulations proposed by the council shall not be less protective of or less beneficial to health, safety, or fast food restaurant worker employment terms, conditions, or privileges, including wages, than the immediately preceding standard.
(g) The council shall hold meetings or hearings no less than every six months that are open to the public, at which the public, including fast food restaurant employees, shall have the opportunity to be heard on issues of fast food restaurant health, safety, and employment conditions. The council shall provide advance public notice of these meetings or hearings that is reasonably calculated to advise fast food restaurant workers, franchisors, franchisees, community members, and other stakeholders of the opportunity to participate in the meetings or hearings. The location of the meetings or hearings shall rotate among major metropolitan areas throughout the state to provide fast food restaurant workers, franchisors, franchisees, community members, and other stakeholders throughout the state a reasonable opportunity to participate in a meeting or hearing at least once per each three-year review.
(h) The council may coordinate with local agencies and authorize them to hold meetings or hearings that are open to the public, at which the public, including fast food restaurant employees, shall have the opportunity to be heard on issues of fast food restaurant health, safety, and employment conditions. After these meetings or hearings, the local agency shall prepare a report for the council that summarizes the information received at the public hearings or meetings and includes any recommendations for action by the council.
(i) A county, or a city with a population of greater than 200,000, may establish a Local Fast Food Council, which shall be composed of at least one representative who is either a fast food restaurant franchisor or a fast food restaurant franchisee and at least one representative who is a fast food restaurant employee, and a majority of representatives from local employment, health, and safety agencies. A Local Fast Food Council established pursuant to this subdivision shall periodically hold meetings that are open to the public, at which the public, including fast food restaurant employees, shall have the opportunity to be heard on issues of local fast food restaurant health, safety, and employment conditions. A Local Fast Food Council may provide written recommendations to the council regarding minimum state health, safety, and employment standards, including training, that the Local Fast Food Council finds are reasonably necessary to protect the health, safety, and welfare of fast food restaurant workers. A Local Fast Food Council shall operate independently from the council.
(j) All meetings of a Local Fast Food Council shall be subject to the Ralph M. Brown Act (Chapter 9 (commencing with Section 54950) of Part 1 of Division 2 of Title 5 of the Government Code).
(k) (1) The minimum wages, maximum hours of work, and other working conditions fixed by the council in standards promulgated pursuant to subdivision (d) shall be the minimum wage, maximum hours of work, and the standard conditions of labor for fast food restaurant employees or a relevant subgroup of fast food restaurant employees for purposes of state law. Nothing in this section shall restrict local jurisdictions’ exercise of police powers to establish more protective local standards. The employment of a fast food restaurant employee for lower wages or for longer hours than those fixed by the minimum standards promulgated by the council, or under any other working conditions prohibited by the minimum standards promulgated by the council, is unlawful. Compliance with the minimum fast food restaurant employment standards promulgated by the council shall be enforced by the commissioner and the Division of Labor Standards Enforcement pursuant to the procedures and provisions set forth in Chapter 4 (commencing with Section 79) of Division 1, Division 2 (commencing with Section 200), Division 3 (commencing with Section 2700), and Division 5 (commencing with Section 6400), and according to any additional enforcement procedures and provisions that are set forth in standards, orders, or regulations promulgated by the council.
(2) Other than occupational safety and health violations, which shall be enforced by the Division of Occupational Safety and Health under Division 5 (commencing with Section 6400), and other than discrimination, harassment, and related retaliation, which shall be enforced by the Civil Rights Department under Part 2.8 (commencing with 12900) of Division 3 of Title 2 of the Government Code, the Labor Commissioner shall enforce this part, including investigating an alleged violation, and ordering appropriate temporary relief to mitigate the violation or to maintain the status quo pending the completion of a full investigation or hearing, through the procedures set forth in Chapter 4 (commencing with Section 79) of Division 1 and Section 1197.1, including by issuance of a citation against an employer, fast food restaurant operator, fast food franchisee, fast food franchisor, or any other liable person under this part, and by filing a civil action. If a citation is issued, the procedures for issuing, contesting, and enforcing judgments for citations and civil penalties issued by the Labor Commissioner shall be the same as those set out in Section 98.74 or 1197.1, as appropriate. In any successful civil action to enforce this section by the Labor Commissioner or an employee, the court may grant injunctive relief in order to obtain compliance with this part, and shall award costs and reasonable attorney’s fees.
(3) A standard promulgated by the council pursuant to subdivision (d) shall not supersede a standard covered by a valid collective bargaining agreement if the agreement expressly provides for the wages, hours of work, and working conditions of the employees, and a regular hourly rate of pay not less than 30 percent more than the state minimum wage for those employees, if the agreement provides equivalent or greater protection than the standards established by the council and if state law on the same issue authorizes an exception for employees covered by a collective bargaining agreement. Nothing in this section shall be construed to allow a collective bargaining agreement to waive any occupational health and safety protections.
(4) Nothing in this section shall be construed to require local health departments to enforce standards issued by the council.
(l) In addition to the standards, rules, and regulations promulgated by the council pursuant to subdivision (d), the council is also authorized to issue any other rules, regulations, and guidance necessary for the enforcement of this part.
(m) On January 1, 2029, subdivisions (a) to (j), inclusive, shall become inoperative, and the council shall cease operations.

SEC. 138.

 Section 1472 of the Labor Code is amended to read:

1472.
 (a) A fast food restaurant operator shall not discharge or in any manner discriminate or retaliate against any employee for any of the following reasons:
(1) The employee made a complaint or disclosed information or the fast food restaurant operator believes the employee disclosed, or may disclose, information to the franchisor, to a person with authority over the employee or another employee who has the authority at the fast food restaurant to investigate, discover, or correct the violation or noncompliance, to the media, to the Legislature, or to a watchdog or community-based organization, or a governmental agency regarding employee or public health or safety.
(2) The employee instituted, caused to be instituted, testified in, or otherwise participated in a proceeding relating to employee or public health or safety, or any council or Local Fast Food Council proceeding.
(3) The employee refused to perform work in a fast food restaurant because the employee had reasonable cause to believe that the practices or premises of that fast food restaurant would violate worker or public health and safety laws, regulations, or any other section in this code, including Section 6400, any occupational safety and health standard, or any safety order of the division or standards board, or would pose a substantial risk to the health or safety of the employee, other employees, or the public.
(b) Any employee of a fast food restaurant operator discharged or otherwise discriminated or retaliated against in the terms and conditions of employment in violation of subdivision (a) shall have a right of action for, and shall be entitled to, reinstatement, and treble the lost wages and work benefits caused by the discrimination or retaliation, and the employee’s reasonably incurred attorney’s fees and costs.
(c) There shall be a rebuttable presumption of unlawful discrimination or retaliation for purposes of this section if a fast food restaurant operator discharges or takes any other adverse action against one of its employees within 90 days following the date when the operator had knowledge of that employee’s action or actions described in paragraphs (1) to (3), inclusive, of subdivision (a).

SEC. 139.

 Section 1771.4 of the Labor Code is amended to read:

1771.4.
 (a) All of the following are applicable to all public works projects that are otherwise subject to the requirements of this chapter:
(1) The call for bids and contract documents shall specify that the project is subject to compliance monitoring and enforcement by the Department of Industrial Relations.
(2) The awarding body shall post or require the prime contractor to post job site notices, as prescribed by regulation.
(3) (A) Each contractor and subcontractor shall furnish the records specified in Section 1776 directly to the Labor Commissioner, in the following manner:
(i) At least monthly or more frequently if specified in the contract with the awarding body. For purposes of this clause, “monthly” means that a submission of records shall be made at least once every 30 days while work is being performed on the project and within 30 days after the final day of work performed on the project.
(ii) In an electronic format, in the manner prescribed by the Labor Commissioner, on the department’s internet website.
(B) A contractor or subcontractor who fails to furnish records pursuant to subparagraph (A), relating to its employees, shall be subject to a penalty by the Labor Commissioner of one hundred dollars ($100) per each day in which the party was in violation of subparagraph (A), not to exceed a total penalty of five thousand dollars ($5,000) per project. Penalties received pursuant to this paragraph shall be deposited in the State Public Works Enforcement Fund established by Section 1771.3 and shall be used only for the purposes specified in that section.
(C) The Labor Commissioner shall not levy a penalty pursuant to subparagraph (B) until a contractor or subcontractor fails to furnish the records pursuant to subparagraph (A) 14 days after the requirement set forth in clause (i) of subparagraph (A).
(D) Penalties pursuant to subparagraph (B) may only accrue to the actual contractor or subcontractor who failed to furnish the records pursuant to subparagraph (A).
(4) If the contractor or subcontractor is not registered pursuant to Section 1725.5 and is performing work on a project for which registration is not required because of subdivision (f) of Section 1725.5, the unregistered contractor or subcontractor is not required to furnish the records specified in Section 1776 directly to the Labor Commissioner but shall retain the records specified in Section 1776 for at least three years after completion of the work.
(5) The department shall undertake those activities it deems necessary to monitor and enforce compliance with prevailing wage requirements.
(b) The Labor Commissioner may exempt a public works project from compliance with all or part of the requirements of subdivision (a) if either of the following occurs:
(1) The awarding body has enforced an approved labor compliance program, as defined in Section 1771.5, on all public works projects under its authority, except those deemed exempt pursuant to subdivision (a) of Section 1771.5, continuously since December 31, 2011.
(2) The awarding body has entered into a collective bargaining agreement that binds all contractors performing work on the project and that includes a mechanism for resolving disputes about the payment of wages.
(c) The requirements of paragraph (1) of subdivision (a) shall only apply to contracts for public works projects awarded on or after January 1, 2015.
(d) The requirements of paragraph (3) of subdivision (a) shall apply to all contracts for public work, whether new or ongoing, on or after January 1, 2016.
(e) (1) No later than July 1, 2024, the department shall develop and implement an online database of electronic certified payroll records submitted pursuant to this section.
(2) The online database created pursuant to paragraph (1) shall only be accessible to multiemployer Taft-Hartley trust funds (29 U.S.C. Sec. 186(c)) and joint labor-management committees established pursuant to the federal Labor Management Cooperation Act of 1978 (29 U.S.C. Sec. 175a).
(3) Electronic certified payroll records included in the online database created pursuant to paragraph (1) shall only contain nonredacted information pursuant to subdivision (e) of Section 1776 that may be provided to multiemployer Taft-Hartley trust funds (29 U.S.C. Sec. 186(c)) and joint labor-management committees established pursuant to the federal Labor Management Cooperation Act of 1978 (29 U.S.C. Sec. 175a) under applicable law.

SEC. 140.

 Section 2671 of the Labor Code is amended to read:

2671.
 As used in this part:
(a) “Person” means any individual, partnership, corporation, limited liability company, or association, and includes, but is not limited to, employers, manufacturers, jobbers, wholesalers, contractors, subcontractors, and any other person or entity engaged in the business of garment manufacturing.
“Person” does not include any person who manufactures garments by oneself, without the assistance of a contractor, employee, or others; any person who engages solely in that part of the business engaged solely in cleaning, alteration, or tailoring; any person who engages in the activities herein regulated as an employee with wages as their sole compensation; or any person as provided by regulation.
(b) “Garment manufacturer” or “manufacturer” means any person who is engaged in garment manufacturing who is not a contractor.
(c) “Garment manufacturing” means sewing, cutting, making, processing, repairing, finishing, assembling, dyeing, altering a garment’s design, causing another person to alter a garment’s design, affixing a label to a garment, or otherwise preparing any garment or any article of wearing apparel or accessories designed or intended to be worn by any individual, including, but not limited to, clothing, hats, gloves, handbags, hosiery, ties, scarfs, and belts, for sale or resale by any person or any persons contracting to have those operations performed and other operations and practices in the apparel industry as may be identified in regulations of the Department of Industrial Relations consistent with the purposes of this part. The Labor Commissioner shall adopt, and may from time to time amend, regulations to clarify and refine this definition to be consistent with current and future industry practices, but the regulations shall not limit the scope of garment manufacturing, as defined in this subdivision. The definition in this subdivision is declaratory of existing law.
(d) “Brand guarantor” means any person contracting for the performance of garment manufacturing, regardless of whether the person with whom they contract performs the manufacturing operations or hires contractors or subcontractors to perform the manufacturing operations, which include sewing, cutting, making, processing, repairing, finishing, assembling, dyeing, altering a garment’s design, causing another person to alter a garment’s design, affixing a label on a garment, or otherwise preparing any garment or any article of wearing apparel or accessories designed or intended to be worn by any individual, including, but not limited to, clothing, hats, gloves, handbags, hosiery, ties, scarfs, and belts, for sale or resale and other operations and practices in the apparel industry as may be identified in regulations of the Department of Industrial Relations consistent with the purposes of this part. Contracts for the performance of garment manufacturing include licensing of a brand or name. The Labor Commissioner may adopt, and may from time to time amend, regulations to clarify and refine this definition to be consistent with current and future industry practices; however, the regulations shall not limit the scope of garment manufacturing, as defined in this section.
(e) “Commissioner” means the Labor Commissioner.
(f) “Contractor” means any person who, with the assistance of employees or others, is engaged in garment manufacturing by primarily engaging in sewing, cutting, making, processing, repairing, finishing, assembling, dyeing, altering a garment’s design, causing another person to alter a garment’s design, affixing a label on a garment, or otherwise preparing any garment or any article of wearing apparel or accessories designed or intended to be worn by any individual, including, but not limited to, clothing, hats, gloves, handbags, hosiery, ties, scarfs, and belts, for another person, including, but not limited to, another contractor, garment manufacturer, or brand guarantor. “Contractor” includes a subcontractor that is primarily engaged in those operations. The Labor Commissioner may adopt, and may from time to time amend, regulations to clarify and refine this definition to be consistent with current and future industry practices; however, the regulations shall not limit the scope of garment manufacturing, as defined in this section. The definition in this subdivision is declaratory of existing law.

SEC. 141.

 Section 2783 of the Labor Code is amended to read:

2783.
 Section 2775 and the holding in Dynamex do not apply to the following occupations as defined in the paragraphs below, and instead, the determination of employee or independent contractor status for individuals in those occupations shall be governed by Borello:
(a) A person or organization that is licensed by the Department of Insurance pursuant to Chapter 5 (commencing with Section 1621), Chapter 6 (commencing with Section 1760), or Chapter 8 (commencing with Section 1831) of Part 2 of Division 1 of the Insurance Code or a person who provides underwriting inspections, premium audits, risk management, claims adjusting, third-party administration consistent with use of the term “third-party administrator,” as defined in subdivision (cc) of Section 10112.1 of Title 8 of the California Code of Regulations, or loss control work for the insurance and financial service industries.
(b) A physician and surgeon, dentist, podiatrist, psychologist, or veterinarian licensed by the State of California pursuant to Division 2 (commencing with Section 500) of the Business and Professions Code, performing professional or medical services provided to or by a health care entity, including an entity organized as a sole proprietorship, partnership, or professional corporation as defined in Section 13401 of the Corporations Code. Nothing in this subdivision shall circumvent, undermine, or restrict the rights under federal law to organize and collectively bargain.
(c) An individual who holds an active license from the State of California and is practicing one of the following recognized professions: lawyer, architect, landscape architect, engineer, private investigator, or accountant.
(d) A securities broker-dealer or investment adviser or their agents and representatives that are either of the following:
(1) Registered with the Securities and Exchange Commission or the Financial Industry Regulatory Authority.
(2) Licensed by the State of California under Chapter 2 (commencing with Section 25210) or Chapter 3 (commencing with Section 25230) of Division 1 of Part 3 of Title 4 of the Corporations Code.
(e) A direct sales salesperson as described in Section 650 of the Unemployment Insurance Code, so long as the conditions for exclusion from employment under that section are met.
(f) A manufactured housing salesperson, subject to all obligations under Part 2 (commencing with Section 18000) of Division 13 of the Health and Safety Code, including all regulations promulgated by the Department of Housing and Community Development relating to manufactured home salespersons and all other obligations of manufactured housing salespersons to members of the public. The statutorily imposed duties of a manufactured housing dealer under Section 18060.5 of the Health and Safety Code are not factors to be considered under the Borello test.
(g) A commercial fisher working on an American vessel.
(1) For the purposes of this subdivision:
(A) “American vessel” has the same meaning as defined in Section 125.5 of the Unemployment Insurance Code.
(B) “Commercial fisher” means a person who has a valid, unrevoked commercial fishing license issued pursuant to Article 3 (commencing with Section 7850) of Chapter 1 of Part 3 of Division 6 of the Fish and Game Code.
(C) “Working on an American vessel” means the taking or the attempt to take fish, shellfish, or other fishery resources of the state by any means, and includes each individual aboard an American vessel operated for fishing purposes who participates directly or indirectly in the taking of these raw fishery products, including maintaining the vessel or equipment used aboard the vessel. However, “working on an American vessel” does not apply to anyone aboard a licensed commercial fishing vessel as a visitor or guest who does not directly or indirectly participate in the taking.
(2) For the purposes of this subdivision, a commercial fisher working on an American vessel is eligible for unemployment insurance benefits if they meet the definition of “employment” in Section 609 of the Unemployment Insurance Code and are otherwise eligible for those benefits pursuant to the provisions of the Unemployment Insurance Code.
(3) (A) On or before March 1, 2021, and each March 1 thereafter, the Employment Development Department shall issue an annual report to the Legislature on the use of unemployment insurance in the commercial fishing industry. This report shall include, but not be limited to, all of the following:
(i) Reporting the number of commercial fishers who apply for unemployment insurance benefits.
(ii) The number of commercial fishers who have their claims disputed.
(iii) The number of commercial fishers who have their claims denied.
(iv) The number of commercial fishers who receive unemployment insurance benefits.
(B) The report required by this subparagraph shall be submitted in compliance with Section 9795 of the Government Code.
(4) This subdivision shall become inoperative on January 1, 2026, unless extended by the Legislature.
(h) (1) A newspaper distributor working under contract with a newspaper publisher, as defined in paragraph (2), or a newspaper carrier.
(2) For purposes of this subdivision:
(A) “Newspaper” means a newspaper of general circulation, as defined in Section 6000 or 6008 of the Government Code, and any other publication circulated to the community in general as an extension of or substitute for that newspaper’s own publication, whether that publication be designated a “shoppers’ guide,” as a zoned edition, or otherwise. “Newspaper” may also be a publication that is published in print and that may be posted in a digital format, and distributed periodically at daily, weekly, or other short intervals, for the dissemination of news of a general or local character and of a general or local interest.
(B) “Publisher” means the natural or corporate person that manages the newspaper’s business operations, including circulation.
(C) “Newspaper distributor” means a person or entity that contracts with a publisher to distribute newspapers to the community.
(D) “Newspaper carrier” means a person who effects physical delivery of the newspaper to the customer or reader, who is not working as an app-based driver, as defined in Chapter 10.5 (commencing with Section 7448) of Division 3 of the Business and Professions Code, during the time when the newspaper carrier is performing the newspaper delivery services.
(3) (A) On or before March 1, 2022, March 1, 2023, and March 1, 2024, every newspaper publisher or distributor that hires or directly contracts with newspaper carriers shall submit to the Labor and Workforce Development Agency, in a manner prescribed by the agency and in conformity with existing law, the following information related to their workforce for the current year:
(i) The number of carriers for which the publisher or distributor paid payroll taxes in the previous year and the number of carriers for which the publisher or distributor did not pay payroll taxes in the previous year.
(ii) The average wage rate paid to carriers classified as independent contractors and as employees.
(iii) The number of carrier wage claims filed, if any, with the Labor Commissioner or in a court of law.
(B) For the March 1, 2022, reporting date only, every newspaper publisher and distributor shall also report the number of carrier wage claims filed with the Labor Commissioner or in a court of law for the preceding three years.
(C) Information that is submitted shall only be disclosed in accordance with Section 7927.705 of the Government Code, relating to trade secrets or other proprietary business information.
(4) This subdivision shall become inoperative on January 1, 2025, unless extended by the Legislature.
(i) An individual who is engaged by an international exchange visitor program that has obtained and maintains full official designation by the United States Department of State under Part 62 (commencing with Section 62.1) of Title 22 of the Code of Federal Regulations for the purpose of conducting, instead of participating in, international and cultural exchange visitor programs and is in full compliance with Part 62 (commencing with Section 62.1) of Title 22 of the Code of Federal Regulations.
(j) A competition judge with a specialized skill set or expertise providing services that require the exercise of discretion and independent judgment to an organization for the purposes of determining the outcome or enforcing the rules of a competition. This includes, but is not limited to, an amateur umpire or referee.

SEC. 142.

 Section 3073.1 of the Labor Code is amended to read:

3073.1.
 (a) The division shall evaluate apprenticeship and preapprenticeship programs to ensure that the program evaluated is complying with its standards, that all on-the-job training is supervised by journeypersons, that all classroom instruction required by the apprenticeship or preapprenticeship standards is being provided, that all work processes in the standards are being covered, that graduates have completed the program’s requirements, and that any funds received under this chapter were properly obtained and are being expended appropriately. The division shall examine each apprenticeship program to determine whether apprentices are graduating from or completing the program on schedule or dropping out and to determine whether graduates of the apprenticeship program have obtained employment as journeypersons. During the evaluation, the division shall attempt to contact a statistically valid sample of apprentices who have dropped out of the program prior to completion to determine their reasons for leaving the program. Every program sponsor shall have a duty to cooperate with the division in conducting an evaluation.
(b) Evaluation reports for building and construction trade and firefighting programs shall be presented to the California Apprenticeship Council and reports concerning any other program shall be presented to the Interagency Advisory Committee on Apprenticeship. The division shall make reports public, except that the division shall not make public information that would infringe on the privacy of individuals. The division shall recommend remedial action to correct deficiencies recognized in the audit report, and the failure to follow division recommendations or to correct deficiencies within a reasonable period of time shall be grounds for withdrawing state approval of a program. In any case in which a program has willfully violated any of the laws, regulations, or orders governing apprenticeship programs, funding provided to apprenticeship programs and associated entities, applicants for apprenticeship, or apprentices registered under this chapter, the division may initiate the deregistration process to withdraw state approval of the program. Nothing shall prevent the division from conducting evaluations of programs where deficiencies have been identified or where it receives information that a program is not being operated in accordance with applicable federal and state laws and regulations or the program’s approved program standards. If a program is found to be using funds provided under this chapter for purposes other than those for which the funds were granted or is found to have obtained the funds improperly, then the program shall not be eligible to receive any future funding from the same funding program and the division may initiate the deregistration process to withdraw state approval of the program.
(c) (1) The division may suspend registrations of new apprentice agreements by providing written notice of the reasons for the suspension. The division shall provide such notice at least 10 days before the suspension is effective and shall serve the notice on the program by electronic mail, or by mail if the program does not have an electronic mail address on file.
(2) If the division does not initiate deregistration proceedings within 45 days of the effective date of the suspension, the suspension is lifted.
(3) If deregistration proceedings are pending when the notice of suspension is served, or the division initiates deregistration proceedings within 45 days of the effective date of the suspension, the suspension will remain in effect until one of the following occurs:
(A) A decision on the deregistration is final.
(B) The division provides written notice that it has dismissed deregistration proceedings.
(C) The division lifts the suspension, upon a showing of good cause.
(4) A program affected by a suspension under this section may appeal to the Administrator of Apprenticeship within 10 days of the effective date of the suspension. If the administrator does not act within 30 days of the appeal, the appeal is deemed denied.
(d) The division shall give priority in conducting evaluations to programs that have been identified as having deficiencies. The division may conduct simplified evaluations for programs with fewer than five registered participants.
(e) One year following the creation of a new program or substantial expansion of an existing program, the division shall evaluate the program for quality and conformity with the requirements of this section.
(f) If the division finds evidence that information provided to it by an apprenticeship program has been purposefully misstated, including information provided to obtain funding under this chapter, the division shall immediately investigate and determine whether an evaluation of the program or deregistration is necessary. After such investigation, the division may initiate the deregistration process to withdraw state approval of the program. The division shall report its investigatory findings for building and construction trade and firefighting programs to the California Apprenticeship Council and shall report its investigatory findings for all other programs to the Interagency Advisory Committee on Apprenticeship. The division shall make the investigatory findings available to the public, except that the division shall not make public information that would infringe upon the privacy of individuals.
(g) If the division determines that an apprenticeship program has been the subject of two or more meritorious complaints that concern the recruitment, training, or education of apprentices within a five-year period, the division shall schedule the program for an evaluation within three months of the determination.
(h) If the division determines that an apprenticeship program that has had at least two graduating classes has an annual apprentice completion rate below 50 percent of the average completion rate for the applicable occupation, the division shall schedule the program for an evaluation within three months of the determination.

SEC. 143.

 Section 4610 of the Labor Code is amended to read:

4610.
 (a) For purposes of this section, “utilization review” means utilization review or utilization management functions that prospectively, retrospectively, or concurrently review and approve, modify, or deny, based in whole or in part on medical necessity to cure and relieve, treatment recommendations by physicians, as defined in Section 3209.3, prior to, retrospectively, or concurrent with the provision of medical treatment services pursuant to Section 4600.
(b) For all dates of injury occurring on or after January 1, 2018, emergency treatment services and medical treatment rendered for a body part or condition that is accepted as compensable by the employer and is addressed by the medical treatment utilization schedule adopted pursuant to Section 5307.27, by a member of the medical provider network or health care organization, or by a physician predesignated pursuant to subdivision (d) of Section 4600, within the 30 days following the initial date of injury, shall be authorized without prospective utilization review, except as provided in subdivision (c). The services rendered under this subdivision shall be consistent with the medical treatment utilization schedule. In the event that the employee is not subject to treatment with a medical provider network, health care organization, or predesignated physician pursuant to subdivision (d) of Section 4600, the employee shall be eligible for treatment under this section within 30 days following the initial date of injury if the treatment is rendered by a physician or facility selected by the employer. For treatment rendered by a medical provider network physician, health care organization physician, a physician predesignated pursuant to subdivision (d) of Section 4600, or an employer-selected physician, the report required under Section 6409 and a complete request for authorization shall be submitted by the physician within five days following the employee’s initial visit and evaluation.
(c) Unless authorized by the employer or rendered as emergency medical treatment, the following medical treatment services, as defined in rules adopted by the administrative director, that are rendered through a member of the medical provider network or health care organization, a predesignated physician, an employer-selected physician, or an employer-selected facility, within the 30 days following the initial date of injury, shall be subject to prospective utilization review under this section:
(1) Pharmaceuticals, to the extent they are neither expressly exempted from prospective review nor authorized by the drug formulary adopted pursuant to Section 5307.27.
(2) Nonemergency inpatient and outpatient surgery, including all presurgical and postsurgical services.
(3) Psychological treatment services.
(4) Home health care services.
(5) Imaging and radiology services, excluding x-rays.
(6) All durable medical equipment, whose combined total value exceeds two hundred fifty dollars ($250), as determined by the official medical fee schedule.
(7) Electrodiagnostic medicine, including, but not limited to, electromyography and nerve conduction studies.
(8) Any other service designated and defined through rules adopted by the administrative director.
(d) (1) Except for emergency treatment services, any request for payment for treatment provided under subdivision (b) shall comply with Section 4603.2 and be submitted to the employer, or its insurer or claims administrator, within 30 days of the date the service was provided.
(2) (A) In the case of emergency treatment services, any request for payment for treatment provided under subdivision (b) shall comply with Section 4603.2 and be submitted to the employer, or its insurer or claims administrator, within 180 days of the date the service was provided.
(B) For the purposes of this subdivision, “emergency treatment services” means treatment for an emergency medical condition defined in subdivision (b) of Section 1317.1 of the Health and Safety Code and provided in a licensed general acute care hospital, as defined in Section 1250 of the Health and Safety Code.
(e) If a physician fails to submit the report required under Section 6409 and a complete request for authorization, as described in subdivision (b), an employer may remove the physician’s ability under this subdivision to provide further medical treatment to the employee that is exempt from prospective utilization review.
(f) An employer may perform retrospective utilization review for any treatment provided pursuant to subdivision (b) solely for the purpose of determining if the physician is prescribing treatment consistent with the schedule for medical treatment utilization, including, but not limited to, the drug formulary adopted pursuant to Section 5307.27.
(1) If it is found after retrospective utilization reviews that there is a pattern and practice of the physician or provider failing to render treatment consistent with the schedule for medical treatment utilization, including the drug formulary, the employer may remove the ability of the predesignated physician, employer-selected physician, or the member of the medical provider network or health care organization under this subdivision to provide further medical treatment to any employee that is exempt from prospective utilization review. The employer shall notify the physician or provider of the results of the retrospective utilization review and the requirement for prospective utilization review for all subsequent medical treatment.
(2) The results of retrospective utilization review may constitute a showing of good cause for an employer’s petition requesting a change of physician or provider pursuant to Section 4603 and may serve as grounds for termination of the physician or provider from the medical provider network or health care organization.
(g) Each employer shall establish a utilization review process in compliance with this section, either directly or through its insurer or an entity with which an employer or insurer contracts for these services.
(1) Each utilization review process that modifies or denies requests for authorization of medical treatment shall be governed by written policies and procedures. These policies and procedures shall ensure that decisions based on the medical necessity to cure and relieve of proposed medical treatment services are consistent with the schedule for medical treatment utilization, including the drug formulary, adopted pursuant to Section 5307.27.
(2) (A) Unless otherwise indicated in this section, a physician providing treatment under Section 4600 shall send any request for authorization for medical treatment, with supporting documentation, to the claims administrator for the employer, insurer, or other entity according to rules adopted by the administrative director. The employer, insurer, or other entity shall employ or designate a medical director who holds an unrestricted license to practice medicine in this state issued pursuant to Section 2050 or 2450 of the Business and Professions Code. The medical director shall ensure that the process by which the employer or other entity reviews and approves, modifies, or denies requests by physicians prior to, retrospectively, or concurrent with the provision of medical treatment services complies with the requirements of this section. This section does not limit the existing authority of the Medical Board of California.
(B) A request for authorization, including its supporting documentation, shall not be altered or amended by any entity other than the requesting physician or provider prior to the submission of the request to the claims administrator in accordance with subparagraph (A). This subparagraph is declaratory of existing law.
(3) (A) A person other than a licensed physician who is competent to evaluate the specific clinical issues involved in the medical treatment services, if these services are within the scope of the physician’s practice, requested by the physician, shall not modify or deny requests for authorization of medical treatment for reasons of medical necessity to cure and relieve or due to incomplete or insufficient information under subdivisions (i) and (j).
(B) (i) The employer, or any entity conducting utilization review on behalf of the employer, shall neither offer nor provide any financial incentive or consideration to a physician based on the number of modifications or denials made by the physician under this section.
(ii) An insurer or third-party administrator shall not refer utilization review services conducted on behalf of an employer under this section to an entity in which the insurer or third-party administrator has a financial interest as defined under Section 139.32. This prohibition does not apply if the insurer or third-party administrator provides the employer and the administrative director with prior written disclosure of both of the following:
(I) The entity conducting the utilization review services.
(II) The insurer or third-party administrator’s financial interest in the entity.
(C) The administrative director has authority pursuant to this section to review any compensation agreement, payment schedule, or contract between the employer, or any entity conducting utilization review on behalf of the employer, and the utilization review physician. Any information disclosed to the administrative director pursuant to this paragraph shall be considered confidential information and not subject to disclosure pursuant to the California Public Records Act (Division 10 (commencing with Section 7920.000) of Title 1 of the Government Code). Disclosure of the information to the administrative director pursuant to this subdivision shall not waive the provisions of the Evidence Code relating to privilege.
(4) A utilization review process that modifies or denies requests for authorization of medical treatment shall be accredited on or before July 1, 2018, and shall retain active accreditation while providing utilization review services, by an independent, nonprofit organization to certify that the utilization review process meets specified criteria, including, but not limited to, timeliness in issuing a utilization review decision, the scope of medical material used in issuing a utilization review decision, peer-to-peer consultation, internal appeal procedure, and requiring a policy preventing financial incentives to doctors and other providers based on the utilization review decision. The administrative director shall adopt rules to implement the selection of an independent, nonprofit organization for those accreditation purposes. Until those rules are adopted, the administrative director shall designate URAC as the accrediting organization. The administrative director may adopt rules to do any of the following:
(A) Require additional specific criteria for measuring the quality of a utilization review process for purposes of accreditation.
(B) Exempt nonprofit, public sector internal utilization review programs from the accreditation requirement pursuant to this section, if the administrative director has adopted minimum standards applicable to nonprofit, public sector internal utilization review programs that meet or exceed the accreditation standards developed pursuant to this section.
(5) On or before July 1, 2018, each employer, either directly or through its insurer or an entity with which an employer or insurer contracts for utilization review services, shall submit a description of the utilization review process that modifies or denies requests for authorization of medical treatment and the written policies and procedures to the administrative director for approval. Approved utilization review process descriptions and the accompanying written policies and procedures shall be disclosed by the employer to employees and physicians and made available to the public by posting on the employer’s, claims administrator’s, or utilization review organization’s internet website.
(h) The criteria or guidelines used in the utilization review process to determine whether to approve, modify, or deny medical treatment services shall be all of the following:
(1) Developed with involvement from actively practicing physicians.
(2) Consistent with the schedule for medical treatment utilization, including the drug formulary, adopted pursuant to Section 5307.27.
(3) Evaluated at least annually, and updated if necessary.
(4) Disclosed to the physician and the employee, if used as the basis of a decision to modify or deny services in a specified case under review.
(5) Available to the public upon request. An employer shall only be required to disclose the criteria or guidelines for the specific procedures or conditions requested. An employer may charge members of the public reasonable copying and postage expenses related to disclosing criteria or guidelines pursuant to this paragraph. Criteria or guidelines may also be made available through electronic means. A charge shall not be required for an employee whose physician’s request for medical treatment services is under review.
(i) In determining whether to approve, modify, or deny requests by physicians prior to, retrospectively, or concurrent with the provisions of medical treatment services to employees, all of the following requirements shall be met:
(1) Except for treatment requests made pursuant to the formulary, prospective or concurrent decisions shall be made in a timely fashion that is appropriate for the nature of the employee’s condition, not to exceed five normal business days from the receipt of a request for authorization for medical treatment and supporting information reasonably necessary to make the determination, but in no event more than 14 days from the date of the medical treatment recommendation by the physician. Prospective decisions regarding requests for treatment covered by the formulary shall be made no more than five normal business days from the date of receipt of the medical treatment request. The request for authorization and supporting documentation may be submitted electronically under rules adopted by the administrative director.
(2) In cases where the review is retrospective, a decision resulting in denial of all or part of the medical treatment service shall be communicated to the individual who received services, or to the individual’s designee, within 30 days of the receipt of the information that is reasonably necessary to make this determination. If payment for a medical treatment service is made within the time prescribed by Section 4603.2, a retrospective decision to approve the service need not otherwise be communicated.
(3) If the employee’s condition is one in which the employee faces an imminent and serious threat to the employee’s health, including, but not limited to, the potential loss of life, limb, or other major bodily function, or the normal timeframe for the decisionmaking process, as described in paragraph (1), would be detrimental to the employee’s life or health or could jeopardize the employee’s ability to regain maximum function, decisions to approve, modify, or deny requests by physicians prior to, or concurrent with, the provision of medical treatment services to employees shall be made in a timely fashion that is appropriate for the nature of the employee’s condition, but not to exceed 72 hours after the receipt of the information reasonably necessary to make the determination.
(4) (A) Final decisions to approve, modify, or deny requests by physicians for authorization prior to, or concurrent with, the provision of medical treatment services to employees shall be communicated to the requesting physician within 24 hours of the decision by telephone, facsimile, or, if agreed to by the parties, secure email.
(B) Decisions resulting in modification or denial of all or part of the requested health care service shall be communicated in writing to the employee, and to the physician if the initial communication under subparagraph (A) was by telephone, within 24 hours for concurrent review, or within two normal business days of the decision for prospective review, as prescribed by the administrative director. If the request is modified or denied, disputes shall be resolved in accordance with Section 4610.5, if applicable, or otherwise in accordance with Section 4062.
(C) In the case of concurrent review, medical care shall not be discontinued until the employee’s physician has been notified of the decision and a care plan has been agreed upon by the physician that is appropriate for the medical needs of the employee. Medical care provided during a concurrent review shall be care that is medically necessary to cure and relieve, and an insurer or self-insured employer shall only be liable for those services determined medically necessary to cure and relieve. If the insurer or self-insured employer disputes whether or not one or more services offered concurrently with a utilization review were medically necessary to cure and relieve, the dispute shall be resolved pursuant to Section 4610.5, if applicable, or otherwise pursuant to Section 4062. A compromise between the parties that an insurer or self-insured employer believes may result in payment for services that were not medically necessary to cure and relieve shall be reported by the insurer or the self-insured employer to the licensing board of the provider or providers who received the payments, in a manner set forth by the respective board and in a way that minimizes reporting costs both to the board and to the insurer or self-insured employer, for evaluation as to possible violations of the statutes governing appropriate professional practices. Fees shall not be levied upon insurers or self-insured employers making reports required by this section.
(5) Communications regarding decisions to approve requests by physicians shall specify the specific medical treatment service approved. Responses regarding decisions to modify or deny medical treatment services requested by physicians shall include a clear and concise explanation of the reasons for the employer’s decision, a description of the criteria or guidelines used, and the clinical reasons for the decisions regarding medical necessity. If a utilization review decision to deny a medical service is due to incomplete or insufficient information, the decision shall specify all of the following:
(A) The reason for the decision.
(B) A specific description of the information that is needed.
(C) The date and time of attempts made to contact the physician to obtain the necessary information.
(D) A description of the manner in which the request was communicated.
(j) (1) Unless otherwise indicated in this section, a physician providing treatment under Section 4600 shall send any request for authorization for medical treatment, with supporting documentation, to the claims administrator for the employer, insurer, or other entity according to rules adopted by the administrative director. If an employer, insurer, or other entity subject to this section requests medical information from a physician in order to determine whether to approve, modify, or deny requests for authorization, that employer, insurer, or other entity shall request only the information reasonably necessary to make the determination.
(2) If the employer, insurer, or other entity cannot make a decision within the timeframes specified in paragraph (1), (2), or (3) of subdivision (i) because the employer or other entity is not in receipt of, or in possession of, all of the information reasonably necessary to make a determination, the employer shall immediately notify the physician and the employee, in writing, that the employer cannot make a decision within the required timeframe, and specify the information that must be provided by the physician for a determination to be made. Upon receipt of all information reasonably necessary and requested by the employer, the employer shall approve, modify, or deny the request for authorization within the timeframes specified in paragraph (1), (2), or (3) of subdivision (i).
(k) A utilization review decision to modify or deny a treatment recommendation shall remain effective for 12 months from the date of the decision without further action by the employer with regard to a further recommendation by the same physician, or another physician within the requesting physician’s practice group, for the same treatment unless the further recommendation is supported by a documented change in the facts material to the basis of the utilization review decision.
(l) Utilization review of a treatment recommendation shall not be required while the employer is disputing liability for injury or treatment of the condition for which treatment is recommended pursuant to Section 4062.
(m) If utilization review is deferred pursuant to subdivision (l), and it is finally determined that the employer is liable for treatment of the condition for which treatment is recommended, the time for the employer to conduct retrospective utilization review in accordance with paragraph (2) of subdivision (i) shall begin on the date the determination of the employer’s liability becomes final, and the time for the employer to conduct prospective utilization review shall commence from the date of the employer’s receipt of a treatment recommendation after the determination of the employer’s liability.
(n) Each employer, insurer, or other entity subject to this section shall maintain telephone access during California business hours for physicians to request authorization for health care services and to conduct peer-to-peer discussions regarding issues, including the appropriateness of a requested treatment, modification of a treatment request, or obtaining additional information needed to make a medical necessity decision.
(o) The administrative director shall develop a system for the mandatory electronic reporting of documents related to every utilization review performed by each employer, which shall be administered by the Division of Workers’ Compensation. The administrative director shall adopt regulations specifying the documents to be submitted by the employer and the authorized transmission format and timeframe for their submission. For purposes of this subdivision, “employer” means the employer, the insurer of an insured employer, a claims administrator, or a utilization review organization, or other entity acting on behalf of any of them.
(p) If the administrative director determines that the employer, insurer, or other entity subject to this section has failed to meet any of the timeframes in this section, or has failed to meet any other requirement of this section, the administrative director may assess, by order, administrative penalties for each failure. A proceeding for the issuance of an order assessing administrative penalties shall be subject to appropriate notice to, and an opportunity for a hearing with regard to, the person affected. The administrative penalties shall not be deemed to be an exclusive remedy for the administrative director. These penalties shall be deposited in the Workers’ Compensation Administration Revolving Fund.
(q) The administrative director shall contract with an outside, independent research organization to evaluate the impact of the provision of medical treatment within the first 30 days after a claim is filed, for a claim filed on or after January 1, 2017, and before January 1, 2021. The report shall be provided to the administrative director, the Senate Committee on Labor and Industrial Relations, and the Assembly Committee on Insurance, pursuant to Section 9795 of the Government Code, before July 1, 2023.

SEC. 144.

 Section 4903.6 of the Labor Code is amended to read:

4903.6.
 (a) Except as necessary to meet the requirements of Section 4903.5, a lien claim or application for adjudication shall not be filed or served under subdivision (b) of Section 4903 until both of the following have occurred:
(1) Sixty days have elapsed after the date of acceptance or rejection of liability for the claim, or expiration of the time provided for investigation of liability pursuant to subdivision (b) of Section 5402, whichever date is earlier.
(2) Either of the following:
(A) The time provided for payment of medical treatment bills pursuant to Section 4603.2 has expired and, if the employer objected to the amount of the bill, the reasonable fee has been determined pursuant to Section 4603.6, and, if authorization for the medical treatment has been disputed pursuant to Section 4610, the medical necessity of the medical treatment has been determined pursuant to Sections 4610.5 and 4610.6.
(B) The time provided for payment of medical-legal expenses pursuant to Section 4622 has expired and, if the employer objected to the amount of the bill, the reasonable fee has been determined pursuant to Section 4603.6.
(b) All lien claimants under Section 4903 shall notify the employer and the employer’s representative, if any, and the employee and the employee’s representative, if any, and the appeals board within five working days of obtaining, changing, or discharging representation by an attorney or nonattorney representative. The notice shall set forth the legal name, address, and telephone number of the attorney or nonattorney representative.
(c) A declaration of readiness to proceed shall not be filed for a lien under subdivision (b) of Section 4903 until the underlying case has been resolved or where the applicant chooses not to proceed with the applicant’s case.
(d) With the exception of a lien for services provided by a physician as defined in Section 3209.3, a lien claimant shall not be entitled to any medical information, as defined in subdivision (i) of Section 56.05 of the Civil Code, about an injured worker without prior written approval of the appeals board. Any order authorizing disclosure of medical information to a lien claimant other than a physician shall specify the information to be provided to the lien claimant and include a finding that the information is relevant to the proof of the matter for which the information is sought. The appeals board shall adopt reasonable regulations to ensure compliance with this section, and shall take any further steps as may be necessary to enforce the regulations, including, but not limited to, impositions of sanctions pursuant to Section 5813.
(e) The prohibitions of this section do not apply to lien claims, applications for adjudication, or declarations of readiness to proceed filed by or on behalf of the employee, or to the filings by or on behalf of the employer.

SEC. 145.

 Section 5414.3 of the Labor Code is amended and renumbered to read:

5814.3.
 (a) Notwithstanding Section 5814, when liability has been unreasonably rejected for claims of injury or illness as defined in Sections 3212 to 3213.2, inclusive, the amount of the penalty shall be five times the amount of the benefits unreasonably delayed due to the rejection of liability, but in no case shall the penalty exceed fifty thousand dollars ($50,000). The question of rejection and the reasonableness of the cause shall be determined by the appeals board in accordance with the facts.
(b) Penalties issued pursuant to this section shall be reported to the audit unit within the Division of Workers’ Compensation.
(c) This section shall apply to all injuries, without regard to whether the injury occurs before, on, or after the operative date of this section.

SEC. 146.

 Section 6409.6 of the Labor Code is amended to read:

6409.6.
 (a) In each worksite of the employer, the employer shall prominently display a notice in all places where notices to employees concerning workplace rules or regulations are customarily posted stating all of the following:
(1) The dates on which an employee, or employee of a subcontracted employer, with a confirmed case of COVID-19 was on the worksite premises within the infectious period.
(2) The location of the exposures, including the department, floor, building, or other area, but the location need not be so specific as to allow individual workers to be identified.
(3) Contact information for employees to receive information regarding COVID-19-related benefits to which the employee may be entitled under applicable federal, state, or local laws, including, but not limited to, workers’ compensation, and options for exposed employees, including COVID-19-related leave, company sick leave, state-mandated leave, supplemental sick leave, or negotiated leave provisions, as well as antiretaliation and antidiscrimination protections of the employee.
(4) Contact information for employees to receive the cleaning and disinfection plan that the employer is implementing per the guidelines of the federal Centers for Disease Control and Prevention and the COVID-19 prevention program per the Cal/OSHA COVID-19 Emergency Temporary Standards.
(b) The notice described in subdivision (a) shall be posted within one business day from when the employer receives a notice of potential exposure and remain posted for not less than 15 calendar days.
(c) If the employer posts other workplace notices on an existing employee portal, the notice described in subdivision (a) shall be posted on the employee portal.
(d) The notice shall be in English and the language understood by the majority of employees.
(e) As an alternative to the notice described in subdivision (a), the employer may provide written notice to all employees, and the employers of subcontracted employees, who were on the premises at the same worksite as the confirmed case of COVID-19 within the infectious period that they may have been exposed to COVID-19 in a manner the employer normally uses to communicate employment-related information. Written notice may include, but is not limited to, personal service, email, or text message if it can reasonably be anticipated to be received by the employee within one business day of sending and shall be in both English and the language understood by the majority of the employees.
(f) An employer shall keep a log of all the dates the notice required by this section was posted at each worksite of the employer, and shall allow the Labor Commissioner to access these records pursuant to the requirements set forth in Section 1174.
(g) The employer shall provide a written notice to the exclusive representative, if any, of confirmed cases of COVID-19 and of employees who had close contact with the confirmed cases of COVID-19 within one business day. This notice shall contain the same information as would be required in an incident report in a Cal/OSHA Form 300 injury and illness log unless the information is inapplicable or unknown to the employer. This requirement shall apply regardless of whether the employer is required to maintain a Cal/OSHA Form 300 injury and illness log. Notifications required by this section shall not impact any determination of whether or not the illness is work related.
(h) For purposes of this section, the following definitions apply:
(1) “Close contact” means an individual who has been in close contact with a confirmed case of COVID-19, as defined by the division.
(2) “Confirmed case of COVID-19” means an individual who has been infected with COVID-19, as defined by the State Department of Public Health.
(3) “COVID-19” means severe acute respiratory syndrome coronavirus 2 (SARS-CoV-2).
(4) “Infectious period” means the time a confirmed case of COVID-19 is infectious, as defined by the State Department of Public Health.
(5) “Notice of potential exposure” means any of the following:
(A) Notification to the employer or their representative from an employee, their emergency contact, a public health official, or a licensed medical provider that an employee has a confirmed case of COVID-19 and was on the worksite premises within the infectious period.
(B) Notification through the testing protocol of the employer that an employee has a confirmed case of COVID-19 and was on the worksite premises within the infectious period.
(C) Notification to an employer or their representative from a subcontracted employer that their employee has a confirmed case of COVID-19 and was on the worksite premises within the infectious period.
(6) “Worksite” means the building, store, facility, agricultural field, or other location where a worker worked during the infectious period. It does not apply to buildings, floors, or other locations of the employer that an individual with a confirmed case of COVID-19 did not enter, locations where the worker worked by themselves without exposure to other employees, or to a worker’s personal residence or alternative work location chosen by the worker when working remotely.
(i) An employer shall not require employees to disclose medical information unless otherwise required by law.
(j) An employer shall not retaliate against a worker for disclosing a positive COVID-19 test or diagnosis or order to quarantine or isolate. Workers who believe they have been retaliated against in violation of this section may file a complaint with the Division of Labor Standards Enforcement pursuant to Section 98.6. The complaint shall be investigated as provided in Section 98.7.
(k) This section shall not apply to employees who, as part of their duties, conduct COVID-19 testing or screening or provide direct patient care or treatment to individuals who are known to have tested positive for COVID-19, are persons under investigation, or are in quarantine or isolation related to COVID-19, unless the confirmed case of COVID-19 is an employee at the same worksite.
(l) No personally identifiable employee information shall be subject to a California Public Records Act request or similar request, posted on a public internet website, or shared with any other state or federal agency.
(m) An employer shall maintain records of the written notifications required in subdivision (a) or (e) for a period of at least three years.
(n) The division shall enforce this section by the issuance of a citation alleging a violation of this section and a notice of civil penalty in a manner consistent with Section 6317. Any person who receives a citation and penalty may appeal the citation and penalty to the appeals board in a manner consistent with Section 6319.
(o) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2024, and as of that date is repealed.

SEC. 147.

 Section 146e of the Penal Code is amended to read:

146e.
 (a) Every person who maliciously, and with the intent to obstruct justice or the due administration of the laws, or with the intent to, or threat to, inflict bodily harm in retaliation for the due administration of the laws, publishes, disseminates, or otherwise discloses the residence address or telephone number of any peace officer, nonsworn police dispatcher, employee of a city police department or county sheriff’s office, or public safety official, or that of the immediate family of these persons who reside with them, while designating the elected or appointed official, peace officer, nonsworn police dispatcher, employee of a city police department or county sheriff’s office, or public safety official, or relative of these persons as such, without the authorization of the employing agency, is guilty of a misdemeanor.
(b) A violation of subdivision (a) with regard to any peace officer, nonsworn police dispatcher, employee of a city police department or county sheriff’s office, or public safety official, or the immediate family of these persons, that results in bodily injury to the elected or appointed official, peace officer, nonsworn police dispatcher, employee of the city police department or county sheriff’s office, or public safety official, or the immediate family of these persons, is a felony punishable by imprisonment pursuant to subdivision (h) of Section 1170.
(c) For the purposes of this section, the following terms have the following meanings:
(1) “Immediate family” means a spouse, parent, child, a person related by consanguinity or affinity within the second degree, or another person who regularly resides in the household, or who, within the prior six months, regularly resided in the household.
(2) “Public safety official” has the same meaning as defined in Section 7920.535 of the Government Code.

SEC. 148.

 Section 236.14 of the Penal Code is amended to read:

236.14.
 (a) If a person was arrested for or convicted of any nonviolent offense committed while they were a victim of human trafficking, including, but not limited to, prostitution as described in subdivision (b) of Section 647, the person may petition the court for vacatur relief of their convictions, arrests, and adjudications under this section. The petitioner shall establish, by clear and convincing evidence, that the arrest or conviction was the direct result of being a victim of human trafficking that demonstrates that the person lacked the requisite intent to commit the offense. Upon this showing, the court shall find that the person lacked the requisite intent to commit the offense and shall therefore vacate the conviction as invalid due to legal defect at the time of the arrest or conviction.
(b) The petition for relief shall be submitted under penalty of perjury and shall describe all of the available grounds and evidence that the petitioner was a victim of human trafficking and the arrest or conviction of a nonviolent offense was the direct result of being a victim of human trafficking.
(c) The petition for relief and supporting documentation shall be served on the state or local prosecutorial agency that obtained the conviction for which vacatur is sought or with jurisdiction over charging decisions with regard to the arrest. The state or local prosecutorial agency shall have 45 days from the date of receipt of service to respond to the petition for relief.
(d) If opposition to the petition is not filed by the applicable state or local prosecutorial agency, the court shall deem the petition unopposed and may grant the petition.
(e) The court may, with the agreement of the petitioner and all of the involved state or local prosecutorial agencies, consolidate into one hearing a petition with multiple convictions from different jurisdictions.
(f) If the petition is opposed or if the court otherwise deems it necessary, the court shall schedule a hearing on the petition. The hearing may consist of the following:
(1) Testimony by the petitioner, which may be required in support of the petition.
(2) Evidence and supporting documentation in support of the petition.
(3) Opposition evidence presented by any of the involved state or local prosecutorial agencies that obtained the conviction.
(g) After considering the totality of the evidence presented, the court may vacate the conviction and the arrests and issue an order if it finds all of the following:
(1) That the petitioner was a victim of human trafficking at the time of the alleged commission of the qualifying crime.
(2) The arrest for or conviction of the crime was a direct result of being a victim of human trafficking.
(3) It is in the best interest of justice.
(h) An order of vacatur shall do all of the following:
(1) Set forth a finding that the petitioner was a victim of human trafficking at the time of the alleged commission of the qualifying crime and therefore lacked the requisite intent to commit the offense.
(2) Set aside the arrest, finding of guilt, or the adjudication and dismiss the accusation or information against the petitioner as invalid due to a legal defect at the time of arrest or conviction.
(3) Notify the Department of Justice that the petitioner was a victim of human trafficking when they committed the crime and of the relief that has been ordered.
(i) Notwithstanding this section, a petitioner shall not be relieved of any financial restitution order that directly benefits the victim of a nonviolent crime unless it has already been paid. With the exception of restitution, the collection of fines imposed as a result of a nonviolent offense that is the subject of the petition shall be stayed while the petition is pending.
(j) A person who was arrested as, or found to be, a person described in Section 602 of the Welfare and Institutions Code because they committed a qualifying nonviolent offense while they were a victim of human trafficking, including, but not limited to, prostitution, as described in subdivision (b) of Section 647, may petition the court for relief under this section. If the petitioner establishes that the arrest or adjudication was the direct result of being a victim of human trafficking, the petitioner is entitled to a rebuttable presumption that the requirements for relief have been met.
(k) (1) If the court issues an order as described in subdivision (a) or (j), the court shall also order all of the following agencies to seal and destroy their records:
(A) Any law enforcement agency having jurisdiction over the offense.
(B) The Department of Justice.
(C) Any law enforcement agency that arrested the petitioner.
(D) Any law enforcement agency that participated in the arrest of the petitioner.
(E) Any law enforcement agency that has taken action or maintains records because of the offense, including, but not limited to, departments of probation, rehabilitation, corrections, and parole.
(2) Any government agency described in paragraph (1) shall seal its records of arrest and the court order to seal and destroy the records within one year from the date of arrest or within 90 days after the court order is granted, whichever occurs later. The agency shall thereafter destroy their records of the arrest and court order to seal and destroy those records within one year of the date of the court order.
(3) The court shall provide the petitioner a certified copy of any court order concerning the sealing and destruction of the arrest records. The court shall provide the petitioner and petitioner’s counsel a copy of any form that the court submits to any agency, including the Department of Justice, related to the sealing and destruction of the arrest records.
(4) The Department of Justice shall notify the petitioner and the petitioner’s counsel that the department has complied with the order to seal the arrest records by the applicable deadline.
(l) A petition pursuant to this section shall be made and heard at any time after the person has ceased to be a victim of human trafficking or at any time after the petitioner has sought services for being a victim of human trafficking, whichever occurs later, subject to reasonable concerns for the safety of the petitioner, family members of the petitioner, or other victims of human trafficking who may be jeopardized by the bringing of the application or for other reasons consistent with the purposes of this section. The right to petition for relief pursuant to this section does not expire with the passage of time and may be made at any time after the time specified in this subdivision. A court shall not refuse to hear a petition that was properly made pursuant to this section on the basis of the petitioner’s outstanding fines and fees or the petitioner’s failure to meet the conditions of probation.
(m) (1) For the purposes of this section, official documentation of a petitioner’s status as a victim of human trafficking may be introduced as evidence that their participation in the offense was the result of their status as a victim of human trafficking.
(2) For the purposes of this subdivision, “official documentation” means any documentation issued by a federal, state, or local agency that tends to show the petitioner’s status as a victim of human trafficking. Official documentation shall not be required for the issuance of an order described in subdivision (a).
(n)  If the petition is unopposed, the petitioner may appear at all hearings on the petition, if any, by counsel. If the petition is opposed and the court orders a hearing for relief on the petition, the petitioner shall appear in person unless the court finds a compelling reason why the petitioner cannot attend the hearing, in which case the petitioner may appear by telephone, videoconference, or by other electronic means established by the court.
(o) Notwithstanding any other law, a petitioner who has obtained an order pursuant to this section may lawfully deny or refuse to acknowledge an arrest, conviction, or adjudication that is set aside pursuant to the order.
(p) Notwithstanding any other law, the records of the arrest, conviction, or adjudication shall not be distributed to any state licensing board.
(q) The record of a proceeding related to a petition pursuant to this section that is accessible by the public shall not disclose the petitioner’s full name.
(r) A court that grants relief pursuant to this section may take additional action as appropriate under the circumstances to carry out the purposes of this section.
(s) If the court denies the application because the evidence is insufficient to establish grounds for vacatur, the denial may be without prejudice. The court may state the reasons for its denial in writing or on the record that is memorialized by transcription, audiotape, or videotape, and, if those reasons are based on curable deficiencies in the application, allow the applicant a reasonable time period to cure the deficiencies upon which the court based the denial.
(t) For the purposes of this section, the following terms apply:
(1) “Nonviolent offense” means any offense not listed in subdivision (c) of Section 667.5.
(2) “Vacate” means that the arrest and any adjudications or convictions suffered by the petitioner are deemed not to have occurred and that all records in the case are sealed and destroyed pursuant to this section. The court shall provide the petitioner with a copy of the orders described in subdivisions (a), (j), and (k), as applicable, and inform the petitioner that they may thereafter state that they were not arrested for the charge, or adjudicated or convicted of the charge, that was vacated.
(3) “Victim of human trafficking” means the victim of a crime described in subdivisions (a), (b), and (c) of Section 236.1.

SEC. 149.

 Section 236.15 of the Penal Code is amended to read:

236.15.
 (a) If a person was arrested for or convicted of any nonviolent offense committed while the person was a victim of intimate partner violence or sexual violence, the person may petition the court for vacatur relief of their convictions, arrests, and adjudications under this section. The petitioner shall establish, by clear and convincing evidence, that the arrest or conviction was the direct result of being a victim of intimate partner violence or sexual violence that demonstrates that the person lacked the requisite intent to commit the offense. Upon this showing, the court shall find that the person lacked the requisite intent to commit the offense and shall therefore vacate the conviction as invalid due to legal defect at the time of the arrest or conviction.
(b) The petition for relief shall be submitted under penalty of perjury and shall describe all of the available grounds and evidence that the petitioner was a victim of intimate partner violence or sexual violence and the arrest or conviction of a nonviolent offense was the direct result of being a victim of intimate partner violence or sexual violence.
(c) The petition for relief and supporting documentation shall be served on the state or local prosecutorial agency that obtained the conviction for which vacatur is sought or with jurisdiction over charging decisions with regard to the arrest. The state or local prosecutorial agency shall have 45 days from the date of receipt of service to respond to the petition for relief.
(d) If opposition to the petition is not filed by the applicable state or local prosecutorial agency, the court shall deem the petition unopposed and may grant the petition.
(e) The court may, with the agreement of the petitioner and all of the involved state or local prosecutorial agencies, consolidate into one hearing a petition with multiple convictions from different jurisdictions.
(f) If the petition is opposed or if the court otherwise deems it necessary, the court shall schedule a hearing on the petition. The hearing may consist of the following:
(1) Testimony by the petitioner, which may be required in support of the petition.
(2) Evidence and supporting documentation in support of the petition.
(3) Opposition evidence presented by any of the involved state or local prosecutorial agencies that obtained the conviction.
(g) After considering the totality of the evidence presented, the court may vacate the conviction and expunge the arrests and issue an order if it finds all of the following:
(1) That the petitioner was a victim of intimate partner violence or sexual violence at the time of the alleged commission of the qualifying crime.
(2) The arrest or conviction of the crime was a direct result of being a victim of intimate partner violence or sexual violence.
(3) It is in the best interest of justice.
(h) An order of vacatur shall do all of the following:
(1) Set forth a finding that the petitioner was a victim of intimate partner violence or sexual violence at the time of the alleged commission of the qualifying crime and therefore lacked the requisite intent to commit the offense.
(2) Set aside the arrest, finding of guilt, or the adjudication and dismiss the accusation or information against the petitioner as invalid due to a legal defect at the time of the arrest or conviction.
(3) Notify the Department of Justice that the petitioner was a victim of intimate partner violence or sexual violence when they committed the crime and of the relief that has been ordered.
(i) Notwithstanding this section, a petitioner shall not be relieved of any financial restitution order that directly benefits the victim of a nonviolent offense unless it has already been paid.
(j) A person who was arrested as, or found to be, a person described in Section 602 of the Welfare and Institutions Code because they committed a qualifying nonviolent offense while they were a victim of intimate partner violence or sexual violence may petition the court for relief under this section. If the petitioner establishes that the arrest or adjudication was the direct result of being a victim of intimate partner violence or sexual violence, the petitioner is entitled to a rebuttable presumption that the requirements for relief have been met.
(k) If the court issues an order as described in subdivision (a) or (j), the court shall also order the law enforcement agency having jurisdiction over the offense, the Department of Justice, and any law enforcement agency that arrested the petitioner or participated in the arrest of the petitioner to seal their records of the arrest and the court order to seal and destroy the records within three years from the date of the arrest or within one year after the court order is granted, whichever occurs later and thereafter to destroy their records of the arrest and the court order to seal and destroy those records. The court shall provide the petitioner a copy of any court order concerning the destruction of the arrest records.
(l) A petition pursuant to this section shall be made and heard within a reasonable time after the person has ceased to be a victim of intimate partner violence or sexual violence or within a reasonable time after the petitioner has sought services for being a victim of intimate partner violence or sexual violence, whichever occurs later, subject to reasonable concerns for the safety of the petitioner, family members of the petitioner, or other victims of intimate partner violence or sexual violence who may be jeopardized by the bringing of the application or for other reasons consistent with the purposes of this section.
(m) For the purposes of this section, official documentation of a petitioner’s status as a victim of intimate partner violence or sexual violence may be introduced as evidence that their participation in the offense was the result of their status as a victim of intimate partner violence or sexual violence. For the purposes of this subdivision, “official documentation” means any documentation issued by a federal, state, or local agency that tends to show the petitioner’s status as a victim of intimate partner violence or sexual violence. Official documentation shall not be required for the issuance of an order described in subdivision (a).
(n) A petitioner, or their attorney, may be excused from appearing in person at a hearing for relief pursuant to this section only if the court finds a compelling reason why the petitioner cannot attend the hearing, in which case the petitioner may appear telephonically, via videoconference, or by other electronic means established by the court.
(o) Notwithstanding any other law, a petitioner who has obtained an order pursuant to this section may lawfully deny or refuse to acknowledge an arrest, conviction, or adjudication that is set aside pursuant to the order.
(p) Notwithstanding any other law, the records of the arrest, conviction, or adjudication shall not be distributed to any state licensing board.
(q) The record of a proceeding related to a petition pursuant to this section that is accessible by the public shall not disclose the petitioner’s full name.
(r) A court that grants relief pursuant to this section may take additional action as appropriate under the circumstances to carry out the purposes of this section.
(s) If the court denies the application because the evidence is insufficient to establish grounds for vacatur, the denial may be without prejudice. The court may state the reasons for its denial in writing or on the record that is memorialized by transcription, audiotape, or videotape, and if those reasons are based on curable deficiencies in the application, allow the applicant a reasonable time period to cure the deficiencies upon which the court based the denial.
(t) For the purposes of this section, the following terms apply:
(1) “Nonviolent offense” means any offense not listed in subdivision (c) of Section 667.5.
(2) “Vacate” means that the arrest and any adjudications or convictions suffered by the petitioner are deemed not to have occurred and that all records in the case are sealed and destroyed pursuant to this section. The court shall provide the petitioner with a copy of the orders described in subdivisions (a), (j), and (k), as applicable, and inform the petitioner that they may thereafter state that they were not arrested for the charge, or adjudicated or convicted of the charge, that was vacated.

SEC. 150.

 Section 653.29 of the Penal Code is amended to read:

653.29.
 (a) (1) A person currently serving a sentence for a conviction of violating former Section 653.22, whether by trial or by open or negotiated plea, may petition for a recall or dismissal of sentence before the trial court that entered the judgment of conviction in the case to request resentencing or dismissal, and sealing, as applicable.
(2) Upon receiving a petition under paragraph (1), the court shall presume the petitioner satisfies the criteria in paragraph (1) unless the party opposing the petition proves by clear and convincing evidence that the petitioner does not satisfy the criteria. If the petitioner satisfies the criteria in paragraph (1), the court shall grant the petition to recall the sentence or dismiss the sentence because it is legally invalid and shall seal the conviction as legally invalid.
(b) (1) A person who has completed their sentence for a conviction of violating former Section 653.22, whether by trial or open or negotiated plea, may file an application before the trial court that entered the judgment of conviction in their case to have the conviction dismissed and sealed because the prior conviction is now legally invalid.
(2) The court shall presume the petitioner satisfies the criteria in paragraph (1) unless the party opposing the application proves by clear and convincing evidence that the petitioner does not satisfy the criteria in paragraph (1). Once the applicant satisfies the criteria in paragraph (1), the court shall seal the conviction as legally invalid.
(c) Unless requested by the applicant, no hearing is necessary to grant or deny an application filed under subdivision (b).
(d) If the court that originally sentenced the petitioner is not available, the presiding judge shall designate another judge to rule on the petition or application.
(e) Nothing in this section is intended to diminish or abrogate any rights or remedies otherwise available to the petitioner or applicant.
(f) The Judicial Council shall promulgate and make available all necessary forms to enable the filing of the petitions and applications provided in this section.

SEC. 151.

 Section 679.12 of the Penal Code is amended to read:

679.12.
 (a) The following procedures apply to known reference samples of DNA from a victim of a crime or alleged crime, and to known reference samples of DNA from any individual that were voluntarily provided for the purpose of exclusion, as well as to any profiles developed from those samples:
(1) Law enforcement agencies and their agents shall use these DNA samples or profiles only for purposes directly related to the incident being investigated.
(2) No law enforcement agency or agent thereof may compare any of these samples or profiles with DNA samples or profiles that do not relate to the incident being investigated.
(3) No law enforcement agency or agent thereof may include any of these DNA profiles in any database that allows these samples to be compared to or matched with profiles derived from DNA evidence obtained from crime scenes.
(4) No law enforcement agency or agent thereof may provide any other person or entity with access to any of these DNA samples or profiles, unless that person or entity agrees to abide by the statutory restrictions on the use and disclosure of that sample or profile.
(5) Any part of a DNA sample that remains after the requested testing or analysis has been performed shall be securely stored and may only be used in accordance with the restrictions on use and disclosure of the sample provided in this section.
(6) No agent of a law enforcement agency may provide any part of these DNA samples or profiles to any person or entity other than the law enforcement agency that provided them, except portions of these remaining DNA samples may be provided to the defendant when authorized by court order.
(7) A person whose DNA profile has been voluntarily provided for purposes of exclusion shall have their searchable database profile expunged from all public and private databases if the person has no past or present offense or pending charge that qualifies that person for inclusion within the state’s DNA and Forensic Identification Database and Databank Program.
(8) This section does not prohibit crime laboratories from collecting, retaining, and using for comparison purposes in multiple cases the following DNA profiles:
(i) The DNA profiles from persons whose proximity or access to DNA case evidence during the collection, handling, or processing of that evidence might result in DNA contamination, including first responders, crime scene investigators, laboratory staff, or others at the laboratory, if these kinds of elimination samples are voluntarily provided with written consent for their use as quality assurance or control samples, or if the elimination samples are obtained as a condition of employment with written consent, so that the crime laboratory can assure reliable results.
(ii) The DNA profiles from persons associated with the manufacturing or production of consumable supplies or reagents or positive control samples used in laboratory testing, if these kinds of elimination samples are voluntarily provided with written consent.
(iii) The DNA profiles that may be incidentally encountered on consumable supplies or reagents such as plastic tubes, plastic plates, swabs, and buffers.
(9) The requirement for written consent for voluntary elimination samples does not preclude a DNA testing laboratory from retaining, for use consistent with this section, the voluntary quality assurance or control samples described in paragraph (8) that were provided without written consent by persons prior to the enactment of this section, or if the laboratory is otherwise required to retain such case samples by another provision of law.
(10) This section does not preclude a DNA testing laboratory from conducting a limited comparison of samples that were analyzed concurrently in order to evaluate the DNA typing results for potential contamination, determine the source of contamination when detected, and to ensure that the contaminating profiles were not misidentified as DNA profiles from putative perpetrators.
(11) This section does not affect the inclusion of samples in state DNA databases as described in Section 295, the use of state DNA databases for identifying missing persons, the compliance with other provisions of law that allow the release of samples for postconviction testing, or the use of reference samples from a suspect lawfully collected in a manner that does not violate this section.
(b) For the purposes of this section, the following definitions apply:
(1) The “incident being investigated” means the crime or alleged crime that caused a law enforcement agency or agent to analyze or request a DNA sample from a victim of or witness to that crime or alleged crime.
(2) An “agent” of a law enforcement agency includes any person or entity that the agency provides with access to a DNA sample collected directly from the person of a victim of or witness to a crime or alleged crime, or to any profile developed from those samples. This includes, but is not limited to, public or private DNA testing facilities.
(3) A “victim” or “witness” does not include any person who is a target of the investigation of the incident being investigated, if law enforcement agents have probable cause to believe that person has committed a public offense relating to the incident under investigation.
(4) A sample is “voluntarily provided for the purpose of exclusion” if law enforcement agents do not consider the individual to be a suspect and have requested a voluntary DNA sample in order to exclude that person’s DNA profile from consideration in the current investigation.
(c) This section does not apply to evidence arising from the victim that is biological material that is not the victim’s own and is not from an individual who voluntarily provided a reference sample for exclusion, such as DNA transferred from an assailant.

SEC. 152.

 Section 680 of the Penal Code is amended to read:

680.
 (a) This section shall be known as and may be cited as the “Sexual Assault Victims’ DNA Bill of Rights.”
(b) The Legislature finds and declares all of the following:
(1) Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) and forensic identification analysis is a powerful law enforcement tool for identifying and prosecuting sexual assault offenders.
(2) Existing law requires an adult arrested for or charged with a felony and a juvenile adjudicated for a felony to submit DNA samples as a result of that arrest, charge, or adjudication.
(3) Victims of sexual assaults have a strong interest in the investigation and prosecution of their cases.
(4) Law enforcement agencies have an obligation to victims of sexual assaults in the proper handling, retention, and timely DNA testing of rape kit evidence or other crime scene evidence and to be responsive to victims concerning the developments of forensic testing and the investigation of their cases.
(5) The growth of the Department of Justice’s Cal-DNA databank and the national databank through the Combined DNA Index System (CODIS) makes it possible for many sexual assault perpetrators to be identified after their first offense, provided that rape kit evidence is analyzed in a timely manner.
(6) Timely DNA analysis of rape kit evidence is a core public safety issue affecting men, women, and children in the State of California. It is the intent of the Legislature, in order to further public safety, to encourage DNA analysis of rape kit evidence within the time limit imposed by paragraph (1) of subdivision (g) of Section 803.
(7) DNA reference samples collected directly from a victim of sexual assault, and reference samples of DNA collected from any individual that were voluntarily provided for the purpose of exclusion, shall be protected as provided in Section 679.12.
(c) In order to ensure that sexual assault forensic evidence is analyzed within the timeframe required by paragraph (1) of subdivision (g) of Section 803 and to ensure the longest possible statute of limitations for sex offenses, including sex offenses designated pursuant to those subparagraphs, the following shall occur:
(1) A law enforcement agency in whose jurisdiction a sex offense specified in Section 261, 261.5, 286, 287, or 289 or former Section 262 or 288a occurred shall do one of the following for any sexual assault forensic evidence received by the law enforcement agency on or after January 1, 2016:
(A) Submit sexual assault forensic evidence to the crime lab within 20 days after it is booked into evidence.
(B) Ensure that a rapid turnaround DNA program is in place to submit forensic evidence collected from the victim of a sexual assault directly from the medical facility where the victim is examined to the crime lab within five days after the evidence is obtained from the victim.
(2) The crime lab shall do one of the following for any sexual assault forensic evidence received by the crime lab on or after January 1, 2016:
(A) Process sexual assault forensic evidence, create DNA profiles when able, and upload qualifying DNA profiles into CODIS as soon as practically possible, but no later than 120 days after initially receiving the evidence.
(B) Transmit the sexual assault forensic evidence to another crime lab as soon as practically possible, but no later than 30 days after initially receiving the evidence, for processing of the evidence for the presence of DNA. If a DNA profile is created, the transmitting crime lab shall upload the profile into CODIS as soon as practically possible, but no longer than 30 days after being notified about the presence of DNA.
(3) This subdivision does not require a lab to test all items of forensic evidence obtained in a sexual assault forensic evidence examination. A lab is considered to be in compliance with the guidelines of this section when representative samples of the evidence are processed by the lab in an effort to detect the foreign DNA of the perpetrator.
(4) This section does not require a DNA profile to be uploaded into CODIS if the DNA profile does not meet federal guidelines regarding the uploading of DNA profiles into CODIS.
(5) For purposes of this section, a “rapid turnaround DNA program” is a program for the training of sexual assault team personnel in the selection of representative samples of forensic evidence from the victim to be the best evidence, based on the medical evaluation and patient history, the collection and preservation of that evidence, and the transfer of the evidence directly from the medical facility to the crime lab, which is adopted pursuant to a written agreement between the law enforcement agency, the crime lab, and the medical facility where the sexual assault team is based.
(6) For the purpose of this section, “law enforcement” means the law enforcement agency with the primary responsibility for investigating an alleged sexual assault.
(d) (1) Upon the request of a sexual assault victim, the law enforcement agency investigating a violation of Section 261, 261.5, 286, 287, or 289 or of former Section 262 or 288a shall inform the victim of the status of the DNA testing of the rape kit evidence or other crime scene evidence from the victim’s case. The law enforcement agency may, at its discretion, require that the victim’s request be in writing. The law enforcement agency shall respond to the victim’s request with either an oral or written communication, or by email, if an email address is available. This subdivision does not require that the law enforcement agency communicate with the victim or the victim’s designee regarding the status of DNA testing absent a specific request from the victim or the victim’s designee.
(2) Sexual assault victims have the right to access the Department of Justice’s SAFE-T database portal consistent with subdivision (e) of Section 680.3 for information involving their own forensic kit and the status of the kit.
(3) Sexual assault victims have the right to be informed of the following:
(A) Whether or not a DNA profile of the assailant was obtained from the testing of the rape kit evidence or other crime scene evidence from their case.
(B) Whether or not the DNA profile of the assailant developed from the rape kit evidence or other crime scene evidence has been entered into the Department of Justice Data Bank or the federal Department of Justice or Federal Bureau of Investigation CODIS database of case evidence.
(C) Whether or not there is a confirmed match between the DNA profile of the assailant developed from the rape kit evidence or other crime scene evidence and a DNA profile contained in the Department of Justice Convicted Offender DNA Database, provided that disclosure would not impede or compromise an ongoing investigation.
(4) This subdivision is intended to encourage law enforcement agencies to notify victims of information that is in their possession. It is not intended to affect the manner of or frequency with which the Department of Justice provides this information to law enforcement agencies.
(e) If the law enforcement agency does not analyze DNA evidence within six months prior to the time limit established by paragraph (1) of subdivision (g) of Section 803, a victim of a sexual assault offense specified in Section 261, 261.5, 286, 287, or 289 or former Section 262 or 288a shall be informed, either orally or in writing, of that fact by the law enforcement agency.
(f) (1) If the law enforcement agency intends to destroy or dispose of rape kit evidence or other crime scene evidence from an unsolved sexual assault case, a victim of a violation of Section 261, 261.5, 286, 287, or 289 or of former Section 262 or 288a shall be given written notification by the law enforcement agency of that intention.
(2) A law enforcement agency shall not destroy or dispose of rape kit evidence or other crime scene evidence from an unsolved sexual assault case before at least 20 years, or if the victim was under 18 years of age at the time of the alleged offense, before the victim’s 40th birthday.
(g) Written notification under subdivision (e) or (f) shall be made at least 60 days prior to the destruction or disposal of the rape kit evidence or other crime scene evidence from an unsolved sexual assault case.
(h) A sexual assault victim may designate a sexual assault victim advocate, or other support person of the victim’s choosing, to act as a recipient of the above information required to be provided by this section.
(i) It is the intent of the Legislature that a law enforcement agency responsible for providing information under subdivision (d) do so in a timely manner and, upon request of the victim or the victim’s designee, advise the victim or the victim’s designee of any significant changes in the information of which the law enforcement agency is aware. In order to be entitled to receive notice under this section, the victim or the victim’s designee shall keep appropriate authorities informed of the name, address, telephone number, and email address of the person to whom the information should be provided, and any changes of the name, address, telephone number, and email address, if an email address is available.
(j) A defendant or person accused or convicted of a crime against the victim shall have no standing to object to any failure to comply with this section. The failure to provide a right or notice to a sexual assault victim under this section may not be used by a defendant to seek to have the conviction or sentence set aside.
(k) The sole civil or criminal remedy available to a sexual assault victim for a law enforcement agency’s failure to fulfill its responsibilities under this section is standing to file a writ of mandamus to require compliance with subdivision (e) or (f).

SEC. 153.

 Section 832.7 of the Penal Code is amended to read:

832.7.
 (a) Except as provided in subdivision (b), the personnel records of peace officers and custodial officers and records maintained by a state or local agency pursuant to Section 832.5, or information obtained from these records, are confidential and shall not be disclosed in any criminal or civil proceeding except by discovery pursuant to Sections 1043 and 1046 of the Evidence Code. This section does not apply to investigations or proceedings concerning the conduct of peace officers or custodial officers, or an agency or department that employs those officers, conducted by a grand jury, a district attorney’s office, or the Attorney General’s office.
(b) (1) Notwithstanding subdivision (a), subdivision (f) of Section 6254 of the Government Code, or any other law, the following peace officer or custodial officer personnel records and records maintained by a state or local agency shall not be confidential and shall be made available for public inspection pursuant to the California Public Records Act (Chapter 3.5 (commencing with Section 6250) of Division 7 of Title 1 of the Government Code):
(A) A record relating to the report, investigation, or findings of any of the following:
(i) An incident involving the discharge of a firearm at a person by a peace officer or custodial officer.
(ii) An incident involving the use of force against a person by a peace officer or custodial officer that resulted in death or in great bodily injury.
(iii) A sustained finding involving a complaint that alleges unreasonable or excessive force.
(iv) A sustained finding that an officer failed to intervene against another officer using force that is clearly unreasonable or excessive.
(B) (i) Any record relating to an incident in which a sustained finding was made by any law enforcement agency or oversight agency that a peace officer or custodial officer engaged in sexual assault involving a member of the public.
(ii) As used in this subparagraph, “sexual assault” means the commission or attempted initiation of a sexual act with a member of the public by means of force, threat, coercion, extortion, offer of leniency or other official favor, or under the color of authority. For purposes of this definition, the propositioning for or commission of any sexual act while on duty is considered a sexual assault.
(iii) As used in this subparagraph, “member of the public” means any person not employed by the officer’s employing agency and includes any participant in a cadet, explorer, or other youth program affiliated with the agency.
(C) Any record relating to an incident in which a sustained finding was made by any law enforcement agency or oversight agency involving dishonesty by a peace officer or custodial officer directly relating to the reporting, investigation, or prosecution of a crime, or directly relating to the reporting of, or investigation of misconduct by, another peace officer or custodial officer, including, but not limited to, any false statements, filing false reports, destruction, falsifying, or concealing of evidence, or perjury.
(D) Any record relating to an incident in which a sustained finding was made by any law enforcement agency or oversight agency that a peace officer or custodial officer engaged in conduct including, but not limited to, verbal statements, writings, online posts, recordings, and gestures, involving prejudice or discrimination against a person on the basis of race, religious creed, color, national origin, ancestry, physical disability, mental disability, medical condition, genetic information, marital status, sex, gender, gender identity, gender expression, age, sexual orientation, or military and veteran status.
(E) Any record relating to an incident in which a sustained finding was made by any law enforcement agency or oversight agency that the peace officer made an unlawful arrest or conducted an unlawful search.
(2) Records that are subject to disclosure under clause (iii) or (iv) of subparagraph (A) of paragraph (1), or under subparagraph (D) or (E) of paragraph (1), relating to an incident that occurs before January 1, 2022, shall not be subject to the time limitations in paragraph (11) until January 1, 2023.
(3) Records that shall be released pursuant to this subdivision include all investigative reports; photographic, audio, and video evidence; transcripts or recordings of interviews; autopsy reports; all materials compiled and presented for review to the district attorney or to any person or body charged with determining whether to file criminal charges against an officer in connection with an incident, whether the officer’s action was consistent with law and agency policy for purposes of discipline or administrative action, or what discipline to impose or corrective action to take; documents setting forth findings or recommended findings; and copies of disciplinary records relating to the incident, including any letters of intent to impose discipline, any documents reflecting modifications of discipline due to the Skelly or grievance process, and letters indicating final imposition of discipline or other documentation reflecting implementation of corrective action. Records that shall be released pursuant to this subdivision also include records relating to an incident specified in paragraph (1) in which the peace officer or custodial officer resigned before the law enforcement agency or oversight agency concluded its investigation into the alleged incident.
(4) A record from a separate and prior investigation or assessment of a separate incident shall not be released unless it is independently subject to disclosure pursuant to this subdivision.
(5) If an investigation or incident involves multiple officers, information about allegations of misconduct by, or the analysis or disposition of an investigation of, an officer shall not be released pursuant to subparagraph (B), (C), (D), or (E) of paragraph (1), unless it relates to a sustained finding regarding that officer that is itself subject to disclosure pursuant to this section. However, factual information about that action of an officer during an incident, or the statements of an officer about an incident, shall be released if they are relevant to a finding against another officer that is subject to release pursuant to subparagraph (B), (C), (D), or (E) of paragraph (1).
(6) An agency shall redact a record disclosed pursuant to this section only for any of the following purposes:
(A) To remove personal data or information, such as a home address, telephone number, or identities of family members, other than the names and work-related information of peace and custodial officers.
(B) To preserve the anonymity of whistleblowers, complainants, victims, and witnesses.
(C) To protect confidential medical, financial, or other information of which disclosure is specifically prohibited by federal law or would cause an unwarranted invasion of personal privacy that clearly outweighs the strong public interest in records about possible misconduct and use of force by peace officers and custodial officers.
(D) Where there is a specific, articulable, and particularized reason to believe that disclosure of the record would pose a significant danger to the physical safety of the peace officer, custodial officer, or another person.
(7) Notwithstanding paragraph (6), an agency may redact a record disclosed pursuant to this section, including personal identifying information, where, on the facts of the particular case, the public interest served by not disclosing the information clearly outweighs the public interest served by disclosure of the information.
(8) An agency may withhold a record of an incident described in paragraph (1) that is the subject of an active criminal or administrative investigation, in accordance with any of the following:
(A) (i) During an active criminal investigation, disclosure may be delayed for up to 60 days from the date the misconduct or use of force occurred or until the district attorney determines whether to file criminal charges related to the misconduct or use of force, whichever occurs sooner. If an agency delays disclosure pursuant to this clause, the agency shall provide, in writing, the specific basis for the agency’s determination that the interest in delaying disclosure clearly outweighs the public interest in disclosure. This writing shall include the estimated date for disclosure of the withheld information.
(ii) After 60 days from the misconduct or use of force, the agency may continue to delay the disclosure of records or information if the disclosure could reasonably be expected to interfere with a criminal enforcement proceeding against an officer who engaged in misconduct or used the force. If an agency delays disclosure pursuant to this clause, the agency shall, at 180-day intervals as necessary, provide, in writing, the specific basis for the agency’s determination that disclosure could reasonably be expected to interfere with a criminal enforcement proceeding. The writing shall include the estimated date for the disclosure of the withheld information. Information withheld by the agency shall be disclosed when the specific basis for withholding is resolved, when the investigation or proceeding is no longer active, or by no later than 18 months after the date of the incident, whichever occurs sooner.
(iii) After 60 days from the misconduct or use of force, the agency may continue to delay the disclosure of records or information if the disclosure could reasonably be expected to interfere with a criminal enforcement proceeding against someone other than the officer who engaged in the misconduct or used the force. If an agency delays disclosure under this clause, the agency shall, at 180-day intervals, provide, in writing, the specific basis why disclosure could reasonably be expected to interfere with a criminal enforcement proceeding, and shall provide an estimated date for the disclosure of the withheld information. Information withheld by the agency shall be disclosed when the specific basis for withholding is resolved, when the investigation or proceeding is no longer active, or by no later than 18 months after the date of the incident, whichever occurs sooner, unless extraordinary circumstances warrant continued delay due to the ongoing criminal investigation or proceeding. In that case, the agency must show by clear and convincing evidence that the interest in preventing prejudice to the active and ongoing criminal investigation or proceeding outweighs the public interest in prompt disclosure of records about misconduct or use of force by peace officers and custodial officers. The agency shall release all information subject to disclosure that does not cause substantial prejudice, including any documents that have otherwise become available.
(iv) In an action to compel disclosure brought pursuant to Section 6258 of the Government Code, an agency may justify delay by filing an application to seal the basis for withholding, in accordance with Rule 2.550 of the California Rules of Court, or any successor rule, if disclosure of the written basis itself would impact a privilege or compromise a pending investigation.
(B) If criminal charges are filed related to the incident in which misconduct occurred or force was used, the agency may delay the disclosure of records or information until a verdict on those charges is returned at trial or, if a plea of guilty or no contest is entered, the time to withdraw the plea pursuant to Section 1018.
(C) During an administrative investigation into an incident described in paragraph (1), the agency may delay the disclosure of records or information until the investigating agency determines whether the misconduct or use of force violated a law or agency policy, but no longer than 180 days after the date of the employing agency’s discovery of the misconduct or use of force, or allegation of misconduct or use of force, by a person authorized to initiate an investigation.
(9) A record of a complaint, or the investigations, findings, or dispositions of that complaint, shall not be released pursuant to this section if the complaint is frivolous, as defined in Section 128.5 of the Code of Civil Procedure, or if the complaint is unfounded.
(10) The cost of copies of records subject to disclosure pursuant to this subdivision that are made available upon the payment of fees covering direct costs of duplication pursuant to subdivision (b) of Section 6253 of the Government Code shall not include the costs of searching for, editing, or redacting the records.
(11) Except to the extent temporary withholding for a longer period is permitted pursuant to paragraph (8), records subject to disclosure under this subdivision shall be provided at the earliest possible time and no later than 45 days from the date of a request for their disclosure.
(12) (A) For purposes of releasing records pursuant to this subdivision, the lawyer-client privilege does not prohibit the disclosure of either of the following:
(i) Factual information provided by the public entity to its attorney or factual information discovered in any investigation conducted by, or on behalf of, the public entity’s attorney.
(ii) Billing records related to the work done by the attorney so long as the records do not relate to active and ongoing litigation and do not disclose information for the purpose of legal consultation between the public entity and its attorney.
(B) This paragraph does not prohibit the public entity from asserting that a record or information within the record is exempted or prohibited from disclosure pursuant to any other federal or state law.
(c) Notwithstanding subdivisions (a) and (b), a department or agency shall release to the complaining party a copy of the complaining party’s own statements at the time the complaint is filed.
(d) Notwithstanding subdivisions (a) and (b), a department or agency that employs peace or custodial officers may disseminate data regarding the number, type, or disposition of complaints (sustained, not sustained, exonerated, or unfounded) made against its officers if that information is in a form which does not identify the individuals involved.
(e) Notwithstanding subdivisions (a) and (b), a department or agency that employs peace or custodial officers may release factual information concerning a disciplinary investigation if the officer who is the subject of the disciplinary investigation, or the officer’s agent or representative, publicly makes a statement they know to be false concerning the investigation or the imposition of disciplinary action. Information may not be disclosed by the peace or custodial officer’s employer unless the false statement was published by an established medium of communication, such as television, radio, or a newspaper. Disclosure of factual information by the employing agency pursuant to this subdivision is limited to facts contained in the officer’s personnel file concerning the disciplinary investigation or imposition of disciplinary action that specifically refute the false statements made public by the peace or custodial officer or their agent or representative.
(f) (1) The department or agency shall provide written notification to the complaining party of the disposition of the complaint within 30 days of the disposition.
(2) The notification described in this subdivision is not conclusive or binding or admissible as evidence in any separate or subsequent action or proceeding brought before an arbitrator, court, or judge of this state or the United States.
(g) This section does not affect the discovery or disclosure of information contained in a peace or custodial officer’s personnel file pursuant to Section 1043 of the Evidence Code.
(h) This section does not supersede or affect the criminal discovery process outlined in Chapter 10 (commencing with Section 1054) of Title 6 of Part 2, or the admissibility of personnel records pursuant to subdivision (a), which codifies the court decision in Pitchess v. Superior Court (1974) 11 Cal.3d 531.
(i) Nothing in this chapter is intended to limit the public’s right of access as provided for in Long Beach Police Officers Association v. City of Long Beach (2014) 59 Cal.4th 59.

SEC. 154.

 Section 1001.81 of the Penal Code is amended to read:

1001.81.
 (a) The city or county prosecuting attorney or county probation department may create a diversion or deferred entry of judgment program pursuant to this section for persons who commit a theft offense or repeat theft offenses. The program may be conducted by the prosecuting attorney’s office or the county probation department.
(b) Except as provided in subdivision (e), this chapter does not limit the power of the prosecuting attorney to prosecute theft or repeat theft.
(c) If a county creates a diversion or deferred entry of judgment program for individuals committing a theft offense or repeat theft offenses, on receipt of a case or at arraignment, the prosecuting attorney shall either refer the case to the county probation department to conduct a prefiling investigation report to assess the appropriateness of program placement or, if the prosecuting attorney’s office operates the program, determine if the case is one that is appropriate to be referred to the program. In determining whether to refer a case to the program, the probation department or prosecuting attorney shall consider, but is not limited to, all of the following factors:
(1) Any prefiling investigation report conducted by the county probation department or nonprofit contract agency operating the program that evaluates the individual’s risk and needs and the appropriateness of program placement.
(2) If the person demonstrates a willingness to engage in community service, restitution, or other mechanisms to repair the harm caused by the criminal activity and address the underlying drivers of the criminal activity.
(3) If a risk and needs assessment identifies underlying substance abuse or mental health needs or other drivers of criminal activity that can be addressed through the diversion or deferred entry of judgment program.
(4) If the person has a violent or serious prior criminal record or has previously been referred to a diversion program and failed that program.
(5) Any relevant information concerning the efficacy of the program in reducing the likelihood of participants committing future offenses.
(d) On referral of a case to the program, a notice shall be provided, or forwarded by mail, to the person alleged to have committed the offense with both of the following:
(1) The date by which the person must contact the diversion program or deferred entry of judgment program in the manner designated by the supervising agency.
(2) A statement of the penalty for the offense or offenses with which that person has been charged.
(e) The prosecuting attorney may enter into a written agreement with the person to refrain from, or defer, prosecution on the offense or offenses on the following conditions:
(1) Completion of the program requirements such as community service or courses reasonably required by the prosecuting attorney.
(2) Making adequate restitution or an appropriate substitute for restitution to the establishment or person from which property was stolen at the face value of the stolen property, if required by the program.
(f) For the purposes of this section, “repeat theft offenses” means being cited or convicted for misdemeanor or felony theft from a store or from a vehicle two or more times in the previous 12 months and failing to appear in court when cited for these crimes or continuing to engage in these crimes after release or after conviction.

SEC. 155.

 Section 1170 of the Penal Code is amended to read:

1170.
 (a) (1) The Legislature finds and declares that the purpose of sentencing is public safety achieved through punishment, rehabilitation, and restorative justice. When a sentence includes incarceration, this purpose is best served by terms that are proportionate to the seriousness of the offense with provision for uniformity in the sentences of offenders committing the same offense under similar circumstances.
(2) The Legislature further finds and declares that programs should be available for incarcerated persons, including, but not limited to, educational, rehabilitative, and restorative justice programs that are designed to promote behavior change and to prepare all eligible offenders for successful reentry into the community. The Legislature encourages the development of policies and programs designed to educate and rehabilitate all eligible offenders. In implementing this section, the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation is encouraged to allow all eligible incarcerated persons the opportunity to enroll in programs that promote successful return to the community. The Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation is directed to establish a mission statement consistent with these principles.
(3) In any case in which the sentence prescribed by statute for a person convicted of a public offense is a term of imprisonment in the state prison, or a term pursuant to subdivision (h), of any specification of three time periods, the court shall sentence the defendant to one of the terms of imprisonment specified unless the convicted person is given any other disposition provided by law, including a fine, jail, probation, or the suspension of imposition or execution of sentence or is sentenced pursuant to subdivision (b) of Section 1168 because they had committed their crime prior to July 1, 1977. In sentencing the convicted person, the court shall apply the sentencing rules of the Judicial Council. The court, unless it determines that there are circumstances in mitigation of the sentence prescribed, shall also impose any other term that it is required by law to impose as an additional term. Nothing in this article shall affect any provision of law that imposes the death penalty, that authorizes or restricts the granting of probation or suspending the execution or imposition of sentence, or expressly provides for imprisonment in the state prison for life, except as provided in subdivision (d). In any case in which the amount of preimprisonment credit under Section 2900.5 or any other provision of law is equal to or exceeds any sentence imposed pursuant to this chapter, except for a remaining portion of mandatory supervision imposed pursuant to subparagraph (B) of paragraph (5) of subdivision (h), the entire sentence shall be deemed to have been served, except for the remaining period of mandatory supervision, and the defendant shall not be actually delivered to the custody of the secretary or the county correctional administrator. The court shall advise the defendant that they shall serve an applicable period of parole, postrelease community supervision, or mandatory supervision and order the defendant to report to the parole or probation office closest to the defendant’s last legal residence, unless the in-custody credits equal the total sentence, including both confinement time and the period of parole, postrelease community supervision, or mandatory supervision. The sentence shall be deemed a separate prior prison term or a sentence of imprisonment in a county jail under subdivision (h) for purposes of Section 667.5, and a copy of the judgment and other necessary documentation shall be forwarded to the secretary.
(b) (1) When a judgment of imprisonment is to be imposed and the statute specifies three possible terms, the court shall, in its sound discretion, order imposition of a sentence not to exceed the middle term, except as otherwise provided in paragraph (2).
(2) The court may impose a sentence exceeding the middle term only when there are circumstances in aggravation of the crime that justify the imposition of a term of imprisonment exceeding the middle term and the facts underlying those circumstances have been stipulated to by the defendant or have been found true beyond a reasonable doubt at trial by the jury or by the judge in a court trial. Except where evidence supporting an aggravating circumstance is admissible to prove or defend against the charged offense or enhancement at trial, or it is otherwise authorized by law, upon request of a defendant, trial on the circumstances in aggravation alleged in the indictment or information shall be bifurcated from the trial of charges and enhancements. The jury shall not be informed of the bifurcated allegations until there has been a conviction of a felony offense.
(3) Notwithstanding paragraphs (1) and (2), the court may consider the defendant’s prior convictions in determining sentencing based on a certified record of conviction without submitting the prior convictions to a jury. This paragraph does not apply to enhancements imposed on prior convictions.
(4) At least four days prior to the time set for imposition of judgment, either party or the victim, or the family of the victim if the victim is deceased, may submit a statement in aggravation or mitigation to dispute facts in the record or the probation officer’s report or to present additional facts. The court may consider the record in the case, the probation officer’s report, other reports, including reports received pursuant to Section 1203.03, and statements in aggravation or mitigation submitted by the prosecution, the defendant, or the victim, or the family of the victim if the victim is deceased, and any further evidence introduced at the sentencing hearing.
(5) The court shall set forth on the record the facts and reasons for choosing the sentence imposed. The court may not impose an upper term by using the fact of any enhancement upon which sentence is imposed under any provision of law. A term of imprisonment shall not be specified if imposition of sentence is suspended.
(6) Notwithstanding paragraph (1), and unless the court finds that the aggravating circumstances outweigh the mitigating circumstances that imposition of the lower term would be contrary to the interests of justice, the court shall order imposition of the lower term if any of the following was a contributing factor in the commission of the offense:
(A) The person has experienced psychological, physical, or childhood trauma, including, but not limited to, abuse, neglect, exploitation, or sexual violence.
(B) The person is a youth or was a youth as defined under subdivision (b) of Section 1016.7 at the time of the commission of the offense.
(C) Prior to the instant offense, or at the time of the commission of the offense, the person is or was a victim of intimate partner violence or human trafficking.
(7) Paragraph (6) does not preclude the court from imposing the lower term even if there is no evidence of those circumstances listed in paragraph (6) present.
(c) The court shall state the reasons for its sentence choice on the record at the time of sentencing. The court shall also inform the defendant that as part of the sentence after expiration of the term they may be on parole for a period as provided in Section 3000 or 3000.08 or postrelease community supervision for a period as provided in Section 3451.
(d) (1) (A) When a defendant who was under 18 years of age at the time of the commission of the offense for which the defendant was sentenced to imprisonment for life without the possibility of parole has been incarcerated for at least 15 years, the defendant may submit to the sentencing court a petition for recall and resentencing.
(B) Notwithstanding subparagraph (A), this paragraph shall not apply to defendants sentenced to life without parole for an offense where it was pled and proved that the defendant tortured, as described in Section 206, their victim or the victim was a public safety official, including any law enforcement personnel mentioned in Chapter 4.5 (commencing with Section 830) of Title 3, or any firefighter as described in Section 245.1, as well as any other officer in any segment of law enforcement who is employed by the federal government, the state, or any of its political subdivisions.
(2) The defendant shall file the original petition with the sentencing court. A copy of the petition shall be served on the agency that prosecuted the case. The petition shall include the defendant’s statement that the defendant was under 18 years of age at the time of the crime and was sentenced to life in prison without the possibility of parole, the defendant’s statement describing their remorse and work towards rehabilitation, and the defendant’s statement that one of the following is true:
(A) The defendant was convicted pursuant to felony murder or aiding and abetting murder provisions of law.
(B) The defendant does not have juvenile felony adjudications for assault or other felony crimes with a significant potential for personal harm to victims prior to the offense for which the sentence is being considered for recall.
(C) The defendant committed the offense with at least one adult codefendant.
(D) The defendant has performed acts that tend to indicate rehabilitation or the potential for rehabilitation, including, but not limited to, availing themselves of rehabilitative, educational, or vocational programs, if those programs have been available at their classification level and facility, using self-study for self-improvement, or showing evidence of remorse.
(3) If any of the information required in paragraph (2) is missing from the petition, or if proof of service on the prosecuting agency is not provided, the court shall return the petition to the defendant and advise the defendant that the matter cannot be considered without the missing information.
(4) A reply to the petition, if any, shall be filed with the court within 60 days of the date on which the prosecuting agency was served with the petition unless a continuance is granted for good cause.
(5) If the court finds by a preponderance of the evidence that one or more of the statements specified in subparagraphs (A) to (D), inclusive, of paragraph (2) is true, the court shall recall the sentence and commitment previously ordered and hold a hearing to resentence the defendant in the same manner as if the defendant had not previously been sentenced, provided that the new sentence, if any, is not greater than the initial sentence. Victims, or victim family members if the victim is deceased, shall retain the rights to participate in the hearing.
(6) The factors that the court may consider when determining whether to resentence the defendant to a term of imprisonment with the possibility of parole include, but are not limited to, the following:
(A) The defendant was convicted pursuant to felony murder or aiding and abetting murder provisions of law.
(B) The defendant does not have juvenile felony adjudications for assault or other felony crimes with a significant potential for personal harm to victims prior to the offense for which the defendant was sentenced to life without the possibility of parole.
(C) The defendant committed the offense with at least one adult codefendant.
(D) Prior to the offense for which the defendant was sentenced to life without the possibility of parole, the defendant had insufficient adult support or supervision and had suffered from psychological or physical trauma or significant stress.
(E) The defendant suffers from cognitive limitations due to mental illness, developmental disabilities, or other factors that did not constitute a defense but influenced the defendant’s involvement in the offense.
(F) The defendant has performed acts that tend to indicate rehabilitation or the potential for rehabilitation, including, but not limited to, availing themselves of rehabilitative, educational, or vocational programs, if those programs have been available at their classification level and facility, using self-study for self-improvement, or showing evidence of remorse.
(G) The defendant has maintained family ties or connections with others through letter writing, calls, or visits or has eliminated contact with individuals outside of prison who are currently involved with crime.
(H) The defendant has had no disciplinary actions for violent activities in the last five years in which the defendant was determined to be the aggressor.
(7) The court shall have the discretion to resentence the defendant in the same manner as if the defendant had not previously been sentenced, provided that the new sentence, if any, is not greater than the initial sentence. The discretion of the court shall be exercised in consideration of the criteria in paragraph (6). Victims, or victim family members if the victim is deceased, shall be notified of the resentencing hearing and shall retain their rights to participate in the hearing.
(8) Notwithstanding paragraph (7), the court may also resentence the defendant to a term that is less than the initial sentence if any of the following were a contributing factor in the commission of the alleged offense:
(A) The person has experienced psychological, physical, or childhood trauma, including, but not limited to, abuse, neglect, exploitation, or sexual violence.
(B) The person is a youth or was a youth as defined under subdivision (b) of Section 1016.7 at the time of the commission of the offense.
(C) Prior to the instant offense, or at the time of the commission of the offense, the person is or was a victim of intimate partner violence or human trafficking.
(9) Paragraph (8) does not prohibit the court from resentencing the defendant to a term that is less than the initial sentence, even if none of the circumstances listed in paragraph (8) are present.
(10) If the sentence is not recalled or the defendant is resentenced to imprisonment for life without the possibility of parole, the defendant may submit another petition for recall and resentencing to the sentencing court when the defendant has been committed to the custody of the department for at least 20 years. If the sentence is not recalled or the defendant is resentenced to imprisonment for life without the possibility of parole under that petition, the defendant may file another petition after having served 24 years. The final petition may be submitted, and the response to that petition shall be determined, during the 25th year of the defendant’s sentence.
(11) In addition to the criteria in paragraph (6), the court may consider any other criteria that the court deems relevant to its decision, so long as the court identifies them on the record, provides a statement of reasons for adopting them, and states why the defendant does or does not satisfy the criteria.
(12) This subdivision shall have retroactive application.
(13) Nothing in this paragraph is intended to diminish or abrogate any rights or remedies otherwise available to the defendant.
(e) Notwithstanding subdivision (a), the court may recall and resentence an incarcerated person pursuant to the compassionate release program set forth in Section 1172.2.
(f) Notwithstanding any other provision of this section, for purposes of paragraph (3) of subdivision (h), an allegation that a defendant is eligible for state prison due to a prior or current conviction, sentence enhancement, or because the defendant is required to register as a sex offender shall not be subject to dismissal pursuant to Section 1385.
(g) A sentence to the state prison for a determinate term for which only one term is specified is a sentence to state prison under this section.
(h) (1) Except as provided in paragraph (3), a felony punishable pursuant to this subdivision where the term is not specified in the underlying offense shall be punishable by a term of imprisonment in a county jail for 16 months, or two or three years.
(2) Except as provided in paragraph (3), a felony punishable pursuant to this subdivision shall be punishable by imprisonment in a county jail for the term described in the underlying offense.
(3) Notwithstanding paragraphs (1) and (2), where the defendant (A) has a prior or current felony conviction for a serious felony described in subdivision (c) of Section 1192.7 or a prior or current conviction for a violent felony described in subdivision (c) of Section 667.5, (B) has a prior felony conviction in another jurisdiction for an offense that has all the elements of a serious felony described in subdivision (c) of Section 1192.7 or a violent felony described in subdivision (c) of Section 667.5, (C) is required to register as a sex offender pursuant to Chapter 5.5 (commencing with Section 290) of Title 9 of Part 1, or (D) is convicted of a crime and as part of the sentence an enhancement pursuant to Section 186.11 is imposed, an executed sentence for a felony punishable pursuant to this subdivision shall be served in the state prison.
(4) Nothing in this subdivision shall be construed to prevent other dispositions authorized by law, including pretrial diversion, deferred entry of judgment, or an order granting probation pursuant to Section 1203.1.
(5) (A) Unless the court finds, in the interest of justice, that it is not appropriate in a particular case, the court, when imposing a sentence pursuant to paragraph (1) or (2), shall suspend execution of a concluding portion of the term for a period selected at the court’s discretion.
(B) The portion of a defendant’s sentenced term that is suspended pursuant to this paragraph shall be known as mandatory supervision, and, unless otherwise ordered by the court, shall commence upon release from physical custody or an alternative custody program, whichever is later. During the period of mandatory supervision, the defendant shall be supervised by the county probation officer in accordance with the terms, conditions, and procedures generally applicable to persons placed on probation for the remaining unserved portion of the sentence imposed by the court. The period of supervision shall be mandatory and may not be earlier terminated, except by court order. Any proceeding to revoke or modify mandatory supervision under this subparagraph shall be conducted pursuant to either subdivisions (a) and (b) of Section 1203.2 or Section 1203.3. During the period when the defendant is under that supervision, unless in actual custody related to the sentence imposed by the court, the defendant shall be entitled to only actual time credit against the term of imprisonment imposed by the court. Any time period that is suspended because a person has absconded shall not be credited toward the period of supervision.
(6) When the court is imposing a judgment pursuant to this subdivision concurrent or consecutive to a judgment or judgments previously imposed pursuant to this subdivision in another county or counties, the court rendering the second or other subsequent judgment shall determine the county or counties of incarceration and supervision of the defendant.
(7) The sentencing changes made by the act that added this subdivision shall be applied prospectively to any person sentenced on or after October 1, 2011.
(8) The sentencing changes made to paragraph (5) by the act that added this paragraph shall become effective and operative on January 1, 2015, and shall be applied prospectively to any person sentenced on or after January 1, 2015.
(9) Notwithstanding the separate punishment for any enhancement, any enhancement shall be punishable in a county jail or state prison as required by the underlying offense and not as would be required by the enhancement. The intent of the Legislature in enacting this paragraph is to abrogate the holding in People v. Vega (2014) 222 Cal.App.4th 1374, that if an enhancement specifies service of sentence in state prison, the entire sentence is served in state prison, even if the punishment for the underlying offense is a term of imprisonment in the county jail.

SEC. 156.

 Section 1170.02 of the Penal Code is amended to read:

1170.02.
 A prisoner is not eligible for resentence or recall pursuant to Section 1172.2 if they were convicted of first-degree murder, if the victim was a peace officer, as defined in Section 830.1, 830.2, 830.3, 830.31, 830.32, 830.33, 830.34, 830.35, 830.36, 830.37, 830.4, 830.5, 830.6, 830.10, 830.11, or 830.12, who was killed while engaged in the performance of their duties, and the individual knew, or reasonably should have known, that the victim was a peace officer engaged in the performance of their duties, or the victim was a peace officer or a former peace officer under any of the above-enumerated sections and was intentionally killed in retaliation for the performance of their official duties.

SEC. 157.

 Section 1172.1 of the Penal Code is amended to read:

1172.1.
 (a) (1) When a defendant, upon conviction for a felony offense, has been committed to the custody of the Secretary of the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation or to the custody of the county correctional administrator pursuant to subdivision (h) of Section 1170, the court may, within 120 days of the date of commitment on its own motion, at any time upon the recommendation of the secretary or the Board of Parole Hearings in the case of a defendant incarcerated in state prison, the county correctional administrator in the case of a defendant incarcerated in county jail, the district attorney of the county in which the defendant was sentenced, or the Attorney General if the Department of Justice originally prosecuted the case, recall the sentence and commitment previously ordered and resentence the defendant in the same manner as if they had not previously been sentenced, whether or not the defendant is still in custody, and provided the new sentence, if any, is no greater than the initial sentence.
(2) The court, in recalling and resentencing under this subdivision, shall apply the sentencing rules of the Judicial Council and apply any changes in law that reduce sentences or provide for judicial discretion so as to eliminate disparity of sentences and to promote uniformity of sentencing.
(3) The resentencing court may, in the interest of justice and regardless of whether the original sentence was imposed after a trial or plea agreement, do the following:
(A) Reduce a defendant’s term of imprisonment by modifying the sentence.
(B) Vacate the defendant’s conviction and impose judgment on any necessarily included lesser offense or lesser related offense, whether or not that offense was charged in the original pleading, and then resentence the defendant to a reduced term of imprisonment, with the concurrence of both the defendant and the district attorney of the county in which the defendant was sentenced or the Attorney General if the Department of Justice originally prosecuted the case.
(4) In recalling and resentencing pursuant to this provision, the court may consider postconviction factors, including, but not limited to, the disciplinary record and record of rehabilitation of the defendant while incarcerated, evidence that reflects whether age, time served, and diminished physical condition, if any, have reduced the defendant’s risk for future violence, and evidence that reflects that circumstances have changed since the original sentencing so that continued incarceration is no longer in the interest of justice. The court shall consider if the defendant has experienced psychological, physical, or childhood trauma, including, but not limited to, abuse, neglect, exploitation, or sexual violence, if the defendant was a victim of intimate partner violence or human trafficking prior to or at the time of the commission of the offense, or if the defendant is a youth or was a youth as defined under subdivision (b) of Section 1016.7 at the time of the commission of the offense, and whether those circumstances were a contributing factor in the commission of the offense.
(5) Credit shall be given for time served.
(6) The court shall state on the record the reasons for its decision to grant or deny recall and resentencing.
(7) Resentencing may be granted without a hearing upon stipulation by the parties.
(8) Resentencing shall not be denied, nor a stipulation rejected, without a hearing where the parties have an opportunity to address the basis for the intended denial or rejection. If a hearing is held, the defendant may appear remotely and the court may conduct the hearing through the use of remote technology, unless counsel requests their physical presence in court.
(b) If a resentencing request pursuant to subdivision (a) is from the Secretary of the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation, the Board of Parole Hearings, a county correctional administrator, a district attorney, or the Attorney General, all of the following shall apply:
(1) The court shall provide notice to the defendant and set a status conference within 30 days after the date that the court received the request. The court’s order setting the conference shall also appoint counsel to represent the defendant.
(2) There shall be a presumption favoring recall and resentencing of the defendant, which may only be overcome if a court finds the defendant is an unreasonable risk of danger to public safety as defined in subdivision (c) of Section 1170.18.

SEC. 158.

 Section 1172.2 of the Penal Code is amended to read:

1172.2.
 (a) Notwithstanding any other law and consistent with paragraph (1) of subdivision (a) of Section 1170, if the statewide chief medical executive, in consultation with other clinical executives, as needed, determines that an incarcerated person satisfies the medical criteria set forth in subdivision (b), the department shall recommend to the court that the incarcerated person’s sentence be recalled.
(b) There shall be a presumption favoring recall and resentencing under this section if the court finds that the facts described in paragraph (1) or (2) exist, which may only be overcome if a court finds the defendant is an unreasonable risk of danger to public safety, as defined in subdivision (c) of Section 1170.18, based on the incarcerated person’s current physical and mental condition.
(1) The incarcerated person has a serious and advanced illness with an end-of-life trajectory. Examples include, but are not limited to, metastatic solid-tumor cancer, amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS), end-stage organ disease, and advanced end-stage dementia.
(2) The incarcerated person is permanently medically incapacitated with a medical condition or functional impairment that renders them permanently unable to complete basic activities of daily living, including, but not limited to, bathing, eating, dressing, toileting, transferring, and ambulation, or has progressive end-stage dementia and that incapacitation did not exist at the time of the original sentencing.
(c) Within 10 days of receipt of a positive recommendation by the department, the court shall hold a hearing to consider whether the incarcerated person’s sentence should be recalled.
(d) Any physician employed by the department, or their designee, who determines that an incarcerated person has a serious and advanced illness with an end-of-life trajectory or has a medical condition or functional impairment that renders them permanently medically incapacitated shall notify the chief medical executive of the prognosis. If the chief medical executive concurs with the prognosis, they shall notify the warden. Within 48 hours of receiving notification, the warden or the warden’s representative shall notify the incarcerated person of the recall and resentencing procedures and shall arrange for the incarcerated person to designate a family member or other outside agent to be notified as to the incarcerated person’s medical condition and prognosis and as to the recall and resentencing procedures. If the incarcerated person is deemed mentally unfit, the warden or the warden’s representative shall contact the incarcerated person’s emergency contact and provide the information described in subdivision (b).
(e) The department shall refer the matter to the court for recall and resentencing within 45 days of the primary physician’s, or their designee’s, diagnosis and referral to the chief medical executive.
(f) The warden or the warden’s representative shall provide the incarcerated person and their family member, agent, or emergency contact, as described in subdivision (d), updated information throughout the recall and resentencing process with regard to the incarcerated person’s medical condition and the status of the incarcerated person’s recall and resentencing proceedings.
(g) Notwithstanding any other provisions of this section, the incarcerated person or their family member or designee may independently request consideration for recall and resentencing by contacting the chief medical executive at the prison. Upon receipt of the request, the chief medical executive and the warden or the warden’s representative shall follow the procedures described in subdivision (d). If the department determines that the incarcerated person satisfies the criteria set forth in subdivision (b), the department shall recommend to the court that the incarcerated person’s sentence be recalled. The department shall submit a recommendation for release within 45 days.
(h) Any recommendation for recall submitted to the court by the department shall include one or more medical evaluations, a postrelease plan, and findings pursuant to subdivision (b).
(i) If possible, the matter shall be heard before the same judge of the court who sentenced the incarcerated person.
(j) The referring physician or their designees from the department shall be available to the court or defense counsel as necessary throughout the recall and resentencing proceedings.
(k) Upon recommendation to the court for recall of sentence, the incarcerated person shall have the right to counsel and, if indigent, the right to court-appointed counsel.
(l) If the court grants the recall and resentencing application, the incarcerated person shall be released by the department within 48 hours of receipt of the court’s order, unless a longer time period is agreed to by the incarcerated person. At the time of release, the warden or the warden’s representative shall ensure that the incarcerated person has each of the following in their possession: a discharge medical summary, full medical records, state identification, parole or postrelease community supervision medications, and all property belonging to the incarcerated person. After discharge, any additional records shall be sent to the incarcerated person’s forwarding address.
(m) The secretary shall issue a directive to medical and correctional staff employed by the department that details the guidelines and procedures for initiating a recall and resentencing procedure. The directive shall clearly state that any incarcerated person who has a serious and advanced illness with an end-of-life trajectory or who is found to be permanently medically incapacitated is eligible for recall and resentencing consideration and that recall and resentencing procedures shall be initiated upon that prognosis.
(n) The provisions of this section shall be available to an incarcerated person who is sentenced to a county jail pursuant to subdivision (h) of Section 1170. For purposes of those incarcerated persons, “secretary” or “warden” shall mean the county correctional administrator and “chief medical executive” shall mean a physician designated by the county correctional administrator, for this purpose.
(o) This section does not apply to an incarcerated person sentenced to death or a term of life without the possibility of parole.
(p) Beginning January 1, 2024, the California Judicial Council shall publicly release an annual report on the compassionate release program based on records provided by the department pursuant to this section and subsequent court records. The report shall include, but is not limited to, all of the following:
(1) The number of people who were referred to the court for recall and resentencing disaggregated by race, ethnicity, age, and gender identity and further disaggregated by the type of criteria on which the referral was based. The report shall identify the following categories of criteria for recall and resentencing referrals:
(A) A serious and advanced illness with an end-of-life trajectory.
(B) Functional impairment.
(C) Cognitive impairment.
(2) The number of people released by the court pursuant to this section, disaggregated by race, ethnicity, age, and gender identity.
(3) The number of people denied resentencing sought pursuant to this section disaggregated by race, ethnicity, age, and gender identity.
(4) Number of people who pass away before completing the recall and resentencing process disaggregated by race, ethnicity, age, and gender identity.
(5) Number of people denied resentencing sought pursuant to this section for lack of release plans with data disaggregated by race, ethnicity, age, and gender identity.
(6) Number of cases pending decision with data disaggregated by race, ethnicity, age, and gender identity.

SEC. 159.

 Section 1203.425 of the Penal Code, as amended by Section 3 of Chapter 842 of the Statutes of 2022, is amended to read:

1203.425.
 (a) (1) (A) Commencing July 1, 2023, and subject to an appropriation in the annual Budget Act, on a monthly basis, the Department of Justice shall review the records in the statewide criminal justice databases, and based on information in the state summary criminal history repository and the Supervised Release File, shall identify persons with convictions that meet the criteria set forth in subparagraph (B) and are eligible for automatic conviction record relief.
(B) A person is eligible for automatic conviction relief pursuant to this section if they meet all of the following conditions:
(i) The person is not required to register pursuant to the Sex Offender Registration Act.
(ii) The person does not have an active record for local, state, or federal supervision in the Supervised Release File.
(iii) Based upon the information available in the department’s record, including disposition dates and sentencing terms, it does not appear that the person is currently serving a sentence for an offense and there is no indication of pending criminal charges.
(iv) The conviction meets either of the following criteria:
(I) The conviction occurred on or after January 1, 1973, and meets either of the following criteria:
(ia) The defendant was sentenced to probation and, based upon the disposition date and the term of probation specified in the department’s records, appears to have completed their term of probation without revocation.
(ib) The defendant was convicted of an infraction or misdemeanor, was not granted probation, and, based upon the disposition date and the term specified in the department’s records, the defendant appears to have completed their sentence, and at least one calendar year has elapsed since the date of judgment.
(II) The conviction occurred on or after January 1, 2005, the defendant was convicted of a felony other than one for which the defendant completed probation without revocation, and based upon the disposition date and the sentence specified in the department’s records, appears to have completed all terms of incarceration, probation, mandatory supervision, postrelease community supervision, and parole, and a period of four years has elapsed since the date on which the defendant completed probation or supervision for that conviction and during which the defendant was not convicted of a new felony offense. This subclause does not apply to a conviction of a serious felony defined in subdivision (c) of Section 1192.7, a violent felony as defined in Section 667.5, or a felony offense requiring registration pursuant to Chapter 5.5 (commencing with Section 290) of Title 9 of Part 1.
(2) (A) Except as specified in subdivision (b), the department shall grant relief, including dismissal of a conviction, to a person identified pursuant to paragraph (1) without requiring a petition or motion by a party for that relief if the relevant information is present in the department’s electronic records.
(B) The state summary criminal history information shall include, directly next to or below the entry or entries regarding the person’s criminal record, a note stating “relief granted,” listing the date that the department granted relief and this section. This note shall be included in all statewide criminal databases with a record of the conviction.
(C) Except as otherwise provided in paragraph (4) and in Section 13555 of the Vehicle Code, a person granted conviction relief pursuant to this section shall be released from all penalties and disabilities resulting from the offense of which the person has been convicted.
(3) (A) Commencing July 1, 2022, and subject to an appropriation in the annual Budget Act, on a monthly basis, the department shall electronically submit a notice to the superior court having jurisdiction over the criminal case, informing the court of all cases for which a complaint was filed in that jurisdiction and for which relief was granted pursuant to this section. Commencing on January 1, 2023, for any record retained by the court pursuant to Section 68152 of the Government Code, except as provided in paragraph (4), the court shall not disclose information concerning a conviction granted relief pursuant to this section or Section 1203.4, 1203.4a, 1203.41, or 1203.42, to any person or entity, in any format, except to the person whose conviction was granted relief or a criminal justice agency as defined in Section 851.92.
(B) If probation is transferred pursuant to Section 1203.9, the department shall electronically submit a notice as provided in subparagraph (A) to both the transferring court and any subsequent receiving court. The electronic notice shall be in a mutually agreed upon format.
(C) If a receiving court reduces a felony to a misdemeanor pursuant to subdivision (b) of Section 17, or dismisses a conviction pursuant to law, including, but not limited to, Section 1203.4, 1203.4a, 1203.41, 1203.42, 1203.43, or 1203.49, it shall furnish a disposition report to the department with the original case number and CII number from the transferring court. The department shall electronically submit a notice to the superior court that sentenced the defendant. If probation is transferred multiple times, the department shall electronically submit a notice to all other involved courts. The electronic notice shall be in a mutually agreed upon format.
(D) If a court receives notification from the department pursuant to subparagraph (B), the court shall update its records to reflect the reduction or dismissal. If a court receives notification that a case was dismissed pursuant to this section or Section 1203.4, 1203.4a, 1203.41, or 1203.42, the court shall update its records to reflect the dismissal and shall not disclose information concerning a conviction granted relief to any person or entity, in any format, except to the person whose conviction was granted relief or a criminal justice agency as defined in Section 851.92.
(4) Relief granted pursuant to this section is subject to the following conditions:
(A) Relief granted pursuant to this section does not relieve a person of the obligation to disclose a criminal conviction in response to a direct question contained in a questionnaire or application for employment as a peace officer as defined in Section 830.
(B) Relief granted pursuant to this section does not relieve a person of the obligation to disclose the conviction in response to a direct question contained in a questionnaire or application for public office, for enrollment as a provider of in-home supportive services and waiver personal care services pursuant to Article 7 (commencing with Section 12300) of Chapter 3 of Part 3 of Division 9 of the Welfare and Institutions Code or pursuant to Section 14132.95, 14132.952, 14132.956, or 14132.97 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, or for contracting with the California State Lottery Commission.
(C) Relief granted pursuant to this section has no effect on the ability of a criminal justice agency, as defined in Section 851.92, to access and use records that are granted relief to the same extent that would have been permitted for a criminal justice agency had relief not been granted.
(D) Relief granted pursuant to this section does not limit the jurisdiction of the court over a subsequently filed motion to amend the record, petition or motion for postconviction relief, or collateral attack on a conviction for which relief has been granted pursuant to this section.
(E) Relief granted pursuant to this section does not affect a person’s authorization to own, possess, or have in the person’s custody or control a firearm, or the person’s susceptibility to conviction under Chapter 2 (commencing with Section 29800) of Division 9 of Title 4 of Part 6, if the criminal conviction would otherwise affect this authorization or susceptibility.
(F) Relief granted pursuant to this section does not affect a prohibition from holding public office that would otherwise apply under law as a result of the criminal conviction.
(G) Relief granted pursuant to this section does not release a person from the terms and conditions of any unexpired criminal protective order that has been issued by the court pursuant to paragraph (1) of subdivision (i) of Section 136.2, subdivision (j) of Section 273.5, subdivision (l) of Section 368, or subdivision (k) of Section 646.9. These protective orders shall remain in full effect until expiration or until any further order by the court modifying or terminating the order, despite the dismissal of the underlying conviction.
(H) Relief granted pursuant to this section does not affect the authority to receive, or take adverse action based on, criminal history information, including the authority to receive certified court records received or evaluated pursuant to Section 1522, 1568.09, 1569.17, or 1596.871 of the Health and Safety Code, or pursuant to any statutory or regulatory provisions that incorporate the criteria of those sections.
(I) Relief granted pursuant to this section does not make eligible a person who is otherwise ineligible under state or federal law or regulation to provide, or receive payment for providing, in-home supportive services and waiver personal care services pursuant to Article 7 (commencing with Section 12300) of Chapter 3 of Part 3 of Division 9 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, or pursuant to Section 14132.95, 14132.952, 14132.956, or 14132.97 of the Welfare and Institutions Code.
(J) In a subsequent prosecution of the defendant for any other offense, the prior conviction may be pleaded and proved and shall have the same effect as if the relief had not been granted.
(K) (i) Relief granted pursuant to this section does not affect the authority to receive, or take adverse action based on, criminal history information, including the authority to receive certified court records received or evaluated pursuant to Article 1 (commencing with Section 44000) of Chapter 1, Article 3 (commencing with Section 44240) and Article 8 (commencing with Section 44330) of Chapter 2, Article 1 (commencing with Section 44420) of Chapter 3, Article 3 (commencing with Section 44930) of Chapter 4, Article 1 (commencing with Section 45100) and Article 6 (commencing with Section 45240) of Chapter 5, of Part 25 of Division 3 of Title 2 of the Education Code, or pursuant to any statutory or regulatory provisions that relate to, incorporate, expand upon or interpret the authority of those provisions.
(ii) Notwithstanding clause (i) or any other law, information for a conviction for a controlled substance offense listed in Section 11350 or 11377, or former Section 11500 or 11500.5, of the Health and Safety Code that is more than five years old, for which relief is granted pursuant to this section, shall not be disclosed.
(L) Relief granted pursuant to this section does not release the defendant from the terms and conditions of any unexpired criminal protective orders that have been issued by the court pursuant to paragraph (1) of subdivision (i) of Section 136.2, subdivision (j) of Section 273.5, subdivision (l) of Section 368, or subdivision (k) of Section 646.9. These protective orders shall remain in full effect until expiration or until any further order by the court modifying or terminating the order, despite the dismissal of the underlying accusation or information.
(5) This section shall not limit petitions, motions, or orders for relief in a criminal case, as required or authorized by any other law, including, but not limited to, Sections 1016.5, 1203.4, 1203.4a, 1203.4b, 1203.41, 1203.42, 1203.49, and 1473.7. This section shall not limit petitions for a certificate of rehabilitation or pardon pursuant to Chapter 3.5 (commencing with Section 4852.01) of Title 6 of Part 3.
(6) Commencing July 1, 2022, and subject to an appropriation in the annual Budget Act, the department shall annually publish statistics for each county regarding the total number of convictions granted relief pursuant to this section and the total number of convictions prohibited from automatic relief pursuant to subdivision (b) on the OpenJustice Web portal as defined in Section 13010.
(b) (1) The prosecuting attorney or probation department may, no later than 90 calendar days before the date of a person’s eligibility for relief pursuant to this section, file a petition to prohibit the department from granting automatic relief pursuant to this section, based on a showing that granting that relief would pose a substantial threat to the public safety. If probation was transferred pursuant to Section 1203.9, the prosecuting attorney or probation department in either the receiving county or the transferring county shall file the petition in the county of current jurisdiction.
(2) The court shall give notice to the defendant and conduct a hearing on the petition within 45 days after the petition is filed.
(3) At a hearing on the petition pursuant to this subdivision, the defendant, the probation department, the prosecuting attorney, and the arresting agency, through the prosecuting attorney, may present evidence to the court. Notwithstanding Sections 1538.5 and 1539, the hearing may be heard and determined upon declarations, affidavits, police investigative reports, copies of state summary criminal history information and local summary criminal history information, or any other evidence submitted by the parties that is material, reliable, and relevant.
(4) The prosecutor or probation department has the initial burden of proof to show that granting conviction relief would pose a substantial threat to the public safety. In determining whether granting relief would pose a substantial threat to the public safety, the court may consider any relevant factors including, but not limited to, either of the following:
(A) Declarations or evidence regarding the offense for which a grant of relief is being contested.
(B) The defendant’s record of arrests and convictions.
(5) If the court finds that the prosecutor or probation department has satisfied the burden of proof, the burden shifts to the defendant to show that the hardship of not obtaining relief outweighs the threat to the public safety of providing relief. In determining whether the defendant’s hardship outweighs the threat to the public safety, the court may consider any relevant factors including, but not limited to, either of the following:
(A) The hardship to the defendant that has been caused by the conviction and that would be caused if relief is not granted.
(B) Declarations or evidence regarding the defendant’s good character.
(6) If the court grants a petition pursuant to this subdivision, the court shall furnish a disposition report to the Department of Justice pursuant to Section 13151, stating that relief pursuant to this section was denied, and the department shall not grant relief pursuant to this section. If probation was transferred pursuant to Section 1203.9, the department shall electronically submit a notice to the transferring court, and, if probation was transferred multiple times, to all other involved courts.
(7) A person denied relief pursuant to this section may continue to be eligible for relief pursuant to law, including, but not limited to, Section 1203.4, 1203.4a, 1203.4b, or 1203.41. If the court subsequently grants relief pursuant to one of those sections, the court shall furnish a disposition report to the Department of Justice pursuant to Section 13151, stating that relief was granted pursuant to the applicable section, and the department shall grant relief pursuant to that section. If probation was transferred pursuant to Section 1203.9, the department shall electronically submit a notice that relief was granted pursuant to the applicable section to the transferring court and, if probation was transferred multiple times, to all other involved courts.
(c) At the time of sentencing, the court shall advise a defendant, either orally or in writing, of the provisions of this section and of the defendant’s right, if any, to petition for a certificate of rehabilitation and pardon.
(d) This section shall become operative on July 1, 2023.

SEC. 160.

 Section 1385 of the Penal Code is amended to read:

1385.
 (a) The judge or magistrate may, either on motion of the court or upon the application of the prosecuting attorney, and in furtherance of justice, order an action to be dismissed. The reasons for the dismissal shall be stated orally on the record. The court shall also set forth the reasons in an order entered upon the minutes if requested by either party or in any case in which the proceedings are not being recorded electronically or reported by a court reporter. A dismissal shall not be made for any cause that would be ground of demurrer to the accusatory pleading.
(b) (1) If the court has the authority pursuant to subdivision (a) to strike or dismiss an enhancement, the court may instead strike the additional punishment for that enhancement in the furtherance of justice in compliance with subdivision (a).
(2) This subdivision does not authorize the court to strike the additional punishment for any enhancement that cannot be stricken or dismissed pursuant to subdivision (a).
(c) (1) Notwithstanding any other law, the court shall dismiss an enhancement if it is in the furtherance of justice to do so, except if dismissal of that enhancement is prohibited by any initiative statute.
(2) In exercising its discretion under this subdivision, the court shall consider and afford great weight to evidence offered by the defendant to prove that any of the mitigating circumstances in subparagraphs (A) to (I) are present. Proof of the presence of one or more of these circumstances weighs greatly in favor of dismissing the enhancement, unless the court finds that dismissal of the enhancement would endanger public safety. “Endanger public safety” means there is a likelihood that the dismissal of the enhancement would result in physical injury or other serious danger to others.
(A) Application of the enhancement would result in a discriminatory racial impact as described in paragraph (4) of subdivision (a) of Section 745.
(B) Multiple enhancements are alleged in a single case. In this instance, all enhancements beyond a single enhancement shall be dismissed.
(C) The application of an enhancement could result in a sentence of over 20 years. In this instance, the enhancement shall be dismissed.
(D) The current offense is connected to mental illness.
(E) The current offense is connected to prior victimization or childhood trauma.
(F) The current offense is not a violent felony as defined in subdivision (c) of Section 667.5.
(G) The defendant was a juvenile when they committed the current offense or any prior offenses, including criminal convictions and juvenile adjudications, that trigger the enhancement or enhancements applied in the current case.
(H) The enhancement is based on a prior conviction that is over five years old.
(I) Though a firearm was used in the current offense, it was inoperable or unloaded.
(3) While the court may exercise its discretion at sentencing, this subdivision does not prevent a court from exercising its discretion before, during, or after trial or entry of plea.
(4) The circumstances listed in paragraph (2) are not exclusive and the court maintains authority to dismiss or strike an enhancement in accordance with subdivision (a).
(5) For the purposes of subparagraph (D) of paragraph (2), a mental illness is a mental disorder as identified in the most recent edition of the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, including, but not limited to, bipolar disorder, schizophrenia, schizoaffective disorder, or post-traumatic stress disorder but excluding antisocial personality disorder, borderline personality disorder, and pedophilia. A court may conclude that a defendant’s mental illness was connected to the offense if, after reviewing any relevant and credible evidence, including, but not limited to, police reports, preliminary hearing transcripts, witness statements, statements by the defendant’s mental health treatment provider, medical records, records or reports by qualified medical experts, or evidence that the defendant displayed symptoms consistent with the relevant mental disorder at or near the time of the offense, the court concludes that the defendant’s mental illness substantially contributed to the defendant’s involvement in the commission of the offense.
(6) For the purposes of this subdivision, the following terms have the following meanings:
(A) “Childhood trauma” means that as a minor the person experienced physical, emotional, or sexual abuse, physical or emotional neglect. A court may conclude that a defendant’s childhood trauma was connected to the offense if, after reviewing any relevant and credible evidence, including, but not limited to, police reports, preliminary hearing transcripts, witness statements, medical records, or records or reports by qualified medical experts, the court concludes that the defendant’s childhood trauma substantially contributed to the defendant’s involvement in the commission of the offense.
(B) “Prior victimization” means the person was a victim of intimate partner violence, sexual violence, or human trafficking, or the person has experienced psychological or physical trauma, including, but not limited to, abuse, neglect, exploitation, or sexual violence. A court may conclude that a defendant’s prior victimization was connected to the offense if, after reviewing any relevant and credible evidence, including, but not limited to, police reports, preliminary hearing transcripts, witness statements, medical records, or records or reports by qualified medical experts, the court concludes that the defendant’s prior victimization substantially contributed to the defendant’s involvement in the commission of the offense.
(7) This subdivision shall apply to all sentencings occurring after January 1, 2022.

SEC. 161.

 Section 1465.9 of the Penal Code is amended to read:

1465.9.
 (a) The balance of any court-imposed costs pursuant to Section 987.4, subdivision (a) of Section 987.5, Sections 987.8, 1203, 1203.1e, 1203.016, 1203.018, 1203.1b, 1208.2, 1210.15, 1463.07, 3010.8, 4024.2, and 6266, as those sections read on June 30, 2021, shall be unenforceable and uncollectible and any portion of a judgment imposing those costs shall be vacated.
(b) On and after January 1, 2022, the balance of any court-imposed costs pursuant to Section 1001.15, 1001.16, 1001.90, 1202.4, 1203.1, 1203.1ab, 1203.1c, 1203.1m, 1203.4a, 1203.9, 1205, 1214.5, 2085.5, 2085.6, or 2085.7, as those sections read on December 31, 2021, shall be unenforceable and uncollectible and any portion of a judgment imposing those costs shall be vacated.
(c) On and after July 1, 2022, the balance of any court-imposed civil assessments pursuant to Section 1214.1 imposed prior to that date shall be unenforceable and uncollectible and any portion of a judgment imposing those assessments shall be vacated.

SEC. 162.

 Section 11105 of the Penal Code is amended to read:

11105.
 (a) (1) The Department of Justice shall maintain state summary criminal history information.
(2) As used in this section:
(A) “State summary criminal history information” means the master record of information compiled by the Attorney General pertaining to the identification and criminal history of a person, such as name, date of birth, physical description, fingerprints, photographs, dates of arrests, arresting agencies and booking numbers, charges, dispositions, sentencing information, and similar data about the person.
(B) “State summary criminal history information” does not refer to records and data compiled by criminal justice agencies other than the Attorney General, nor does it refer to records of complaints to or investigations conducted by, or records of intelligence information or security procedures of, the office of the Attorney General and the Department of Justice.
(b) The Attorney General shall furnish state summary criminal history information to the following, if needed in the course of their duties, provided that when information is furnished to assist an agency, officer, or official of state or local government, a public utility, or any other entity, in fulfilling employment, certification, or licensing duties, Chapter 1321 of the Statutes of 1974 and Section 432.7 of the Labor Code shall apply:
(1) The courts of the state.
(2) Peace officers of the state, as defined in Section 830.1, subdivisions (a) and (e) of Section 830.2, subdivision (a) of Section 830.3, subdivision (a) of Section 830.31, and subdivisions (a) and (b) of Section 830.5.
(3) District attorneys of the state.
(4) Prosecuting city attorneys or city prosecutors of a city within the state.
(5) City attorneys pursuing civil gang injunctions pursuant to Section 186.22a or drug abatement actions pursuant to Section 3479 or 3480 of the Civil Code or Section 11571 of the Health and Safety Code.
(6) Probation officers of the state.
(7) Parole officers of the state.
(8) A public defender or attorney of record when representing a person in proceedings upon a petition for a certificate of rehabilitation and pardon pursuant to Section 4852.08.
(9) A public defender or attorney of record when representing a person in a criminal case or a juvenile delinquency proceeding, including all appeals and postconviction motions, or a parole, mandatory supervision pursuant to paragraph (5) of subdivision (h) of Section 1170, or postrelease community supervision revocation or revocation extension proceeding, if the information is requested in the course of representation.
(10) An agency, officer, or official of the state if the state summary criminal history information is required to implement a statute or regulation that expressly refers to specific criminal conduct applicable to the subject person of the state summary criminal history information, and contains requirements or exclusions, or both, expressly based upon that specified criminal conduct. The agency, officer, or official of the state authorized by this paragraph to receive state summary criminal history information may perform state and federal criminal history information checks as provided for in subdivision (u). The Department of Justice shall provide a state or federal response to the agency, officer, or official pursuant to subdivision (p).
(11) A city, county, city and county, or district, or an officer or official thereof, if access is needed in order to assist that agency, officer, or official in fulfilling employment, certification, or licensing duties, and if the access is specifically authorized by the city council, board of supervisors, or governing board of the city, county, or district if the state summary criminal history information is required to implement a statute, ordinance, or regulation that expressly refers to specific criminal conduct applicable to the subject person of the state summary criminal history information, and contains requirements or exclusions, or both, expressly based upon that specified criminal conduct. The city, county, city and county, district, or the officer or official thereof authorized by this paragraph may also transmit fingerprint images and related information to the Department of Justice to be transmitted to the Federal Bureau of Investigation.
(12) The subject of the state summary criminal history information under procedures established under Article 5 (commencing with Section 11120).
(13) A person or entity when access is expressly authorized by statute if the criminal history information is required to implement a statute or regulation that expressly refers to specific criminal conduct applicable to the subject person of the state summary criminal history information, and contains requirements or exclusions, or both, expressly based upon that specified criminal conduct.
(14) Health officers of a city, county, city and county, or district when in the performance of their official duties enforcing Section 120175 of the Health and Safety Code.
(15) A managing or supervising correctional officer of a county jail or other county correctional facility.
(16) A humane society, or society for the prevention of cruelty to animals, for the specific purpose of complying with Section 14502 of the Corporations Code for the appointment of humane officers.
(17) Local child support agencies established by Section 17304 of the Family Code. When a local child support agency closes a support enforcement case containing state summary criminal history information, the agency shall delete or purge from the file and destroy documents or information concerning or arising from offenses for or of which the parent has been arrested, charged, or convicted, other than for offenses related to the parent’s having failed to provide support for minor children, consistent with the requirements of Section 17531 of the Family Code.
(18) County child welfare agency personnel who have been delegated the authority of county probation officers to access state summary criminal history information pursuant to Section 272 of the Welfare and Institutions Code for the purposes specified in Section 16504.5 of the Welfare and Institutions Code. Information from criminal history records provided pursuant to this subdivision shall not be used for a purpose other than those specified in this section and Section 16504.5 of the Welfare and Institutions Code. When an agency obtains records both on the basis of name checks and fingerprint checks, final placement decisions shall be based only on the records obtained pursuant to the fingerprint check.
(19) The court of a tribe, or court of a consortium of tribes, that has entered into an agreement with the state pursuant to Section 10553.1 of the Welfare and Institutions Code. This information may be used only for the purposes specified in Section 16504.5 of the Welfare and Institutions Code and for tribal approval or tribal licensing of foster care or adoptive homes. Article 6 (commencing with Section 11140) shall apply to officers, members, and employees of a tribal court receiving state summary criminal history information pursuant to this section.
(20) Child welfare agency personnel of a tribe or consortium of tribes that has entered into an agreement with the state pursuant to Section 10553.1 of the Welfare and Institutions Code and to whom the state has delegated duties under paragraph (2) of subdivision (a) of Section 272 of the Welfare and Institutions Code. The purposes for use of the information shall be for the purposes specified in Section 16504.5 of the Welfare and Institutions Code and for tribal approval or tribal licensing of foster care or adoptive homes. When an agency obtains records on the basis of name checks and fingerprint checks, final placement decisions shall be based only on the records obtained pursuant to the fingerprint check. Article 6 (commencing with Section 11140) shall apply to child welfare agency personnel receiving criminal record offender information pursuant to this section.
(21) An officer providing conservatorship investigations pursuant to Sections 5351, 5354, and 5356 of the Welfare and Institutions Code.
(22) A court investigator providing investigations or reviews in conservatorships pursuant to Section 1826, 1850, 1851, or 2250.6 of the Probate Code.
(23) A person authorized to conduct a guardianship investigation pursuant to Section 1513 of the Probate Code.
(24) A humane officer pursuant to Section 14502 of the Corporations Code for the purposes of performing the officer’s duties.
(25) A public agency described in subdivision (b) of Section 15975 of the Government Code, for the purpose of oversight and enforcement policies with respect to its contracted providers.
(26) (A) A state entity, or its designee, that receives federal tax information. A state entity or its designee that is authorized by this paragraph to receive state summary criminal history information also may transmit fingerprint images and related information to the Department of Justice to be transmitted to the Federal Bureau of Investigation for the purpose of the state entity or its designee obtaining federal-level criminal offender record information from the Department of Justice. This information shall be used only for the purposes set forth in Section 1044 of the Government Code.
(B) For purposes of this paragraph, “federal tax information,” “state entity” and “designee” are as defined in paragraphs (1), (2), and (3), respectively, of subdivision (f) of Section 1044 of the Government Code.
(c) The Attorney General may furnish state summary criminal history information and, when specifically authorized by this subdivision, federal-level criminal history information upon a showing of a compelling need to any of the following, provided that when information is furnished to assist an agency, officer, or official of state or local government, a public utility, or any other entity in fulfilling employment, certification, or licensing duties, Chapter 1321 of the Statutes of 1974 and Section 432.7 of the Labor Code shall apply:
(1) A public utility, as defined in Section 216 of the Public Utilities Code, that operates a nuclear energy facility when access is needed in order to assist in employing persons to work at the facility, provided that, if the Attorney General supplies the data, the Attorney General shall furnish a copy of the data to the person to whom the data relates.
(2) A peace officer of the state other than those included in subdivision (b).
(3) An illegal dumping enforcement officer as defined in subdivision (i) of Section 830.7.
(4) A peace officer of another country.
(5) Public officers, other than peace officers, of the United States, other states, or possessions or territories of the United States, provided that access to records similar to state summary criminal history information is expressly authorized by a statute of the United States, other states, or possessions or territories of the United States if the information is needed for the performance of their official duties.
(6) A person when disclosure is requested by a probation, parole, or peace officer with the consent of the subject of the state summary criminal history information and for purposes of furthering the rehabilitation of the subject.
(7) The courts of the United States, other states, or territories or possessions of the United States.
(8) Peace officers of the United States, other states, or territories or possessions of the United States.
(9) An individual who is the subject of the record requested if needed in conjunction with an application to enter the United States or a foreign nation.
(10) (A) (i) A public utility, as defined in Section 216 of the Public Utilities Code, or a cable corporation as defined in subparagraph (B), if receipt of criminal history information is needed in order to assist in employing current or prospective employees, contract employees, or subcontract employees who, in the course of their employment, may be seeking entrance to private residences or adjacent grounds. The information provided shall be limited to the record of convictions and arrests for which the person is released on bail or on their own recognizance pending trial.
(ii) If the Attorney General supplies the data pursuant to this paragraph, the Attorney General shall furnish a copy of the data to the current or prospective employee to whom the data relates.
(iii) State summary criminal history information is confidential and the receiving public utility or cable corporation shall not disclose its contents, other than for the purpose for which it was acquired. The state summary criminal history information in the possession of the public utility or cable corporation and all copies made from it shall be destroyed not more than 30 days after employment or promotion or transfer is denied or granted, except for those cases where a current or prospective employee is out on bail or on their own recognizance pending trial, in which case the state summary criminal history information and all copies shall be destroyed not more than 30 days after the case is resolved.
(iv) A violation of this paragraph is a misdemeanor, and shall give the current or prospective employee who is injured by the violation a cause of action against the public utility or cable corporation to recover damages proximately caused by the violations. A public utility’s or cable corporation’s request for state summary criminal history information for purposes of employing current or prospective employees who may be seeking entrance to private residences or adjacent grounds in the course of their employment shall be deemed a “compelling need” as required to be shown in this subdivision.
(v) This section shall not be construed as imposing a duty upon public utilities or cable corporations to request state summary criminal history information on current or prospective employees.
(B) For purposes of this paragraph, “cable corporation” means a corporation or firm that transmits or provides television, computer, or telephone services by cable, digital, fiber optic, satellite, or comparable technology to subscribers for a fee.
(C) Requests for federal-level criminal history information received by the Department of Justice from entities authorized pursuant to subparagraph (A) shall be forwarded to the Federal Bureau of Investigation by the Department of Justice. Federal-level criminal history information received or compiled by the Department of Justice may then be disseminated to the entities referenced in subparagraph (A), as authorized by law.
(11) A campus of the California State University or the University of California, or a four-year college or university accredited by a regional accreditation organization approved by the United States Department of Education, if needed in conjunction with an application for admission by a convicted felon to a special education program for convicted felons, including, but not limited to, university alternatives and halfway houses. Only conviction information shall be furnished. The college or university may require the convicted felon to be fingerprinted, and any inquiry to the department under this section shall include the convicted felon’s fingerprints and any other information specified by the department.
(12) A foreign government, if requested by the individual who is the subject of the record requested, if needed in conjunction with the individual’s application to adopt a minor child who is a citizen of that foreign nation. Requests for information pursuant to this paragraph shall be in accordance with the process described in Sections 11122 to 11124, inclusive. The response shall be provided to the foreign government or its designee and to the individual who requested the information.
(d) Whenever an authorized request for state summary criminal history information pertains to a person whose fingerprints are on file with the Department of Justice and the department has no criminal history of that person, and the information is to be used for employment, licensing, or certification purposes, the fingerprint card accompanying the request for information, if any, may be stamped “no criminal record” and returned to the person or entity making the request.
(e) Whenever state summary criminal history information is furnished as the result of an application and is to be used for employment, licensing, or certification purposes, the Department of Justice may charge the person or entity making the request a fee that it determines to be sufficient to reimburse the department for the cost of furnishing the information. In addition, the Department of Justice may add a surcharge to the fee to fund maintenance and improvements to the systems from which the information is obtained. Notwithstanding any other law, a person or entity required to pay a fee to the department for information received under this section may charge the applicant a fee sufficient to reimburse the person or entity for this expense. All moneys received by the department pursuant to this section, Sections 11105.3 and 26190, and former Section 13588 of the Education Code shall be deposited in a special account in the General Fund to be available for expenditure by the department to offset costs incurred pursuant to those sections and for maintenance and improvements to the systems from which the information is obtained upon appropriation by the Legislature.
(f) Whenever there is a conflict, the processing of criminal fingerprints and fingerprints of applicants for security guard or alarm agent registrations or firearms qualification permits submitted pursuant to Section 7583.9, 7583.23, 7596.3, or 7598.4 of the Business and Professions Code shall take priority over the processing of other applicant fingerprints.
(g) It is not a violation of this section to disseminate statistical or research information obtained from a record, provided that the identity of the subject of the record is not disclosed.
(h) It is not a violation of this section to include information obtained from a record in (1) a transcript or record of a judicial or administrative proceeding or (2) any other public record if the inclusion of the information in the public record is authorized by a court, statute, or decisional law.
(i) Notwithstanding any other law, the Department of Justice or a state or local law enforcement agency may require the submission of fingerprints for the purpose of conducting state summary criminal history information checks that are authorized by law.
(j) The state summary criminal history information shall include any finding of mental incompetence pursuant to Chapter 6 (commencing with Section 1367) of Title 10 of Part 2 arising out of a complaint charging a felony offense specified in Section 290.
(k) (1) This subdivision shall apply whenever state or federal summary criminal history information is furnished by the Department of Justice as the result of an application by an authorized agency or organization and the information is to be used for peace officer employment or certification purposes. As used in this subdivision, a peace officer is defined in Chapter 4.5 (commencing with Section 830) of Title 3 of Part 2.
(2) Notwithstanding any other law, whenever state summary criminal history information is initially furnished pursuant to paragraph (1), the Department of Justice shall disseminate the following information:
(A) Every conviction rendered against the applicant.
(B) Every arrest for an offense for which the applicant is presently awaiting trial, whether the applicant is incarcerated or has been released on bail or on their own recognizance pending trial.
(C) Every arrest or detention, except for an arrest or detention resulting in an exoneration, provided, however, that where the records of the Department of Justice do not contain a disposition for the arrest, the Department of Justice first makes a genuine effort to determine the disposition of the arrest.
(D) Every successful diversion.
(E) Every date and agency name associated with all retained peace officer or nonsworn law enforcement agency employee preemployment criminal offender record information search requests.
(F) Sex offender registration status of the applicant.
(G) Sentencing information, if present in the department’s records at the time of the response.
(l) (1) This subdivision shall apply whenever state or federal summary criminal history information is furnished by the Department of Justice as the result of an application by a criminal justice agency or organization as defined in Section 13101, and the information is to be used for criminal justice employment, licensing, or certification purposes.
(2) Notwithstanding any other law, whenever state summary criminal history information is initially furnished pursuant to paragraph (1), the Department of Justice shall disseminate the following information:
(A) Every conviction rendered against the applicant.
(B) Every arrest for an offense for which the applicant is presently awaiting trial, whether the applicant is incarcerated or has been released on bail or on their own recognizance pending trial.
(C) Every arrest for an offense for which the records of the Department of Justice do not contain a disposition or that did not result in a conviction, provided that the Department of Justice first makes a genuine effort to determine the disposition of the arrest. However, information concerning an arrest shall not be disclosed if the records of the Department of Justice indicate or if the genuine effort reveals that the subject was exonerated, successfully completed a diversion or deferred entry of judgment program, or the arrest was deemed a detention, or the subject was granted relief pursuant to Section 851.91.
(D) Every date and agency name associated with all retained peace officer or nonsworn law enforcement agency employee preemployment criminal offender record information search requests.
(E) Sex offender registration status of the applicant.
(F) Sentencing information, if present in the department’s records at the time of the response.
(m) (1) This subdivision shall apply whenever state or federal summary criminal history information is furnished by the Department of Justice as the result of an application by an authorized agency or organization pursuant to Section 1522, 1568.09, 1569.17, or 1596.871 of the Health and Safety Code, or a statute that incorporates the criteria of any of those sections or this subdivision by reference, and the information is to be used for employment, licensing, or certification purposes.
(2) Notwithstanding any other law, whenever state summary criminal history information is initially furnished pursuant to paragraph (1), the Department of Justice shall disseminate the following information:
(A) Every conviction of an offense rendered against the applicant, except a conviction for which relief has been granted pursuant to Section 1203.49.
(B) Every arrest for an offense for which the applicant is presently awaiting trial, whether the applicant is incarcerated or has been released on bail or on their own recognizance pending trial.
(C) Every arrest for an offense for which the State Department of Social Services is required by paragraph (1) of subdivision (a) of Section 1522 of the Health and Safety Code to determine if an applicant has been arrested. However, if the records of the Department of Justice do not contain a disposition for an arrest, the Department of Justice shall first make a genuine effort to determine the disposition of the arrest.
(D) Sex offender registration status of the applicant.
(E) Sentencing information, if present in the department’s records at the time of the response.
(3) Notwithstanding the requirements of the sections referenced in paragraph (1) of this subdivision, the Department of Justice shall not disseminate information about an arrest subsequently deemed a detention or an arrest that resulted in the successful completion of a diversion program, exoneration, or a grant of relief pursuant to Section 851.91.
(n) (1) This subdivision shall apply whenever state or federal summary criminal history information, to be used for employment, licensing, or certification purposes, is furnished by the Department of Justice as the result of an application by an authorized agency, organization, or individual pursuant to any of the following:
(A) Paragraph (10) of subdivision (c), when the information is to be used by a cable corporation.
(B) Section 11105.3 or 11105.4.
(C) Section 15660 of the Welfare and Institutions Code.
(D) A statute that incorporates the criteria of any of the statutory provisions listed in subparagraph (A), (B), or (C), or of this subdivision, by reference.
(2) With the exception of applications submitted by transportation companies authorized pursuant to Section 11105.3, and notwithstanding any other law, whenever state summary criminal history information is initially furnished pursuant to paragraph (1), the Department of Justice shall disseminate the following information:
(A) Every conviction, except a conviction for which relief has been granted pursuant to Section 1203.49, rendered against the applicant for a violation or attempted violation of an offense specified in subdivision (a) of Section 15660 of the Welfare and Institutions Code. However, with the exception of those offenses for which registration is required pursuant to Section 290, the Department of Justice shall not disseminate information pursuant to this subdivision unless the conviction occurred within 10 years of the date of the agency’s request for information or the conviction is over 10 years old but the subject of the request was incarcerated within 10 years of the agency’s request for information.
(B) Every arrest for a violation or attempted violation of an offense specified in subdivision (a) of Section 15660 of the Welfare and Institutions Code for which the applicant is presently awaiting trial, whether the applicant is incarcerated or has been released on bail or on their own recognizance pending trial.
(C) Sex offender registration status of the applicant.
(D) Sentencing information, if present in the department’s records at the time of the response.
(o) (1) This subdivision shall apply whenever state or federal summary criminal history information is furnished by the Department of Justice as the result of an application by an authorized agency or organization pursuant to Section 379 or 1300 of the Financial Code or a statute that incorporates the criteria of either of those sections or this subdivision by reference, and the information is to be used for employment, licensing, or certification purposes.
(2) Notwithstanding any other law, whenever state summary criminal history information is initially furnished pursuant to paragraph (1), the Department of Justice shall disseminate the following information:
(A) Every conviction rendered against the applicant for a violation or attempted violation of an offense specified in Section 1300 of the Financial Code, except a conviction for which relief has been granted pursuant to Section 1203.49.
(B) Every arrest for a violation or attempted violation of an offense specified in Section 1300 of the Financial Code for which the applicant is presently awaiting trial, whether the applicant is incarcerated or has been released on bail or on their own recognizance pending trial.
(C) Sentencing information, if present in the department’s records at the time of the response.
(p) (1) This subdivision shall apply whenever state or federal criminal history information is furnished by the Department of Justice as the result of an application by an agency, organization, or individual not defined in subdivision (k), (l), (m), (n), or (o), or by a transportation company authorized pursuant to Section 11105.3, or a statute that incorporates the criteria of that section or this subdivision by reference, and the information is to be used for employment, licensing, or certification purposes.
(2) Notwithstanding any other law, whenever state summary criminal history information is initially furnished pursuant to paragraph (1), the Department of Justice shall disseminate the following information:
(A) Every conviction rendered against the applicant, except a conviction for which relief has been granted pursuant to Section 1203.4, 1203.4a, 1203.41, 1203.42, 1203.425, or 1203.49. The Commission on Teacher Credentialing, school districts, county offices of education, charter schools, private schools, state special schools for the blind and deaf, or any other entity required to have a background check because of a contract with a school district, county office of education, charter school, private school, or state special school for the blind and deaf, shall receive every conviction rendered against an applicant, retroactive to January 1, 2020, regardless of relief granted pursuant to Section 1203.4, 1203.4a, 1203.41, 1203.42, 1203.425, or 1203.49.
(B) Notwithstanding subparagraph (A) or any other law, information for a conviction for a controlled substance offense listed in Section 11350 or 11377, or former Section 11500 or 11500.5, of the Health and Safety Code that is more than five years old, for which relief is granted pursuant to Section 1203.4, 1203.4a, 1203.41, 1203.42, 1203.425, or 1203.49, shall not be disseminated.
(C) Every arrest for an offense for which the applicant is presently awaiting trial, whether the applicant is incarcerated or has been released on bail or on their own recognizance pending trial.
(D) Sex offender registration status of the applicant.
(E) Sentencing information, if present in the department’s records at the time of the response.
(q) All agencies, organizations, or individuals defined in subdivisions (k), (l), (m), (n), (o), and (p) may contract with the Department of Justice for subsequent notification pursuant to Section 11105.2. This subdivision shall not supersede sections that mandate an agency, organization, or individual to contract with the Department of Justice for subsequent notification pursuant to Section 11105.2.
(r) This section does not require the Department of Justice to cease compliance with any other statutory notification requirements.
(s) The provisions of Section 50.12 of Title 28 of the Code of Federal Regulations are to be followed in processing federal criminal history information.
(t) Whenever state or federal summary criminal history information is furnished by the Department of Justice as the result of an application by an authorized agency, organization, or individual defined in subdivisions (k) to (p), inclusive, and the information is to be used for employment, licensing, or certification purposes, the authorized agency, organization, or individual shall expeditiously furnish a copy of the information to the person to whom the information relates if the information is a basis for an adverse employment, licensing, or certification decision. When furnished other than in person, the copy shall be delivered to the last contact information provided by the applicant.
(u) (1) If a fingerprint-based criminal history information check is required pursuant to any statute, that check shall be requested from the Department of Justice and shall be applicable to the person identified in the referencing statute. The agency or entity identified in the statute shall submit to the Department of Justice fingerprint images and related information required by the Department of Justice of the types of applicants identified in the referencing statute, for the purpose of obtaining information as to the existence and content of a record of state or federal convictions and state or federal arrests and also information as to the existence and content of a record of the state or federal arrests for which the Department of Justice establishes that the person is free on bail or on their own recognizance pending trial or appeal.
(2) If requested, the Department of Justice shall transmit fingerprint images and related information received pursuant to this section to the Federal Bureau of Investigation for the purpose of obtaining a federal criminal history information check. The Department of Justice shall review the information returned from the Federal Bureau of Investigation, and compile and disseminate a response or a fitness determination, as appropriate, to the agency or entity identified in the referencing statute.
(3) The Department of Justice shall provide a state- or federal-level response or a fitness determination, as appropriate, to the agency or entity identified in the referencing statute, pursuant to the identified subdivision.
(4) The agency or entity identified in the referencing statute shall request from the Department of Justice subsequent notification service, as provided pursuant to Section 11105.2, for persons described in the referencing statute.
(5) The Department of Justice shall charge a fee sufficient to cover the reasonable cost of processing the request described in this subdivision.
(v) This section shall become operative on January 1, 2023.

SEC. 163.

 Section 11163.5 of the Penal Code is amended to read:

11163.5.
 (a) The purpose of this section is to coordinate and integrate state and local efforts to address fatal domestic violence, and to create a body of information to prevent domestic violence deaths.
(b) (1) The Department of Justice is hereby authorized to carry out the purpose of this section with the cooperation of the State Department of Social Services, the State Department of Public Health, the California State Coroner’s Association, the County Welfare Directors Association, and the state domestic violence coalition.
(2) The Department of Justice, after consulting with the agencies and organizations specified in paragraph (1), may consult with other representatives of other agencies and private organizations to accomplish the purpose of this section.
(c) To accomplish the purpose of this section, the Department of Justice and agencies and organizations involved may engage in the following activities:
(1) Collect, analyze, and interpret state and local data on domestic violence death and near death in an annual report to be available upon request. The report may contain, but need not be limited to, information provided by state agencies and the county domestic violence death review teams for the preceding year.
(2) Develop a state and local database on domestic violence deaths.
(A) The state data may include the Department of Justice statistics, the State Department of Public Health Vital Records, and information obtained by other relevant state agencies.
(B) The Department of Justice, in consultation with the agencies and organizations specified in paragraph (1) of subdivision (b), may develop a model minimal local data set and request data from local teams for inclusion in the annual report.
(3) Distribute a copy of the report to public officials in the state who deal with domestic violence issues and to those agencies responsible for domestic violence death review investigation in each county.
(d) The Department of Justice may direct the creation of a statewide domestic violence death review team directory, which shall contain the names of the members of the agencies and private organizations participating under this section, the members of local domestic violence death review teams, and the local liaisons to those teams. The department may maintain and update the directory annually.
(e) The agencies or private organizations participating under this section shall participate without reimbursement from the state. Costs incurred by participants for travel or per diem shall be borne by the participant agency or organization. Any reports prepared by the Department of Justice pursuant to this section shall be in consultation with the state domestic violence coalition.

SEC. 164.

 Section 13680 of the Penal Code is amended to read:

13680.
 For purposes of this title, the following terms have the following meanings:
(a) “Genocide” means any of the following acts committed with specific intent to destroy, in whole or substantially in part, a national, ethnic, racial, or religious group through means including killing or causing serious bodily injury to members of the group, causing permanent impairment of the mental faculties of members of the group through drugs, torture, or similar means, subjecting the group to conditions of life that are intended to cause the physical destruction of the group, in whole or in part, imposing measures intended to prevent births within the group, or forcibly transferring children of the group to another group.
(b) “Hate crime” has the same meaning as is Section 422.55.
(c) “Hate group” means an organization that supports, advocates for, threatens, or practices genocide or the commission of hate crimes.
(d) “Membership in a hate group” means being, or holding oneself out as, a member of a hate group with the intent to further the unlawful aims of the group.
(e) “Participation in any hate group activity” means active and direct involvement in, or coordination or facilitation of, any hate crime by hate group members.
(f) “Peace officer” means a person described within Chapter 4.5 (commencing with Section 830) of Title 3 of Part 2, who is employed by an agency or department of the state, or any political subdivision thereof, that provides uniformed police services to members of the public including, without limitation, a municipal police department, a county sheriff’s department, the Department of the California Highway Patrol, the University of California, California State University, or any California Community College police department, and the police department of any school district, transit district, park district, or port authority. “Peace officer” also includes any state or local correctional or custodial officer, and any parole or probation officer.
(g) (1) “Public expression of hate” means any statement or expression to another person, including any statement or expression made in an online forum that is accessible to another person, that explicitly advocates for, explicitly supports, or explicitly threatens to commit genocide or any hate crime or that explicitly advocates for or explicitly supports any hate group.
(h) “Sustained” means a final determination by the investigating agency following an investigation, or, if adverse action is taken, a final determination by a commission, board, hearing officer, or arbitrator, as applicable, following an opportunity for an administrative appeal pursuant to Sections 3304 and 3304.5 of the Government Code, that the allegation is true.

SEC. 165.

 Section 13683 of the Penal Code is amended to read:

13683.
 (a) Notwithstanding Section 832.7, Sections 7923.600 through 7923.625, inclusive, of the Government Code, or any other law, any record relating to an investigation of a complaint described in Section 13682 in which a sustained finding was made by the public agency or oversight agency that a peace officer has engaged in membership in a hate group, participation in any hate group activity, or advocacy of public expressions of hate shall not be confidential and shall be made available for public inspection.
(b) A record disclosed pursuant to this section may be redacted as follows:
(1) To remove personal data or information, such as a home address, telephone number, email address, or identities of family members.
(2) To preserve the anonymity of complainants and witnesses.
(3) To protect confidential medical, financial, or other information of which disclosure is specifically prohibited by federal law or would cause an unwarranted invasion of personal privacy that clearly outweighs the strong public interest in records about misconduct and serious use of force by peace officers and custodial officers.
(4) Where there is a specific, articulable, and particularized reason to believe that disclosure of the record would pose a significant danger to the physical safety of the peace officer or another person.

SEC. 166.

 Section 854 of the Probate Code is amended to read:

854.
 If a civil action is pending with respect to the subject matter of a petition filed pursuant to this chapter this part and jurisdiction has been obtained in the court where the civil action is pending prior to the filing of the petition, upon request of any party to the civil action, the court shall abate the petition until the conclusion of the civil action. This section shall not apply if the court finds that the civil action was filed for the purpose of delay.

SEC. 167.

 Section 20146 of the Public Contract Code is amended to read:

20146.
 (a) A county, with approval of the board of supervisors, or a public entity, with approval of its governing body, may utilize construction manager at-risk construction contracts for the erection, construction, alteration, repair, or improvement of any infrastructure, excluding roads, and including, but not limited to, buildings, utility improvements associated with buildings, flood control and underground utility improvements, and bridges, owned or leased by the county. A construction manager at-risk construction contract may be used only for projects in the county in excess of one million dollars ($1,000,000) and may be awarded using either the lowest responsible bidder or best value method to a construction manager at-risk entity that possesses or that obtains sufficient bonding to cover the contract amount for construction services and risk and liability insurance as may be required by the county or public entity. Any payment or performance bond written for the purposes of this section shall be written using a bond form developed by the county or public entity.
(b) For purposes of this section, the following definitions apply:
(1) “Best value” means a value determined by objective criteria related to the experience of the entity and project personnel, project plan, financial strength of the entity, safety record of the entity, and price.
(2) “Construction manager at-risk contract” means a competitively procured contract by a county or public entity with an individual, partnership, joint venture, corporation, or other recognized legal entity, that is appropriately licensed in this state, including a contractor’s license issued by the Contractors’ State License Board, and that guarantees the cost of a project and furnishes construction management services, including, but not limited to, preparation and coordination of bid packages, scheduling, cost control, value engineering, evaluation, preconstruction services, and construction administration.
(3) “Public entity” means a public entity of which the members of the county board of supervisors make up the members of the governing body of that public entity.
(c) (1) A construction manager at-risk entity shall not be prequalified or shortlisted or awarded a contract unless that entity provides an enforceable commitment to the county or public entity that the construction manager at-risk entity and its subcontractors at every tier will use a skilled and trained workforce to perform all work on the project or contract that falls within an apprenticeable occupation in the building and construction trades, in accordance with Chapter 2.9 (commencing with Section 2600) of Part 1.
(2) This subdivision shall not apply if any of the following conditions are met:
(A) The county or public entity has entered into a project labor agreement that will bind all contractors and subcontractors performing work on the project or contract to use a skilled and trained workforce, and the construction manager at-risk entity agrees to be bound by that project labor agreement.
(B) The project or contract is being performed under the extension or renewal of a project labor agreement that was entered into by the county or public entity before January 1, 2018.
(C) The construction manager at-risk entity has entered into a project labor agreement that will bind the entity and all its subcontractors at every tier performing the project or contract to use a skilled and trained workforce.
(3) For purposes of this subdivision, “project labor agreement” has the same meaning as in paragraph (1) of subdivision (b) of Section 2500.
(d) Subcontractors that were not listed by a construction manager at-risk entity as partners, general partners, or association members in a partnership, limited partnership, or association in the entity’s construction manager at-risk bid submission shall be awarded by the construction manager at-risk entity in accordance with the process set forth by the county. All subcontractors bidding on contracts pursuant to this section shall be afforded the protections contained in Chapter 4 (commencing with Section 4100) of Part 1. The construction manager at-risk entity shall do both of the following:
(1) Provide public notice of the availability of work to be subcontracted in accordance with the publication requirements applicable to the competitive bidding process of the county or public entity.
(2) Provide a fixed date and time on which the subcontracted work will be awarded in accordance with the procedure established pursuant to this section.
(e) A county or public entity that elects to proceed under this section and uses a construction manager at-risk contract for a building project shall make a copy of the contract available for public inspection on its internet website and notify the appropriate policy committees of the Legislature with instructions on finding and accessing the stored contract.
(f) (1) If the county or public entity elects to award a project pursuant to this section, retention proceeds withheld by the county or public entity from the construction manager at-risk entity shall not exceed 5 percent if a performance and payment bond issued by an admitted surety insurer is required in the solicitation of bids.
(2) In a contract between the construction manager at-risk entity and any subcontractor, and in a contract between a subcontractor and any subcontractor thereunder, the percentage of the retention proceeds withheld shall not exceed the percentage specified in the contract between the county or public entity and the construction manager at-risk entity. If the construction manager at-risk entity provides written notice to any subcontractor that is not a member of the construction manager at-risk entity, before or at the time the bid is requested, that a bond may be required and the subcontractor subsequently is unable or refuses to furnish a bond to the construction manager at-risk entity, then the construction manager at-risk entity may withhold retention proceeds in excess of the percentage specified in the contract between the county or public entity and the construction manager at-risk entity from any payment made by the construction manager at-risk entity to the subcontractor.
(g) If the county or public entity elects to award a project pursuant to this section, the contract between the county or public entity and the construction manager at-risk entity shall be subject to subdivision (b) of Section 2782 of the Civil Code. Any contract between the construction manager at-risk entity and a contractor or subcontractor shall be subject to Section 2782.05 of the Civil Code.
(h) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2029, and as of that date is repealed.

SEC. 168.

 Section 2207 of the Public Resources Code is amended to read:

2207.
 (a) The owner or the operator of a mining operation within the state shall forward to the supervisor annually, not later than a date established by the supervisor, on forms approved by the board from time to time, a report that identifies all of the following:
(1) The name, address, and telephone number of the person, company, or other owner of the mining operation.
(2) The name, address, and telephone number of a designated agent who resides in this state and who will receive and accept service of all orders, notices, and processes of the lead agency, board, supervisor, or court.
(3) The location of the mining operation, its name, its mine number as issued by the Division of Mine Reclamation, its section, township, range, latitude, longitude, and approximate boundaries of the mining operation marked on a United States Geological Survey 71/2-minute or 15-minute quadrangle map.
(4) The lead agency.
(5) The approval date of the mining operation’s reclamation plan.
(6) The mining operation’s status as active, idle, reclaimed, or in the process of being reclaimed.
(7) The commodities produced by the mine and the type of mining operation.
(8) A copy of the previously completed annual inspection form and a requested date, within 12 months of the prior inspection date, for the next annual inspection by the lead agency.
(9) Proof of financial assurances.
(10) Ownership of the property, including government agencies, if applicable, by the assessor’s parcel number, and total assessed value of the mining operation.
(11) The approximate permitted size of the mining operation subject to the Surface Mining and Reclamation Act of 1975 (Chapter 9 (commencing with Section 2710)), in acres.
(12) The approximate total acreage of land newly disturbed by the mining operation during the previous calendar year.
(13) The approximate total of disturbed acreage reclaimed during the previous calendar year.
(14) The approximate total unreclaimed disturbed acreage remaining as of the end of the calendar year.
(15) The total production for each mineral commodity produced during the previous year.
(16) A copy of any approved reclamation plan and any amendments or conditions of approval to any existing reclamation plan approved by the lead agency.
(b) (1) Every year, not later than the date established by the supervisor, the person submitting the report pursuant to subdivision (a) shall forward to the lead agency, on forms furnished by the board, a report that provides all of the information specified in subdivision (a).
(2) The owner or operator of a mining operation shall allow access to the property to any governmental agency or the agent of any company providing financial assurance mechanisms in connection with the reclamation plan in order that the reclamation can be carried out by the entity or company in accordance with the reclamation plan.
(c) Subsequent reports shall include only changes in the information submitted for the items described in subdivision (a), except that, instead of the approved reclamation plan, the reports shall include any reclamation plan amendments approved during the previous year. The reports shall state whether review of a reclamation plan, financial assurances, or an interim management plan is pending under subdivision (h) of Section 2770, or whether an appeal before the board or lead agency governing body is pending under subdivision (e) or (h) of Section 2770. The supervisor shall notify the person submitting the report and the owner’s designated agent in writing that the report and the fee required pursuant to subdivision (d) have been received, specify the mining operation’s mine number if one has not been issued by the Division of Mine Reclamation, and notify the person and agent of any deficiencies in the report within 90 days of receipt. That person or agent shall have 30 days from receipt of the notification to correct the noted deficiencies and forward the revised report to the supervisor and the lead agency. A person who fails to comply with this section, or knowingly provides incorrect or false information in reports required by this section, may be subject to an administrative penalty as provided in subdivision (c) of Section 2774.1.
(d) (1) The board shall impose, by regulation, pursuant to paragraph (2), an annual reporting fee on, and method for collecting annual fees from, each active or idle mining operation. The maximum fee for any single mining operation shall not exceed ten thousand dollars ($10,000) annually and shall not be less than one hundred dollars ($100) annually, as adjusted for the cost of living as measured by the California Consumer Price Index for all urban consumers, calendar year averages, using the percentage change in the previous year, except that the maximum fee for any single mining operation shall not exceed six thousand dollars ($6,000) in the 2017–18 fiscal year and eight thousand dollars ($8,000) in the 2018–19 fiscal year.
(2) (A) The board shall adopt, by regulation, a schedule of fees authorized under paragraph (1) to cover the department’s cost in carrying out this section and the Surface Mining and Reclamation Act of 1975 (Chapter 9 (commencing with Section 2710)), as reflected in the Governor’s proposed Budget, and may adopt those regulations as emergency regulations. In establishing the schedule of fees to be paid by each active and idle mining operation, the fees shall be calculated on an equitable basis reflecting the size and type of operation. The board shall also consider the total assessed value of the mining operation, the acreage disturbed by mining activities, and the acreage subject to the reclamation plan.
(B) Regulations adopted pursuant to this subdivision shall be adopted by the board in accordance with the Administrative Procedure Act (Chapter 3.5 (commencing with Section 11340) of Part 1 of Division 3 of Title 2 of the Government Code). The adoption of any emergency regulations pursuant to this subdivision shall be considered necessary to address an emergency and shall be considered by the Office of Administrative Law to be necessary for the immediate preservation of the public peace, health, safety, and general welfare.
(3) The total revenue generated by the reporting fees shall not exceed, and may be less than, the amount of eight million dollars ($8,000,000), as adjusted for the cost of living as measured by the California Consumer Price Index for all urban consumers, calendar year averages, using the percentage change in the previous year, beginning with the 2017–18 fiscal year and annually thereafter. If the director determines that the revenue collected during the preceding fiscal year was greater or less than the cost to operate the program, the board shall adjust the fees to compensate for the overcollection or undercollection of revenues.
(4) (A) The reporting fees established pursuant to this subdivision shall be deposited into the Mine Reclamation Account, which is hereby created. Any fees, penalties, interest, fines, or charges collected by the supervisor or board pursuant to this chapter or the Surface Mining and Reclamation Act of 1975 (Chapter 9 (commencing with Section 2710)) shall be deposited into the Mine Reclamation Account. The money in the account shall be available to the department and board, upon appropriation by the Legislature, for the purpose of carrying out this section and complying with the Surface Mining and Reclamation Act of 1975 (Chapter 9 (commencing with Section 2710)), which includes, but is not limited to, the classification and designation of areas with mineral resources of statewide or regional significance, reclamation plan and financial assurance review, mine inspection, and enforcement.
(B) (i) In addition to reporting fees, the board shall collect five dollars ($5) per ounce of gold and ten cents ($0.10) per ounce of silver mined within the state and shall deposit the fees collected into the Abandoned Mine Reclamation and Minerals Fund Subaccount, which is hereby created in the Mine Reclamation Account. The department may expend the moneys in the subaccount, upon appropriation by the Legislature, for only the purposes of Section 2796.5 and as authorized herein for the remediation of abandoned mines.
(ii) Notwithstanding subdivision (j) of Section 2796.5, fees collected pursuant to clause (i) may also be used to remediate features of historic abandoned mines and lands that they impact. For purposes of this section, historic abandoned mines are mines for which operations have been conducted before January 1, 1976, and include, but are not limited to, historic gold and silver mines.
(5) In case of late payment of the reporting fee, a penalty of not less than one hundred dollars ($100) or 10 percent of the amount due, whichever is greater, plus interest at the rate of 11/2 percent per month, computed from the delinquent date of the assessment until and including the date of payment, shall be assessed. New mining operations that have not submitted a report shall submit a report before commencement of operations. The new operation shall submit its fee according to the reasonable fee schedule adopted by the board, and the month that the report is received shall become that operation’s anniversary month.
(e) The lead agency, or the board when acting as the lead agency, may impose a fee on each mining operation to cover the reasonable costs incurred in implementing this chapter and the Surface Mining and Reclamation Act of 1975 (Chapter 9 (commencing with Section 2710)).
(f) For purposes of this section, “mining operation” means a mining operation of any kind or character whatever in this state, including, but not limited to, a mining operation that is classified as a “surface mining operation” as defined in Section 2735, unless excepted by Section 2714, and the extraction of minerals from geothermal brine, or any other brine, including, but not limited to, a mining operation colocated or co-operated with geothermal resource facilities. For purposes of fee collections only, “mining operation” may include one or more mines operated by a single operator or mining company on one or more sites, if the total annual combined mineral production for all sites is less than 100 troy ounces for precious metals, if precious metals are the primary mineral commodity produced, or less than 100,000 short tons if the primary mineral commodity produced is not precious metals.
(g) Any information in reports submitted pursuant to subdivision (a) that includes or otherwise indicates the total mineral production, reserves, or rate of depletion of any mining operation may not be disclosed to any member of the public, as defined in Section 7920.515 of the Government Code. Other portions of the reports are public records unless excepted by statute. Statistical bulletins based on these reports and published under Section 2205 shall be compiled to show, for the state as a whole and separately for each lead agency, the total of each mineral produced therein. In order not to disclose the production, reserves, or rate of depletion from any identifiable mining operation, a production figure shall not be published or otherwise disclosed unless that figure is the aggregated production of not less than three mining operations. If the production figure for any lead agency would disclose the production, reserves, or rate of depletion of less than three mining operations or otherwise permit the reasonable inference of the production, reserves, or rate of depletion of any identifiable mining operation, that figure shall be combined with the same figure of not less than two other lead agencies without regard to the location of the lead agencies. The bulletin shall be published annually by June 30 or as soon thereafter as practicable.
(h) The approval of a form by the board pursuant to this section is not the adoption of a regulation for purposes of the Administrative Procedure Act (Chapter 3.5 (commencing with Section 11340) of Part 1 of Division 3 of Title 2 of the Government Code) and is not subject to that act.

SEC. 169.

 Section 5580 of the Public Resources Code is amended to read:

5580.
 (a) Notwithstanding Section 5594 or any other law, upon approval by the board of directors of the Midpeninsula Regional Open Space District, the design-build process described in Chapter 4 (commencing with Section 22160) of Part 3 of Division 2 of the Public Contract Code may be used to award contracts for the construction, restoration, and improvement of buildings and facilities, the construction, restoration, and improvement of public access and recreation facilities, and nature-based infrastructure projects, including, but not limited to, habitat restoration projects, enhancement and remediation projects, and watershed, stream corridor, and pond improvement projects in that district.
(b) The minimum project limitation of one million dollars ($1,000,000), as described in subdivision (a) of Section 22162 of the Public Contract Code, shall not apply to the Midpeninsula Regional Open Space District.
(c) For purposes of this section, all references in Chapter 4 (commencing with Section 22160) of Part 3 of Division 2 of the Public Contract Code to “local agency” shall mean the Midpeninsula Regional Open Space District and its board of directors.

SEC. 170.

 Section 5581 of the Public Resources Code is amended to read:

5581.
 (a) Notwithstanding Section 5594 or any other law, upon approval by the board of directors of the East Bay Regional Park District, the design-build process described in Chapter 4 (commencing with Section 22160) of Part 3 of Division 2 of the Public Contract Code may be used to award contracts for the construction, restoration, and improvement of buildings and facilities, the construction, restoration, and improvement of public access and recreation facilities, and nature-based infrastructure projects, including, but not limited to, habitat restoration projects, enhancement and remediation projects, and watershed, stream corridor, and pond improvement projects in that district.
(b) The minimum project limitation of one million dollars ($1,000,000), as described in subdivision (a) of Section 22162 of the Public Contract Code, shall not apply to the East Bay Regional Park District.
(c) For purposes of this section, all references in Chapter 4 (commencing with Section 22160) of Part 3 of Division 2 of the Public Contract Code to “local agency” shall mean the East Bay Regional Park District and its board of directors.

SEC. 171.

 Section 9084 of the Public Resources Code is amended to read:

9084.
 (a) Subject to the availability of funds and any limitations imposed by this division, the department may provide grants to resource conservation districts for the purpose of assisting the districts in carrying out any work that they are authorized to undertake, including, but not limited to, grants for watershed projects.
(b) (1) To qualify for a grant under subdivision (a), a resource conservation district shall do all of the following:
(A) Prepare an annual and a long-range work plan pursuant to Section 9413. The long-range work plan shall reflect input from local agencies and organizations regarding land use and resource conservation goals.
(B) Convene regular meetings in accordance with the open meeting requirements of Chapter 9 (commencing with Section 54950) of Part 1 of Division 2 of Title 5 of the Government Code and the requirements of this division.
(C) Secure sources of local support funding, which may include funding from in-kind contributions and services.
(2) A resource conservation district seeking a grant pursuant to this section shall submit to the department a grant proposal that includes, but is not limited to, all of the following information:
(A) A description of the work for which the grant is sought.
(B) An explanation of the public or private need for the work, including, but not limited to, any relevant information demonstrating the urgency of the project.
(C) An itemized summary of the projected cost of the work.
(D) An estimate of the amount of the projected costs of the work that will be covered by local support funding, including funding from in-kind contributions or services.
(3) (A) Except as provided in subparagraph (B), to qualify for a grant awarded pursuant to this section, a resource conservation district shall be required to provide at least a 25 percent local match of funding, of which 40 percent of that amount shall be provided in cash.
(B) The department may waive the local match of funding described in subparagraph (A) if the resource conservation district meets either of the following conditions:
(i) The resource conservation district serves either an under-resourced community, as defined in subdivision (g) of Section 71130, or a vulnerable community, as that term was adopted by the Integrated Climate Adaptation and Resiliency Program Technical Advisory Council at the council’s April 2, 2018, meeting and recorded in “Defining Vulnerable Communities in the Context of Climate Adaptation” by the Governor’s Office of Planning and Research in July 2018.
(ii) The resource conservation district receives no more than one hundred and fifty thousand dollars ($150,000) annually from taxes or assessments levied by the district or by a city, county, or city and county, which collects taxes or assessments on behalf of the district.
(4) A resource conservation district that receives a grant awarded under this section shall provide the department with an informal accounting summary that describes how the grant money was spent in accordance with the purposes and conditions of the grant.

SEC. 172.

 Section 21080.58 of the Public Resources Code is amended to read:

21080.58.
 (a) For purposes of this section, the following definitions apply:
(1) “Faculty and staff housing project” means one or more housing facilities to be occupied by faculty or staff of one or more campuses, and owned by a public university, including dining, academic, and faculty and staff support service spaces and other necessary and usual attendant and related facilities and equipment.
(2) “Public university” means the University of California, the California State University, or the California Community Colleges.
(3) “Skilled and trained workforce” has the same meaning as in Chapter 2.9 (commencing with Section 2600) of Part 1 of Division 2 of the Public Contract Code.
(4) “Student housing project” means one or more housing facilities to be occupied by students of one or more campuses and owned by a public university, including dining, academic and student support service spaces, and other necessary and usual attendant and related facilities and equipment.
(5) “University housing development project” or “project” means a student housing project or a faculty and staff housing project that is not located, in whole or in part, on a site that is any of the following:
(A) Either prime farmland or farmland of statewide importance, as defined pursuant to United States Department of Agriculture land inventory and monitoring criteria, as modified for California, and designated on the maps prepared by the Farmland Mapping and Monitoring Program of the Department of Conservation, or land zoned or designated for agricultural protection or preservation by a local ballot measure that was approved by the voters of that jurisdiction.
(B) Wetlands, as defined in the United States Fish and Wildlife Service Manual, Part 660 FW 2 (June 21, 1993).
(C) Within a very high fire hazard severity zone, as determined by the State Fire Marshal pursuant to Section 51178 of the Government Code, or within a high or very high fire hazard severity zone as indicated on maps adopted by the State Fire Marshal pursuant to Section 4202. This subparagraph does not apply to sites excluded from the specified fire hazard severity zones by a local agency, pursuant to subdivision (b) of Section 51179 of the Government Code, or sites that have adopted fire hazard mitigation measures pursuant to existing building standards or state fire mitigation measures applicable to the project.
(D) Either a hazardous waste site listed pursuant to Section 65962.5 of the Government Code or a hazardous substances release site designated by the Department of Toxic Substances Control pursuant to Article 5 (commencing with Section 78760) of Chapter 4 of Part 2 of Division 45 of the Health and Safety Code, unless the State Department of Public Health, State Water Resources Control Board, or Department of Toxic Substances Control has cleared the site for residential use or residential mixed uses.
(E) Within a delineated earthquake fault zone as determined by the State Geologist in any official maps published by the State Geologist, unless the project complies with applicable seismic protection building code standards adopted by the California Building Standards Commission under the California Building Standards Law (Part 2.5 (commencing with Section 18901) of Division 13 of the Health and Safety Code), and by any local building department under Chapter 12.2 (commencing with Section 8875) of Division 1 of Title 2 of the Government Code.
(F) Within a special flood hazard area subject to inundation by a 1 percent annual chance flood (100-year flood) as determined by the Federal Emergency Management Agency in any official maps published by the Federal Emergency Management Agency. If a public university is able to satisfy all applicable federal qualifying criteria in order to demonstrate that the site satisfies this subparagraph and is otherwise eligible to be exempt from this division pursuant to this section, a local government shall not deny an application on the basis that the public university did not comply with any additional permit requirement, standard, or action adopted by that local government that is applicable to that site. A project may be located on a site described in this subparagraph if either of the following are met:
(i) The site has been subject to a Letter of Map Revision prepared by the Federal Emergency Management Agency and issued to the local government.
(ii) The site meets Federal Emergency Management Agency requirements necessary to meet minimum flood plain management criteria of the National Flood Insurance Program pursuant to Part 59 (commencing with Section 59.1) and Part 60 (commencing with Section 60.1) of Subchapter B of Chapter I of Title 44 of the Code of Federal Regulations.
(G) Within a regulatory floodway as determined by the Federal Emergency Management Agency in any official maps published by the Federal Emergency Management Agency, unless the project has received a no-rise certification in accordance with Section 60.3(d)(3) of Title 44 of the Code of Federal Regulations. If a public university is able to satisfy all applicable federal qualifying criteria in order to demonstrate that the site satisfies this subparagraph and is otherwise eligible to be exempt from this division pursuant to this section, a local government shall not deny an application on the basis that the public university did not comply with any additional permit requirement, standard, or action adopted by that local government that is applicable to that site.
(H) Lands identified for conservation in an adopted natural community conservation plan pursuant to the Natural Community Conservation Planning Act (Chapter 10 (commencing with Section 2800) of Division 3 of the Fish and Game Code), habitat conservation plan pursuant to the federal Endangered Species Act of 1973 (16 U.S.C. Sec. 1531 et seq.), or other adopted natural resource protection plan.
(I) Habitat for protected species identified as candidate, sensitive, or species of special status by a state or federal agency, fully protected species, or species protected by the federal Endangered Species Act of 1973 (16 U.S.C. Sec. 1531 et seq.), the California Endangered Species Act (Chapter 1.5 (commencing with Section 2050) of Division 3 of the Fish and Game Code), or the Native Plant Protection Act (Chapter 10 (commencing with Section 1900) of Division 2 of the Fish and Game Code).
(J) Lands under conservation easement.
(b) Except as provided in subdivision (c), this division does not apply to a university housing development project carried out by a public university on real property owned by the public university that meets all of the following requirements:
(1) (A) (i) If the university housing development project is carried out by the University of California, the university housing development project is consistent with the most recent long range development plan environmental impact report prepared pursuant to Section 21080.09 and certified on or after January 1, 2018, and any applicable tiered environmental analysis, so long as none of the events specified in Section 21166 have occurred.
(ii) If the university housing development project is carried out by the California State University or the California Community Colleges, the university housing development project is consistent with the most recent master plan environmental impact report prepared pursuant to Section 21080.09 and certified no more than 10 years before the determination that the exemption under this section applies and with any applicable tiered environmental analysis, so long as none of the events specified in Section 21166 have occurred.
(B) For purposes of subparagraph (A), the project is consistent with the relevant environmental impact report or applicable tiered environmental analysis, if there’s substantial evidence in the record that would allow a reasonable person to find it consistent.
(2) Each building within the university housing development project is certified as Leadership in Energy and Environmental Design (LEED) platinum or better by the United States Green Building Council.
(3) No more than one-third of the project square footage shall be used for dining, academic, or student support service spaces, or other necessary and usual attendant and related facilities and equipment.
(4) The project is either within one-half mile of a major transit stop or one-half mile of the campus boundary, as defined by the public university’s long range development plan or master plan, as appropriate, or has 15 percent lower per capita vehicle miles traveled as compared to that for the jurisdiction in which the university housing development project is located.
(5) The project has a transportation demand management program.
(6) The project’s construction impacts are fully mitigated consistent with applicable law.
(7) (A) The project does not result in any net additional emission of greenhouse gases, as determined by an independent third-party evaluation approved by the lead agency.
(B) To maximize public health and environmental benefits, the public university shall ensure that the measures will reduce the emissions of greenhouse gases in the project area and in the neighboring communities.
(C) Not less than 50 percent of the greenhouse gas emissions reductions necessary to achieve the requirement of this paragraph shall be from local, direct greenhouse gas emissions reduction measures, including, but not limited to, any of the following:
(i) Project design features or onsite reduction measures, or both design features and onsite reduction measures, that include, but are not limited to, any of the following:
(I) Implementing project design features that enable the project to exceed the building energy efficiency standards set forth in Part 6 (commencing with Section 100) of Title 24 of the California Code of Regulations, except for 50 percent of emissions reductions attributable to design features necessary to meet the LEED platinum certification requirement.
(II) Requiring a transportation demand management program to reduce single-occupancy vehicular travel and vehicle miles traveled.
(III) Providing onsite renewable energy generation, including a solar roof on the project with a minimum peak generation capacity of 500 kilowatts.
(IV) Providing solar-ready roofs.
(V) Providing cool roofs and cool parking promoting cool surface treatment for new parking facilities.
(ii) Offsite reduction measures in neighboring communities, including, but not limited to, any of the following:
(I) Providing funding to an offsite mitigation project consisting of replacing buses, trolleys, or other transit vehicles with zero-emission vehicles.
(II) Providing offsite safety or other improvements for bicycles, pedestrians, and transit connections.
(III) Undertaking or funding building retrofits to improve the energy efficiency of existing buildings.
(D) (i) The public university may obtain offset credits for up to 50 percent of the greenhouse gas emissions reductions necessary to achieve the requirement of this subdivision that produce emissions reductions within the jurisdiction that the university housing development project is located. Any offset credits shall be verified by a third party accredited by the State Air Resources Board, and shall be undertaken in a manner consistent with Division 25.5 (commencing with Section 38500) of the Health and Safety Code, including, but not limited to, the requirement that the offset be real, permanent, quantifiable, verifiable, and enforceable, and shall be undertaken from sources in the same community in which the project is located or adjacent communities.
(ii) If 50 percent of greenhouse gas emissions reductions necessary to achieve no additional emissions of greenhouse gases cannot be feasibly and fully mitigated by offset credits as described in clause (i), the mitigation of the remaining emissions of greenhouse gases shall be achieved pursuant to the following priority:
(I) Offset credits that would also reduce the emissions of criteria air pollutants or toxic air contaminants. The offsets shall be undertaken in a manner consistent with Division 25.5 (commencing with Section 38500) of the Health and Safety Code, including, but not limited to, the requirement that the offsets be real, permanent, quantifiable, verifiable, and enforceable, and shall be undertaken from sources in the community within which the project is located or in adjacent communities.
(II) If the remaining emissions of greenhouse gases cannot be feasibly or fully mitigated by the offsets credits described in subclause (I), the remaining unmitigated greenhouse gas emissions shall be mitigated through the use of offsets that would also reduce emissions of criteria air pollutants or toxic air contaminants and shall be undertaken in a manner consistent with subclause (I) and shall be undertaken from sources that provide a specific, quantifiable, and direct environmental and public health benefit to the community in which the project is located.
(E) It is the intent of the Legislature, in enacting this paragraph, to maximize the environmental and public health benefits from measures to mitigate the emissions of greenhouse gases of a university housing development project to those people that are impacted most by the project.
(8) All contractors and subcontractors at every tier on the project will be required to pay prevailing wages in accordance with Chapter 1 (commencing with Section 1720) of Part 7 of Division 2 of the Labor Code.
(9) (A) An entity shall not be prequalified or shortlisted or awarded a contract to perform work on the project unless the entity provides an enforceable commitment to the public university that the entity and its contractors and subcontractors at every tier will use a skilled and trained workforce to perform all work on the project that falls within an apprenticeable occupation in the building and construction trades, in accordance with Chapter 2.9 (commencing with Section 2600) of Part 1 of Division 2 of the Public Contract Code.
(B) This paragraph does not apply if any of the following requirements are met:
(i) The public university has entered into a project labor agreement that will bind all contractors and subcontractors at every tier performing work on the project to use a skilled and trained workforce, and the entity agrees to be bound by that project labor agreement.
(ii) The project is being performed under the extension or renewal of a project labor agreement that was entered into by the public university before January 1, 2023.
(iii) The entity has entered into a project labor agreement that will bind the entity and all of its contractors and subcontractors at every tier performing the project to use a skilled and trained workforce.
(10) (A) Except as provided in subparagraph (B), for a project carried out by the University of California, all cleaning, maintenance, groundskeeping, food service, or other work traditionally performed by persons with University of California Service Unit (SX) job classifications shall be performed only by employees of the University of California at any facility, building, property, or space that is part of the project.
(B) Subparagraph (A) does not apply to, and shall not restrict the performance of, work done under contract and paid for in whole or in part out of public funds when the work is either of the following:
(i) Construction, alteration, demolition, installation, cleanup work at the construction jobsite, or repair work, including work performed during the design and all phases of construction, including preconstruction and postconstruction phases.
(ii) Carpentry, electrical, plumbing, glazing, painting, and other craftwork designed to preserve, protect, or keep a publicly owned facility in a safe and continuously usable condition, including repairs, cleaning, and other operations on machinery and other equipment permanently attached to the building or real property as fixtures.
(11) (A) The public university holds at least one noticed public hearing in the project area to hear and respond to public comments before determining that a university housing development project is exempt pursuant to this section.
(B) The public university shall give public notice of the meeting to the last known name and address of all the organizations and individuals that have previously requested notice and shall also give the general public notice using at least one of the following procedures:
(i) Publication of the notice in a newspaper of general circulation in the area affected by the project. If more than one area will be affected, the notice shall be published in the newspaper of largest circulation from among the newspapers of general circulation in those areas.
(ii) Posting of the notice onsite and offsite in the area where the project is located.
(iii) Posting of the notice on the public university’s internet website and social media accounts.
(12) The public university files a notice of exemption with the Office of Planning and Research pursuant to subdivisions (b) to (d), inclusive, of Section 21108.
(c) (1) The public university or a relevant public agency with authority to issue a certificate of occupancy for a building within the project shall not issue the certificate of occupancy for the building unless both of the following occurs:
(A) The lead agency receives certification of LEED platinum or better from the United States Green Building Council for the building.
(B) The lead agency determines that the construction impacts of the project have been fully mitigated as required pursuant to paragraph (6) of subdivision (b) and issues a notice making that determination.
(2) The lead agency shall file the certificate and the notice described in paragraph (1) with the Office of Planning and Research and the county clerk of the county in which the project is located. Subdivision (c) of Section 21108 and subdivision (c) of Section 21152 shall apply to the certificate and notice filed pursuant to this paragraph.
(3) An action or proceeding alleging that the certificate of occupancy has been issued in violation of this subdivision shall be commenced within 35 days of the filing by the lead agency of the certificate and notice under this subdivision.
(d) The exemption from this division provided by subdivision (b) does not apply to a university housing development project that meets any of the following criteria:
(1) The project would require the demolition of any of the following:
(A) Housing that is subject to a recorded covenant, ordinance, or law that restricts rents to levels affordable to persons and families of moderate, low, or very low income.
(B) Housing that is subject to any form of rent or price control through a public entity’s valid exercise of its police power.
(C) Housing that has been occupied by tenants within the past 10 years.
(D) A historic structure that is listed on a national, state, or local historic register.
(2) The project is located on a site that was previously used for housing that was occupied by tenants and was demolished within 10 years before the public university submits an application under this section.
(3) The project is located on a site that contains housing units that are occupied by tenants and the housing units are offered for sale, or were subsequently offered for sale, to the general public by a subdivider or subsequent owner of the site.
(4) The project consists of more than 2,000 units or 4,000 beds.
(e) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2030, and as of that date is repealed.

SEC. 173.

 Section 21168.6.9 of the Public Resources Code is amended to read:

21168.6.9.
 (a) For purposes of this section, the following definitions apply:
(1) “Environmental leadership transit project” or “project” means a project to construct a fixed guideway and related fixed facilities that meets all of the following conditions:
(A) The fixed guideway operates at zero emissions.
(B) (i) If the project is more than two miles in length, the project reduces emissions by no less than 400,000 metric tons of greenhouse gases directly in the corridor of the project defined in the applicable environmental document over the useful life of the project, without using offsets.
(ii) If the project is no more than two miles in length, the project reduces emissions by no less than 50,000 metric tons of greenhouse gases directly in the corridor of the project defined in the applicable environmental document over the useful life of the project, without using offsets.
(C) The project reduces no less than 30,000,000 vehicle miles traveled in the corridor of the project defined in the applicable environmental document over the useful life of the project.
(D) The project is consistent with the applicable sustainable communities strategy or alternative planning strategy.
(E) The project is consistent with the applicable regional transportation plan.
(F) The project applicant demonstrates how it has incorporated sustainable infrastructure practices to achieve sustainability, resiliency, and climate change mitigation and adaptation goals in the project, including principles, frameworks, or guidelines as recommended by one or more of the following:
(i) The sustainability, resiliency, and climate change policies and standards of the American Society of Civil Engineers.
(ii) The Envision Rating System of the Institute for Sustainable Infrastructure.
(iii) The Leadership in Energy and Environment Design (LEED) rating system of the United States Green Building Council.
(G) The environmental leadership transit project is located wholly within the County of Los Angeles or connects to an existing transit project wholly located in the County of Los Angeles.
(H) For a project meeting the requirements of subparagraphs (A) to (G), inclusive, for which the environmental review pursuant to this division has commenced before January 1, 2022, the project applicant demonstrates that the record of proceedings is being, or has been, prepared in accordance with subdivision (f).
(2) “Fixed guideway” has the same meaning as defined in Section 5302 of Title 49 of the United States Code.
(3) “Project applicant” means a public or private entity or its affiliates that proposes an environmental leadership transit project, and its successors, heirs, and assignees.
(4) “Project labor agreement” has the same meaning as in paragraph (1) of subdivision (b) of Section 2500 of the Public Contract Code.
(5) “Skilled and trained workforce” has the same meaning as provided in Chapter 2.9 (commencing with Section 2600) of Part 1 of Division 2 of the Public Contract Code.
(b) This section applies to an environmental leadership transit project if the project applicant does all of the following:
(1) The project applicant demonstrates compliance with the requirements of Chapter 12.8 (commencing with Section 42649) and Chapter 12.9 (commencing with Section 42649.8) of Part 3 of Division 30, as applicable.
(2) (A) Except as provided in subparagraph (B), the project applicant has entered into a binding and enforceable agreement that all mitigation measures required under this division shall be conditions of approval of the project, and those conditions will be fully enforceable by the lead agency or another agency designated by the lead agency. In the case of environmental mitigation measures, the project applicant agrees, as an ongoing obligation, that those measures will be monitored and enforced by the lead agency for the life of the obligation.
(B) For a project applicant that is a public agency and is also the lead agency, the public agency conditions the approval of the environmental leadership transit project on, and performs, all mitigation measures required under this division. In the case of environmental mitigation measures, the public agency, as an ongoing obligation, shall monitor those measures for the life of the obligation.
(3) The project applicant agrees to pay the costs of the trial court and the court of appeal in hearing and deciding any case challenging a lead agency’s action on an environmental leadership transit project under this division, including payment of the costs for the appointment of a special master if deemed appropriate by the court, in a form and manner specified by the Judicial Council, as provided in the California Rules of Court adopted by the Judicial Council under subdivision (d).
(4) The project applicant agrees to bear the costs of preparing the record of proceedings for the project concurrent with review and consideration of the project under this division, in a form and manner specified by the lead agency for the project.
(c) (1) (A) If the project applicant is a public agency, the project applicant of an environmental leadership transit project shall obtain an enforceable commitment that any bidder, contractor, or other entity undertaking the project will use a skilled and trained workforce to complete the project.
(B) Subparagraph (A) does not apply if either of the following are met:
(i) The project applicant has entered into a project labor agreement that will bind all contractors and subcontractors performing work on the project to use a skilled and trained workforce.
(ii) The bidder, contractor, or other entity has entered into a project labor agreement that will bind all contractors and subcontractors at every tier performing work on the project to use a skilled and trained workforce.
(2) If the project applicant is a private entity, the project applicant of an environmental leadership transit project shall do both of the following:
(A) Certify to the lead agency that either of the following is true:
(i) The entirety of the project is a public work for purposes of Chapter 1 (commencing with Section 1720) of Part 7 of Division 2 of the Labor Code.
(ii) If the project is not in its entirety a public work and the project applicant is not required to pay prevailing wages to all construction workers under Article 2 (commencing with Section 1770) of Chapter 1 of Part 7 of Division 2 of the Labor Code, all construction workers employed on construction of the project will be paid at least the general prevailing rate of per diem wages for the type of work and geographic area, as determined by the Director of Industrial Relations pursuant to Sections 1773 and 1773.9 of the Labor Code, except that apprentices registered in programs approved by the Chief of the Division of Apprenticeship Standards may be paid at least the applicable apprentice prevailing rate. If the project is subject to this clause, then for those portions of the project that are not a public work all of the following shall apply:
(I) The project applicant shall ensure that the prevailing wage requirement is included in all contracts for the performance of all construction work.
(II) All contractors and subcontractors at every tier shall pay to all construction workers employed in the execution of the work at least the general prevailing rate of per diem wages, except that apprentices registered in programs approved by the Chief of the Division of Apprenticeship Standards may be paid at least the applicable apprentice prevailing rate.
(III) Except as provided in subclause (V), all contractors and subcontractors at every tier shall maintain and verify payroll records pursuant to Section 1776 of the Labor Code and make those records available for inspection and copying as provided by that section.
(IV) Except as provided in subclause (V), the obligation of the contractors and subcontractors at every tier to pay prevailing wages may be enforced by the Labor Commissioner through the issuance of a civil wage and penalty assessment pursuant to Section 1741 of the Labor Code, which may be reviewed pursuant to Section 1742 of the Labor Code, within 18 months after the completion of the project, or by an underpaid worker through an administrative complaint or civil action, or by a joint labor-management committee through a civil action under Section 1771.2 of the Labor Code. If a civil wage and penalty assessment is issued, the contractor, subcontractor, and surety on a bond or bonds issued to secure the payment of wages covered by the assessment shall be liable for liquidated damages pursuant to Section 1742.1 of the Labor Code.
(V) Subclauses (III) and (IV) do not apply if all contractors and subcontractors at every tier performing work on the project are subject to a project labor agreement that requires the payment of prevailing wages to all construction workers employed in the execution of the project and provides for enforcement of that obligation through an arbitration procedure.
(VI) Notwithstanding subdivision (c) of Section 1773.1 of the Labor Code, the requirement that employer payments not reduce the obligation to pay the hourly straight time or overtime wages found to be prevailing shall not apply if otherwise provided in a bona fide collective bargaining agreement covering the worker. The requirement to pay at least the general prevailing rate of per diem wages does not preclude use of an alternative workweek schedule adopted pursuant to Section 511 or 514 of the Labor Code.
(B) Certify to the lead agency that a skilled and trained workforce will be used to perform all construction work on the project. All of the following requirements shall apply to the project:
(i) The project applicant shall require in all contracts for the performance of work that every contractor and subcontractor at every tier will individually use a skilled and trained workforce to construct the project.
(ii) Every contractor and subcontractor at every tier shall use a skilled and trained workforce to construct the project.
(iii) (I) Except as provided in subclause (II), the project applicant shall provide to the lead agency, on a monthly basis while the project or contract is being performed, a report demonstrating compliance with Chapter 2.9 (commencing with Section 2600) of Part 1 of Division 2 of the Public Contract Code. A monthly report provided to the lead agency pursuant to this subclause shall be a public record under the California Public Records Act (Division 10 (commencing with Section 7920.000) of Title 1 of the Government Code) and shall be open to public inspection. A project applicant that fails to provide a monthly report demonstrating compliance with Chapter 2.9 (commencing with Section 2600) of Part 1 of Division 2 of the Public Contract Code shall be subject to a civil penalty of ten thousand dollars ($10,000) per month for each month for which the report has not been provided. Any contractor or subcontractor that fails to use a skilled and trained workforce shall be subject to a civil penalty of two hundred dollars ($200) per calendar day for each worker employed in contravention of the skilled and trained workforce requirement. Penalties may be assessed by the Labor Commissioner within 18 months of completion of the project using the same procedures for issuance of civil wage and penalty assessments pursuant to Section 1741 of the Labor Code, and may be reviewed pursuant to the same procedures in Section 1742 of the Labor Code. Penalties shall be paid to the State Public Works Enforcement Fund.
(II) Subclause (I) shall not apply if all contractors and subcontractors at every tier performing work on the project are subject to a project labor agreement that requires compliance with the skilled and trained workforce requirement and provides for enforcement of that obligation through an arbitration procedure.
(d) On or before January 1, 2023, the Judicial Council shall adopt rules of court that apply to any action or proceeding brought to attack, review, set aside, void, or annul the certification of an environmental impact report for an environmental leadership transit project or the granting of any project approval that require the action or proceeding, including any potential appeals to the court of appeal or the Supreme Court, to be resolved, to the extent feasible, within 365 calendar days of the filing of the certified record of proceedings with the court.
(e) (1) (A) The draft and final environmental impact report for an environmental leadership transit project shall include a notice in not less than 12-point type stating the following:

THIS ENVIRONMENTAL IMPACT REPORT IS SUBJECT TO SECTION 21168.6.9 OF THE PUBLIC RESOURCES CODE, WHICH PROVIDES, AMONG OTHER THINGS, THAT THE LEAD AGENCY NEED NOT CONSIDER CERTAIN COMMENTS FILED AFTER THE CLOSE OF THE PUBLIC COMMENT PERIOD, IF ANY, FOR THE DRAFT ENVIRONMENTAL IMPACT REPORT. ANY JUDICIAL ACTION CHALLENGING THE CERTIFICATION OR ADOPTION OF THE ENVIRONMENTAL IMPACT REPORT OR THE APPROVAL OF THE PROJECT DESCRIBED IN SECTION 21168.6.9 OF THE PUBLIC RESOURCES CODE IS SUBJECT TO THE PROCEDURES SET FORTH IN THAT SECTION. A COPY OF SECTION 21168.6.9 OF THE PUBLIC RESOURCES CODE IS INCLUDED IN THE APPENDIX TO THIS ENVIRONMENTAL IMPACT REPORT.
(B) For an environmental leadership transit project for which a draft environmental impact report was issued before January 1, 2022, the lead agency shall, before February 1, 2022, or before the public hearing on the certification of the environmental impact report, whichever is earlier, provide the notice specified in subparagraph (A), in writing, to all parties that have requested notification regarding the project. The lead agency shall include that notice and the appendix required pursuant to paragraph (2) in the final environmental impact report for the project.
(C) For an environmental leadership transit project for which a final environmental impact report was issued before January 1, 2022, the lead agency shall, before February 1, 2022, or before the issuance of the notice of determination, whichever is earlier, do both of the following:
(i) Issue an addendum to the final environmental impact report containing the notice specified in subparagraph (A) and the appendix required pursuant to paragraph (2).
(ii) Provide notice, in writing, of the addendum to all parties that have requested notification regarding the project.
(2) The draft environmental impact report and final environmental impact report shall contain, as an appendix, the full text of this section.
(3) Within 10 calendar days after the release of the draft environmental impact report, the lead agency shall conduct an informational workshop to inform the public of the key analyses and conclusions of that document, as applicable.
(4) Within 10 calendar days before the close of the public comment period, the lead agency shall hold a public hearing to receive testimony on the draft environmental impact report. A transcript of the hearing shall be included as an appendix to the final environmental impact report, as applicable.
(5) (A) Within five calendar days following the close of the public comment period, a commenter on the draft environmental impact report may submit to the lead agency a written request for nonbinding mediation, as applicable. The lead agency shall participate in nonbinding mediation with all commenters who submitted timely comments on the draft environmental impact report and who requested the mediation. Mediation conducted pursuant to this paragraph shall end no later than 35 calendar days after the close of the public comment period.
(B) A request for mediation shall identify all areas of dispute raised in the comment submitted by the commenter that are to be mediated.
(C) The lead agency shall select one or more mediators who shall be retired judges or recognized experts with at least five years’ experience in land use and environmental law or science, or mediation. The lead agency shall bear the costs of mediation.
(D) A mediation session shall be conducted on each area of dispute with the parties requesting mediation on that area of dispute.
(E) The lead agency shall adopt, as a condition of approval, any measures agreed upon by the lead agency and any commenter who requested mediation. A commenter who agrees to a measure pursuant to this subparagraph shall not raise the issue addressed by that measure as a basis for an action or proceeding challenging the lead agency’s decision to certify the environmental impact report or to grant project approval.
(6) The lead agency need not consider written comments on the draft environmental impact report submitted after the close of the public comment period, unless those comments address any of the following:
(A) New issues raised in the response to comments by the lead agency.
(B) New information released by the lead agency subsequent to the release of the draft environmental impact report, such as new information set forth or embodied in a staff report, proposed permit, proposed resolution, ordinance, or similar documents.
(C) Changes made to the project after the close of the public comment period.
(D) Proposed conditions for approval, mitigation measures, or proposed findings required by Section 21081 or a proposed reporting or monitoring program required by paragraph (1) of subdivision (a) of Section 21081.6, if the lead agency releases those documents subsequent to the release of the draft environmental impact report.
(E) New information that was not reasonably known and could not have been reasonably known during the public comment period.
(7) The lead agency shall file the notice required by subdivision (a) of Section 21152 within five calendar days after the last initial project approval.
(f) (1) The lead agency shall prepare and certify the record of proceedings in accordance with this subdivision and in accordance with Rule 3.2205 of the California Rules of Court.
(2) No later than three business days following the date of the release of the draft environmental impact report, the lead agency shall make available to the public in a readily accessible electronic format the draft environmental impact report and all other documents relied on by the lead agency in the preparation of the draft environmental impact report. A document prepared by the lead agency after the date of the release of the draft environmental impact report that is a part of the record of proceedings shall be made available to the public in a readily accessible electronic format within five business days after the document is prepared by the lead agency.
(3) Notwithstanding paragraph (2), documents relied on by the lead agency that were not prepared specifically for the project and are copyright protected are not required to be made readily accessible in an electronic format. For those copyright protected documents, the lead agency shall make an index of the documents available in an electronic format no later than the date of the release of the draft environmental impact report, or within five business days if the document is received or relied on by the lead agency after the release of the draft environmental impact report. The index shall specify the libraries or lead agency offices in which hardcopies of the copyrighted materials are available for public review.
(4) The lead agency shall encourage written comments on the project to be submitted in a readily accessible electronic format, and shall make any such comments available to the public in a readily accessible electronic format within five calendar days of their receipt.
(5) Within seven business days after the receipt of any comment that is not in an electronic format, the lead agency shall convert that comment into a readily accessible electronic format and make it available to the public in that format.
(6) The lead agency shall indicate in the record of proceedings comments received that were not considered by the lead agency pursuant to paragraph (6) of subdivision (e) and need not include the content of the comments as a part of the record of proceedings.
(7) Within five calendar days after the filing of the notice required by subdivision (a) of Section 21152, the lead agency shall certify the record of proceedings for the approval or determination and shall provide an electronic copy of the record of proceedings to a party that has submitted a written request for a copy. The lead agency may charge and collect a reasonable fee from a party requesting a copy of the record of proceedings for the electronic copy, which shall not exceed the reasonable cost of reproducing that copy.
(8) Within 10 calendar days after being served with a complaint or a petition for a writ of mandate, the lead agency shall lodge a copy of the certified record of proceedings with the superior court.
(9) Any dispute over the content of the record of proceedings shall be resolved by the superior court. Unless the superior court directs otherwise, a party disputing the content of the record of proceedings shall file a motion to augment the record of proceedings at the time it files its initial brief.
(10) The contents of the record of proceedings shall be as set forth in subdivision (e) of Section 21167.6.
(g) This section applies only to an environmental leadership transit project that is approved by the lead agency on or before January 1, 2024.
(h) This section shall only apply to the first seven projects obtaining a certified environmental impact report and meeting the requirements of this section.
(i) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2025, and as of that date is repealed.

SEC. 174.

 Section 25545 of the Public Resources Code is amended to read:

25545.
 For purposes of this chapter, the following definitions apply:
(a) “California Native American tribe” has the same meaning as set forth in Section 21073.
(b) “Facility” means any of the following:
(1) A solar photovoltaic or terrestrial wind electrical generating powerplant with a generating capacity of 50 megawatts or more and any facilities appurtenant thereto.
(2) An energy storage system as defined in Section 2835 of the Public Utilities Code that is capable of storing 200 megawatthours or more of energy.
(3) A stationary electrical generating powerplant using any source of thermal energy, with a generating capacity of 50 megawatts or more, excluding any powerplant that burns, uses, or relies on fossil or nuclear fuels.
(4) A discretionary project as described in Section 21080 for which the applicant has certified that a capital investment of at least two hundred fifty million dollars ($250,000,000) will be made over a period of five years and the discretionary project is for (A) the manufacture, production, or assembly of an energy storage system or component manufacturing, wind system or component manufacturing, and solar photovoltaic energy system or component manufacturing, or (B) the manufacture, production, or assembly of specialized products, components, or systems that are integral to renewable energy or energy storage technologies.
(5) An electric transmission line carrying electricity from a facility described in paragraph (1), (2), or (3) that is located in the state to a point of junction with any interconnected electrical transmission system.
(c) “Site” means any location on which an eligible facility is constructed or is proposed to be constructed.

SEC. 175.

 Section 25545.1 of the Public Resources Code is amended to read:

25545.1.
 (a)  A person proposing an eligible facility may file an application no later than June 30, 2029, for certification with the commission to certify a site and related facility in accordance with this chapter, including a person who has an application for certification or small powerplant exemption filed with the commission pursuant to Chapter 6 (commencing with Section 25500) pending as of June 30, 2022. Upon receipt of the application, the commission shall have the exclusive power to certify the site and related facility, whether the application proposes a new site and related facility or a change or addition to an existing facility. This section does not modify the Public Utilities Commission’s jurisdiction, including the issuance of a certificate of public convenience and necessity under Chapter 5 (commencing with Section 1001) of Part 1 of Division 1 of the Public Utilities Code for a facility that is proposed by a utility regulated by the Public Utilities Commission.
(b) (1) Except as provided in paragraph (2), the issuance of a certificate by the commission for a site and related facility pursuant to this chapter shall be in lieu of any permit, certificate, or similar document required by any state, local, or regional agency, or federal agency to the extent permitted by federal law, for the use of the site and related facilities, and shall supersede any applicable statute, ordinance, or regulation of any state, local, or regional agency, or federal agency to the extent permitted by federal law.
(2) Paragraph (1) does not supersede the authority of the State Lands Commission to require leases and receive lease revenues, if applicable, or the authority of the California Coastal Commission, the San Francisco Bay Conservation and Development Commission, the State Water Resources Control Board, or the applicable regional water quality control boards.
(3) For facilities described in paragraph (4) of subdivision (b) of Section 25545, this subdivision does not supersede the authority of local air quality management districts or the Department of Toxic Substances Control.
(c)  The Legislature finds and declares that this section addresses a matter of statewide concern rather than a municipal affair as that term is used in Section 5 of Article XI of the California Constitution. Therefore, this section applies to all cities, including charter cities.

SEC. 176.

 Section 25545.3.5 of the Public Resources Code is amended to read:

25545.3.5.
 An application for a covered project submitted under this chapter shall include the applicant’s certification that a skilled and trained workforce will be used to perform all construction work on the project and all of the following apply:
(a) The applicant shall require in all contracts for the performance of work that every contractor and subcontractor at every tier will individually use a skilled and trained workforce to construct the project.
(b) Every contractor and subcontractor shall use a skilled and trained workforce to construct the project.
(c) Except as provided in subdivision (e), contractors and subcontractors that fail to use a skilled and trained workforce shall be subject to the penalties provided in Section 2603 of the Public Contract Code. Penalties for a contractor’s or subcontractor’s failure to comply with the requirement to use a skilled and trained workforce may be assessed by the Labor Commissioner within 18 months of completion of the project using the same procedures for issuance of civil wage and penalty assessments pursuant to Section 2603 of the Public Contract Code. Penalties shall be paid to the State Public Works Enforcement Fund.
(d) For purposes of this subdivision, an applicant shall be considered to be an “awarding body” under Chapter 2.9 (commencing with Section 2600) of Part 1 of Division 2 of the Public Contract Code. Except as provided in subdivision (e), the applicant shall retain records, including copies of monthly reports, that demonstrate compliance with Chapter 2.9 (commencing with Section 2600) of Part 1 of Division 2 of the Public Contract Code while the project or contract is being performed and for three years after completion of the project or contract. The applicant shall submit these records immediately upon request of the commission. When submitted to the commission, these records shall be a public record under the California Public Records Act (Division 10 (commencing with Section 7920.000) of Title 1 of the Government Code) and shall be open to public inspection.
(e) Subdivisions (c) and (d) do not apply if all contractors and subcontractors performing work on the project are subject to a project labor agreement. The project labor agreement shall also include, but not be limited to, all of the following:
(1) Provisions requiring compliance with the skilled and trained workforce requirement and for enforcement of that obligation through an arbitration procedure.
(2) Targeted hiring provisions, including a targeted hiring plan, on a craft-by-craft basis to address job access for local, disadvantaged, or underrepresented workers, as defined by a local agency.
(3) Apprenticeship utilization provisions that commit all parties to increasing the share of work performed by state-registered apprentices above the state-mandated minimum ratio required in Section 1777.5 of the Labor Code.
(4) Apprenticeship utilization provisions that commit all parties to hiring and retaining a certain percentage of state-registered apprentices that have completed the Multi-Craft Core preapprenticeship training curriculum referenced in subdivision (t) of Section 14005 of the Unemployment Insurance Code.

SEC. 177.

 Section 25545.5 of the Public Resources Code is amended to read:

25545.5.
 (a) On or before September 28, 2022, the commission shall, in coordination with the Department of Fish and Wildlife, develop a plan that ensures timely and effective consultation between the commission and the Department of Fish and Wildlife with respect to any proposed commission findings and actions to authorize the taking of endangered, threatened, and candidate species pursuant to the California Endangered Species Act (Chapter 1.5 (commencing with Section 2050) of Division 3 of the Fish and Game Code) or impacts to fish and wildlife resources pursuant to Section 1602 of the Fish and Game Code. The commission shall also consult with the Department of Fish and Wildlife with respect to any proposed commission findings and actions regarding potential impacts to fish, wildlife, and plant resources and the habitats upon which they depend. The plan shall include a process to ensure that all such taking and impacts are consistent with Chapter 6 (commencing with Section 1600) of Division 2 of, and Chapter 1.5 (commencing with Section 2050) of Division 3 of, the Fish and Game Code.
(b) On or before September 28, 2022, the commission shall, in coordination with the State Water Resources Control Board, develop a plan that ensures timely and effective consultation between the commission and the State Water Resources Control Board and the applicable regional water quality control board with respect to any proposed commission findings and actions related to discharges of waste that could affect the quality of waters of the state. The plan shall include provisions to ensure that all discharges are consistent with all applicable provisions of Division 7 (commencing with Section 13000) of the Water Code.
(c) The commission shall, in coordination with the Department of Toxic Substances Control, develop a plan on or before September 28, 2022, that ensures timely and effective consultation between the commission and the Department of Toxic Substances Control with respect to any proposed commission findings and actions related to hazardous waste control laws.
(d) (1) For sites and related facilities located in the geographic jurisdiction of the California Coastal Commission or the San Francisco Bay Conservation and Development Commission, the commission shall consult with the applicable agency to coordinate processing and sequencing of the applications to expedite the permitting process of those agencies. In areas of the coastal zone covered by a certified local coastal program, the California Coastal Commission shall assume coastal development review authority, using the certified local coastal program as guidance. In the Suisun Marsh Secondary Management Area and the portions of the Primary Management Area with a local protection program, the San Francisco Bay Conservation and Development Commission shall assume permitting authority for processing and issuing marsh development permits using the local protection programs as guidance.
(2) The California Coastal Commission, the San Francisco Bay Conservation and Development Commission, the State Water Resources Control Board, the applicable regional water quality control boards, the applicable local air quality management districts, or the Department of Toxic Substances Control, as applicable, shall take final action on the eligible facility within 90 days after the certification by the commission of the environmental impact report for the site and related facilities, if the applicant has filed a complete, final application for a permit or waste discharge requirement, as applicable, with those agencies before the certification of the environmental impact report.

SEC. 178.

 Section 25454.7.2 of the Public Resources Code is amended and renumbered to read:

25545.7.2.
 [25545.7.2.] The commission shall conduct public outreach to solicit input on an application to identify the range of actions, alternatives, mitigation measures, and significant effects to be analyzed in depth in the environmental impact report as follows:
(a) Within three days after the application is deemed complete pursuant to Section 25545.4, the commission shall issue a notice of preparation pursuant to Section 15082 of Title 14 of the California Code of Regulations.
(b) (1) No sooner than 10 days and no later than 30 days after the application is deemed complete pursuant to Section 25545.4, the commission shall conduct a public informational meeting as close as practicable to the proposed site. The commission shall provide notice of the informational meeting at least 10 days before the meeting. The notice shall be sent electronically to all persons who have requested to receive a notice from the commission on action related to certification pursuant to this chapter and to all persons who the commission’s executive director, in consultation with the public advisor of the commission, determines to be concerned with the application. The informational meeting shall provide all of the following:
(A) Information on the proposed site and related facility from the applicant and from commission staff.
(B) Information on how to participate in the commission’s review of the application.
(C) A reasonable opportunity for the public to comment on the application.
(2) No sooner than 10 days after the application is deemed complete pursuant to Section 25545.4 and no later than 60 days after the issuance of the notice of availability pursuant to section 25545.7.6, the commission shall conduct a public workshop in the community nearest to the proposed site. The commission shall provide the notice in the same manner as required for the notice of the informational meeting pursuant to paragraph (1).
(3) Not later than 30 days after the issuance of the notice of preparation, the commission shall conduct a public scoping meeting pursuant to subdivision (c) of Section 15082 of Title 14 of the California Code of Regulations as close as practicable to the proposed site.
(c) The commission may conduct the informational meeting at the same time as the scoping meeting.

SEC. 179.

 Section 25793 of the Public Resources Code is amended to read:

25793.
 (a) The Strategic Reliability Reserve Fund is hereby created in the State Treasury. Notwithstanding Section 13340 of the Government Code, the moneys in the fund and the accounts contained in the fund are hereby continuously appropriated without regard to fiscal year to be expended by the commission for purposes of adding resources to the electrical grid to ensure electrical grid reliability and support the clean energy transition.
(b) The Distributed Electricity Backup Assets Account is hereby created in the fund, to be administered by the commission to implement the Distributed Electricity Backup Assets Program in accordance with Article 2 (commencing with Section 25791).
(c) The Demand Side Grid Support Account is hereby created in the fund, to be administered by the commission to implement the Demand Side Grid Support Program in accordance with Article 3 (commencing with Section 25792). Revenue generated by the sale of energy services within the Demand Side Grid Support Program shall be deposited into the Demand Side Grid Support Account.
(d) The commission may accept nonstate moneys, including, but not limited to, federal moneys, for purposes of this chapter.
(e) The commission shall adopt emergency regulations to implement this chapter at a commission business meeting. Notwithstanding Sections 11346.1 and 11349.6 of the Government Code, a finding of emergency or necessity to address an emergency shall not be required. Notwithstanding any other law, these emergency regulations shall be valid for three years, or until replaced by nonemergency regulations, whichever is sooner.
(f) The executive director, or a designee, of the commission may approve any contract, grant, or loan entered into for purposes of this chapter until October 31, 2023. After October 31, 2023, any contract, grant, or loan entered into for purposes of this chapter shall be approved in a commission meeting held consistent with Chapter 3 (commencing with Section 25200). For any contract, grant, or loan entered into for purposes of this chapter, no later than 10 days after the commission, executive director, or their designee, approves the contract, grant, or loan, the executive director of the commission shall give written notice to the Joint Legislative Budget Committee of the action.
(g) (1) Notwithstanding any other law, a contract, grant, or loan entered into for purposes of this chapter for an activity that is needed for ensuring electrical grid reliability by October 31, 2023, shall not require competitive bidding, or the review, consent, or approval of the Department of General Services or any other state department or agency and is not required to comply with the requirements of the State Contracting Manual, the Public Contract Code, or the personal services contracting requirements of Article 4 (commencing with Section 19130) of Chapter 5 of Part 2 of Division 5 of Title 2 of the Government Code.
(2) This subdivision does not apply to any contract, grant, or loan entered into for purposes of this chapter that is not needed for ensuring electrical grid reliability by October 31, 2023.
(3) This subdivision is inoperative on November 1, 2023.
(h) Notwithstanding any other law, the commission may pay an incentive up front if not doing so would inhibit participation in the programs established pursuant to this chapter.

SEC. 180.

 Section 25794.1 of the Public Resources Code is amended to read:

25794.1.
 (a) Notwithstanding any other law, from October 31, 2022, to October 31, 2026, inclusive, the department shall submit an application for certification to the commission in accordance with this article for a site on which a facility is located.
(b) The issuance of a certificate by the commission for a site and related facility pursuant to this article shall be in lieu of any permit, certificate, or similar document required by any state, local or regional agency, or federal agency to the extent permitted by federal law, for the use of the site and related facility, and shall supersede any applicable statutes, including the California Coastal Act of 1976 (Division 20 (commencing with Section 30000) of this code) and Title 7.2 (commencing with Section 66600) of the Government Code, ordinances, regulations, or standards of a state, local, or regional agency, or a federal agency, to the extent permitted by federal law, and shall not be subject to the requirements of the California Environmental Quality Act (Division 13 (commencing with Section 21000)) and regulations adopted pursuant to that division.
(c)  The Legislature finds and declares that this section addresses a matter of statewide concern rather than a municipal affair as that term is used in Section 5 of Article XI of the California Constitution. Therefore, this section applies to all cities, including charter cities.

SEC. 181.

 Section 35160 of the Public Resources Code is amended to read:

35160.
 (a) Notwithstanding Section 35159 or any other law, upon approval by the board of directors of the Santa Clara Valley Open-Space Authority, the design-build process described in Chapter 4 (commencing with Section 22160) of Part 3 of Division 2 of the Public Contract Code may be used to award contracts for the construction, restoration, and improvement of buildings and facilities, the construction, restoration, and improvement of public access and recreation facilities, and nature-based infrastructure projects, including, but not limited to, habitat restoration projects, enhancement and remediation projects, and watershed, stream corridor, and pond improvement projects in that authority.
(b) The minimum project limitation of one million dollars ($1,000,000), as described in subdivision (a) of Section 22162 of the Public Contract Code, shall not apply to the Santa Clara Valley Open-Space Authority.
(c) For purposes of this section, all references in Chapter 4 (commencing with Section 22160) of Part 3 of Division 2 of the Public Contract Code to “local agency” shall mean the Santa Clara Valley Open-Space Authority and its board of directors.

SEC. 182.

 Section 42041 of the Public Resources Code is amended to read:

42041.
 For purposes of this chapter, the following definitions apply:
(a) “Advisory board” means the producer responsibility advisory board established pursuant to Section 42070.
(b) “Bulk or large format packaging” means packaging for a large amount of a product in a large packaging, thereby offsetting the need for multiple smaller packaging units for the same amount of product.
(c) “California circular economy administrative fee” means the fee imposed by the department pursuant to Section 42053.5.
(d) “Concentrate” or “concentration” means reducing the amount of packaging needed for a product by reformulating the product to allow for smaller quantities of the product to be used for the same purpose as the previous, larger quantity.
(e) (1) “Covered material” means both of the following:
(A) Single-use packaging that is routinely recycled, disposed of, or discarded after its contents have been used or unpackaged, and typically not refilled or otherwise reused by the producer.
(B) Plastic single-use food service ware, including, but not limited to, plastic-coated paper or plastic-coated paperboard, paper or paperboard with plastic intentionally added during the manufacturing process, and multilayer flexible material. For purposes of this subparagraph, “single-use food service ware” includes both of the following:
(i) Trays, plates, bowls, clamshells, lids, cups, utensils, stirrers, hinged or lidded containers, and straws.
(ii) Wraps or wrappers and bags sold to food service establishments.
(2) Notwithstanding paragraph (1), “covered material” does not include any of the following:
(A) Packaging used for any of the following products:
(i) Medical products and products defined as devices or prescription drugs, as specified in the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (21 U.S.C. Secs. 321(g), 321(h), and 353(b)(1)).
(ii) Drugs that are used for animal medicines, including, but not limited to, parasiticide products for animals.
(iii) Products intended for animals that are regulated as animal drugs, biologics, parasiticides, medical devices, or diagnostics used to treat, or administered to, animals under the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (21 U.S.C. Sec. 301 et seq.), the federal Virus-Serum-Toxin Act (21 U.S.C. Sec. 151 et seq.), or the Federal Insecticide, Fungicide, and Rodenticide Act (7 U.S.C. Sec. 136 et seq.).
(iv) Infant formula, as defined in Section 321(z) of Title 21 of the United States Code.
(v) Medical food, as defined in Section 360ee(b)(3) of Title 21 of the United States Code.
(vi) Fortified oral nutritional supplements used for persons who require supplemental or sole source nutrition to meet nutritional needs due to special dietary needs directly related to cancer, chronic kidney disease, diabetes, malnutrition, or failure to thrive, as those terms are defined as by the International Classification of Diseases, Tenth Revision, or other medical conditions as determined by the department.
(B) Packaging used to contain products regulated by the Federal Insecticide, Fungicide, and Rodenticide Act (7 U.S.C. Sec. 136 et seq.).
(C) Plastic packaging containers that are used to contain and ship products that are classified for transportation as dangerous goods or hazardous materials under Part 178 (commencing with Section 178.0) of Subchapter C of Chapter I of Subtitle B of Title 49 of the Code of Federal Regulations.
(D) Packaging used to contain hazardous or flammable products regulated by the 2012 federal Occupational Safety and Health Administration Hazard Communication Standard (29 C.F.R. 1910.1200).
(E) Beverage containers subject to the California Beverage Container Recycling and Litter Reduction Act (Division 12.1 (commencing with Section 14500)).
(F) Packaging used for the long-term protection or storage of a product that has a lifespan of not less than five years, as determined by the department.
(G) Packaging associated with products covered under the architectural paint recovery program established pursuant to Chapter 5 (commencing with Section 48700) of Part 7.
(H) (i) Covered material for which the producer demonstrates to the department that the covered material meets all of the following criteria:
(I) The covered material is not collected through a residential recycling collection service.
(II) The covered material does not undergo separation from other materials at a commingled recycling processing facility.
(III) The covered material is recycled at a responsible end market.
(IV) The material has demonstrated a recycling rate of 65 percent for three consecutive years prior to January 1, 2027, and on and after that date demonstrates a recycling rate at or over 70 percent annually, as demonstrated to the department every two years.
(ii) If only a portion of the covered material sold in or into the state by a producer meets the criteria of clause (i), only the portion of the covered material that meets the criteria of clause (i) is exempt from this chapter and any portion that does not meet the criteria is a covered material for purposes of this chapter.
(f) “Covered material category” means a category that includes covered material of a similar type and form, as determined by the department.
(g) “Curbside collection” means a program that includes the collection of material, including, but not limited to, covered materials, by a local jurisdiction or recycling or composting service provider under contract with a local jurisdiction.
(h) “Department” means the Department of Resources Recycling and Recovery.
(i) “Disadvantaged community” means an area identified by the California Environmental Protection Agency pursuant to Section 39711 of the Health and Safety Code or an area identified as a disadvantaged unincorporated community pursuant to Section 65302.10 of the Government Code.
(j) “Eliminate” or “elimination,” with respect to source reduction, means the removal of a plastic component from a covered material without replacing that component with a nonplastic component.
(k) “Expanded polystyrene” means blown polystyrene and expanded or extruded foams that are thermoplastic petrochemical materials utilizing a styrene monomer and processed by any technique or techniques, including, but not limited to, fusion of polymer spheres (expandable bead polystyrene), injection molding, foam molding, and extrusion-blow molding (extruded foam polystyrene).
(l) “Lightweighting” means reducing the weight or amount of material used in a specific packaging or food service ware without functionally changing the packaging or food service ware. “Lightweighting” does not include changes that result in a recyclable or compostable covered material becoming nonrecyclable or noncompostable or less likely to be recycled or composted.
(m) “Local jurisdiction” means a city, county, city and county, regional agency formed pursuant to Chapter 5 (commencing with Section 6500) of Division 7 of Title 1 of the Government Code or Article 3 (commencing with Section 40970) of Chapter 1 of Part 2, or special district that provides solid waste collection services.
(n) “Low-income community” means an area with household incomes at or below 80 percent of the statewide median income or with household incomes at or below the threshold designated as low income by the Department of Housing and Community Development’s list of state income limits adopted pursuant to Section 50093 of the Health and Safety Code.
(o) “Malus fee” means a charge imposed by a PRO on a participant producer for a covered material due to the adverse environmental or public health impacts of the covered material.
(p) “Materials recovery facility” or “MRF” means a recycling facility that receives recyclable material, including, but not limited to, any covered material, for mechanical or manual sorting into specification-grade commodities for sale to a broker or end market.
(q) “Needs assessment” means a needs assessment prepared pursuant to Section 42067.
(r) “Optimize” or “optimization” means limiting the amount of covered material used in packaging by meeting product or packaging needs with minimal material. This includes, but is not limited to, eliminating unnecessary components, right-sizing, concentrating, and using bulk or large format packaging.
(s) “Packaging” means any separable and distinct material component used for the containment, protection, handling, delivery, or presentation of goods by the producer for the user or consumer, ranging from raw materials to processed goods. “Packaging” includes, but is not limited to, all of the following:
(1) Sales packaging or primary packaging intended to provide the user or consumer the individual serving or unit of the product and most closely containing the product, food, or beverage.
(2) Grouped packaging or secondary packaging intended to bundle, sell in bulk, brand, or display the product.
(3) Transport packaging or tertiary packaging intended to protect the product during transport.
(4) Packaging components and ancillary elements integrated into packaging, including ancillary elements directly hung onto or attached to a product and that perform a packaging function, except both of the following:
(A) An element of the packaging or food service ware with a de minimis weight or volume, which is not an independent plastic component, as determined by the department.
(B) A component or element that is an integral part of the product, if all components or elements of the product are intended to be consumed or disposed of together.
(t) “Plastic” means a synthetic or semisynthetic material chemically synthesized by the polymerization of organic substances that can be shaped into various rigid and flexible forms, and includes coatings and adhesives. “Plastic” includes, without limitation, polyethylene terephthalate (PET), high density polyethylene (HDPE), polyvinyl chloride (PVC), low density polyethylene (LDPE), polypropylene (PP), polystyrene (PS), polylactic acid (PLA), and aliphatic biopolyesters, such as polyhydroxyalkanoate (PHA) and polyhydroxybutyrate (PHB). “Plastic” does not include natural rubber or naturally occurring polymers such as proteins or starches.
(u) “Plastic component” means any single piece of covered material made partially or entirely of plastic. A plastic component may constitute the entirety of the covered material or a separate or separable piece of the covered material.
(v) “Processing” means to sort, segregate, break or flake, and clean material to prepare it to meet the specification for sale to a responsible end market.
(w) (1) “Producer” means a person who manufactures a product that uses covered material and who owns or is the licensee of the brand or trademark under which the product is used in a commercial enterprise, sold, offered for sale, or distributed in the state.
(2) If there is no person in the state who is the producer for purposes of paragraph (1), the producer of the covered material is the owner or, if the owner is not in the state, the exclusive licensee of a brand or trademark under which the covered product using the covered material is used in a commercial enterprise, sold, offered for sale, or distributed in the state. For purposes of this subdivision, a licensee is a person holding the exclusive right to use a trademark or brand in the state in connection with the manufacture, sale, or distribution of the product packaged in or made from the covered material.
(3) If there is no person in the state who is the producer for purposes of paragraph (1) or (2), the producer of the covered material is the person who sells, offers for sale, or distributes the product that uses the covered material in or into the state.
(4) “Producer” does not include a person who produces, harvests, and packages an agricultural commodity on the site where the agricultural commodity was grown or raised.
(5) For purposes of this chapter, the sale of covered materials shall be deemed to occur in the state if the covered materials are delivered to the purchaser in the state.
(x) “Producer responsibility organization” or “PRO” means an organization that is exempt from taxation under Section 501(c)(3) of the federal Internal Revenue Code of 1986 and is formed for the purpose of implementing a plan to meet the requirements of this chapter.
(y) “Producer responsibility plan” or “plan,” unless context requires otherwise, means the plan produced by a PRO, or by a producer that chooses to assume responsibility to comply with this chapter individually, and submitted to the advisory board and department pursuant to Section 42051.1.
(z) “Rate of inbound contamination” means the amount of nonrecyclable or noncompostable materials arriving at a materials recovery facility or other recycling or composting facility.
(aa) (1) “Recycle” or “recycling” means the process of collecting, sorting, cleansing, treating, and reconstituting materials that would otherwise ultimately be disposed of onto land or into water or the atmosphere, and returning them to, or maintaining them within, the economic mainstream in the form of recovered material for new, reused, or reconstituted products, including compost, that meet the quality standards necessary to be used in the marketplace.
(2) “Recycle” or “recycling” does not include any of the following:
(A) Combustion.
(B) Incineration.
(C) Energy generation.
(D) Fuel production, except for anaerobic digestion of source separated organic materials.
(E) Other forms of disposal.
(3) To be considered recycled, covered material shall be sent to a responsible end market.
(4) (A) The department may adopt regulations to define guidelines and verification requirements for covered material shipped out of state and exported to other countries for recycling, including processing requirements, and contamination standards, or to otherwise implement this paragraph.
(B) For any mixture of plastic waste exported to another country, the PRO or producer shall certify to the department that the processes and recycling technologies used meet both of the following requirements, as determined by the department:
(i) The plastic waste is a mixture of plastic types consisting only of one or more of polyethylene, polypropylene, or polyethylene terephthalate, and the export is destined for separate recycling of each material.
(ii) The plastic waste export is not prohibited by an applicable law or treaty of the destination jurisdiction, and the import of the plastic waste into the destination jurisdiction will be conducted in accordance with all applicable laws and treaties of that destination jurisdiction.
(C) For any mixture of plastic waste exported to other states or countries, the PRO or producer shall certify to the department that the recycling technology used meets the requirements of this subdivision.
(D) In meeting the requirements of subparagraphs (B) and (C), the PRO or producer shall provide documentation necessary to verify this certification and shall make the certification under penalty of perjury.
(5) The department’s regulations shall encourage recycling that minimizes generation of hazardous waste, generation of greenhouse gases, environmental impacts, environmental justice impacts, and public health impacts. The regulations shall include criteria to exclude plastic recycling technologies that produce significant amounts of hazardous waste.
(ab) “Recycling rate” means the percentage, overall and by category, of covered material sold, offered for sale, distributed, or imported in the state that is ultimately recycled. The recycling rate shall be calculated as the amount of covered material that is recycled in a given year divided by the total amount of covered material disposed of, as defined in subdivision (b) of Section 40192, and the amount of covered material recycled, unless and until the department adopts a new methodology for calculating the recycling rate by regulation.
(ac) “Recycling service provider” means a solid waste enterprise that provides solid waste handling services on behalf of a local jurisdiction.
(ad) “Responsible end market” means a materials market in which the recycling and recovery of materials or the disposal of contaminants is conducted in a way that benefits the environment and minimizes risks to public health and worker health and safety. The department may adopt regulations to identify responsible end markets and to establish criteria regarding benefits to the environment and minimizing risks to public health and worker health and safety.
(ae) (1) “Retailer” or “wholesaler” means the person or entity who sells covered material in the state to purchasers or offers to purchasers the covered material in the state through any means, including, but not limited to, any of the following:
(A) Remote offering, including sales outlets or catalogs.
(B) Electronically through the internet.
(C) Telephone.
(D) Mail.
(E) Direct sales.
(2) A person who sells covered material as a third-party seller using an online marketplace as described in paragraph (3) shall be considered the retailer or wholesaler for purposes of such transactions. The owner or operator of the online marketplace shall not be considered the retailer or wholesaler for such sales.
(3) For purposes of this subdivision, “online marketplace” means a consumer-directed, electronically accessed platform in which all of the following are true:
(A) The platform includes features that enable third-party sellers to sell consumer products directly to consumers in the state without the owner or operator of the platform involved in the transaction other than by providing order processing, payment, storage, shipping, or delivery services.
(B) Third-party sellers use the features described in subparagraph (A) to sell directly to consumers in the state, with title to the consumer product passing from the third-party sellers directly to consumers and not being held by the owner or operator of the online marketplace at any point during the transaction, including upon receipt of the order and throughout the order fulfillment process.
(C) Except as provided by subparagraph (E), the owner or operator of the platform does not directly or indirectly control the covered material used in packaging and shipping of a consumer product in this state.
(D) The person or entity operating the platform has a contractual or similar relationship with consumers governing their use of the platform to purchase consumer products.
(E) Third-party sellers agree, pursuant to the platform’s terms and conditions or other enforceable agreement, that they will not use the platform to offer for sale, sell, or distribute into the state covered material that does not meet the requirements of this chapter.
(af) “Reusable” or “refillable” or “reuse” or “refill,” in regard to packaging or food service ware, means either of the following:
(1) For packaging or food service ware that is reused or refilled by a producer, it satisfies all of the following:
(A) Explicitly designed and marketed to be utilized multiple times for the same product, or for another purposeful packaging use in a supply chain.
(B) Designed for durability to function properly in its original condition for multiple uses.
(C) Supported by adequate infrastructure to ensure the packaging or food service ware can be conveniently and safely reused or refilled for multiple cycles.
(D) Repeatedly recovered, inspected, and repaired, if necessary, and reissued into the supply chain for reuse or refill for multiple cycles.
(2) For packaging or food service ware that is reused or refilled by a consumer, it satisfies all of the following:
(A) Explicitly designed and marketed to be utilized multiple times for the same product.
(B) Designed for durability to function properly in its original condition for multiple uses.
(C) Supported by adequate and convenient availability of and retail infrastructure for bulk or large format packaging that may be refilled to ensure the packaging or food service ware can be conveniently and safely reused or refilled by the consumer multiple times.
(ag) “Right-size” or “right-sizing” means reducing the amount of material used to package an item by reducing unnecessary space or eliminating unnecessary components of the packaging.
(ah) “Rural area” has the same meaning as defined in Section 50101 of the Health and Safety Code.
(ai) “Single use” means conventionally disposed of after a single use or not sufficiently durable or washable to be, or not intended to be, reusable or refillable.
(aj) “Source reduction” means the reduction in the amount of covered material created by a producer relative to a baseline established pursuant to subdivision (b) of Section 42057. Methods of source reduction include, but are not limited to, shifting covered material to reusable or refillable packaging or a reusable product or eliminating unnecessary packaging. “Source reduction” does not include either of the following:
(1) Replacing a recyclable or compostable covered material with a nonrecyclable or noncompostable covered material or a covered material that is less likely to be recycled or composted.
(2) Switching from virgin covered material to postconsumer recycled content.
(ak) “Source reduction plan” means the plan prepared as part of the PRO plan in accordance with Section 42057.
(al) “Unexpended funds” means moneys in a PRO’s accounts that the organization is not already obligated to pay pursuant to a contract, claim, or similar mechanism. “Unexpended funds” excludes the California circular economy administrative fees.

SEC. 183.

 Section 42051 of the Public Resources Code is amended to read:

42051.
 (a) By January 1, 2024, producers of covered material shall form and join a PRO for the purposes of complying with this chapter. The governing body of the PRO shall submit an application to the department describing how the PRO meets the requirements to be an approved PRO pursuant to this chapter, as described in Section 42061.5. If the department approves the PRO, the PRO shall proceed to carry out the requirements of this chapter. If applications for more than one PRO are submitted to the department by January 1, 2024, the department shall determine which proposed PRO can most effectively implement this chapter.
(b) (1) Except as provided in paragraph (2), upon approval of a plan pursuant to Section 42063, or commencing January 1, 2027, whichever is sooner, a producer shall not sell, offer for sale, import, or distribute covered materials in the state unless the producer is approved to participate in the plan of a PRO that is approved by the department for the source reduction, collection, processing, and recycling of covered material to meet the requirements of this chapter. If an entity does not qualify as a producer and is not subject to this chapter before January 1, 2027, but, after January 1, 2027, becomes a producer by beginning to sell, offer for sale, import, or distribute covered material in the state, the producer shall, within six months, become a participant of the PRO and comply with this chapter.
(2) (A) Notwithstanding paragraph (1), a producer may comply with this chapter individually without participating in a PRO’s plan if the producer can demonstrate to the department, and the department determines at its sole discretion, that the producer meets all of the following criteria or can demonstrate a recycling rate of 65 percent for three consecutive years prior to January 1, 2027, and on and after that date demonstrates a recycling rate at or over 70 percent annually:
(i) From the 2013 calendar year to the 2022 calendar year, inclusive, the producer achieved a net 5 percent or greater source reduction of its covered materials through shifting to refill, reuse, or elimination.
(ii) From the 2013 calendar year to the 2022 calendar year, inclusive, the producer achieved a net 8 percent or greater source reduction of its covered materials through optimization, concentration, right-sizing, bulking, shifting to a nonplastic packaging, or lightweighting, or increasing the number of consumer uses.
(iii) Seventy-five percent of the producer’s covered material sold, offered for sale, distributed, or imported into the state is in a covered material category that meets a 30-percent recycling rate as of January 1, 2023.
(B) A producer who chooses to comply with this chapter individually shall assume individual responsibility for complying with this chapter, including, but not limited to, all of the following:
(i) Develop and implement a plan that meets all of the applicable requirements of a producer responsibility plan, including, but not limited to, the review, update, and approval process. The plan shall include a producer source reduction plan that meets all of the applicable requirements of a PRO source reduction plan prepared in accordance with subdivision (d) of Section 42057, including, but not limited to, the review, update, and approval process.
(ii) Fully cover the costs associated with implementing this chapter to the same extent as any other producer participating in a PRO based on the producer’s share of covered material.
(iii) Annually report sales, recycling, composting, and source reduction data to the department pursuant to Sections 42052 and 42057 in a manner determined by the department.
(c) Regardless of whether a producer participates in a PRO plan, each producer in the state shall file its primary business address with the department in a manner prescribed by regulation pursuant to this chapter. Each producer shall notify the department of any change in their business address within 30 days. A PRO may satisfy the requirements of this subdivision on behalf of a producer by including the producer’s primary business address in a plan, update, or annual report pursuant to subparagraph (B) of paragraph (3) of subdivision (a) of Section 42051.3 or otherwise notifying the department of the address and any changes of address.
(d) Each participant of a PRO with an approved plan shall comply with the requirements of this chapter. The PRO shall notify the department within 30 calendar days of any of the following:
(1) The end of any three-month period in which the PRO unsuccessfully attempted to obtain a fee, records, or information from a participant producer, or received incomplete or incorrect records or information pursuant to Section 42052 or 42053.
(2) The date a producer no longer participates in the PRO’s approved plan.
(3) Any instance of noncompliance by a participant producer.
(e) The PRO may organize itself into subcommittees or some other similar structure, including delineation by covered material category, to ensure sufficient focus on each covered material category to better enable each category to meet the recycling rates required in subdivision (c) of Section 42050.

SEC. 184.

 Section 42051.1 of the Public Resources Code is amended to read:

42051.1.
 (a) As a condition of producer responsibility plan approval, the PRO plan shall comply with the regulations adopted by the department pursuant to Section 42060. The PRO shall submit a plan and budget that includes the provisions necessary for the department to ensure producers covered under the plan comply with this chapter.
(b) The plan shall include all of the following:
(1) Actions and investments that the PRO will implement in order to meet the requirements of this chapter and address the needs and investments identified in the needs assessment.
(2) The source reduction plan required pursuant to Section 42057. For any covered material that is not reasonably anticipated by the PRO to achieve the requirements of this chapter, the PRO shall include in the plan a timeline and actions to discontinue use of the covered material category.
(3) Technologies and means that will be utilized to achieve recycling requirements, including demonstration that the means and technologies meet the conditions specified in subdivision (aa) of Section 42041.
(c) The plan shall include objective and measurable criteria whenever possible, and describe all of the following:
(1) How the PRO will meet the requirements of this chapter, including, but not limited to, how it will, in an economically efficient and practical manner, provide for the necessary infrastructure and viable responsible end markets to ensure the covered material will achieve the requirements of Section 42050 based on the needs assessments.
(2) How the PRO will support and achieve, and how the budget will fund, the collection, processing, recycling, or composting of, and the development of viable responsible end markets for, covered materials to meet the requirements of this chapter. This includes, but is not limited to, actions necessary to sort, segregate, break or flake, and process material to specifications for sale to a responsible end market. For purposes of this paragraph, “specifications” means the third-party purchasing specifications issued by a buyer or buyers of recycled materials for reprocessing into a new product.
(3) (A) How the plan is supplemental to, and not in conflict with, disruptive of, or adversely affecting, the performance of the solid waste network providing services in accordance with local solid waste handling requirements and the intent described in Section 40004, and how the PRO will leverage and utilize existing collection programs and recycling, composting, sorting, and processing infrastructure.
(B) Except as specified in subdivisions (b), (c), (d), and (e) of Section 42060.5, how the plan will be implemented in a manner utilizing solid waste collection programs and solid waste facilities as the designated system for the curbside collection and processing of covered material.
(4) In accordance with Section 40059, how the plan and the activities undertaken pursuant to the plan will be implemented in compliance with state and local laws, rules, and regulations applicable to solid waste handling and in a manner that does not violate existing franchise agreements.
(5) How covered material will be collected, processed, and managed, and recycled, remanufactured, or composted, consistent with the goals, standards, and practices required by this chapter, including ensuring covered material collected for recycling will be transferred to viable responsible end markets for processing into new packaging or products, including, but not limited to, how the plan will enhance or expand viable responsible end markets in California including manufacturing.
(6) Arrangements with processors or recyclers to ensure that covered materials that are not collected through a curbside collection program are collected and recycled at a viable responsible end market, including any investment that will be made to cover the cost of the covered material being processed or recycled by processors or recyclers.
(7) Arrangements to establish and fund reuse or refill infrastructure, fund facility retrofits, or other needed infrastructure to eliminate plastic covered material, shift covered material from plastic to a nonplastic covered material category, or any other actions taken, or that will be taken, to implement the source reduction requirements pursuant to Section 42057.
(8) How postconsumer recycled content will be incorporated into covered material, including the amounts of postconsumer recycled content.
(9) How the plan will be implemented in a manner consistent with the waste hierarchy established in Section 40051.
(d) (1) The plan shall include a fee for participants of the PRO consistent with the provisions of Section 42053, set forth the calculation of the fee, and describe the process through which the PRO will collect the fee from producers that are participants of the PRO’s approved plan.
(2) The plan shall include a description of the fee structure and a schedule of the fees actually charged to producers who are participants of a PRO’s approved plan.
(e) The plan shall include efforts to use education and promotion to encourage proper participation in recycling and composting collection and reuse and refill systems. The PRO shall ensure coordination between these efforts and existing educational and promotional efforts. These may include, but are not limited to, all of the following:
(1) Education and engagement to reduce the rate of inbound contamination or unwanted materials.
(2) Outreach to obtain consistently high levels of public participation in and use of collection services and reuse and refill systems.
(3) Education and engagement with residents on proper recycling, composting, and reuse and refill behaviors.
(4) Support for increased statewide and local outreach needed to achieve the plan’s goals.
(f) The plan shall include a closure or transfer plan to settle the affairs of the PRO that ensures that producers who are participants of the PRO’s approved plan will continue to meet their obligations in the event of dissolution of the organization or revocation of a plan by the department and that describes a process for notifying the department, the advisory board, local jurisdictions, and any contractors of the dissolution. The closure or transfer plan shall provide for sufficient reserve funds in the trust fund or escrow account established pursuant to Section 42056 to allow the PRO to satisfy all obligations in the event of dissolution of the PRO until the participants of the PRO’s approved plan have become a participant of a different PRO’s approved plan.
(g) (1) The plan shall include a process for determining and paying the costs that will be incurred by local jurisdictions, recycling service providers, alternative collection systems, and others under this chapter. Payment of these costs shall be reflected in the budget pursuant to subdivision (j).
(2) The plan shall include a process to resolve disputes for determining and paying the reasonable costs pursuant to paragraph (1) that arise between the PRO and a local jurisdiction or a recycling service provider. This process shall be reviewed by the advisory board to ensure the PRO covers costs related to this chapter and shall become effective upon plan approval by the department.
(h) The plan shall include the source reduction data specified in subdivision (c) of Section 42057.
(i) (1) The plan shall include consideration of the needs assessment and any recommended investments to meet the needs identified in the needs assessments and inform the budget.
(2) The budget shall not propose investing in activities in violation of Section 40004 or an agreement entered into pursuant to Section 40059 and shall include a mechanism to disburse funds for identified activities.
(3) The budget may include, but shall not be limited to, elements that will accomplish all of the following:
(A) Expanding access to or improvement of curbside collection services wherever feasible.
(B) Expanding access to dropoff recycling services or other mechanisms where curbside collection services are not feasible, or as necessary in order to supplement curbside collection services to achieve the requirements of this chapter.
(C) Expanding access to collection services in public spaces.
(D) Providing or facilitating deployment of innovative enhanced collection, composting, and recycling systems and innovative recycling systems within a recycling center or MRF that utilizes advanced technology, such as artificial intelligence and robotics, to improve the identification and sorting of covered materials, where feasible.
(E) Creation of on-premises access to recycling or composting services for multifamily residences.
(F) Funding, providing, or facilitating the efficient transport of materials from remote or rural areas to centralized sorting facilities, brokers, or viable responsible end markets.
(G) Enhancing existing materials recycling or composting infrastructure by developing a quality incentive payment, grants, and other mechanisms sufficient to cover the cost of separating, processing, baling, recycling, composting, remanufacturing, and transporting desired materials that meet viable responsible end market quality specifications, or for reducing the rate of inbound contamination to composting facilities.
(H) Infrastructure or other mechanisms needed to implement a source reduction plan, including, but not limited to, investments in reuse, refill, and composting infrastructure.
(I) Infrastructure or other activities needed to achieve recycling rates for all covered material under the plan and ensure covered material is recyclable or compostable.
(4) In developing the budget, the PRO may delineate investments the PRO will make based on covered material categories.
(j) (1) The plan shall include a budget designed to fully fund the costs necessary to implement this chapter. The budget shall include, but not be limited to, fully funding the plan and all other costs associated with implementing the plan, including, but not limited to, all of the following:
(A) Actions and investments identified in the plan to fund the budget and needs and investments identified in the needs assessments.
(B) Costs associated with this chapter incurred by local jurisdictions, recycling service providers, and other collection programs, and costs related to consumer outreach and education; the transportation of covered materials to a materials recovery facility, broker, or viable responsible end market; cleaning, sorting, aggregating, and baling covered materials as necessary to bring those materials to a viable responsible end market; waste stream sampling and reporting required by this chapter for local governments; costs incurred to educate ratepayers to improve the preparation and sorting of covered material; and improvements to collection, sorting, decontamination, remanufacturing, and other infrastructure necessary to achieve recycling rates. These costs include costs related to both curbside and noncurbside collection programs and may be varied based on population density, distance to a viable responsible end market, and other relevant factors.
(C) Reimbursing costs incurred by the department and the California Department of Tax and Fee Administration.
(D) Administering the PRO.
(E) Environmental mitigation activities associated with Section 42064.
(F) Investments to develop and sustain viable responsible end markets for each covered material category.
(G) Other investments necessary to implement the plan and achieve the source reduction, recyclability and compostability, recycling rate, and other requirements of this chapter, including, but not limited to, ensuring that plan implementation avoids and minimizes negative environmental or public health impacts on disadvantaged or low-income communities or rural areas.
(H) If reasonable and able to be discretely directed, funding derived from a material type may be spent on investments needed for that specific material type.
(2) A producer or PRO shall not expend revenue collected for implementation of the plan for any of the following purposes:
(A) To pay an administrative civil penalty pursuant to Section 42081.
(B) To pay costs associated with litigation between the producer or organization and the state.
(C) To compensate a person whose position is primarily representing the PRO relative to the passage, defeat, approval, or modification of legislation that is being considered by a local, state, or federal government body, nor shall the PRO use or permit the use of these funds for paid advertisement 30 calendar days prior to or during a legislative session for the purposes of encouraging the passage, defeat, approval, or modification of legislation that is being considered, or was considered during the previous legislative session.
(D) To subsidize, incentivize, or otherwise support incineration, engineered municipal solid waste conversion, the production of energy or fuels, except for fuels produced using anaerobic digestion of source separated organic materials, or other disposal activities.
(3) (A) A PRO shall not maintain total program reserves exceeding 60 percent of its annual operating expenses, consistent with the requirements of the Financial Accounting Standards Board’s Accounting Standards Update 2016-14, Not-for-Profit Entities (Topic 958), and any future updates to that standard.
(B) The department, in approving the annual PRO budget, may authorize the total reserves to be increased to up to 75 percent of the PRO’s annual operating expenses if the department determines the increase is necessary to implement the requirements of this chapter.
(C) If a PRO’s reserves exceed the amount specified in subparagraph (A) or (B), the department may require the PRO or a participant producer to increase spending on implementing the requirements of this chapter.
(k) Consistent with subdivision (l), as part of the plan, the PRO or a participant producer may rely on a range of means to collect and recycle or compost various categories of covered materials that are not collected and recycled or composted through a curbside collection program, including, but not limited to, dropoff recycling services and retailer take-back.
(l) (1) A plan shall include curbside recycling and composting collection for covered materials under any of the following circumstances:
(A) The category of covered materials can be made suitable for curbside collection and can be effectively sorted by the facilities receiving the curbside collected material for recycling or composting.
(B) The recycling facility providing processing and sorting service, in consultation with the local jurisdiction, agrees to include the category of covered materials as an accepted material for recycling or composting and agrees to collect and sort the material in a manner that achieves the quality necessary for recycling and remanufacturing or composting.
(C) The provider of the curbside collection and recycling or composting service agrees to the costs arrangement.
(2) If a MRF chooses to send material to another sorting facility for additional sorting and recycling of covered materials, the PRO shall provide the initial MRF a rebate based on criteria the PRO shall develop to cover transportation costs of the covered materials provided the covered material is free of toxic or hazardous materials.
(m) The plan shall include specific measures to ensure that producers participating in the plan comply with the requirements of the plan and this chapter. Those measures shall include, at a minimum, all of the following elements:
(1) Adequate incentives for compliance, including, but not limited to, fees for failing to provide accurate and timely information required to be provided to the PRO or otherwise materially violating requirements of the plan or this chapter. Notwithstanding the PRO’s assessment of a fee, the department may take enforcement action pursuant to Article 5 (commencing with Section 42080) against individual producers or the PRO in violation of this chapter.
(2) Protocols to ensure that the PRO becomes aware, within a reasonable time, of producers’ violations of the requirements of the plan or this chapter.
(3) Criteria for determining when a producer’s performance merits terminating the producer’s participation in the PRO’s plan, and a process for making that determination.
(4) Record maintenance protocols requiring the PRO to maintain records sufficient to demonstrate whether each producer participating in the plan has complied with the requirements of the plan and this chapter for at least the previous three years. Those protocols shall ensure that all records remain reasonably accessible by the department upon request.
(5) The plan shall include the specific data information required under subdivision (c) of Section 42057.
(n) The PRO shall ensure that the plan implementation avoids or minimizes negative environmental or public health impacts on disadvantaged or low-income communities or rural areas and vulnerable communities outside the state.

SEC. 185.

 Section 42053 of the Public Resources Code is amended to read:

42053.
 (a) (1) As part of its producer responsibility plan pursuant to Section 42051.1, a PRO shall establish a fee for its participants sufficient to ensure the requirements of this chapter are met by the PRO and the plan is fully implemented. The fee shall be based on a fee schedule to be developed by the PRO pursuant to subdivision (c). Development of the fee schedule shall ensure that the PRO budget included in the plan is fully funded. The fee shall not be passed on to consumers as a separate item on a receipt or invoice.
(2) The PRO shall adjust any fee schedules at least every year or more frequently if needed in order to fully cover the expenses in the approved budget.
(3) A producer that is a participant of a PRO’s approved plan shall pay the fee required by this section and, upon request, provide the PRO with records or other information necessary for the PRO to meet the PRO’s requirements under this chapter.
(b) During the first two years of operation and during the preparation of the plan developed pursuant to Section 42051.1, the PRO shall determine the fee schedule for each producer based on estimated costs of implementing the plan, operating costs, the cost of completing the needs assessment, the costs to cover the environmental mitigation requirements of Section 42064, and the costs to reimburse the department. In the third year and each successive year of operation, each producer shall pay an annual fee as established in the PRO plan based on the factors described in subdivision (d).
(c) The fee schedule required pursuant to subdivision (a) shall include all of the following:
(1) Individual assessments imposed on a producer due to unique characteristics of their covered material, as described in subdivision (d).
(2) Any adjustments pursuant to subdivision (e).
(3) The California circular economy administrative fee.
(4) Reimbursing the department for costs to administer the advisory board.
(5) Any fees associated with environmental mitigation activities associated with Section 42064.
(6) The costs of the PRO, including, but not limited to, staff and the costs associated with the development and implementation of the producer responsibility plan.
(7) Any other costs described in subdivision (j) of Section 42051.1.
(d) A PRO shall structure the fee schedule required pursuant to subdivision (a), delineated by covered material category and based on the following factors:
(1) The costs to ensure each covered material category meets the requirements of this chapter. Covered material that is easier and less expensive to recycle or compost or that is designed to be recycled into a similar covered material or a material that is easier to be composted shall be subject to lower fees. The costs may include all of the following:
(A) Costs to develop and sustain viable responsible end markets for each covered material category.
(B) Costs to collect, sort, avoid or remove contamination, aggregate, and transport the covered material into defined streams to support the viable responsible end markets for the remanufacturing of the covered material either through curbside collection or other means.
(C) Costs incurred by local jurisdictions or recycling service providers to process and transport covered materials in a manner and quality sufficient for acceptance by viable responsible end markets. This includes costs incurred by local jurisdictions or recycling service providers to reduce or mitigate the rate of inbound contamination by noncertified compostable products at composting facilities. These costs may vary by local jurisdiction.
(D) Other costs necessary to implement the plan and achieve the source reduction, recyclability and compostability, recycling rate, and other requirements of this chapter, including, but not limited to, ensuring that plan implementation avoids and minimizes negative environmental or public health impacts on disadvantaged or low-income communities or rural areas.
(E) Costs incurred by local jurisdictions or recycling service providers for any waste stream sampling and reporting required by this chapter and for any costs incurred to educate ratepayers to improve the preparation and sorting, as needed, of covered material.
(2) If recycling or composting of the covered material is made more difficult by the incorporation of specific elements, including, but not limited to, inks, labels, and adhesives that may be detrimental to recycling or composting according to the Association of Plastic Recyclers design guide or other relevant industry association, or criteria established by the department, the fee for that covered material shall be sufficient to account for the increased cost to manage that covered material.
(3) The commodity value of the covered material based on an independent index or the reported commodity value of materials of equivalent quality of the covered material.
(4) Costs incurred by the PRO to assist producers to meet the source reduction requirements pursuant to Section 42057.
(e) The fee required pursuant to subdivision (a) shall be adjusted using malus fees or credits for participant producers, with those adjustments based on any of the following, as applicable:
(1) The percentage of postconsumer recycled content in the participant producer’s covered materials. The percentage of postconsumer recycled content shall be validated through an independent third party approved by the department to perform validation services to ensure that the percentage exceeds the minimum requirements for the covered material, as long as the recycled content does not disrupt the potential for future recycling.
(2) Source reduction related to right-sizing, optimization, and bulking of packaging, or concentrating the product packaged to reduce packaging.
(3) Standardization of packaging materials that simplifies the processing, marketing, sorting, and recycling or composting of covered materials.
(4) Presence of hazardous material as identified by the Office of Environmental Health Hazard Assessment, the Department of Toxic Substances Control, or the department.
(5) Actions taken by the producer, including clear and accurate disposal, recycling or composting, or reuse and refill labeling and instructions, that comply with Chapter 5.7 (commencing with Section 42355), including paragraph (6) of subdivision (d) of Section 42355.51, that improve consumer behavior related to sorting and proper disposal.
(6) Actions taken by the producer to accelerate source reduction and to invest in sustained and robust reuse and refill systems. The PRO may create a mechanism to allow producers to receive a credit for achieving source reduction beyond what producers of similar covered material are achieving. The revenue for that credit shall be paid for by charging producers not achieving source reduction for similar products a malus fee.
(7) Plastic covered materials derived from renewable materials shall be subject to a reduced fee relative to plastic covered material derived from a nonrenewable material.
(8) Certified compostable covered materials that do not contain toxic additives shall be subject to a reduced fee, as determined by the PRO.
(9) Covered material that contains toxic heavy metals, pathogens, or additives shall be subject to an increased fee.
(f) In addition to the annual schedule of fees approved in the plan, the PRO fee schedule may include a special assessment, charged to the participant producers of a particular covered material category, to be imposed on that particular category of covered material at the request of those producers if the nature of the covered material imposes unusual costs in collection or processing or requires special actions to address effective access to recycling, composting, or successful processing. The revenue from the special assessment shall be used to make system improvements for the specific covered materials or products on which the special assessment was applied.
(g) Fees paid to the PRO pursuant to subdivision (a) shall be used to implement the plan and fund the budget.

SEC. 186.

 Section 42057 of the Public Resources Code is amended to read:

42057.
 (a) (1) By January 1, 2032, a PRO acting on behalf of participants of the PRO’s approved plan shall develop and implement a plan to achieve the 25-percent reduction by weight and 25 percent by plastic component source reduction requirement for covered material sold, offered for sale, or distributed in the state. The PRO shall establish enforceable agreements with each of its approved plan participants to implement this section.
(2) Source reduction shall be achieved by a PRO in the following manner:
(A) At least 10 percent of the plastic covered material sold, offered for sale, or distributed in the state by its participant producers shall be source reduced through shifting a plastic covered material to refillable or reusable packaging or food service ware or through eliminating a plastic component.
(B) (i) The remaining source reduction of the plastic covered material sold, offered for sale, or distributed in the state by its participant producers not achieved pursuant to subparagraph (A) shall be source reduced through concentration, right-sizing, lightweighting, or shifting to bulk or large format packaging that allows consumers to refill home or commercial reusable containers, or shifting from a plastic covered material to a nonplastic covered material. No more than 8 percent of the plastic covered material sold, offered for sale, or distributed in the state by its participant producers shall be source reduced through an alternative compliance formula developed by the PRO, subject to approval by the department, that offers source reduction credit on a sliding scale based on the ratio of virgin plastic to postconsumer recycled content plastic to producers who incorporate postconsumer recycled content into plastic covered material. A producer shall only receive this alternative source reduction credit if the postconsumer recycled content is able to be validated and is validated by a third party, such as the Association of Plastic Recyclers, through its APR Postconsumer Resin Certification Program, or a similar third party approved by the department, and the content does not contain intentionally added perfluoroalkyl and polyfluoroalkyl substances.
(ii) The resulting source reduction of each action taken to optimize, eliminate, right-size, concentrate, shift to bulk or large format packaging, or switch to a nonplastic covered material shall be counted once for the purposes of meeting the source reduction requirements.
(C) By January 1, 2027, the PRO shall source reduce no less than 10 percent of plastic covered material sold, offered for sale, or distributed in the state by its participant producers, with no less than 2 percent of plastic covered material sold, offered for sale, or distributed in the state by its participant producers source reduced through shifting to reusable or refillable packaging and food service ware systems.
(D) By January 1, 2030, the PRO shall source reduce no less than 20 percent of plastic covered material sold, offered for sale, or distributed in the state by its participant producers, with no less than 4 percent of plastic covered material sold, offered for sale, or distributed in the state by its participant producers source reduced through shifting to reusable or refillable packaging and food service ware systems.
(b) By January 1, 2025, the department shall establish a baseline for the 25-percent reduction required in subdivision (a) based on the amount of plastic covered material, including the number of products packaged in covered material, that was sold, offered for sale, or distributed in the state in the 2023 calendar year.
(c) As part of any producer responsibility plan, plan update, or annual report submitted to the department, the PRO shall report the following data, disaggregated by each participant producer:
(1) The amount of plastic covered material and products sold in plastic covered material, including the number of plastic components and weight of plastic covered material, sold, offered for sale, or distributed in the state.
(2) The number of plastic components and the weight of plastic covered material shifted to a refillable or reusable packaging or food service ware.
(3) The number of plastic components and the weight of plastic covered material eliminated.
(4) The number of plastic components and the weight of plastic covered material shifted from a plastic covered material to a nonplastic covered material.
(5) The number of plastic components and the weight of plastic covered material reduced through concentration, right-sizing, and shifting to bulk or large format packaging that allows consumers to refill home or commercial reusable containers.
(6) The amount of postconsumer recycled content used compared to virgin plastic in covered material.
(d) Producers who are members of the PRO shall submit to the PRO individual source reduction plans that include both of the following:
(1) In the first individual producer source reduction plan, the producer shall include any amount of covered material, by number of plastic components and weight of covered material, the producer source reduced since January 1, 2013.
(2) The amount of plastic covered material, by number of plastic components and weight of plastic covered material, the producer plans to source reduce by January 1, 2027, January 1, 2030, and January 1, 2032. The producer shall describe how much will be source reduced in each of the following ways:
(A) The number of plastic components and the weight of plastic covered material shifted to a refillable or reusable package.
(B) The number of plastic components and the weight of plastic covered material eliminated.
(C) The number of plastic components and the weight of plastic covered material shifted from a plastic covered material to a nonplastic material.
(D) The number of plastic components and the weight of covered material source reduced through concentration, right-sizing, lightweighting, and shifting to bulk or large format packaging that allows consumers to refill home or commercial reusable containers.
(E) The amount of postconsumer recycled content used compared to virgin plastic in covered material.
(e) The PRO shall require producers that are participants of the PRO’s approved plan to submit to the PRO the data necessary for the PRO to report the information required pursuant to subdivisions (c) and (d).
(f) As part of the producer responsibility plan, the PRO shall include a source reduction plan designed to meet the requirements of this section. The source reduction plan shall be disaggregated based on the individual producer source reduction plans and shall meet both of the following requirements:
(1) In the source reduction plan, the PRO shall give producers credit for source reduction achieved from the 2013 calendar year to the 2022 calendar year, inclusive. This amount shall not count toward the requirements of subdivision (a). Allocation of this amount, and the requirement for the PRO source reduction plan to meet the requirements of subdivision (a), may require the PRO to require a producer to revise its individual producer source reduction plan.
(2) The PRO may identify material types in the source reduction plan that face significant recycling or end market challenges and would require significant investment to bring into compliance with this chapter by January 1, 2032. Switching an entire identified covered material category to a reusable, refillable, or nonplastic alternative shall be considered source reduction for the purpose of subdivision (a). The PRO may report this source reduction in an aggregated form.
(g) To ensure equity in the market, the PRO shall require a producer with a covered material new to the producer subsequent to the approval of the PRO to optimize packaging and not include unnecessary covered material. The PRO shall assess a malus fee on any producer with a new covered material that is not optimized, as determined by the PRO and approved by the department pursuant to subdivision (j) of Section 42051.1.
(h) To ensure source reductions achieved by January 1, 2032, are not lost after January 1, 2032, while still allowing for businesses to grow, the department shall, beginning in the 2030 calendar year and every five years thereafter, conduct an evaluation of the plastic covered material subject to this section to determine if actions to secure greater source reductions are necessary. If the number of plastic components or weight of plastic covered material has increased, the department shall make this determination. If the department determines that there has been an increase in the number of plastic components or the overall weight of plastic covered material, the department shall take the following actions to secure greater source reductions:
(1) Require the PRO to ensure participant producers increase the rate of source reduction through shifting a plastic covered material to reusable or refillable packaging or food service ware or through eliminating plastic components. In requiring these higher source reduction rates, the department shall consider all of the following:
(A) The feasibility of increased source reduction rates, as determined by evaluating consumer adoption and acceptance, potential impacts to food safety, and infrastructure availability.
(B) The use of postconsumer recycled content.
(C) The degree to which reuse and refill infrastructure investments were made to improve consumer convenience and adoption.
(D) Examples of reuse and refill systems and elimination requirements in other jurisdictions.
(E) Reductions achieved through the other tools implemented by the PRO, including fees and required optimization.
(F) The percentage of growth in the number of plastic components and the overall weight of covered material.
(2) Determine if new packaging types are optimized and, if not, develop optimization requirements through regulations.
(i) Producers of expanded polystyrene food service ware shall not sell, offer for sale, distribute, or import in or into the state expanded polystyrene food service ware unless the producer demonstrates to the department that all expanded polystyrene meets the following recycling rates:
(1) Not less than 25 percent on and after January 1, 2025.
(2) Not less than 30 percent on and after January 1, 2028.
(3) Not less than 50 percent on and after January 1, 2030.
(4) Not less than 65 percent on and after January 1, 2032, and annually thereafter.
(j) The department may adopt regulations to implement this section, including, but not limited to, reporting and collection requirements.

SEC. 187.

 Section 42060 of the Public Resources Code is amended to read:

42060.
 (a) By January 1, 2025, the department shall adopt regulations necessary to implement and enforce this chapter and to ensure that the requirements of this chapter and in particular the requirements established in Section 42050 and the policy goal established in Section 41780.01 as it relates to covered material are met. The regulations shall include, but not be limited to, all of the following:
(1) Any regulations necessary to ensure the PRO fully funds plan implementation, including fully funding the budget. This shall include the costs incurred by a local jurisdiction or a local jurisdiction’s recycling service providers to implement this chapter, including, but not limited to, the cost of consumer education and of collection, including the cost of containers where relevant, as well as the processing, storage, and transportation of covered materials. Costs may vary based on population density or other relevant factors and shall allow local jurisdictions to protect ratepayers from increased costs associated with the processing and marketing of covered material.
(2) (A) Establish a mandatory process for producers, retailers, and wholesalers, or a PRO operating on behalf of a producer, retailer, or wholesaler, to register with and report to the department.
(B) The process shall include establishing appropriate timelines to begin regular reporting following the adoption of the regulations. The department shall consider, along with any other factors the department deems appropriate, the amount of information being reported in developing the timelines.
(C) (i) Data requests by the department shall be consistent with the covered material categories established and posted on the department’s internet website pursuant to subdivision (a) of Section 42061.
(ii) To the maximum extent feasible, the department shall seek to use records and information that the local jurisdiction, producer, retailer, wholesaler, or PRO already maintains, in order to minimize the burden imposed by the reporting and recordkeeping requirements while still enabling the department to determine compliance with this chapter.
(D) The department shall, to the extent feasible, make the reporting consistent with other recognized third-party reporting systems used by producers or other packaging extended producer responsibility programs.
(E) Market-sensitive trade secret data received by the department pursuant to this chapter shall be held confidentially by the department as required by Section 40062 and any implementing regulations, provided that the furnisher of the data complies with the requirements set forth in subdivision (b) of Section 40062 and any implementing regulations for identifying the information claimed to be a trade secret.
(F) The department shall create an online registration form to facilitate submitting reports pursuant to this subdivision. To the extent permissible under applicable law, the department may contract with an independent third-party online reporting system with recognized standards for waste characterization, source reduction, and recycling.
(3) (A) The department shall establish a process to identify covered material that, while determined to be single use for purposes of this chapter, presents unique challenges in complying with this chapter. The department may exempt covered material identified pursuant to this subparagraph from this chapter.
(B) For any covered material identified as presenting unique challenges and exempted from this chapter under subparagraph (A), the department may at any point develop a plan to phase the covered material into the requirements of this chapter.
(4) The department shall establish a process to identify covered material that cannot comply with this chapter for health and safety reasons, or because it is unsafe to recycle. The department may exempt that covered material from this chapter.
(5) The department shall establish a process to exempt from the requirements of this chapter, except for the requirements of subdivision (b) of Section 42050, small producers, small retailers, and small wholesalers based on size, revenue, number of retail locations, and market share, as follows:
(A) Subject to subparagraph (B), the department shall exempt producers, retailers, or wholesalers that, in the most recent calendar year, had gross sales of less than one million dollars ($1,000,000) in the state.
(B) If the department determines that exempting a particular small producer, small retailer, or small wholesaler pursuant to subparagraph (A) would hinder the ability of a type of covered material or covered material category from complying with the requirements of this chapter, the department may determine that the particular small producer, small retailer, or small wholesaler will not be exempted from the requirements of this chapter.
(6) (A) The department shall include mechanisms necessary to reduce the amount of covered material entering the environment, in accordance with the regulations adopted pursuant to this section.
(B) The department may consider reductions of covered material achieved by a producer before the effective date of the regulations toward a producer’s compliance with this chapter if the producer can demonstrate to the satisfaction of the department that the producer reduced the covered material in a manner consistent with this chapter and actions taken to comply with Chapter 5.5 (commencing with Section 42300).
(C) In calculating the reductions necessary to achieve the requirements adopted pursuant to subdivision (a), the department shall consider source reduction achieved pursuant to Section 42057.
(7) The department shall establish a process to require coordination between a PRO and producer that is not a participant of the PRO’s approved plan and between multiple PROs as necessary. This includes determining how much each PRO shall charge producers of plastic covered material in order to prorate the funding as necessary to raise the revenue required by Section 42064.
(8) The department shall establish a methodology and process to calculate, to the extent feasible, an annual recycling rate defined in subdivision (ab) of Section 42041.
(b) (1) The department shall ensure that any regulations adopted pursuant to this chapter consider guidelines and do not conflict with regulations issued by the United States Food and Drug Administration and the United States Department of Agriculture and consider requirements imposed by other California state agencies.
(2) Neither the department nor the PRO shall impose any requirement, including, but not limited to, a recycled content requirement, in direct conflict with a federal law or regulation, including, but not limited to, laws or regulations covering tamper-evident packaging pursuant to Section 211.132 of Title 21 of the Code of Federal Regulations, laws or regulations covering child-resistant packaging pursuant to Part 1700 (commencing with Section 1700.1) of Subchapter E of Chapter II of Title 16 of the Code of Federal Regulations, regulations, rules, or guidelines issued by the United States Department of Agriculture or the United States Food and Drug Administration relevant to packaging agricultural commodities, requirements for microbial contamination, structural integrity, or safety of packaging under the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (21 U.S.C. Sec. 301 et seq.), 21 U.S.C. Sec. 2101 et seq., the federal FDA Food Safety Modernization Act (Public Law 111-353), the federal Poultry Products Inspection Act (21 U.S.C. Sec. 451 et seq.), the Federal Meat Inspection Act (21 U.S.C. Sec. 601 et seq.), or the federal Egg Products Inspection Act (21 U.S.C. Sec. 1031 et seq.). Neither the department nor a PRO shall impose a postconsumer recycled content requirement for covered material for fresh produce.
(c) In developing the regulations, the department shall consider relevant information on reduction programs and approaches in other states, localities, and nations, including, but not limited to, the European Union, India, Costa Rica, China, Chile, and Canada, and international standards, including, but not limited to, ISO 18602.
(d) In adopting regulations pursuant to this section, the department shall ensure the regulations, and activities conducted in accordance with the regulations, avoid or minimize disproportionate impacts to disadvantaged or low-income communities or rural areas.

SEC. 188.

 Section 42060.5 of the Public Resources Code is amended to read:

42060.5.
 (a) Except as provided in subdivisions (b), (c), (d), and (e), all local jurisdictions or recycling service providers shall include in their collection and recycling programs all covered material contained on the lists published pursuant to subdivisions (c) and (d) of Section 42061. This section does not authorize the department to require mandatory route collection service where it does not already exist. This section shall not limit a local jurisdiction from collecting additional materials for recycling or composting.
(b) The department shall grant an extension of, or exemption from, a requirement of subdivision (a) upon a written showing by the local jurisdiction or recycling service provider that compliance with the requirement is not practicable for a specific identified covered material because of specific local conditions, circumstances, or challenges. If the PRO objects to the extension or exemption, the PRO shall be responsible for arranging alternative means for the collection, processing, storage, and transportation of covered materials resulting from implementing this chapter. The department shall review a granted extension or exemption every two years, and may renew the extension or exemption after that review. An exemption or extension for a local jurisdiction or recycling service provider does not in any way relieve a producer or PRO from meeting the requirements of this chapter.
(c) A county board of supervisors of a rural county or a rural jurisdiction, as those terms are defined in Section 42649.8, may adopt a resolution to exempt the rural county or rural jurisdiction from the requirements of this section. If a rural jurisdiction is a regional agency composed of jurisdictions that are located entirely within one or more rural counties, the board of the regional agency may adopt a resolution, as prescribed in this subdivision, to exempt the rural jurisdiction from the requirements of this section. An exemption for a rural county or a rural jurisdiction does not in any way relieve a producer or PRO from meeting the requirements of this chapter.
(d) A local jurisdiction or recycling service provider shall not be required to collect material for recycling or composting on the lists published pursuant to subdivisions (c) and (d) of Section 42061 that does not meet the criteria described in subdivision (l) of Section 42051.1 and is collected and recycled or composted by means other than curbside collection in a producer responsibility plan.
(e) A local jurisdiction shall not be required to collect a material category that is subject to an ordinance passed by the local jurisdiction prohibiting the sale or distribution of that covered material in the local jurisdiction before the publication of the lists of recyclable or compostable material pursuant to subdivisions (c) and (d) of Section 42061.

SEC. 189.

 Section 42061 of the Public Resources Code is amended to read:

42061.
 The department shall do all of the following:
(a) (1) By July 1, 2024, the department shall establish and post on its internet website a list of covered material categories. The department may consider material types and forms referenced in waste characterization studies or material characterization studies for determining the categories.
(2) The department shall conduct and publish on its internet website a characterization study of covered material categories that are disposed of in California landfills. The department’s activities pursuant to this paragraph, including the department’s determination of the appropriate facilities to include in the study, are exempt from Chapter 3.5 (commencing with Section 11340) of Part 1 of Division 3 of Title 2 of the Government Code.
(3) (A) For the department’s first material characterization study conducted pursuant to paragraph (2), which the department shall complete on or before July 1, 2025, the department shall conduct disposal-based characterization studies to determine the approximate amount of covered material disposed of in California landfills.
(B) The department shall, on or before January 1, 2024, report to the Legislature in compliance with Section 9795 of the Government Code on the status of material types relative to the requirements in subparagraphs (A) and (B) of paragraph (2) of subdivision (d) of Section 42355.51. When updating information pursuant to clause (ii) of subparagraph (B) of paragraph (1) of subdivision (d) of Section 42355.51, the department may identify materials that are trending toward meeting the requirements in subparagraphs (A) and (B) of paragraph (2) of subdivision (d) of Section 42355.51 and measurable increase of statewide collection and sorting rates through either statewide recycling programs or alternative programs, such as take-back systems, and for which the continued increase in the collection, sorting, and viable responsible end market development the department determines will be disrupted by a loss of a recyclable designation. Those material types and forms shall be considered recyclable in the state and may be labeled as recyclable, notwithstanding subparagraphs (A) and (B) of paragraph (2) of subdivision (d) of Section 42355.51, so long as the material types and forms satisfy subparagraphs (A) to (D), inclusive, of paragraph (3) of subdivision (d) of Section 42355.51 and until the material types and forms are a part of, and in compliance with, a program described in paragraph (6) of subdivision (d) of Section 42355.51.
(4) The department shall update the material characterization study required pursuant to this subdivision in 2028, 2030, 2032, and at least every four years thereafter.
(5) Notwithstanding paragraphs (2) and (3), the department may publish additional information that was not available at the time of the most recent periodic material characterization study regarding the appropriate characterization of material types and forms.
(6) For purposes of studying a representative sample of material types and forms in the state, within 90 calendar days of a department request, a transfer, processing, or recycling facility shall allow for periodic sampling conducted by a designated representative of the department on a mutually agreed upon date and time. The department shall not require a periodic sampling of a transfer, processing, or recycling facility if that facility was sampled during the previous 24 months.
(7) For each material characterization study conducted pursuant to this subdivision, the department shall publish on its internet website the preliminary findings of the study and conduct a public meeting to present the preliminary findings and receive public comments. The public meeting shall occur at least 30 calendar days after the department publishes the preliminary findings. After receiving and considering public comments, and within 60 calendar days of the public meeting, the department shall finalize and publish on its internet website the findings of the study.
(b) (1) By January 1, 2026, the department shall calculate and publish on its internet website the current recycling rates being achieved in the state for each covered material category. These recycling rates shall be deemed to meet the description in subdivision (g) of Section 11340.9 of the Government Code and may be filed by the Office of Administrative Law, at the request of the department, pursuant to Section 11343.8 of the Government Code.
(2) In determining a recycling rate, the department may consider data gathered pursuant to any of the following, including any amendments thereto:
(A) Chapter 746 of the Statutes of 2015.
(B) Chapter 6 (commencing with Section 42370).
(C) Chapter 395 of the Statutes of 2016.
(D) Chapter 5.5 (commencing with Section 42300).
(E) Division 12.1 (commencing with Section 14500).
(F) Chapter 5.7. (commencing with Section 42355).
(G) Data voluntarily provided by local jurisdictions.
(H) Data and information received from producers.
(I) Any other relevant data and information received by the department.
(c) By January 1, 2024, the department shall publish on its internet website a list of covered material categories that are, based on available collection and processing infrastructure and recycling markets, deemed recyclable as of January 1, 2024. Covered material is deemed recyclable if it meets the requirements of Section 17989.2 of Title 14 of the California Code of Regulations, as that section existed on January 1, 2023, and Section 42355.51. The list shall include covered material categories identified by the department and considered recyclable pursuant to clause (v) of subparagraph (B) of paragraph (1) of subdivision (d) of Section 42355.51.
(d) By January 1, 2024, the department shall create and post on its internet website a list of covered material categories that are deemed compostable as of January 1, 2024. Covered material is deemed compostable if it meets the requirements to be labeled as compostable pursuant to Chapter 5.7 (commencing with Section 42355).
(e)  The department shall determine a process for updating the lists created pursuant to subdivisions (c) and (d) to either add covered material categories that are deemed to meet all of the criteria in either subdivision (c) or (d) or remove covered material categories if they can no longer be deemed recyclable or compostable pursuant to subdivision (c) or (d). As part of the process, the department shall update the list at least annually until January 1, 2032. After January 1, 2032, the department shall regularly, but no less than once every two years, evaluate the list to determine if it is still accurate and update it as needed. Covered material categories deemed to be recyclable or compostable as of January 1, 2032, and listed pursuant to subdivision (c) or (d) shall be deemed to be compliant with subdivision (b) of Section 42050 until and unless the department determines that the covered material category no longer meets the requirements of subdivision (c) or (d).
(f) (1) The department shall determine a process for updating the rates published pursuant to subdivision (b). The department shall update the list at least every two years and shall regularly, but no less than once every two years, evaluate the list of rates to determine whether the rates are still accurate. After evaluation, the department may amend the list to remove, add, or change rates. The department shall post any updates to the list on its internet website.
(2) A producer may demonstrate compliance with the rates in subdivision (c) of Section 42050 by submitting to the department evidence that the particular type of covered material meets the applicable recycling rate by reference to a recycling rate on the department’s list or through another mechanism approved by the department.
(3) A producer that seeks to have a rate included or changed on the list, or a covered material category added to the list, may be required by the department to submit data for purposes of the department’s determination of the rate to include on the list or the appropriateness of adding the category.
(4) Publication of and updates made to the list pursuant to this subdivision are exempt from Chapter 3.5 (commencing with Section 11340) of Part 1 of Division 3 of Title 2 of the Government Code.

SEC. 190.

 Section 42064.01 of the Public Resources Code is amended to read:

42064.01.
 (a) A person from whom the surcharge imposed pursuant to Section 42064 is determined to be due by that section may petition for a redetermination of whether this chapter applies to that person within 30 days after service upon them of a notice of the determination. If a petition for redetermination is not filed within the 30-day period, the amount determined to be due becomes final at the expiration of the 30-day period.
(b) A petition for redetermination of the application of this section or Section 42064 shall be in writing and be sent to the department or its designee. The petition shall state the specific grounds upon which the petition is founded and include supporting documentation. The petition may be amended to state additional grounds or provide additional documentation at any time prior to the date that the department issues its order or decision with regard to the petition for redetermination.
(c) If a petition for redetermination of the application of this section or Section 42064 is filed within the 30-day period, the department shall reconsider whether the surcharge is due and make a determination in writing. The department may eliminate the surcharge based on a determination that this section or Section 42064 does not apply to the person who filed the petition.
(d) The department shall provide to the California Department of Tax and Fee Administration notice and the result of each petition for redetermination or claim for refund, including the filing date, reporting periods, amount of fee involved, and details necessary for the California Department of Tax and Fee Administration to perform refund or collection duties.
(e) If a timely petition for redetermination has been filed pursuant to subdivision (a), all legal action to collect the surcharge imposed pursuant to Section 42064 shall be stayed pending the final determination of the department pursuant to subdivision (g).
(f) Notice of the determination of the department pursuant to subdivision (d) shall be served on the same date to the petitioner and the California Department of Tax and Fee Administration.
(g) The order or decision of the department upon a petition for redetermination of the surcharge shall become final 30 days after service upon the petitioner of notice of the determination.
(h) The surcharge imposed pursuant to Section 42064 determined to be due by the department pursuant to this section is due and payable at the time it becomes final, and if it is not paid when due and payable, the penalty imposed pursuant to Section 55086 of the Revenue and Taxation Code shall be applied.
(i) Written notice required by this section shall be served as follows:
(1) The notice shall be placed in a sealed envelope, with postage paid, addressed to the petitioner at the petitioner’s address as it appears in the records of the department. The giving of notice shall be deemed complete at the time of the deposit of the notice in a United States Post Office, or a mailbox, subpost office, substation, mail chute, or other facility regularly maintained or provided by the United States Postal Service without extension of time for any reason.
(2) In lieu of mailing, a notice may be served personally by delivering it to the person to be served and service shall be deemed complete at the time of delivery. Personal service to a corporation may be made by delivery of a notice to any person designated in the Code of Civil Procedure to be served for the corporation with summons and complaint in a civil action.
(j) A dispute regarding the surcharge imposed pursuant to Section 42064 shall be resolved pursuant to this section only.
(k) If the department determines that a person is entitled to a refund of all or part of the surcharge imposed pursuant to Section 42064, the person shall make a claim to the California Department of Tax and Fee Administration pursuant to Chapter 5 (commencing with Section 55221) of Part 30 of Division 2 of the Revenue and Taxation Code.

SEC. 191.

 Section 42081 of the Public Resources Code is amended to read:

42081.
 (a) (1) The department may issue a notice of violation to, and impose an administrative civil penalty not to exceed fifty thousand dollars ($50,000) per day per violation on, any entity not in compliance with this chapter or any of the regulations the department adopts to implement this chapter, unless the entity meets the criteria of paragraph (5) of subdivision (a) of Section 42060, in which case the civil penalty shall not exceed twenty-five thousand dollars ($25,000) per day per violation.
(2) A violation of Section 42050 by a producer or the PRO shall be determined based on the brand name, package or product line, package or product form, covered material category, and package or product size that the department deems is not in compliance.
(3) Penalties against a PRO or producer shall not begin accruing with respect to a violation until 30 calendar days following the notification of the violation.
(4) The department shall deposit all penalties collected pursuant to this section into the Circular Economy Penalty Account, which is hereby created in the State Treasury. Moneys in the Circular Economy Penalty Account shall be available upon appropriation by the Legislature for purposes that further this chapter.
(b) (1) Before determining whether to assess a penalty, the department may allow a producer or a PRO to develop and submit a corrective action plan to the department detailing how and when the producer or a PRO will come into compliance with this chapter. Corrective action plans may include, but are not limited to, actions such as shifting production to covered material categories that meet the recycling rates required pursuant to subdivision (c) of Section 42050, no longer offering the covered material for sale, reaching a minimum recycled content standard set by the department, or establishing a take-back system or deposit system for the covered material that would increase the recycling rate of the material. The department shall not assess a penalty and the producer shall not be listed as noncompliant pursuant to Section 42082 for material covered in a corrective action plan if the producer complies with the corrective action plan. A producer or PRO may request approval from the department to comply with a corrective action plan or elements of a corrective action plan in cooperation with other producers or PROs.
(2) (A) The duration of a corrective action plan shall not exceed 24 months. The department may extend a corrective action plan up to an additional 12 months if the department sets forth steps and a timeline for the producer or PRO to comply with the corrective action plan and if the producer or PRO made a substantial effort to comply but was reasonably prevented from doing so due to extenuating circumstances.
(B) For purposes of this paragraph, making a “substantial effort” means taking all practicable actions to comply with a corrective action plan. Substantial effort is not made in circumstances in which a producer or PRO has not taken reasonable steps to comply with a corrective action plan, including, but not limited to, providing staff resources and funding necessary for compliance.
(3) The department’s authority under this article to impose penalties and to consider a corrective action plan do not affect the department’s authority to withdraw its approval of a PRO plan pursuant to Section 42051.2 and the department may impose penalties and consider corrective action plans against the PRO or producers without revoking an approved plan.
(c) The department, in determining the penalty amount and whether to assess a penalty under this section, shall consider, at a minimum, all of the following:
(1) The nature, circumstances, extent, and gravity of the violation or a condition giving rise to the violation and the various remedies and penalties that are appropriate in the given circumstances, with primary emphasis on protecting the public health and safety and the environment.
(2) Whether the violation or conditions giving rise to the violation have been corrected in a timely fashion or whether reasonable progress is being made to correct the violation or conditions giving rise to the violation.
(3) Whether the violation or conditions giving rise to the violation demonstrate a pattern of noncompliance with this chapter or the regulations adopted pursuant to this chapter. If the violation is a first offense, and the nature and gravity of the violation is not considered egregious, the department shall consider assessing a penalty not to exceed twenty-five thousand dollars ($25,000) per day.
(4) Whether the violation or conditions giving rise to the violation were intentional.
(5) Whether the violation or conditions giving rise to the violation were voluntarily and promptly reported to the department before the commencement of an investigation or audit by the department.
(6) Whether the violation or conditions giving rise to the violation were due to circumstances beyond the reasonable control of the producer or PRO or were otherwise unavoidable under the circumstances, including, but not limited to, unforeseen changes in market conditions. This does not include circumstances in which curbside collection either was not available or not suitable for the collection and processing of the covered material and the PRO or producer failed to adequately invest in or develop other means to collect or process the covered material.
(7) The size and economic condition of the producer or PRO.
(8) The magnitude of the impact on the environment, human health, and disadvantaged or low-income communities or rural areas reasonably anticipated from the violation.

SEC. 192.

 Section 42420.1 of the Public Resources Code is amended to read:

42420.1.
 For purposes of this chapter, the following terms have the following meanings:
(a) “Brand” means a trademark, including both a registered trademark and an unregistered trademark, a logo, a name, a symbol, a word, an identifier, or a traceable mark that identifies a covered battery and identifies the owner or licensee of the brand.
(b) “Collection site” means a permanent or temporary location at which covered batteries are collected and prepared for transport in accordance with the requirements of this chapter.
(c) “Consumer” means an owner of a covered battery, including a person, business, corporation, limited partnership, nonprofit organization, or governmental entity, and includes the ultimate purchaser, owner, or lessee of a covered battery, who is not, as to that covered battery, the distributor, importer, producer, recycler, retailer, or stewardship organization.
(d) (1) “Covered battery” means a device consisting of one or more electrically connected electrochemical cells designed to receive, store, and deliver electric energy. A covered battery includes a battery that is any of the following:
(A) A loose battery that is either sold separately from a product or that is designed to be easily removed from a product by the user of the product, with no more than common household tools.
(B) A battery that is packed with, but not installed in, the product that the battery is intended to power, when the product is offered for sale by the producer.
(2) “Covered battery” does not include any of the following:
(A) A primary battery weighing over two kilograms. For purposes of this subparagraph, “primary battery” means a nonrechargeable battery, including, but not limited to, alkaline, carbon-zinc, and lithium metal batteries.
(B) A rechargeable battery weighing over five kilograms and having a Watt-hour rating of more than 300 Watt-hours.
(C) A lead-acid battery, as defined in subdivisions (a) and (b) of Section 42440.
(D) (i) A battery contained in a motor vehicle. For purposes of this subparagraph, “motor vehicle” has the same meaning as set forth in Section 415 of the Vehicle Code.
(ii) Notwithstanding any other law, the exclusion in clause (i) does not apply to a battery contained in any of the following:
(I) A motorized scooter.
(II) A motorized skateboard.
(III) A motorized hoverboard.
(IV) A device intended to propel or move upon a highway only one individual person or property.
(E) A fuel cell electrical generating facility. For purposes of this subparagraph, “fuel cell electrical generating facility” has the same meaning as “eligible fuel cell electrical generating facility,” as defined in Section 2827.10 of the Public Utilities Code.
(F) (i) A Class I device as defined in Section 360c of Title 21 of the United States Code, and either of the following applies:
(I) It is a device described in Section 414.202 of Title 42 of the Code of Federal Regulations.
(II) Either of the following applies:
(ia) The device is predominantly used in a health care setting by a provider.
(ib) The device is predominantly prescribed by a health care provider.
(ii) A Class II or Class III device as defined in Section 360c of Title 21 of the United States Code.
(G) A battery that has been recalled.
(e) “Department” means the Department of Resources Recycling and Recovery or a successor agency.
(f) “Distributor” means a company that has a contractual relationship with one or more producers to market and sell covered batteries to retailers.
(g) “Electrochemical cell” means a system consisting of an anode, a cathode, and an electrolyte, plus electrical or mechanical connections needed to allow the cell to deliver or receive electric energy.
(h) “Importer” means either of the following:
(1) A person qualifying as an importer of record for purposes of Section 1484(a)(2)(B) of Title 19 of the United States Code with regard to the import of a covered battery that is sold, distributed for sale, or offered for sale in or into the state that was manufactured or assembled by a company outside of the United States.
(2) A person importing into the state for sale, distributing for sale, or offering for sale in the state a covered battery that was manufactured or assembled by a company physically located outside of the state.
(i) “Person” has the same meaning as set forth in Section 40170.
(j) (1) “Producer” means a person who manufactures a covered battery and who owns or is the licensee of the brand or trademark under which that covered battery is sold, offered for sale, or distributed for sale in or into the state.
(2) If there is no person in the state who is the producer for purposes of paragraph (1), the producer of the covered battery is the owner of a brand or trademark or, if the owner is not in the state, the exclusive licensee of a brand or trademark under which the covered battery is sold, imported for sale, offered for sale, or distributed for sale in or into the state. For purposes of this subdivision, an exclusive licensee is a person holding the exclusive right to use a trademark or brand in the state in connection with the manufacture, sale, or distribution for sale in or into the state of the covered battery.
(3) If there is no person in the state who is the producer for purposes of paragraph (1) or (2), the producer of the covered battery is the person who sells, offers for sale, or is the importer or distributor of the covered battery in or into the state for sale in or into the state.
(4) For purposes of this chapter, the sale of a covered battery shall be deemed to occur in the state if the covered battery is delivered to the purchaser in the state.
(5) “Producer” does not include an admitted insurer possessing a certificate of authority from the Insurance Commissioner pursuant to Section 700 of the Insurance Code, nor does it apply to a placement of insurance that was made in full compliance with Section 1765.1 or 1765.2 of the Insurance Code.
(k) “Program operator” means a producer, or a stewardship organization on behalf of a group of producers, that is responsible for implementing a stewardship program in accordance with the requirements of this chapter.
(l) (1) “Rechargeable battery” means a battery that contains one or more voltaic or galvanic cells, electrically connected to produce electric energy, and that is designed to be recharged.
(2) “Rechargeable battery” does not include either of the following:
(A) A battery that contains electrolytes as a free liquid.
(B) A battery that employs lead-acid technology, unless that battery is sealed and contains no free liquid electrolytes.
(m) “Recycler” means a person who changes the physical or chemical composition of covered batteries.
(n) “Recycling” has the same meaning as set forth in subdivision (a) of Section 25121.1 of the Health and Safety Code. “Recycling” does not include any of the following:
(1) Combustion.
(2) Incineration.
(3) Energy generation.
(4) Fuel production.
(5) Beneficial reuse in the construction and operation of a solid waste landfill, including use of alternative daily cover.
(6) Other forms of disposal, as defined in subdivision (b) of Section 40192.
(o) “Recycling efficiency rate” means the ratio of the weight of covered battery components recycled by a program operator from covered batteries to the weight of those covered batteries collected by the program operator.
(p) “Retailer” means a person who sells or offers for sale covered batteries in or into the state to a person through any means, including, but not limited to, sales outlets, catalogs, the telephone, the internet, or any electronic means.
(q) “Stewardship organization” means an organization exempt from taxation under Section 501(c)(3) of the federal Internal Revenue Code of 1986 (26 U.S.C. Sec. 501(c)(3)) that is established by a group of producers in accordance with this chapter to develop and implement a stewardship program.
(r) “Stewardship plan” or “plan” means a plan developed by a program operator pursuant to this chapter for the collection, transportation, and recycling, and the safe and proper management, of covered batteries.
(s) “Stewardship program” means a program established by a program operator pursuant to this chapter for the free at drop off, convenient, and safe collection, transportation, recycling, and otherwise proper management of covered batteries.

SEC. 193.

 Section 42420.3 of the Public Resources Code is amended to read:

42420.3.
 (a) The department may adjust, through regulations adopted by the department, the minimum required collection sites, pursuant to subdivision (d) of Section 42422.1, to ensure that consumers have sufficient convenient access to collection sites, applicable to stewardship plans addressing collection of covered batteries if the department has substantial evidence that allowing for this adjustment will increase the collection of covered batteries.
(b) The department shall establish, through regulations adopted by the department pursuant to Section 42420.2, a limit on the number of covered batteries to be deposited at a single collection site, pursuant to subdivision (d) of Section 42422.1, as applicable, by a single consumer in a single day.
(c) Beginning January 1, 2032, and every five years thereafter, the department may after consultation with the program operators and through regulations adopted by the department adjust the minimum recycling efficiency rates established in Section 42422.1 based on the most economically and technically feasible processes and methodology available.

SEC. 194.

 Section 42422.1 of the Public Resources Code is amended to read:

42422.1.
 A stewardship plan for covered batteries shall include all of the following:
(a) The names of producers, as defined in subdivision (j) of Section 42420.1, and brands of covered batteries covered under the stewardship plan.
(b) A description of the process by which the program operator consulted with the advisory body created pursuant to Section 42422.4 to receive advice on the development and implementation of the stewardship plan.
(c) A description of methodologies for measuring, and meeting or exceeding, the established minimum recycling efficiency rate for primary and rechargeable batteries to meet the annual report requirement in subdivision (i) of Section 42424.1.
(d) A description of how the program operator will provide for a free at drop off and convenient collection system for covered batteries in each county of the state that meets all of the following requirements:
(1) A minimum of 10 collection sites per county or one collection site per 15,000 people, whichever is greater, except as identified below:
(A) A county with a population of 18,000 and under, as reported annually by the Department of Finance, shall have a minimum of three collection locations.
(B) A county with a population of between 18,001 and 50,000, as reported annually by the Department of Finance, shall have a minimum of four collection locations.
(C) A county with a population between 50,001 and 100,000, as reported annually by the Department of Finance, shall have a minimum of eight collection locations.
(2) The collection sites required by this subdivision shall not be required to collect covered batteries that are damaged, defective, or recalled.
(3) The collection sites in each county shall be spread throughout the county to facilitate widespread access and convenience. This paragraph does not authorize the department to require more than the minimum number of collection sites required pursuant to paragraph (1) or the regulations adopted by the department pursuant to Section 42420.2.
(e) A description of how collection sites will be authorized and managed, including both of the following:
(1) An explanation of the process by which the program operator will, upon request, provide to a household hazardous waste collection facility as defined in Section 25218.1 of the Health and Safety Code, at no cost, and to all other collection sites, at cost, packaging consistent with the requirements found in the United States Department of Transportation’s hazardous materials regulations and the necessary forms and instructions for the safe collection and transportation of damaged or defective covered batteries.
(2) An explanation of the process by which the program operator will provide for the collection and transport of covered batteries from the collection sites to a recycler and how shipments will be documented. A program operator shall maintain these records and make them available to the department upon request.
(f) A program operator shall allow a consumer to drop off at a collection site, at no charge at drop off, covered batteries.
(g) A description of how the program operator will provide collection sites at no cost to the collection sites with appropriate containers for covered batteries subject to its program, training, signage, safety guidance, and educational materials.
(h) All handling, collection, transport, and recycling of covered batteries undertaken as part of a stewardship program under this chapter shall comply with all applicable state and federal laws and regulations, but the department may not take enforcement action under this chapter against a program operator for failure to comply with those state and federal laws and regulations unless the program operator is first determined to have violated the applicable state or federal law or regulation by the governing body with jurisdiction to enforce the state or federal law or regulation.
(i) A retailer with five or more locations in the state shall make all locations serve as permanent collection sites for covered batteries, and shall comply with the rules and conditions of the program in which it participates, as part of a stewardship program.
(j) No program operator shall be required, as a condition of approval of its plan or program or otherwise, to accept damaged, defective, or recalled batteries at sites served by the program operator. Program operators shall provide to sites participating in their programs, information for persons seeking to recycle damaged or defective batteries informing those persons of the requirements for doing so and of the closest location at which damaged or defective batteries may be accepted. Program operators shall provide to sites participating in their programs information for persons seeking to recycle recalled batteries informing those persons of instructions to contact any entity recalling batteries to determine the appropriate handling of those batteries.
(k) (1) A description of the method to establish and administer a means for fully funding the stewardship program in a manner that equitably distributes the stewardship program’s costs among the producers that are part of the stewardship organization. For producers that elect to meet the requirements of this chapter individually, without joining a stewardship organization, a description of the proposed method to establish and administer a means for fully funding the stewardship program.
(2) The stewardship plan shall include a stewardship program budget, for the next three calendar years, that includes a funding level and anticipated revenues and costs sufficient to cover the budgeted costs, including, but not limited to, administrative costs, operational costs, and capital costs, to operate the stewardship program in a prudent and responsible manner. Administrative costs shall include the department’s and the Department of Toxic Substances Control’s anticipated actual, reasonable, and direct regulatory costs to implement and enforce this chapter as the criteria for all the costs are defined in the regulations adopted pursuant to Section 42420.2. For purposes of this paragraph, stewardship program implementation begins once the department approves a program operator’s stewardship plan, except the department’s and the Department of Toxic Substances Control’s costs shall include actual, reasonable, and direct regulatory development costs and other startup regulatory costs incurred prior to stewardship plan submittal and approval.
(l) A description of the process by which covered batteries will be processed and recycled following collection at collection sites, including all of the following:
(1) A description of how covered batteries will be handled and recycled, including how covered batteries will not be disposed of by the program operator and a description of how the recycling of all covered batteries will be maximized.
(2) A description of how discarded covered battery residual materials will, to the extent economically and technically feasible, be recycled and a description of how contracts with service providers will require that this be done and how the contractor will accomplish this.
(3) A description of how the program operator will prioritize the use of recycling facilities located closer to the point of generation to minimize transportation emissions and increase accountability.
(m) Coordination with, and a description of the efforts and methods used to coordinate activities with, all of the following entities who are responsive to a request from the program operator:
(1) Other program operators.
(2) Existing battery collection and recycling programs, including electronic waste recyclers and dismantlers.
(3) Community-based organizations that contact the program operator and that are qualified to run or support collection events.
(n) Consultation with the California Environmental Protection Agency’s Environmental Justice Task Force regarding methods to supplement those of the program operator to collect covered batteries for recycling in areas and communities that face unique challenges associated with proper waste management, such as poverty, language barriers, and illegal disposal.
(o) A comprehensive statewide education and outreach program designed to educate consumers and promote participation in the collection and recycling program offered by the program operator. At a minimum, the comprehensive statewide education and outreach program shall include all of the following:
(1) A description of the education and communications strategy being implemented to effectively promote participation in the approved covered battery stewardship program and provide the information necessary for effective participation of consumers, retailers, and others.
(2) An internet website that publicizes the location of collection sites and provides information to consumers on the free at drop off and convenient network of collection sites offered by the stewardship program and any other information reasonably necessary to safely and conveniently access the collection and recycling services offered in the state.
(3) All signage and materials required for collection sites by the program operator, and the method by which collection sites can access replacement materials at no cost to the collection site.
(4) A description of efforts to support participation by all California communities, including a description of efforts to communicate with consumers in languages other than English, as described in subdivision (n).
(5) A description of goals and metrics used to determine the success of the statewide education and outreach program.
(6) The statewide education and outreach program shall promote the safe and proper management of covered batteries.
(7) The statewide education and outreach program shall not promote the disposal of covered batteries in a manner inconsistent with the services offered by the stewardship plan.
(8) The statewide education and outreach plan shall include information for consumers about how to avoid improper disposal of covered batteries.
(9) A description of how the program operators will annually assess and evaluate the efficacy of the comprehensive statewide education and outreach program and periodically adjust strategies to maximize participation in the stewardship program.
(10) (A) Any program operator serving more than one producer shall coordinate with other program operators on the education and outreach programs that they implement pursuant to this subdivision.
(B) The department may approve multiple program operators sharing, on an equitable basis, the costs of implementing elements of the program that benefit all approved plans serving more than one producer and the program operators sponsoring them, except those costs specified in paragraphs (2) and (9).
(p) Developing strategies in coordination with other program operators to develop and implement proper labeling of covered batteries to ensure proper collection and recycling, by identifying the chemistry of the covered battery and including an indication that the covered battery should not be disposed of as household waste.
(q) A contingency plan in the event the stewardship plan expires, is disapproved, or is revoked. The contingency plan shall describe how the stewardship plan objectives can be carried out in the absence of a plan, either by the program operator or through an entity such as an escrow company.

SEC. 195.

 Section 42422.5 of the Public Resources Code is amended to read:

42422.5.
 (a) (1) At least 150 days before submitting a stewardship plan to the department, a program operator shall submit its entire proposed stewardship plan to the Department of Toxic Substances Control for review.
(2) The Department of Toxic Substances Control shall review the plan only for compliance with state and federal laws and regulations within its jurisdiction. The Department of Toxic Substances Control shall identify any elements of the proposed stewardship plan that would, if implemented, violate state or federal laws or regulations within its jurisdiction, and provide to the program operator, and the department, that determination and an explanation for any determination of noncompliance within 90 days of receipt of the plan. The program operator shall resolve all determinations by the Department of Toxic Substances Control prior to submitting the stewardship plan to the department.
(3) If, 90 days after submitting a plan to the Department of Toxic Substances Control, a program operator has not received a response, the program operator may submit a certification to the department that the stewardship plan was submitted to the Department of Toxic Substances Control, as required, and a timely response was not received. Additionally, if a response is not received pursuant to the first sentence of this paragraph, the program operator shall submit a certification to the department that the stewardship plan is consistent with the laws and regulations within the jurisdiction of the Department of Toxic Substances Control.
(4) A program operator shall submit to the department all determinations received from the Department of Toxic Substances Control when the program operator submits its stewardship plan to the department. Any determination of noncompliance by the Department of Toxic Substances Control shall be accompanied by a superseding determination of compliance before a program operator submits its stewardship plan to the department.
(b) The department shall review the stewardship plan for compliance with this chapter and shall approve, disapprove, or conditionally approve the plan within 120 days of receipt of the plan. The department may consult with or submit a stewardship plan for review to the Department of Toxic Substances Control if the department determines it is necessary for making a determination of approval of a stewardship plan. The duration of time the department takes for the consultation pursuant to the second sentence of this subdivision shall not count toward the 120-day time limit to determine approval, as specified in the first sentence of this subdivision.
(c) If the department disapproves a stewardship plan submitted by a program operator, the department shall explain how the stewardship plan does not comply with this chapter and provide written notice to the program operator within 30 days of disapproval. The program operator may resubmit to the department a revised stewardship plan within 60 days of the date the written notice was issued, and the department shall review the revised stewardship plan within 90 days of resubmittal. If a revised stewardship plan is disapproved by the department, a producer operating under the stewardship plan shall not be in compliance with this chapter until the department approves a stewardship plan submitted by a program operator that covers the producer’s products.
(d) Within 24 months of the effective date of the regulations adopted by the department pursuant to Section 42420.2, a program operator shall have a complete stewardship plan approved by the department and each producer shall be subject to an approved stewardship plan in order to be in compliance with this chapter.
(e) The approved plan shall be a public record, except that financial, production, or sales data reported to the department by the program operator is not a public record for purposes of the California Public Records Act (Division 10 (commencing with Section 7920.000) of Title 1 of the Government Code) and shall not be open to public inspection. The department may release financial, production, or sales data in summary form only so the information cannot be attributable to a specific producer or distributor or to any other entity.

SEC. 196.

 Section 42425.1 of the Public Resources Code is amended to read:

42425.1.
 (a) The department may impose an administrative civil penalty on a producer, program operator, stewardship organization, manufacturer, distributor, retailer, importer, recycler, or collection site that is in violation of this chapter. The amount of the administrative civil penalty shall not exceed ten thousand dollars ($10,000) per day, but, if the violation is intentional, knowing, or reckless, the department may impose an administrative civil penalty of not more than fifty thousand dollars ($50,000) per day. The department shall establish, through regulations adopted by the department pursuant to Section 42420.2, a process that shall include an informal hearing process by which the penalties will be assessed.
(b) The department shall deposit all penalties collected pursuant to this section into the Covered Battery Recycling Penalty Account, which is hereby created in the Covered Battery Recycling Fund. These moneys shall be available for expenditure upon appropriation by the Legislature.
(c) This chapter does not limit or restrict the Department of Toxic Substances Control’s enforcement authority pursuant to Chapter 6.5 (commencing with Section 25100) of Division 20 of the Health and Safety Code and its implementing regulations.
(d) The Administrative Adjudication Bill of Rights, as set forth in Article 6 (commencing with Section 11425.10) of Chapter 4.5 of Part 1 of Division 3 of Title 2 of the Government Code, applies to hearings conducted under this chapter and mandates minimum due process.

SEC. 197.

 Section 42463 of the Public Resources Code is amended to read:

42463.
 For purposes of this chapter, the following terms have the following meanings, unless the context clearly requires otherwise:
(a) “Account” means the Electronic Waste Recovery and Recycling Account created in the Integrated Waste Management Fund pursuant to Section 42476.
(b) “Authorized collector” means any of the following:
(1) A city, county, or district that collects covered electronic devices.
(2) A person or entity that is required or authorized by a city, county, or district to collect covered electronic devices pursuant to the terms of a contract, license, permit, or other written authorization.
(3) A nonprofit organization that collects or accepts covered electronic devices.
(4) A manufacturer or agent of the manufacturer that collects, consolidates, and transports covered electronic devices for recycling from consumers, businesses, institutions, and other generators.
(5) An entity that collects, handles, consolidates, and transports covered electronic devices and has filed applicable notifications with DTSC pursuant to Chapter 23 (commencing with Section 66273.1) of Division 4.5 of Title 22 of the California Code of Regulations.
(c) “CalRecycle” means the Department of Resources Recycling and Recovery.”
(d) “CDTFA” means the California Department of Tax and Fee Administration.
(e) “Consumer” means a person who purchases a new or refurbished covered electronic device in a transaction that is a retail sale or in a transaction to which a use tax applies pursuant to Part 1 (commencing with Section 6001) of Division 2 of the Revenue and Taxation Code.
(f) (1) “Covered battery-embedded product” means a product containing a battery from which the battery is not designed to be easily removed from the product by the user of the product with no more than commonly used household tools.
(2) “Covered battery-embedded product” does not include any of the following:
(A) A medical device, as defined in Section 321(h) of Title 21 of the United States Code, if either of the following applies:
(i) It is a Class I device as defined in Section 360c of Title 21 of the United States Code, and either of the following applies:
(I) It is a device described in Section 414.202 of Title 42 of the Code of Federal Regulations.
(II) Either of the following applies:
(ia) The device is predominantly used in a health care setting by a provider.
(ib) The device is predominantly prescribed by a health care provider.
(ii) It is a Class II or Class III device as defined in 360c of Title 21 of the United States Code.
(B) A covered electronic device, as defined in subparagraph (A) of paragraph (1) of subdivision (g).
(C) An energy storage system, as defined in subdivision (a) of Section 2835 of the Public Utilities Code.
(D) An electronic nicotine delivery system, as defined in Section 375(7) of Title 15 of the United States Code.
(3) CalRecycle may consult with other state agencies to determine if a product meets the definition of a covered battery-embedded product.
(4) “Covered battery-embedded waste recycling fee” means the fee imposed for covered electronic devices, as defined in subparagraph (B) of paragraph (1) of subdivision (g), pursuant to Article 3 (commencing with Section 42464).
(g) (1) “Covered electronic device” means either of the following:
(A) Except as provided in paragraph (2), a video display device containing a screen greater than four inches, measured diagonally, that is identified in the regulations adopted by DTSC pursuant to subdivision (c) of Section 25214.10.1 of the Health and Safety Code.
(B) Any covered battery-embedded product, as defined in subdivision (f).
(2) “Covered electronic device,” as defined in subparagraph (A) of paragraph (1), does not include any of the following:
(A) A video display device that is a part of a motor vehicle, as defined in Section 415 of the Vehicle Code, or any component part of a motor vehicle assembled by, or for, a vehicle manufacturer or franchised dealer, including replacement parts for use in a motor vehicle.
(B) A video display device that is contained within, or a part of a piece of industrial, commercial, or medical equipment, including monitoring or control equipment.
(C) A video display device that is contained within a clothes washer, clothes dryer, refrigerator, refrigerator and freezer, microwave oven, conventional oven or range, dishwasher, room air-conditioner, dehumidifier, or air purifier.
(D) An electronic device, on and after the date that it ceases to be a covered electronic device pursuant to subdivision (f) of Section 25214.10.1 of the Health and Safety Code.
(h) “Covered electronic waste” or “covered e-waste” means a covered electronic device that is discarded.
(i) “Covered electronic waste recycling fee” or “covered e-waste recycling fee” means the fee imposed for covered electronic devices, as defined in subparagraph (A) of paragraph (1) of subdivision (g), pursuant to Article 3 (commencing with Section 42464).
(j) “Covered electronic waste recycler” or “covered e-waste recycler” means any of the following:
(1) A person who engages in the manual or mechanical separation of covered electronic devices to recover components and commodities contained therein for the purpose of reuse or recycling.
(2) A person who changes the physical or chemical composition of a covered electronic device, in accordance with the requirements of Chapter 6.5 (commencing with Section 25100) of Division 20 of the Health and Safety Code and the regulations adopted pursuant to that chapter, by deconstructing, size reduction, crushing, cutting, sawing, compacting, shredding, or refining for purposes of segregating components, for purposes of recovering or recycling those components, and who arranges for the transport of those components to an end user.
(3) A manufacturer who meets any conditions established by this chapter and Chapter 6.5 (commencing with Section 25100) of Division 20 of the Health and Safety Code for the collection or recycling of covered electronic waste.
(k) “Director” means the Director of Resources Recycling and Recovery.
(l) “Discarded” has the same meaning as set forth in subdivision (b) of Section 25124 of the Health and Safety Code.
(m) “DTSC” means the Department of Toxic Substances Control.
(n) “Electronic waste recovery payment” means an amount established and paid by CalRecycle pursuant to Section 42477.
(o) “Electronic waste recycling payment” means an amount established and paid by CalRecycle pursuant to Section 42478.
(p) “Hazardous material” has the same meaning as set forth in Section 25501 of the Health and Safety Code.
(q) (1) (A) “Manufacturer” means a person who manufactures a covered electronic device and who owns or is the exclusive licensee of the brand or trademark under which the covered electronic device is sold, offered for sale, or distributed in the state.
(B) If there is no person in the state who is the manufacturer for purposes of subparagraph (A), the manufacturer of the covered electronic device is the owner or licensee of a brand or trademark under which a covered electronic device is sold, offered for sale, or distributed in the state.
(C) If there is no person in the state who is the manufacturer for purposes of subparagraph (A) or (B), the manufacturer of the covered electronic device is the person who sells, offers for sale, or distributes the covered electronic device into the state for sale, offer for sale, or distribution in the state.
(2) For purposes of this chapter, the sale of a covered electronic device shall be deemed to occur in the state if the covered electronic device is delivered to the purchaser in the state.
(r) “Person” means an individual, trust firm, joint stock company, business concern, and corporation, including, but not limited to, a government corporation, partnership, limited liability company, and association. Notwithstanding Section 40170, “person” also includes a city, county, city and county, district, commission, the state or a department, agency, or political subdivision thereof, an interstate body, and the United States and its agencies and instrumentalities to the extent permitted by law.
(s) “Recycling” has the same meaning as set forth in subdivision (a) of Section 25121.1 of the Health and Safety Code.
(t) “Refurbished,” when used to describe a covered electronic device, means a device that the manufacturer has tested and returned to a condition that meets factory specifications for the device, has repackaged, and has labeled as refurbished.
(u) “Retailer” means a person who makes a retail sale of a new or refurbished covered electronic device. “Retailer” includes a manufacturer of a covered electronic device who sells that covered electronic device directly to a consumer through any means, including, but not limited to, a transaction conducted through a sales outlet, catalog, or the Internet, or any other similar electronic means.
(v) (1) “Retail sale” has the same meaning as set forth in Section 6007 of the Revenue and Taxation Code.
(2) “Retail sale” does not include the sale of a covered electronic device that is temporarily stored or used in the state for the sole purpose of preparing the covered electronic device for use thereafter solely outside the state, and that is subsequently transported outside the state and thereafter used solely outside the state.
(w) “Vendor” means a person that makes a sale of a covered electronic device for the purpose of resale to a retailer who is the lessor of the covered electronic device to a consumer under a lease that is a continuing sale and purchase pursuant to Part 1 (commencing with Section 6001) of Division 2 of the Revenue and Taxation Code.
(x) “Video display device” means an electronic device with an output surface that displays, or is capable of displaying, moving graphical images or a visual representation of image sequences or pictures, showing a number of quickly changing images on a screen in fast succession to create the illusion of motion, including, if applicable, a device that is an integral part of the display, in that it cannot be easily removed from the display by the consumer, that produces the moving image on the screen. A video display device may use, but is not limited to, a cathode ray tube (CRT), liquid crystal display (LCD), gas plasma, digital light processing, or other image projection technology.

SEC. 198.

 Section 42465 of the Public Resources Code is amended to read:

42465.
 On and after the date specified in subdivision (a) of, and paragraph (1) of subdivision (b) of, Section 42464, a person shall not sell a new or refurbished covered electronic device to a consumer in this state if CalRecycle or DTSC determines that the manufacturer of that covered electronic device is not in compliance with this chapter or as provided otherwise by Section 25214.10.1 of the Health and Safety Code.

SEC. 199.

 Section 42476 of the Public Resources Code is amended to read:

42476.
 (a) The Electronic Waste Recovery and Recycling Account is hereby established in the Integrated Waste Management Fund. The Covered Electronic Waste Recycling Fee Subaccount and the Covered Battery-Embedded Waste Recycling Fee Subaccount are hereby created in the Electronic Waste Recovery and Recycling Account. All covered electronic waste recycling fees collected from sales of covered electronic devices, as defined in subparagraph (A) of paragraph (1) of subdivision (g) of Section 42463, shall be deposited into the Covered Electronic Waste Recycling Fee Subaccount. All covered battery-embedded waste recycling fees collected from sales of covered electronic devices, as defined in subparagraph (B) of paragraph (1) of subdivision (g) of Section 42463, shall be deposited into the Covered Battery-Embedded Waste Recycling Fee Subaccount.
(1) Notwithstanding Section 13340 of the Government Code, the funds in the Covered Electronic Waste Recycling Fee Subaccount are hereby continuously appropriated, without regard to fiscal year, for the following purposes:
(A) To pay refunds of the covered electronic waste recycling fee imposed under Section 42464.
(B) To make electronic waste recovery payments to an authorized collector of covered electronic waste, resulting from discarded covered electronic devices, as defined in subparagraph (A) of paragraph (1) of subdivision (g) of Section 42463, pursuant to Section 42479.
(C) To make electronic waste recycling payments to covered electronic waste recyclers, for recycling covered electronic waste resulting from discarded covered electronic devices, as defined in subparagraph (A) of paragraph (1) of subdivision (g) of Section 42463, pursuant to Section 42479.
(D) To make payments to manufacturers for covered electronic waste, resulting from discarded covered electronic devices, as defined in subparagraph (A) of paragraph (1) of subdivision (g) of Section 42463, pursuant to subdivision (h).
(2) Notwithstanding Section 13340 of the Government Code, the funds in the Covered Battery-Embedded Waste Recycling Fee Subaccount are hereby continuously appropriated, without regard to fiscal year, for the following purposes:
(A) To pay refunds of the covered battery-embedded waste recycling fee imposed under Section 42464.
(B) To make electronic waste recovery payments to an authorized collector of covered electronic waste resulting from discarded covered electronic devices, as defined in subparagraph (B) of paragraph (1) of subdivision (g) of Section 42463, pursuant to Section 42479.
(C) To make electronic waste recycling payments to covered electronic waste recyclers for recycling covered electronic waste resulting from discarded covered electronic devices, as defined in subparagraph (B) of paragraph (1) of subdivision (g) of Section 42463, pursuant to Section 42479.
(D) To make payments to manufacturers for covered electronic waste resulting from discarded covered electronic devices, as defined in subparagraph (B) of paragraph (1) of subdivision (g) of Section 42463, pursuant to subdivision (h).
(b) (1) The money in the Covered Electronic Waste Recycling Fee Subaccount may be expended for the following purposes only upon appropriation by the Legislature in the annual Budget Act:
(A) For the administration of this chapter by CalRecycle and DTSC, as related to covered electronic devices, as defined in subparagraph (A) of paragraph (1) of subdivision (g) of Section 42463, and covered electronic waste resulting from discarded covered electronic devices, as defined in subparagraph (A) of paragraph (1) of subdivision (g) of Section 42463.
(B) To reimburse CDTFA for its administrative costs of registering, collecting, making refunds, and auditing retailers and consumers in connection with the covered electronic waste recycling fee imposed under Section 42464.
(C) To provide funding to DTSC to implement and enforce Chapter 6.5 (commencing with Section 25100) of Division 20 of the Health and Safety Code, as related to covered electronic devices, as defined in subparagraph (A) of paragraph (1) of subdivision (g) of Section 42463, as and as related to covered electronic waste, resulting from discarded covered electronic devices, defined in subparagraph (A) of paragraph (1) of subdivision (g) of Section 42463, including any regulations adopted by DTSC pursuant to that chapter, as that chapter relates to covered electronic devices, as defined in subparagraph (A) of paragraph (1) of subdivision (g) of Section 42463, and as related to covered electronic waste, resulting from discarded covered electronic devices, defined in subparagraph (A) of paragraph (1) of subdivision (g) of Section 42463.
(D) To establish the public information program specified in subdivision (d), as it relates to covered electronic devices, as defined in subparagraph (A) of paragraph (1) of subdivision (g) of Section 42463, and as related to covered electronic waste, resulting from discarded covered electronic devices, defined in subparagraph (A) of paragraph (1) of subdivision (g) of Section 42463.
(E) For expenditure pursuant to paragraph (2) of subdivision (a) of, and paragraph (2) of subdivision (b) of, Section 17001.
(2) The money in the Covered Battery-Embedded Waste Recycling Fee Subaccount may be expended solely for the following purposes only upon appropriation by the Legislature in the annual Budget Act:
(A) For the administration of this chapter by CalRecycle and DTSC, as related to covered electronic devices, as defined in subparagraph (B) of paragraph (1) of subdivision (g) of Section 42463 and covered electronic waste resulting from discarded covered electronic devices, as defined in subparagraph (B) of paragraph (1) of subdivision (g) of Section 42463.
(B) To reimburse CDTFA for its administrative costs of registering, collecting, making refunds, and auditing retailers and consumers in connection with the covered battery-embedded waste recycling fee imposed under Section 42464.
(C) To provide funding to DTSC to implement and enforce Chapter 6.5 (commencing with Section 25100) of Division 20 of the Health and Safety Code, as it relates to covered electronic devices, as defined in subparagraph (B) of paragraph (1) of subdivision (g) of Section 42463, and as it relates to covered electronic waste resulting from discarded covered electronic devices, defined in subparagraph (B) of paragraph (1) of subdivision (g) of Section 42463, including any regulations adopted by DTSC pursuant to that chapter, as that chapter relates to covered electronic devices, as defined in subparagraph (B) of paragraph (1) of subdivision (g) of Section 42463 and covered electronic waste resulting from discarded covered electronic devices, as defined in subparagraph (B) of paragraph (1) of subdivision (g) of Section 42463.
(D) To establish the public information program specified in subdivision (d), as it relates to covered electronic devices, as defined in subparagraph (B) of paragraph (1) of subdivision (g) of Section 42463, and as it relates to covered electronic waste resulting from covered electronic devices, as defined in subparagraph (B) of paragraph (1) of subdivision (g) of Section 42463.
(3) Any fines or penalties collected pursuant to this chapter shall be deposited in the Electronic Waste Penalty Subaccount, which is hereby established in the account. The funds in the Electronic Waste Penalty Subaccount may be expended by CalRecycle or DTSC only upon appropriation by the Legislature.
(c) Notwithstanding Section 16475 of the Government Code, any interest earned upon funds in the Electronic Waste Recovery and Recycling Account shall be deposited in that account for expenditure pursuant to this chapter.
(d) Not more than 2 percent of the funds annually deposited in the Covered Electronic Waste Recovery Recycling Fee Subaccount and not more than 2 percent of the funds annually deposited in the Covered Battery-Embedded Waste Recycling Fee Subaccount shall be expended for purposes of establishing the public information program to educate the public in the hazards of improper covered electronic device storage and disposal and on the opportunities to recycle covered electronic devices.
(e) CalRecycle shall adopt regulations specifying cancellation methods for the recovery, processing, or recycling of covered electronic waste.
(f) CalRecycle may pay an electronic waste recycling payment or electronic waste recovery payment only for covered electronic waste that meets all of the following conditions:
(1) (A) The covered electronic waste is demonstrated to have been generated by a person who used the covered electronic device while located in this state.
(B) Covered electronic waste generated outside of the state and subsequently brought into the state is not eligible for payment.
(C) CalRecycle shall establish documentation requirements for purposes of this paragraph that are necessary to demonstrate that the covered electronic waste was generated in the state and eligible for payment.
(2) The covered electronic waste, including any residuals from the processing of the waste, is handled in compliance with all applicable statutes and regulations.
(3) The manufacturer or the authorized collector or recycler of the electronic waste provides a cost-free and convenient opportunity to recycle electronic waste, in accordance with the legislative intent specified in subdivision (b) of Section 42461.
(4) If the covered electronic waste is processed, the covered electronic waste is processed in this state according to the cancellation method authorized by CalRecycle.
(g) The Legislature hereby declares that the state is a market participant in the business of the recycling of covered electronic waste for all of the following reasons:
(1) The covered electronic waste recycling fee or the covered battery-embedded waste recycling fee, as applicable, are collected from the state’s consumers for covered electronic devices sold for use in the state.
(2) The purpose of the covered electronic waste recycling fee and the covered battery-embedded waste recycling fee and subsequent payments is to prevent damage to the public health and the environment from waste generated in the state.
(3) The recycling system funded by the covered electronic waste recycling fee and the covered battery-embedded waste recycling fee ensures that economically viable and sustainable markets are developed and supported for recovered materials and components in order to conserve resources and maximize business and employment opportunities within the state.
(h) (1) CalRecycle may make a payment to a manufacturer that takes back a covered electronic device from a consumer in this state for purposes of recycling the device at a processing facility. The amount of the payment made by CalRecycle shall equal the value of the covered electronic waste recycling fee or the covered battery-embedded waste recycling fee, as applicable, paid for that device. To qualify for a payment pursuant to this subdivision, the manufacturer shall demonstrate both of the following to CalRecycle:
(A) The covered electronic device for which payment is claimed was used in this state.
(B) The covered electronic waste for which a payment is claimed, including any residuals from the processing of the waste, has been, and will be, handled in compliance with all applicable statutes and regulations.
(2) A covered electronic device for which a payment is made under this subdivision is not eligible for an electronic waste recovery payment or an electronic waste recycling payment under Section 42479.

SEC. 200.

 Section 42479 of the Public Resources Code is amended to read:

42479.
 (a) (1) For covered electronic waste, resulting from discarded covered electronic devices, as defined in subparagraph (A) of paragraph (1) of subdivision (g) of Section 42463, collected for recycling on and after January 1, 2005, and for covered electronic waste, resulting from discarded covered electronic devices, as defined in subparagraph (B) of paragraph (1) of subdivision (g) of Section 42463, collected for recycling on or after January 1, 2026, CalRecycle shall make electronic waste recovery payments and electronic waste recycling payments for the collection and recycling of covered e-waste to an authorized collector or covered e-waste recycler, respectively, upon completion of the review by CalRecycle of a payment claim submitted to CalRecycle by the authorized collector or e-waste recycler in the form and manner determined by CalRecycle. CalRecycle may examine a payment claim for a period of not more than 90 days from the date of receipt of the payment claim to validate the claim’s completeness, accuracy, truthfulness, and compliance with applicable laws and regulations. All of the following shall be considered official records for purposes of Section 1280 of the Evidence Code:
(A) The results of a payment claim review or subsequent payment claim audit.
(B) Written information compiled by CalRecycle during a claim review or subsequent claim audit.
(2) To the extent authorized by Section 42477, a covered e-waste recycler shall make the electronic waste recovery payments to an authorized collector upon receipt of a completed and verified invoice submitted to the recycler by the authorized collector in the form and manner determined by CalRecycle.
(b) A covered e-waste recycler is eligible for a payment pursuant to this section only if the covered e-waste recycler meets all of the following requirements:
(1) The covered e-waste recycler is in compliance with applicable requirements of Article 7 (commencing with Section 66273.70) of Chapter 23 of Division 4.5 of Title 22 of the California Code of Regulations.
(2) The covered e-waste recycler demonstrates to CalRecycle that a facility utilized by the covered e-waste recycler for the handling, processing, refurbishment, or recycling of covered electronic devices meets all of the following standards:
(A) The facility has been inspected by DTSC within the past 12 months and had been found to be operating in conformance with all applicable laws, regulations, and ordinances.
(B) The facility is accessible during normal business hours for unannounced inspections by state or local agencies.
(C) The facility has health and safety, employee training, and environmental compliance plans and certifies compliance with the plans.
(D) The facility meets or exceeds the standards specified in Chapter 1 (commencing with Section 1171) of Part 4 of Division 2 of, Division 4 (commencing with Section 3200) of, and Division 5 (commencing with Section 6300) of, the Labor Code or, if all or part of the work is to be performed in another state, the equivalent requirements of that state.
(c) CalRecycle may conduct a selective audit of authorized collectors, covered e-waste recyclers, or manufacturers receiving payments from CalRecycle to determine whether electronic waste recovery payments, electronic waste recycling payments, or payments to manufacturers are being paid by CalRecycle according to the requirements of this chapter and the regulations adopted pursuant to this chapter. CalRecycle collect and recover from authorized collectors, covered e-waste recyclers, or manufacturers, with interest, any moneys improperly paid.

SEC. 201.

 Section 5900 of the Public Utilities Code is amended to read:

5900.
 (a)  The holder of a state franchise shall comply with Sections 53055, 53055.1, 53055.2, and 53088.2 of the Government Code, and any other customer service standards pertaining to the provision of video service established by federal law or regulation or adopted by subsequent enactment of the Legislature. All customer service and consumer protection standards under this section shall be interpreted and applied to accommodate newer or different technologies while meeting or exceeding the goals of the standards.
(b) The holder of a state franchise shall comply with Section 637.5 of the Penal Code and the privacy standards contained in Section 551 and following of Title 47 of the United States Code.
(c) The local entity shall enforce all of the customer service and protection standards of this section with respect to complaints received from residents within the local entity’s jurisdiction, but it may not adopt or seek to enforce any additional or different customer service or other performance standards under Section 53055.3 or subdivision (q), (r), or (s) of Section 53088.2 of the Government Code, or any other law.
(d) The local entity shall, by ordinance or resolution, provide a schedule of penalties for any material breach by a holder of a state franchise of this section. A monetary penalty shall not be assessed for a material breach if it is out of the reasonable control of the holder. Further, a monetary penalty shall not be imposed before January 1, 2007. Any schedule of monetary penalties adopted pursuant to this section shall not exceed five hundred dollars ($500) for each day of each material breach, not to exceed one thousand five hundred dollars ($1,500) for each occurrence of a material breach. However, if a material breach of this section has occurred, and the local entity has provided notice and a fine or penalty has been assessed, and if a subsequent material breach of the same nature occurs within 12 months, the penalties may be increased by the local entity to a maximum of one thousand dollars ($1,000) for each day of each material breach, not to exceed three thousand dollars ($3,000) for each occurrence of the material breach. If a third or further material breach of the same nature occurs within those same 12 months, and the local entity has provided notice and a fine or penalty has been assessed, the penalties may be increased to a maximum of two thousand five hundred dollars ($2,500) for each day of each material breach, not to exceed seven thousand five hundred dollars ($7,500) for each occurrence of the material breach. With respect to video providers subject to a franchise or license, any monetary penalties assessed under this section shall be reduced dollar-for-dollar to the extent any liquidated damage or penalty provision of a current cable television ordinance, franchise contract, or license agreement imposes a monetary obligation upon a video provider for the same customer service failures, and no other monetary damages may be assessed.
(e) The local entity shall give the video service provider written notice of any alleged material breach of the customer service standards of this division and allow the video provider at least 30 days from receipt of the notice to remedy the specified material breach.
(f) A material breach for purposes of assessing penalties shall be deemed to have occurred for each day within the jurisdiction of each local entity, following the expiration of the period specified in subdivision (e), that any material breach has not been remedied by the video service provider, irrespective of the number of customers or subscribers affected.
(g) Any penalty assessed pursuant to this section shall be remitted to the local entity, which shall submit one-half of the penalty to the Digital Divide Account established in Section 280.5.
(h) Any interested person may seek judicial review of a decision of the local entity in a court of appropriate jurisdiction. For this purpose, a court of law shall conduct a de novo review of any issues presented.
(i) This section shall not preclude a party affected by this section from using any judicial remedy available to that party without regard to this section. Actions taken by a local legislative body, including a local franchising entity, pursuant to this section shall not be binding on a court of law. For this purpose, a court of law shall conduct de novo review of any issues presented.
(j) For purposes of this section, “material breach” means any substantial and repeated failure of a video service provider to comply with service quality and other standards specified in subdivision (a).
(k) The Public Advocate’s Office of the Public Utilities Commission may advocate on behalf of video subscribers regarding renewal of a state-issued franchise and enforcement of this section, and Sections 5890 and 5950. For this purpose, the office shall have access to any information in the possession of the commission subject to all restrictions on disclosure of that information that are applicable to the commission.

SEC. 202.

 Section 125222 of the Public Utilities Code is amended to read:

125222.
 (a) The Legislature finds and declares that a compelling interest exists in ensuring all federal, state, local, and private moneys available to the district are captured and used in a timely manner.
(b) In order to maximize the use of federal, state, local, and private funds, and to maintain a competitive posture in seeking supplemental federal funds, the board may establish and use a flexible contracting process, consistent with this division, to maximize its efficient use of public funds.
(c) For the acquisition or lease of materials, supplies, or equipment, except in cases where an item of a specified brand or trade name is the only item that will properly meet the needs of the district or in an emergency declared by the vote of two-thirds of all the members of the board, all contracts shall be awarded as follows:
(1) A contract with an expected cost that equals or exceeds one hundred fifty thousand dollars ($150,000), as authorized by the board, shall be made or entered into with the lowest responsible bidder that meets the specifications. For purposes of determining the lowest bid, the amount of sales tax shall be excluded from the total amount of the bid.
(2)  A contract with an expected cost that does not equal or exceed one hundred fifty thousand dollars ($150,000) shall be made or entered into using a district-approved competitive procurement process. When the expected cost of a contract equals or exceeds five thousand dollars ($5,000) and does not equal or exceed one hundred fifty thousand dollars ($150,000), the district shall seek a minimum of three quotations, either written or oral, to permit comparison of prices and other terms.
(d) For the acquisition of services that are not within a category of services described in Section 4525 of the Government Code, except in cases of an emergency declared by a vote of two-thirds of the membership of the board, all contracts shall be awarded as follows:
(1) A contract with an expected cost that equals or exceeds one hundred fifty thousand dollars ($150,000) shall be made and entered into by soliciting bids in writing and awarding the contract using a district-approved competitive procurement process, including, but not limited to, a negotiated procurement that may or may not evaluate price as a consideration.
(2) A contract with an expected cost that does not equal or exceed one hundred fifty thousand dollars ($150,000) shall be made or entered into using a district-approved competitive procurement process. When the expected cost of a service contract equals or exceeds five thousand dollars ($5,000) and does not equal or exceed one hundred fifty thousand dollars ($150,000), the district shall seek a minimum of three quotations, either written or oral, to permit comparison of prices and other terms.
(e) The board shall award contracts for architectural, landscape architectural, engineering, environmental, and land surveying services, and construction project management services, as those services are described in Section 4525 of the Government Code, in accordance with Chapter 10 (commencing with Section 4525) of Division 5 of Title 1 of the Government Code.
(f) Notwithstanding this chapter, the board may use any approved competitive procurement process authorized for state or local agencies under state or federal law, including, but not limited to, a competitive negotiation process in accordance with Article 7.5 (commencing with Section 20216) of Chapter 1 of Part 3 of Division 2 of the Public Contract Code. The board shall maintain acquisition and contracting guidelines and comply with those guidelines in the procurement of all goods and services.
(g) Provisions that are in a federally funded contract concerning disadvantaged business enterprises and that are in accordance with the request for proposals shall not be subject to negotiation with the successful bidder.

SEC. 203.

 Section 214.15.1 of the Revenue and Taxation Code is amended to read:

214.15.1.
 (a) Subject to subdivision (b), property shall be fully exempt from property taxation and is within the exemption provided by Sections 4 and 5 of Article XIII of the California Constitution if that property is owned and operated by a nonprofit corporation, otherwise qualifying for exemption under Section 214, that is organized and operated for the specific and primary purpose of building and rehabilitating single or multifamily residential units, if the property is subject to a 45-year recorded agreement with the appropriate local agency, and if the agreement requires all of the following:
(1) Requires some or all of the property’s units to be owner occupied and sold only to and purchased only by first-time homebuyers that are low-income families.
(2) Requires the initial downpayment on the units described in paragraph (1) to be 5 percent or less of the market value of the unit at the time of purchase.
(3) Requires the units described in paragraph (1) to be made available at an affordable housing cost to buyers.
(b) (1) The property for which the exemption under this section is sought may be related to a larger, mixed-income development project where a portion of the units may be available to persons or families that are not low-income families. However, only the portion of the property proposed to be built or rehabilitated with units that meet the requirements under subdivision (a) shall receive the exemption. Following completion of construction, only the portion of the property with units that meet the requirements under subdivision (a) shall receive the exemption.
(2) On each lien date, the assessor shall adjust the exemption allowed under this section by a proration factor that reflects the portion of the property proposed to be built or rehabilitated with units that meet the requirements of subdivision (a) as a percentage of the total development. Following completion of construction, the adjustment shall reflect the portion of the property with units that meet the requirements of subdivision (a) as a percentage of the total development.
(3) The assessor shall assess as escaped property, pursuant to Section 532, any property for which a welfare exemption was granted pursuant to this section if either of the following occurs:
(A) Construction is abandoned.
(B) Upon completion of construction, the property does not meet the requirements in subdivision (a). For properties described in this subparagraph, the assessor shall assess as escaped property that portion of the property that was proposed to be, but was not, built or rehabilitated with units that meet the requirements of subdivision (a).
(c) (1) In the case of property not previously designated as open space, the exemption specified by subdivision (a) shall not be denied to a property on the basis that the property does not currently include a single or multifamily residential unit as described in that subdivision, or a single or multifamily residential unit as so described that is in the course of construction.
(2) With regard to paragraph (1), the Legislature finds and declares all of the following:
(A) The exempt activities of a nonprofit corporation as described in subdivision (a) qualitatively differ from the exempt activities of other nonprofit entities that provide housing in that the exempt purpose of a nonprofit corporation as described in subdivision (a) is not to own and operate a housing project on an ongoing basis, but is instead to make housing, and the land reasonably necessary for the use of that housing, available for prompt sale to low-income residents.
(B) In light of this distinction, the holding of real property by a nonprofit corporation as described in subdivision (a), for the future construction on that property of a single or multifamily residence as described in that same subdivision, is central to that corporation’s exempt purposes and activities.
(C) In light of the factors set forth in subparagraphs (A) and (B), the holding of real property by a nonprofit corporation described in subdivision (a), for the future construction on that property of a single or multifamily residence as described in that same subdivision, constitutes the exclusive use of that property for a charitable purpose within the meaning of subdivision (b) of Section 4 of Article XIII of the California Constitution.
(d) For purposes of this section, all of the following definitions apply:
(1) “Abandoned” has the same meaning as that term is used in Section 214.2.
(2) “Affordable housing cost” means a cost, with respect to low-income families, that does not exceed 30 percent of gross income.
(3) “First-time homebuyer” means a person who does not currently have any ownership interest in any principal residence and has not had any ownership interest in any principal residence in the three-year period prior to the date that the mortgage is executed for a unit purchased by the person described in paragraph (1) of subdivision (a) of this section. For purposes of this paragraph, “principal residence” means any property used as the person’s principal place of residence.
(4) “Low-income families” means very low income households, as defined in Section 50105, extremely low income households, as defined in Section 50106, lower income households, as defined in Section 50079.5, and persons and families of low income, as defined in Section 50093, and includes persons and families of extremely low income and persons and families of very low income, as those terms are used in Section 50093 of the Health and Safety Code, as those sections read on January 1, 2022.
(e) The nonprofit corporation that utilizes the exemption in this section shall be subject to an annual independent audit to ensure that the buyers of the units meet the requirements of this section. The nonprofit corporation shall make the audit available upon request to the city, county, and county assessor where the unit is located and to the Department of Housing and Community Development in order to continue to qualify for the exemption pursuant to this section.
(f) (1) A nonprofit corporation making a claim for an exemption pursuant to this section shall not be eligible for the exemption under this section unless an officer of the nonprofit corporation signs under penalty of perjury an affidavit affirming to the county assessor that the property owned and operated by the nonprofit corporation is for the future construction of single or multifamily residential units on that property, as required by this section.
(2) (A) Notwithstanding any other law, the nonprofit corporation shall be liable for property tax for the years for which the property was exempt from taxation pursuant to this section if the property was not developed or rehabilitated, or if the development or rehabilitation is not in the course of construction, in accordance with subdivision (a) as follows:
(i) In the case of property acquired by the nonprofit corporation before January 1, 2023, by January 1, 2028.
(ii) In the case of property acquired by the nonprofit corporation on and after January 1, 2023, and before January 1, 2028, within five years of the lien date following the acquisition of the property by the nonprofit corporation.
(B) The nonprofit corporation shall notify the assessor of the county in which the property is located if property owned by the nonprofit corporation granted an exemption pursuant to this section is not in the course of construction by the dates specified in subparagraph (A).
(g) (1) This section shall be operative for lien dates occurring on or after January 1, 2023, and before January 1, 2028.
(2) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2034, and as of that date is repealed.

SEC. 204.

 Section 327 of the Revenue and Taxation Code is amended to read:

327.
 Where any county or county officer possesses a complete, accurate map of any land in the county, or whenever such a complete, accurate map has been made in compliance with Sections 27556 to 27560, inclusive, of the Government Code, the assessor may number or letter the parcels in a manner approved by the board of supervisors. The assessor may renumber or reletter the parcels or prepare new map pages for any portion of such map to show combinations or divisions of parcels in a manner approved by the board of supervisors, so long as an inspection of such map will readily disclose precisely what land is covered by any particular parcel number or letter in the current or any prior fiscal year. This map or copy shall at all times be publicly displayed in the office of the assessor.
Land may be described by a reference to this map except that land shall not be described in any deed or conveyance by a reference to any such map unless such map has been filed for record in the office of the county recorder of the county in which such land is located.
All such maps in the possession of county assessors on August 27, 1937, and used for assessment purposes only, are deemed to have been numbered or lettered and approved properly.

SEC. 205.

 Section 6377 of the Revenue and Taxation Code is amended to read:

6377.
 (a) There are exempted from the taxes imposed by this part the gross receipts from the sale in this state of, and the storage, use, or other consumption in this state of, any zero-emission technology transit bus sold to a city, county, city and county, transportation or transit district, or other public agency that provides transit services to the public that is eligible for the California Hybrid and Zero-Emission Truck and Bus Voucher Incentive Project funded by the Air Quality Improvement Program, the General Fund, and the Greenhouse Gas Reduction Fund under the State Air Resources Board.
(b) For purposes of this section, all of the following definitions shall apply:
(1) “Articulated bus” means a 54-foot to 60-foot bus with two connected passenger compartments.
(2) “Bus” means a rubber-tire vehicle designed to transport passengers by road with a gross vehicle weight rating greater than 14,000 pounds.
(3) “Cutaway bus” means a vehicle in which a bus body designed to transport passengers is mounted on the chassis of a van or light- or medium-duty truck chassis, and that has a gross vehicle weight rating greater than 14,000 pounds, but not more than 26,000 pounds. A cutaway bus includes an original van or light- or medium-duty truck chassis that has been reinforced or extended. Accommodating some standing passengers does not disqualify a cutaway bus from being considered a transit bus for the purposes of this section.
(4) “Double-decker bus” means a high-capacity bus that has two levels of seating, one over the other, connected by one or more stairways, of a height that is at least 13 feet, and carries between 40 to 80 people.
(5) “Over-the-road bus” means a bus characterized by an elevated passenger deck located over a baggage compartment used for long-distance bus services or connecting outlying areas with central cities with limited stops.
(6) “Shuttle bus” means a commercial vehicle with a gross vehicle weight rating of 8,501 pounds or greater, sized Class 2b through Class 8, that transports passengers in a fixed destination route.
(7) “Transit bus” means an articulated bus, bus, cutaway bus, double-decker bus, over-the-road bus, shuttle bus, or trolley bus.
(8) “Trolley bus” means a rubber-tired, electrically powered passenger vehicle operated on city streets drawing power from overhead wires using trolley poles.
(c) (1) Notwithstanding any provision of the Bradley-Burns Uniform Local Sales and Use Tax Law (Part 1.5 (commencing with Section 7200)) or the Transactions and Use Tax Law (Part 1.6 (commencing with Section 7251)), the exemption established by subdivision (a) does not apply with respect to any tax levied by a county, city, or district pursuant to, or in accordance with, either of those laws.
(2) Notwithstanding subdivision (a), the exemption established by this section shall not apply with respect to any tax levied pursuant to Section 6051.2 or 6201.2, pursuant to Section 35 of Article XIII of the California Constitution, or any tax levied pursuant to Section 6051 or 6201 that is deposited in the State Treasury to the credit of the Local Revenue Fund 2011 pursuant to Section 6051.15 or 6201.15.
(d) This section shall become inoperative on January 1, 2026, and as of that date is repealed.

SEC. 206.

 Section 10783.2 of the Revenue and Taxation Code, as added by Section 6 of Chapter 382 of the Statutes of 2022, is amended to read:

10783.2.
 (a) The license fee imposed by this part does not apply to a passenger vehicle, a motorcycle, or a commercial vehicle of less than 8,001 pounds unladen weight, unless the vehicle is used for transportation for hire, compensation, or profit, if the vehicle is owned by any of the following:
(1) The surviving spouse of a former American prisoner of war who has elected under subdivision (c) of Section 5101.5 of the Vehicle Code to retain the special license plates.
(2) The surviving spouse of a Congressional Medal of Honor recipient who has elected under subdivision (d) of Section 5101.6 of the Vehicle Code to retain the special license plates.
(3) The surviving spouse of a Purple Heart recipient who has elected to retain the special license plates issued under Section 5101.8 of the Vehicle Code.
(b) The exemption granted by subdivision (a) does not extend to more than one vehicle owned by the surviving spouse, and is applicable to the same vehicle as described in subdivision (b) of Section 9105 of the Vehicle Code.
(c) This section shall become operative on January 1, 2027.

SEC. 207.

 Section 12206 of the Revenue and Taxation Code is amended to read:

12206.
 (a) (1) There shall be allowed as a credit against the “tax,” described by Section 12201, a state low-income housing tax credit in an amount equal to the amount determined in subdivision (c), computed in accordance with Section 42 of the Internal Revenue Code, relating to low-income housing credit, except as otherwise provided in this section.
(2) “Taxpayer,” for purposes of this section, means the sole owner in the case of a “C” corporation, the partners in the case of a partnership, and the shareholders in the case of an “S” corporation.
(3) “Housing sponsor,” for purposes of this section, means the sole owner in the case of a “C” corporation, the partnership in the case of a partnership, and the “S” corporation in the case of an “S” corporation.
(b) (1) The amount of the credit allocated to any housing sponsor shall be authorized by the California Tax Credit Allocation Committee, or any successor thereof, based on a project’s need for the credit for economic feasibility in accordance with the requirements of this section.
(A) Except for projects to provide farmworker housing, as defined in subdivision (h) of Section 50199.7 of the Health and Safety Code, that are allocated credits solely under the set-aside described in subdivision (c) of Section 50199.20 of the Health and Safety Code, the low-income housing project shall be located in California and shall meet either of the following requirements:
(i) The project’s housing sponsor has been allocated by the California Tax Credit Allocation Committee a credit for federal income tax purposes under Section 42 of the Internal Revenue Code, relating to low-income housing credit.
(ii) It qualifies for a credit under Section 42(h)(4)(B) of the Internal Revenue Code, relating to special rule where 50 percent or more of building is financed with tax-exempt bonds subject to volume cap.
(B) The California Tax Credit Allocation Committee shall not require fees for the credit under this section in addition to those fees required for applications for the tax credit pursuant to Section 42 of the Internal Revenue Code, relating to low-income housing credit. The committee may require a fee if the application for the credit under this section is submitted in a calendar year after the year the application is submitted for the federal tax credit.
(C) (i) For a project that receives a preliminary reservation of the state low-income housing tax credit, allowed pursuant to subdivision (a), on or after January 1, 2009, the credit shall be allocated to the partners of a partnership owning the project in accordance with the partnership agreement, regardless of how the federal low-income housing tax credit with respect to the project is allocated to the partners, or whether the allocation of the credit under the terms of the agreement has substantial economic effect, within the meaning of Section 704(b) of the Internal Revenue Code, relating to determination of distributive share.
(ii) This subparagraph shall not apply to a project that receives a preliminary reservation of state low-income housing tax credits under the set-aside described in subdivision (c) of Section 50199.20 of the Health and Safety Code unless the project also receives a preliminary reservation of federal low-income housing tax credits.
(2) (A) The California Tax Credit Allocation Committee shall certify to the housing sponsor the amount of tax credit under this section allocated to the housing sponsor for each credit period.
(B) In the case of a partnership or an “S” corporation, the housing sponsor shall provide a copy of the California Tax Credit Allocation Committee certification to the taxpayer.
(C) (i) The taxpayer shall attach a copy of the certification to any return upon which a tax credit is claimed under this section.
(ii) In the case of a failure to attach a copy of the certification for the year to the return in which a tax credit is claimed under this section, no credit under this section shall be allowed for that year until a copy of that certification is provided.
(D) All elections made by the taxpayer pursuant to Section 42 of the Internal Revenue Code, relating to low-income housing credit, shall apply to this section.
(E) (i) Except as described in clause (ii) or (iii), for buildings located in designated difficult development areas (DDAs) or qualified census tracts (QCTs), as defined in Section 42(d)(5)(B) of the Internal Revenue Code, relating to increase in credit for buildings in high-cost areas, credits may be allocated under this section in the amounts prescribed in subdivision (c), provided that the amount of credit allocated under Section 42 of the Internal Revenue Code, relating to low-income housing credit, is computed on 100 percent of the qualified basis of the building.
(ii) Notwithstanding clause (i), the California Tax Credit Allocation Committee may allocate the credit for buildings located in DDAs or QCTs that are restricted to having 50 percent of the building’s occupants be special needs households, as defined in the California Code of Regulations by the California Tax Credit Allocation Committee, or receiving an allocation pursuant to subparagraph (B) of paragraph (1) of subdivision (g), even if the taxpayer receives federal credits pursuant to Section 42(d)(5)(B) of the Internal Revenue Code, relating to increase in credit for buildings in high-cost areas, provided that the credit allowed under this section shall not exceed 30 percent of the eligible basis of the building.
(iii) On and after January 1, 2018, notwithstanding clause (i), the California Tax Credit Allocation Committee may allocate the credit pursuant to paragraph (6) of subdivision (c) even if the taxpayer receives federal credits, pursuant to Section 42(d)(5)(B) of the Internal Revenue Code, relating to increase in credit for buildings in high-cost areas.
(F) (i) The California Tax Credit Allocation Committee may allocate a credit under this section in exchange for a credit allocated pursuant to Section 42(d)(5)(B) of the Internal Revenue Code, relating to increase in credit for buildings in high-cost areas, in amounts up to 30 percent of the eligible basis of a building if the credits allowed under Section 42 of the Internal Revenue Code, relating to low-income housing credit, are reduced by an equivalent amount.
(ii) An equivalent amount shall be determined by the California Tax Credit Allocation Committee based upon the relative amount required to produce an equivalent state tax credit to the taxpayer.
(c) Section 42(b) of the Internal Revenue Code, relating to applicable percentage: 70 percent present value credit for certain new buildings; 30 percent present value credit for certain other buildings, shall be modified as follows:
(1) In the case of any qualified low-income building that receives an allocation after 1989 and is a new building not federally subsidized, the term “applicable percentage” means the following:
(A) For each of the first three years, the percentage prescribed by the Secretary of the Treasury for new buildings that are not federally subsidized for the taxable year, determined in accordance with the requirements of Section 42(b)(2) of the Internal Revenue Code, relating to temporary minimum credit rate for nonfederally subsidized new buildings, in lieu of the percentage prescribed in Section 42(b)(1)(A) of the Internal Revenue Code.
(B) For the fourth year, the difference between 30 percent and the sum of the applicable percentages for the first three years.
(2) In the case of any qualified low-income building that is a new building and is federally subsidized and receiving an allocation pursuant to subparagraph (B) of paragraph (1) of subdivision (g), the term “applicable percentage” means for the first three years, 9 percent of the qualified basis of the building, and for the fourth year, 3 percent of the qualified basis of the building.
(3) In the case of any qualified low-income building that receives an allocation after 1989 pursuant to subparagraph (A) of paragraph (1) of subdivision (g) and that is a new building that is federally subsidized or that is an existing building that is “at risk of conversion,” the term “applicable percentage” means the following:
(A) For each of the first three years, the percentage prescribed by the Secretary of the Treasury for new buildings that are federally subsidized for the taxable year.
(B) For the fourth year, the difference between 13 percent and the sum of the applicable percentages for the first three years.
(4) In the case of any qualified low-income building that receives an allocation pursuant to subparagraph (A) of paragraph (1) of subdivision (g) that meets all of the requirements of subparagraphs (A) through (D), inclusive, the term “applicable percentage” means 30 percent for each of the first three years and 5 percent for the fourth year. A qualified low-income building receiving an allocation under this paragraph is ineligible to also receive an allocation under paragraph (3).
(A) The qualified low-income building is at least 15 years old.
(B) The qualified low-income building is either:
(i) Serving households of very low income or extremely low income such that the average maximum household income as restricted, pursuant to an existing regulatory agreement with a federal, state, county, local, or other governmental agency, is not more than 45 percent of the area median gross income, as determined under Section 42 of the Internal Revenue Code, relating to low-income housing credit, adjusted by household size, and a tax credit regulatory agreement is entered into for a period of not less than 55 years restricting the average targeted household income to no more than 45 percent of the area median income.
(ii) Financed under Section 514 or 521 of the National Housing Act of 1949 (42 U.S.C. Sec. 1485).
(C) The qualified low-income building would have insufficient credits under paragraphs (2) and (3) to complete substantial rehabilitation due to a low appraised value.
(D) The qualified low-income building will complete the substantial rehabilitation in connection with the credit allocation herein.
(5) For purposes of this section, the term “at risk of conversion,” with respect to an existing property means a property that satisfies all of the following criteria:
(A) The property is a multifamily rental housing development in which at least 50 percent of the units receive governmental assistance pursuant to any of the following:
(i) New construction, substantial rehabilitation, moderate rehabilitation, property disposition, and loan management set-aside programs, or any other program providing project-based assistance pursuant to Section 8 of the United States Housing Act of 1937, Section 1437f of Title 42 of the United States Code, as amended.
(ii) The Below-Market-Interest-Rate Program pursuant to Section 221(d)(3) of the National Housing Act, Sections 1715l(d)(3) and (5) of Title 12 of the United States Code.
(iii) Section 236 of the National Housing Act, Section 1715z-1 of Title 12 of the United States Code.
(iv) Programs for rent supplement assistance pursuant to Section 101 of the Housing and Urban Development Act of 1965, Section 1701s of Title 12 of the United States Code, as amended.
(v) Programs under Sections 514, 515, 516, 533, and 538 of the Housing Act of 1949 (Public Law 81-171), as amended.
(vi) The low-income housing credit program set forth in Section 42 of the Internal Revenue Code, relating to low-income housing credit, this section, and Sections 17058 and 23610.5.
(vii) Programs for loans or grants administered by the Department of Housing and Community Development.
(viii) Section 202 of the Housing Act of 1959 (12 U.S.C. Sec. 1701q), as amended.
(ix) Section 142(d) of the Internal Revenue Code or its predecessors.
(x) Section 147 of the Internal Revenue Code, as enacted by the Tax Reform Act of 1986 (Public Law 99-514), or as subsequently amended, including as amended by the Tax Cuts and Jobs Act of 2017 (Public Law 115-97) and all amendments enacted prior to the Tax Cuts and Jobs Act of 2017 (Public Law 115-97).
(xi) Title I of the Housing and Community Development Act of 1974, as amended.
(xii) Title II of the Cranston-Gonzalez National Affordable Housing Act of 1990, as amended.
(xiii) Titles IV and V of the McKinney-Vento Homeless Assistance Act of 1987, as amended, including the Department of Housing and Urban Development’s Supportive Housing Program, Shelter Plus Care Program, and surplus federal property disposition program.
(xiv) The following assistance provided by counties and cities in exchange for restrictions on the maximum rents that may be charged for units within a multifamily rental housing development and on the maximum tenant income as a condition of eligibility for occupancy of the unit subject to the rent restriction, as reflected by a recorded agreement with a county or city:
(I) Loans or grants provided using tax increment financing pursuant to the Community Redevelopment Law (Part 1 (commencing with Section 33000) of Division 24 of the Health and Safety Code).
(II) Local housing trust funds, as referred to in paragraph (3) of subdivision (a) of Section 50843 of the Health and Safety Code.
(III) The sale or lease of public property at or below market rates.
(IV) The granting of density bonuses, or concessions or incentives, including fee waivers, parking variances, or amendments to general plans, zoning, or redevelopment project area plans, pursuant to Chapter 4.3 (commencing with Section 65915) of Division 1 of Title 7 of the Government Code.
(B) As used in subparagraph (A), “government assistance” shall not include the use of tenant-based housing choice vouchers under subsection (o) of Section 1437f of Title 42 of the United States Code, excluding paragraph (13), relating to project-based assistance. Restrictions shall not include any rent control or rent stabilization ordinance imposed by a county or city.
(C) If the development is subject to restrictions on rent and income levels, 50 percent of the units are also restricted to initial occupancy by lower income households, as defined in Section 50079.5 of the Health and Safety Code.
(D) The restrictions on rent and income levels, excluding any restrictions recorded pursuant to paragraph (2) of subdivision (e) of Section 65863.11 or Section 65863.13 of the Government Code or in connection with interim or acquisition financing, will terminate or the federally insured mortgage or rent subsidy contract on the property is eligible for prepayment or termination any time within five years before or after the date of application to the California Tax Credit Allocation Committee.
(E) The entity acquiring the property enters into a regulatory agreement that requires the property to be operated in accordance with the requirements of Section 42 of the Internal Revenue Code and any further requirements added by the California Tax Credit Allocation Committee to implement the low-income housing tax credit established by Section 42 of the Internal Revenue Code (26 U.S.C. Sec. 42), this section, and Sections 17058 and 23610.5 pursuant to Chapter 3.6 (commencing with Section 50199.4) of Part 1 of Division 31 of the Health and Safety Code.
(F) The property satisfies the requirements of Section 42(e) of the Internal Revenue Code, relating to rehabilitation expenditures treated as separate new building, except that the provisions of Section 42(e)(3)(A)(ii)(I) shall not apply.
(6) On and after January 1, 2018, in the case of any qualified low-income building that is (A) farmworker housing, as defined by paragraph (2) of subdivision (h) of Section 50199.7 of the Health and Safety Code, and (B) is federally subsidized, the term “applicable percentage” means for each of the first three years, 20 percent of the qualified basis of the building, and for the fourth year, 15 percent of the qualified basis of the building.
(d) The term “qualified low-income housing project” as defined in Section 42(c)(2) of the Internal Revenue Code, relating to qualified low-income building, is modified by adding the following requirements:
(1) The taxpayer shall be entitled to receive a cash distribution from the operations of the project, after funding required reserves, that, at the election of the taxpayer, is equal to:
(A) An amount not to exceed 8 percent of the lesser of:
(i) The owner equity that shall include the amount of the capital contributions actually paid to the housing sponsor and shall not include any amounts until they are paid on an investor note.
(ii) Twenty percent of the adjusted basis of the building as of the close of the first taxable year of the credit period.
(B) The amount of the cashflow from those units in the building that are not low-income units. For purposes of computing cashflow under this subparagraph, operating costs shall be allocated to the low-income units using the “floor space fraction,” as defined in Section 42 of the Internal Revenue Code, relating to low-income housing credit.
(C) Any amount allowed to be distributed under subparagraph (A) that is not available for distribution during the first 5 years of the compliance period may be accumulated and distributed any time during the first 15 years of the compliance period but not thereafter.
(2) The limitation on return shall apply in the aggregate to the partners if the housing sponsor is a partnership and in the aggregate to the shareholders if the housing sponsor is an “S” corporation.
(3) The housing sponsor shall apply any cash available for distribution in excess of the amount eligible to be distributed under paragraph (1) to reduce the rent on rent-restricted units or to increase the number of rent-restricted units subject to the tests of Section 42(g)(1) of the Internal Revenue Code, relating to in general.
(e) The provisions of Section 42(f) of the Internal Revenue Code, relating to definition and special rules relating to credit period, shall be modified as follows:
(1) The term “credit period” as defined in Section 42(f)(1) of the Internal Revenue Code, relating to credit period defined, is modified by substituting “four taxable years” for “10 taxable years.”
(2) The special rule for the first taxable year of the credit period under Section 42(f)(2) of the Internal Revenue Code, relating to special rule for 1st year of credit period, shall not apply to the tax credit under this section.
(3) Section 42(f)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code, relating to determination of applicable percentage with respect to increases in qualified basis after 1st year of credit period, is modified to read:
If, as of the close of any taxable year in the compliance period, after the first year of the credit period, the qualified basis of any building exceeds the qualified basis of that building as of the close of the first year of the credit period, the housing sponsor, to the extent of its tax credit allocation, shall be eligible for a credit on the excess in an amount equal to the applicable percentage determined pursuant to subdivision (c) for the four-year period beginning with the later of the taxable years in which the increase in qualified basis occurs.
(f) The provisions of Section 42(h) of the Internal Revenue Code, relating to limitation on aggregate credit allowable with respect to projects located in a state, shall be modified as follows:
(1) Section 42(h)(2) of the Internal Revenue Code, relating to allocated credit amount to apply to all taxable years ending during or after credit allocation year, does not apply and instead the following provisions apply:
The total amount for the four-year credit period of the housing credit dollars allocated in a calendar year to any building shall reduce the aggregate housing credit dollar amount of the California Tax Credit Allocation Committee for the calendar year in which the allocation is made.
(2) Paragraphs (3), (4), (5), (6)(E)(i)(II), (6)(F), (6)(G), (6)(I), (7), and (8) of Section 42(h) of the Internal Revenue Code, relating to limitation on aggregate credit allowable with respect to projects located in a state, do not apply to this section.
(g) The aggregate housing credit dollar amount that may be allocated annually by the California Tax Credit Allocation Committee pursuant to this section, Section 17058, and Section 23610.5 shall be an amount equal to the sum of all the following:
(1) (A) Seventy million dollars ($70,000,000) for the 2001 calendar year, and, for the 2002 calendar year and each calendar year thereafter, seventy million dollars ($70,000,000) increased by the percentage, if any, by which the Consumer Price Index for the preceding calendar year exceeds the Consumer Price Index for the 2001 calendar year. For the purposes of this paragraph, the term “Consumer Price Index” means the last Consumer Price Index for All Urban Consumers published by the federal Department of Labor.
(B) Five hundred million dollars ($500,000,000) for the 2020 calendar year, and up to five hundred million dollars ($500,000,000) for the 2021 calendar year and every year thereafter. Allocations shall only be available pursuant to this subparagraph in the 2021 calendar year and thereafter if the annual Budget Act, or if any bill providing for appropriations related to the Budget Act, specifies an amount to be available for allocation in that calendar year by the California Tax Credit Allocation Committee, after the California Tax Credit Allocation Committee and the California Debt Limit Allocation Committee have adopted regulations, rules, or guidelines to align the programs of both committees with the objective of increasing production and containing costs as described in clause (iii). The California Tax Credit Allocation Committee shall accept applications for the 2021 calendar year not sooner than 30 days after these regulations, rules, or guidelines have been adopted. The California Debt Limit Allocation Committee shall not accept applications for the 2021 calendar year for bond allocations for an eligible project under this section prior to issuing, reviewing, and publishing a new tax-exempt private activity bond demand survey. A housing sponsor receiving a nonfederally subsidized allocation under subdivision (c) shall not be eligible for receipt of the housing credit allocated from the increased amount under this subparagraph. A housing sponsor receiving a nonfederally subsidized allocation under subdivision (c) shall remain eligible for receipt of the housing credit allocated from the credit ceiling amount under subparagraph (A).
(i) Eligible projects for allocations under this subparagraph include any new building, as defined in Section 42(i)(4) of the Internal Revenue Code, relating to newly constructed buildings, and the regulations promulgated thereunder, excluding rehabilitation expenditures under Section 42(e) of the Internal Revenue Code, relating to rehabilitation expenditures treated as separate new building, and is federally subsidized. Eligible projects for allocations under this subparagraph also include any retrofitting and repurposing of existing nonresidential structures, including, but not limited to, hotels and motels, that were converted to residential use within the previous five years from the date of the application.
(ii) Notwithstanding any other provision of this section, for allocations pursuant to this subparagraph for the 2020 calendar year, the California Tax Credit Allocation Committee shall consider projects located throughout the state and shall allocate housing credits, subject to the minimum federal requirements as set forth in Sections 42 and 142 of the Internal Revenue Code, the minimum requirements set forth in Sections 5033 and 5190 of the California Debt Limit Allocation Committee regulations, and the minimum set forth in Section 10326 of the Tax Credit Allocation Committee regulations, for projects that can begin construction within 180 days from award, subject to availability of funds.
(iii) (I) Notwithstanding any other provision of this section, for allocations pursuant to this subparagraph for the 2021 calendar year and thereafter, the California Tax Credit Allocation Committee and the California Debt Limit Allocation Committee shall develop and prescribe regulations, rules, or guidelines necessary to implement a new allocation methodology that is aimed at increasing production and containing costs, which would include a scoring system that maximizes the efficient use of public subsidy and benefit created through the private activity bond and low-income housing tax credit programs. The factors for determining the efficient use of public subsidy and benefit shall include, but not be limited to, all of the following:
(ia) The number and size of units developed including local incentives provided to increase density.
(ib) The proximity to amenities, jobs, and public transportation.
(ic) The location of the development.
(id) The delivery of housing affordable to very low and extremely low income households by the development.
(II) The efficient use of public subsidy and benefit criteria specified in this clause shall take into account the total state subsidy provided and prioritize cost containment and increased unit production. These regulations, rules, or guidelines developed pursuant to this subparagraph shall also consider updated definitions for at-risk preservation and new construction.
(III) For bond allocations for the 2021 calendar year to projects eligible for an allocation under this subparagraph, the California Debt Limit Allocation Committee may adopt emergency regulations.
(iv) Of the amount available pursuant to this subparagraph, and notwithstanding any other requirement of this section, the California Tax Credit Allocation Committee may allocate up to two hundred million dollars ($200,000,000) for housing financed by the California Housing Finance Agency under its Mixed-Income Program.
(v) (I) For the calendar years of 2024 to 2034, inclusive, of the amount available pursuant to this subparagraph, the lesser of 5 percent of that amount or twenty-five million dollars ($25,000,000) per calendar year shall be set aside for projects to provide farmworker housing, as defined in subdivision (h) of Section 50199.7 of the Health and Safety Code, and administered consistent with the credits available pursuant to paragraph (4).
(II) Any credits pursuant to this clause that remain unallocated following the conclusion of a funding round shall roll over to consecutive subsequent funding rounds in that calendar year with the exception that any credits that remain unallocated prior to the final funding round in that calendar year shall be added back to the aggregate amount of credits that may be allocated pursuant to this subparagraph.
(III) For the 2035 calendar year, and every year thereafter, of the amount available pursuant to this subparagraph, a portion of the amount allocated shall be set aside for projects to provide farmworker housing, as defined in subdivision (h) of Section 50199.7 of the Health and Safety Code. The amount set aside shall be determined by the Legislature upon consideration of the comprehensive strategy, or most recent update thereof, provided by the Department of Housing and Community Development pursuant to subdivision (c) of Section 50408.5 of the Health and Safety Code.
(2) The unused housing credit ceiling, if any, for the preceding calendar years.
(3) The amount of housing credit ceiling returned in the calendar year. For purposes of this paragraph, the amount of housing credit dollar amount returned in the calendar year equals the housing credit dollar amount previously allocated to any project that does not become a qualified low-income housing project within the period required by this section or to any project with respect to which an allocation is canceled by mutual consent of the California Tax Credit Allocation Committee and the allocation recipient.
(4) Five hundred thousand dollars ($500,000) per calendar year for projects to provide farmworker housing, as defined in subdivision (h) of Section 50199.7 of the Health and Safety Code.
(5) The amount of any unallocated or returned credits under former Sections 17053.14, 23608.2, and 23608.3, as those sections read prior to January 1, 2009, until fully exhausted for projects to provide farmworker housing, as defined in subdivision (h) of Section 50199.7 of the Health and Safety Code.
(h) The term “compliance period” as defined in Section 42(i)(1) of the Internal Revenue Code, relating to compliance period, is modified to mean, with respect to any building, the period of 30 consecutive taxable years beginning with the first taxable year of the credit period with respect thereto.
(i) (1) Section 42(j) of the Internal Revenue Code, relating to recapture of credit, shall not be applicable and the provisions in paragraph (2) shall be substituted in its place.
(2) The requirements of this section shall be set forth in a regulatory agreement between the California Tax Credit Allocation Committee and the housing sponsor, and the regulatory agreement shall be subordinated, when required, to any lien or encumbrance of any banks or other institutional lenders to the project. The regulatory agreement entered into pursuant to subdivision (f) of Section 50199.14 of the Health and Safety Code, shall apply, provided that the agreement includes all of the following provisions:
(A) A term not less than the compliance period.
(B) A requirement that the agreement be recorded in the official records of the county in which the qualified low-income housing project is located.
(C) A provision stating which state and local agencies can enforce the regulatory agreement in the event the housing sponsor fails to satisfy any of the requirements of this section.
(D) A provision that the regulatory agreement shall be deemed a contract enforceable by tenants as third-party beneficiaries thereto and that allows individuals, whether prospective, present, or former occupants of the building, who meet the income limitation applicable to the building, the right to enforce the regulatory agreement in any state court.
(E) A provision incorporating the requirements of Section 42 of the Internal Revenue Code, relating to low-income housing credit, as modified by this section.
(F) A requirement that the housing sponsor notify the California Tax Credit Allocation Committee or its designee and the local agency that can enforce the regulatory agreement if there is a determination by the Internal Revenue Service that the project is not in compliance with Section 42(g) of the Internal Revenue Code, relating to qualified low-income housing project.
(G) A requirement that the housing sponsor, as security for the performance of the housing sponsor’s obligations under the regulatory agreement, assign the housing sponsor’s interest in rents that it receives from the project, provided that until there is a default under the regulatory agreement, the housing sponsor is entitled to collect and retain the rents.
(H) A provision that the remedies available in the event of a default under the regulatory agreement that is not cured within a reasonable cure period include, but are not limited to, allowing any of the parties designated to enforce the regulatory agreement to collect all rents with respect to the project; taking possession of the project and operating the project in accordance with the regulatory agreement until the enforcer determines the housing sponsor is in a position to operate the project in accordance with the regulatory agreement; applying to any court for specific performance; securing the appointment of a receiver to operate the project; or any other relief as may be appropriate.
(j) (1) The committee shall allocate the housing credit on a regular basis consisting of two or more periods in each calendar year during which applications may be filed and considered. The committee shall establish application filing deadlines, the maximum percentage of federal and state low-income housing tax credit ceiling that may be allocated by the committee in that period, and the approximate date on which allocations shall be made. If the enactment of federal or state law, the adoption of rules or regulations, or other similar events prevent the use of two allocation periods, the committee may reduce the number of periods and adjust the filing deadlines, maximum percentage of credit allocated, and the allocation dates.
(2) The committee shall adopt a qualified allocation plan, as provided in Section 42(m)(1) of the Internal Revenue Code, relating to plans for allocation of credit among projects. In adopting this plan, the committee shall comply with the provisions of Sections 42(m)(1)(B) and 42(m)(1)(C) of the Internal Revenue Code, relating to qualified allocation plan and relating to certain selection criteria must be used, respectively.
(3) Notwithstanding Section 42(m) of the Internal Revenue Code, relating to responsibilities of housing credit agencies, the California Tax Credit Allocation Committee shall allocate housing credits in accordance with the qualified allocation plan and regulations, which shall include the following provisions:
(A) All housing sponsors, as defined by paragraph (3) of subdivision (a), shall demonstrate at the time the application is filed with the committee that the project meets the following threshold requirements:
(i) The housing sponsor shall demonstrate there is a need and demand for low-income housing in the community or region for which it is proposed.
(ii) The project’s proposed financing, including tax credit proceeds, shall be sufficient to complete the project and that the proposed operating income shall be adequate to operate the project for the extended use period.
(iii) The project shall have enforceable financing commitments, either construction or permanent financing, for at least 50 percent of the total estimated financing of the project.
(iv) The housing sponsor shall have and maintain control of the site for the project.
(v) The housing sponsor shall demonstrate that the project complies with all applicable local land use and zoning ordinances.
(vi) The housing sponsor shall demonstrate that the project development team has the experience and the financial capacity to ensure project completion and operation for the extended use period.
(vii) The housing sponsor shall demonstrate the amount of tax credit that is necessary for the financial feasibility of the project and its viability as a qualified low-income housing project throughout the extended use period, taking into account operating expenses, a supportable debt service, reserves, funds set aside for rental subsidies and required equity, and a development fee that does not exceed a specified percentage of the eligible basis of the project prior to inclusion of the development fee in the eligible basis, as determined by the committee.
(B) The committee shall give a preference to those projects satisfying all of the threshold requirements of subparagraph (A) if both of the following apply:
(i) The project serves the lowest income tenants at rents affordable to those tenants.
(ii) The project is obligated to serve qualified tenants for the longest period.
(C) In addition to the provisions of subparagraphs (A) and (B), the committee shall use the following criteria in allocating housing credits:
(i) Projects serving large families in which a substantial number, as defined by the committee, of all residential units are low-income units with three or more bedrooms.
(ii) Projects providing single-room occupancy units serving very low income tenants.
(iii) Existing projects that are “at risk of conversion,” as defined by paragraph (5) of subdivision (c).
(iv) Projects for which a public agency provides direct or indirect long-term financial support for at least 15 percent of the total project development costs or projects for which the owner’s equity constitutes at least 30 percent of the total project development costs.
(v) Projects that provide tenant amenities not generally available to residents of low-income housing projects.
(D) Subparagraphs (B) and (C) shall not apply to projects receiving an allocation pursuant to subparagraph (B) of paragraph (1) of subdivision (g).
(4) For purposes of allocating credits pursuant to this section, the committee shall not give preference to any project by virtue of the date of submission of its application except to break a tie when two or more of the projects have an equal rating.
(k) Section 42(l) of the Internal Revenue Code, relating to certifications and other reports to secretary, shall be modified as follows:
The term “secretary” shall be replaced by the term “Franchise Tax Board.”
(l) In the case in which the credit allowed under this section exceeds the “tax,” the excess may be carried over to reduce the “tax” in the following year, and succeeding years if necessary, until the credit has been exhausted.
(m) The provisions of Section 11407(a) of Public Law 101-508, relating to the effective date of the extension of the low-income housing credit, apply to calendar years after 1993.
(n) The provisions of Section 11407(c) of Public Law 101-508, relating to election to accelerate credit, shall not apply.
(o) (1) (A) For a project that receives a preliminary reservation under this section beginning on or after January 1, 2016, a taxpayer may elect in its application to the California Tax Credit Allocation Committee to sell all or any portion of any credit allowed under this section to one or more unrelated parties for each taxable year in which the credit is allowed, subject to subparagraphs (B) and (C). The taxpayer may, only once, revoke an election to sell pursuant to this subdivision at any time before the California Tax Credit Allocation Committee allocates a final credit amount for the project pursuant to this section, at which point the election shall become irrevocable.
(B) A credit that a taxpayer elects to sell all or a portion of pursuant to this subdivision shall be sold for consideration that is not less than 80 percent of the amount of the credit.
(C) A taxpayer shall not elect to sell all or any portion of any credit pursuant to this subdivision if the taxpayer did not make that election in its application submitted to the California Tax Credit Allocation Committee.
(2) (A) The taxpayer that originally received the credit shall report to the California Tax Credit Allocation Committee within 10 days of the sale of the credit, in the form and manner specified by the California Tax Credit Allocation Committee, all required information regarding the purchase and sale of the credit, including the social security or other taxpayer identification number of the unrelated party or parties to whom the credit has been sold, the face amount of the credit sold, and the amount of consideration received by the taxpayer for the sale of the credit.
(B) The California Tax Credit Allocation Committee shall provide an annual listing to the Franchise Tax Board, in a form and manner agreed upon by the California Tax Credit Allocation Committee and the Franchise Tax Board, of the taxpayers that have sold or purchased a credit pursuant to this subdivision.
(3) A credit may be sold pursuant to this subdivision to more than one unrelated party.
(4) Notwithstanding any other law, the taxpayer that originally received the credit that is sold pursuant to paragraph (1) shall remain solely liable for all obligations and liabilities imposed on the taxpayer by this section with respect to the credit, none of which shall apply to a party to whom the credit has been sold or subsequently transferred. Parties that purchase credits pursuant to paragraph (1) shall be entitled to utilize the purchased credits in the same manner in which the taxpayer that originally received the credit could utilize them.
(p) The California Tax Credit Allocation Committee may prescribe rules, guidelines, or procedures necessary or appropriate to carry out the purposes of this section, including any guidelines regarding the allocation of the credit allowed under this section. Chapter 3.5 (commencing with Section 11340) of Part 1 of Division 3 of Title 2 of the Government Code shall not apply to any rule, guideline, or procedure prescribed by the California Tax Credit Allocation Committee pursuant to this section.
(q) This section shall remain in effect for as long as Section 42 of the Internal Revenue Code, relating to low-income housing credit, remains in effect.

SEC. 208.

 Section 17053.80 of the Revenue and Taxation Code is amended to read:

17053.80.
 (a) (1) For each taxable year beginning on or after January 1, 2022, and before January 1, 2027, there shall be allowed to a qualified taxpayer that employs an eligible individual a credit against the “net tax,” as defined in Section 17039, an amount as determined pursuant to paragraph (2), not to exceed thirty thousand dollars ($30,000) per taxpayer per taxable year.
(2) A qualified taxpayer shall be allowed the credit pursuant to this section in the following amounts per taxable year:
(A) Two thousand five hundred dollars ($2,500) for each eligible individual that works at least 500 hours, but fewer than 1,000 hours, for the eligible employer during the taxable year in which the credit is claimed.
(B) Five thousand dollars ($5,000) for each eligible individual that works at least 1,000 hours, but fewer than 1,500 hours, for the eligible employer during the taxable year in which the credit is claimed.
(C) Seven thousand five hundred dollars ($7,500) for each eligible individual that works at least 1,500 hours, but fewer than 2,000 hours, for the eligible employer during the taxable year in which the credit is claimed.
(D) Ten thousand dollars ($10,000) for each eligible individual that works at least 2,000 hours for the eligible employer during the taxable year in which the credit is claimed.
(b) For purposes of this section:
(1) “Continuum of care” has the same meaning as in Section 578.3 of Title 24 of the Code of Federal Regulations.
(2) “Coordinated entry system” means a centralized or coordinated assessment system developed pursuant to Section 578.7 of Title 24 of the Code of Federal Regulations, designed to coordinate homelessness program participant intake, assessment, and provision of referrals.
(3) “Eligible employer” means a taxpayer that meets all of the following requirements:
(A) Pays wages subject to withholding under Division 6 (commencing with Section 13000) of the Unemployment Insurance Code.
(B) Pays at least 120 percent of minimum wage.
(C) Provides to the Franchise Tax Board, upon request, a copy of the certification received for each eligible individual for each tax year that the credit is claimed for that eligible individual by that eligible employer.
(4) “Eligible individual” means a person who meets both of the following criteria:
(A) The person is homeless or has received supportive services from a homeless services provider, as designated by a local continuum of care or a community-based service provider that is connected to the local coordinated entry system or to a local Homeless Management Information System, on the date of the hire or anytime during the 180-day period immediately before the hire.
(B) The person has been issued a certification pursuant to paragraph (2) of subdivision (c), and that certification has not expired.
(5) “Homeless Management Information System” has the same meaning as in Section 578.3 of Title 24 of the Code of Federal Regulations. “Homeless Management Information System” includes the use of a comparable database by a victim services provider or legal services provider that is permitted by the federal government under Part 576 (commencing with Section 576.1) of Title 24 of the Code of Federal Regulations.
(6) “Person is homeless” means the same as “homeless” as defined in Section 578.3 of Title 24 of the Code of Federal Regulations.
(7) “Minimum wage” means the wage established pursuant to Chapter 1 (commencing with Section 1171) of Part 4 of Division 2 of the Labor Code.
(8) “Qualified taxpayer” means an eligible employer that pays wages subject to withholding under Division 6 (commencing with Section 13000) of the Unemployment Insurance Code to an eligible individual.
(c) (1) A credit shall not be allowed under this section unless the eligible employer submits to the Franchise Tax Board, upon request, a certification issued by a continuum of care, or a community-based service provider that is connected to the local coordinated entry system or to a local Homeless Management Information System, or other program as specified by the Franchise Tax Board.
(2) A continuum of care or a community-based service provider that is connected to the local coordinated entry system or to a local Homeless Management Information System, shall issue certifications for eligible individuals.
(3) The certification pursuant to paragraph (2) shall be issued in a form and manner prescribed by the Franchise Tax Board.
(4) A certification issued pursuant to this subdivision shall expire one year after issuance.
(5) An eligible individual may receive a new certification pursuant to this subdivision if they are homeless or have received supportive services from a homeless services provider, as designated by a local continuum of care or a community-based service provider that is connected to the local coordinated entry system or to a local Homeless Management Information System, on the date that the eligible individual receives a new certification or anytime during the 180-day period immediately before that date.
(d) (1) The total aggregate amount of the credit that may be allocated by credit reservations per calendar year to all qualified taxpayers pursuant to this section and Section 23629 shall not exceed thirty million dollars ($30,000,000), plus the unallocated credit amount, if any, from the preceding calendar year.
(2) (A) To be eligible for the credit allowed by this section with respect to an eligible individual, a qualified taxpayer shall request a credit reservation from the Franchise Tax Board, in the form and manner prescribed by the Franchise Tax Board, consistent with either of the following, as applicable:
(i) Within 30 days of hiring an eligible individual.
(ii) Within 60 days of receiving a new certification pursuant to paragraph (5) of subdivision (c).
(B) To obtain a credit reservation with respect to an eligible individual, the qualified taxpayer shall provide necessary information, as determined by the Franchise Tax Board, including the name, social security number, how many hours the eligible individual is expected to work for the next 12 months, and the start date of employment.
(3) The Franchise Tax Board shall do both of the following:
(A) Approve a tentative credit reservation with respect to an eligible individual.
(B) Subject to the annual cap established as provided in paragraph (1), allocate an aggregate amount of credits under this section and Section 23629, and allocate any carryover of unallocated credits from prior years.
(e) In the case where the credit allowed by this section exceeds the “net tax,” the excess may be carried over to reduce the “net tax” in the following taxable year, and succeeding two years if necessary, until the credit is exhausted.
(f) If the credit allowed by this section is claimed by the qualified taxpayer, a deduction otherwise allowed under this part for any amount of wages paid or incurred by the qualified taxpayer as a trade or business expense to an eligible individual shall be reduced by the amount of the credit allowed by this section.
(g) The Franchise Tax Board may prescribe rules, guidelines, or procedures necessary or appropriate to carry out the purposes of this section, including any guidelines regarding the allocation of the credit allowed under this section. Chapter 3.5 (commencing with Section 11340) of Part 1 of Division 3 of Title 2 of the Government Code shall not apply to any rule, guideline, or procedure prescribed by the Franchise Tax Board pursuant to this section.
(h)  This section shall remain in effect only until December 1, 2027, and as of that date is repealed.

SEC. 209.

 Section 17131.12 of the Revenue and Taxation Code, as added by Section 2 of Chapter 51 of the Statutes of 2022, is amended and renumbered to read:

17131.15.
 (a) Gross income does not include any payments received by an individual pursuant to Section 8161 of the Welfare and Institutions Code.
(b)  This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2027, and as of that date is repealed.

SEC. 210.

 Section 19586 of the Revenue and Taxation Code is amended to read:

19586.
 (a) (1) Beginning January 1, 2023, the Franchise Tax Board shall notify all potential eligible individuals of available paperless filing options offered through the Franchise Tax Board, including the CalFile program and free tax preparation services, including the Volunteer Income Tax Assistance program. Notifications shall contain information about available paperless filing options and information about the CalEITC.
(2) Notifications shall be in any form and manner, including electronic communication, determined by the Franchise Tax Board to incentivize potential eligible individuals to timely file federal and state tax returns.
(3) The Franchise Tax Board may coordinate the notifications with other government entities and nonprofit organizations to improve the efficacy and impact of the notifications.
(b) A negative inference shall not be drawn from a taxpayer’s decision not to file a return using the CalFile program or to file a return under a different method.
(c) For purposes of this section, the following definitions shall apply:
(1) “CalEITC” means the California Earned Income Tax Credit allowed under Section 17052.
(2) “Potential eligible individual” means a taxpayer that was an eligible individual for purposes of the CalEITC in any of the three previous taxable years based on the information available to the Franchise Tax Board.
(d) On or before January 1, 2026, the Franchise Tax Board shall submit, pursuant to Section 9795 of the Government Code, a report to the Legislature that contains all of the following information organized by taxable year for taxable years beginning on or after January 1, 2023, and before January 1, 2025:
(1) The cost to administer and implement the notification requirement under this section.
(2) The total number of tax returns filed using paperless filing options offered through the Franchise Tax Board, including the CalFile program.
(3) An analysis of the discernible efficacy and impact of the notification required under this section.
(4) The number of tax returns filed using paperless filing options offered through the Franchise Tax Board that claimed the CalEITC.
(5) The estimated cost savings potential eligible individuals realized by using paperless filing options offered through the Franchise Tax Board.
(e) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2027, and as of that date is repealed.

SEC. 211.

 Section 23628 of the Revenue and Taxation Code is amended to read:

23628.
 (a) (1) For each taxable year beginning on or after January 1, 2021, and before January 1, 2022, there shall be allowed a small business hiring credit against the “tax,” as defined in Section 23036, to a qualified small business employer that receives a tentative credit reservation under Section 6902.10, in an amount calculated pursuant to paragraph (2).
(2) The amount of credit determined by this subdivision shall be equal to the amount calculated pursuant to subparagraph (A) minus the amount calculated pursuant to subparagraph (B).
(A) One thousand dollars ($1,000) for each net increase in qualified employees, as specified in subdivision (c), not to exceed one hundred fifty thousand dollars ($150,000).
(B) If the qualified small business employer received a tentative credit reservation amount pursuant to Section 6902.8, either of the following applies:
(i) For a qualified small business employer that made an irrevocable election pursuant to Section 6902.8 to apply the credit against qualified sales and use taxes pursuant to Section 6902.7, the credit amounts allocated to the qualified small business employer pursuant to Sections 6902.7 and 6902.8.
(ii) For a qualified small business employer that elected to apply the credit under Part 10 (commencing with Section 17001) or Part 11 (commencing with Section 23001), or both, the tentative credit reservation amount received by the qualified small business employer pursuant to Section 6902.8.
(b) For purposes of this section:
(1) “Monthly full-time equivalent” means either of the following:
(A) In the case of a qualified employee paid hourly qualified wages, “monthly full-time equivalent” means the total number of hours employed per month for the qualified small business employer by the qualified employee, not to exceed 167 hours per month per qualified employee, divided by 167.
(B) In the case of a salaried qualified employee, “monthly full-time equivalent” means the total number of weeks employed per month for the qualified small business employer by the qualified employee divided by 4.33 multiplied by the time base the qualified employee was employed.
(2) (A) “Qualified employee” means an employee who is paid qualified wages by a qualified small business employer.
(B) “Qualified employee” shall not include an employee whose qualified wages are included in calculating any other credit allowed under this part, except for the credit allowed under Section 23627.
(3) (A) “Qualified small business employer” means a taxpayer that as of December 31, 2020, employed a total of 500 or fewer qualified employees and meets either of the following requirements:
(i) Has a decrease of 20 percent or more in gross receipts determined by comparing gross receipts beginning on January 1, 2020, and ending on December 31, 2020, to the gross receipts beginning on January 1, 2019, and ending on December 31, 2019.
(ii) Is a fiscal year filer that has a decrease of 20 percent or more in gross receipts determined by comparing either of the following:
(I) The gross receipts for fiscal year 2019–20 to the gross receipts from fiscal year 2018–19.
(II) The average of gross receipts for fiscal year 2019–20 and fiscal year 2020–21 to the gross receipts from fiscal year 2018–19.
(iii) For a taxpayer that first commences business after January 1, 2019, but on or before January 1, 2020, has a decrease of 20 percent or more in gross receipts in the second quarter of 2020 determined by comparing gross receipts from January 1, 2020, through February 28, 2020, multiplied by 1.5 to the gross receipts for the period beginning on April 1, 2020, and ending on June 30, 2020.
(B) “Qualified small business employer” does not include a taxpayer required to be included in a combined report under Section 25101 or 25110 or authorized to be included in a combined report under Section 25101.15.
(4) “Qualified wages” means wages subject to withholding under Division 6 (commencing with Section 13000) of the Unemployment Insurance Code.
(5) “Time base” means the fraction of full-time employment that the qualified employee is employed.
(6) “Weeks employed” means the total number of calendar days that a qualified employee was employed by the qualified small business employer during the month, divided by seven, not to exceed 4.33.
(c) The net increase in qualified employees of a qualified small business employer shall be equal to the amount calculated pursuant to paragraph (2) minus the amount calculated pursuant to paragraph (1).
(1) The average monthly full-time equivalent qualified employees employed during the three-month period beginning on April 1, 2020, and ending on June 30, 2020, by the qualified small business employer. The average monthly full-time equivalent qualified employees is determined by adding the total monthly full-time equivalent qualified employees employed by the qualified small business employer for all three months and dividing the total by three.
(2) The lesser of either of the following:
(A) The average monthly full-time equivalent qualified employees employed during the 12-month period beginning on July 1, 2020, and ending on June 30, 2021, by the qualified small business employer. The average monthly full-time equivalent qualified employees is determined by adding the total monthly full-time equivalent qualified employees employed by the qualified small business employer for all 12 months and dividing the total by 12.
(B) The average monthly full-time equivalent qualified employees employed during the three-month period beginning on April 1, 2021, and ending on June 30, 2021, by the qualified small business employer. The average monthly full-time equivalent qualified employees is determined by adding the total monthly full-time equivalent qualified employees employed by the qualified small business employer for all three months and dividing the total by three.
(d) If the credit allowed by this section exceeds the “tax,” the excess may be carried over to reduce the “tax” in the following year, and succeeding four years if necessary, until the credit is exhausted.
(e) A deduction otherwise allowed under this part for qualified wages shall be reduced by the amount of the credit allowed under this section.
(f) For purposes of this section:
(1) All employees of the trades or businesses that are treated as related under Section 267, 318, or 707 of the Internal Revenue Code shall be treated as employed by a single qualified small business employer.
(2) If a qualified small business employer changes its business form to a different entity type after receiving a tentative credit reservation under Section 6902.10 and continues operation, the new entity shall be allowed the credit, and the determination of the amount of the credit under this section with respect to qualified wages paid or incurred by the qualified small business employer shall apply to the new entity as if those qualified wages were paid or incurred by the new entity.
(g) Notwithstanding Section 23803, an “S” corporation that makes the election under Section 6902.10 shall be allowed to apply the full credit amount against qualified sales and use tax, and no amount of credit shall be allowed to reduce the shareholder’s liability under Part 10 (commencing with Section 17001).
(h) A disallowance of a credit claimed due to the application of the limitation specified in Section 6902.10 shall be treated as a mathematical error appearing on the return. An amount of tax resulting from that disallowance may be assessed by the Franchise Tax Board in the same manner as provided by Section 19051.
(i) (1) The Franchise Tax Board may prescribe any regulations necessary or appropriate to carry out the purposes of this section.
(2) The Franchise Tax Board may adopt rules, guidelines, procedures, or other guidance to carry out the purposes of this section. Chapter 3.5 (commencing with Section 11340) of Part 1 of Division 3 of Title 2 of the Government Code shall not apply to any regulation, rule, guideline, procedure, or other guidance adopted by the Franchise Tax Board pursuant to this section.
(j) Notwithstanding Section 19542, the Franchise Tax Board may provide to the California Department of Tax and Fee Administration, only to the extent allowed under federal law, information related to the credit allowed by Section 6902.9, this section, and Section 17053.71, including, but not limited to, the qualified small business employer names, amounts of tax credits allowed under each section, amount of gross receipts, and the net increase in qualified employees.
(k) The amendments made to this section by Chapter 55 of the Statutes of 2022 shall apply for taxable years beginning on or after January 1, 2021, and before January 1, 2022.
(l) This section shall remain in effect only until December 1, 2026, and as of that date is repealed.

SEC. 212.

 Section 34019 of the Revenue and Taxation Code is amended to read:

34019.
 (a) (1) For each fiscal year, the Department of Finance shall estimate revenues to be received pursuant to Sections 34011, 34011.2, and 34012 and provide those estimates to the Controller no later than June 15 of each year. The Controller shall use these estimates when disbursing funds pursuant to this section. Except as provided in paragraph (2), before any funds are disbursed pursuant to subdivisions (b), (c), (d), and (e) of this section, the Controller shall disburse from the tax fund to the appropriate account, without regard to fiscal year, the following:
(A) Reasonable costs incurred by the board for administering and collecting the taxes imposed by this part; provided, however, such costs shall not exceed 4 percent of tax revenues received.
(B) Reasonable costs incurred by the Department of Cannabis Control for implementing, administering, and enforcing Division 10 (commencing with Section 26000) of the Business and Professions Code to the extent those costs are not reimbursed pursuant to Section 26180 of the Business and Professions Code. This paragraph shall remain operative through the 2022–23 fiscal year.
(C) Reasonable costs incurred by the Department of Fish and Wildlife, the State Water Resources Control Board, and the Department of Pesticide Regulation for carrying out their respective duties under Division 10 (commencing with Section 26000) of the Business and Professions Code to the extent those costs are not otherwise reimbursed.
(D) Reasonable costs incurred by the Governor’s Office of Business and Economic Development for implementing, administering, and enforcing Chapter 23 (commencing with Section 26240) of Division 10 of the Business and Professions Code.
(E) Reasonable costs incurred by the Controller for performing duties imposed by the Control, Regulate and Tax Adult Use of Marijuana Act, including the audit required by Section 34020.
(F) Reasonable costs incurred by the Department of Finance for conducting the performance audit pursuant to Section 26191 of the Business and Professions Code.
(G) Reasonable costs incurred by the Legislative Analyst’s Office for performing duties imposed by Section 34017.
(H) Sufficient funds to reimburse the Division of Labor Standards Enforcement and the Division of Occupational Safety and Health within the Department of Industrial Relations and the Employment Development Department for the costs of applying and enforcing state labor laws to licensees under Division 10 (commencing with Section 26000) of the Business and Professions Code.
(2) Notwithstanding paragraph (1), the Controller shall not make disbursements pursuant to subparagraph (A), (B), (C), (E), or (H) for the 2022–23 and 2023–24 fiscal years.
(b) The Controller shall next disburse the sum of ten million dollars ($10,000,000) to a public university or universities in California annually beginning with the 2018–19 fiscal year until the 2028–29 fiscal year to research and evaluate the implementation and effect of the Control, Regulate and Tax Adult Use of Marijuana Act, and shall, if appropriate, make recommendations to the Legislature and Governor regarding possible amendments to the Control, Regulate and Tax Adult Use of Marijuana Act. The recipients of these funds shall publish reports on their findings at a minimum of every two years and shall make the reports available to the public. The Department of Cannabis Control shall select the universities to be funded. The research funded pursuant to this subdivision shall include but not necessarily be limited to:
(1) Impacts on public health, including health costs associated with cannabis use, as well as whether cannabis use is associated with an increase or decrease in use of alcohol or other drugs.
(2) The impact of treatment for maladaptive cannabis use and the effectiveness of different treatment programs.
(3) Public safety issues related to cannabis use, including studying the effectiveness of the packaging and labeling requirements and advertising and marketing restrictions contained in the act at preventing underage access to and use of cannabis and cannabis products, and studying the health-related effects among users of varying potency levels of cannabis and cannabis products.
(4)  Cannabis use rates, maladaptive use rates for adults and youth, and diagnosis rates of cannabis-related substance use disorders.
(5)  Cannabis market prices, illicit market prices, tax structures and rates, including an evaluation of how to best tax cannabis based on potency, and the structure and function of licensed cannabis businesses.
(6) Whether additional protections are needed to prevent unlawful monopolies or anticompetitive behavior from occurring in the adult-use cannabis industry and, if so, recommendations as to the most effective measures for preventing such behavior.
(7) The economic impacts in the private and public sectors, including, but not necessarily limited to, job creation, workplace safety, revenues, taxes generated for state and local budgets, and criminal justice impacts, including, but not necessarily limited to, impacts on law enforcement and public resources, short- and long-term consequences of involvement in the criminal justice system, and state and local government agency administrative costs and revenue.
(8) Whether the regulatory agencies tasked with implementing and enforcing the Control, Regulate and Tax Adult Use of Marijuana Act are doing so consistent with the purposes of the act, and whether different agencies might do so more effectively.
(9) Environmental issues related to cannabis production and the criminal prohibition of cannabis production.
(10) The geographic location, structure, and function of licensed cannabis businesses, and demographic data, including race, ethnicity, and gender, of licenseholders.
(11) The outcomes achieved by the changes in criminal penalties made under the Control, Regulate and Tax Adult Use of Marijuana Act for cannabis-related offenses, and the outcomes of the juvenile justice system, in particular, probation-based treatments and the frequency of up-charging illegal possession of cannabis or cannabis products to a more serious offense.
(c) The Controller shall next disburse the sum of three million dollars ($3,000,000) annually to the Department of the California Highway Patrol beginning with the 2018–19 fiscal year until the 2022–23 fiscal year to establish and adopt protocols to determine whether a driver is operating a vehicle while impaired, including impairment by the use of cannabis or cannabis products, and to establish and adopt protocols setting forth best practices to assist law enforcement agencies. The department may hire personnel to establish the protocols specified in this subdivision. In addition, the department may make grants to public and private research institutions for the purpose of developing technology for determining when a driver is operating a vehicle while impaired, including impairment by the use of cannabis or cannabis products.
(d) The Controller shall next disburse the sum of ten million dollars ($10,000,000) beginning with the 2018–19 fiscal year and increasing ten million dollars ($10,000,000) each fiscal year thereafter until the 2022–23 fiscal year, at which time the disbursement shall be fifty million dollars ($50,000,000) each year thereafter, to the Governor’s Office of Business and Economic Development, in consultation with the Labor and Workforce Development Agency and the State Department of Social Services, to administer a community reinvestments grants program to local health departments and at least 50 percent to qualified community-based nonprofit organizations to support job placement, mental health treatment, substance use disorder treatment, system navigation services, legal services to address barriers to reentry, and linkages to medical care for communities disproportionately affected by past federal and state drug policies. The office shall solicit input from community-based job skills, job placement, and legal service providers with relevant expertise as to the administration of the grants program. In addition, the office shall periodically evaluate the programs it is funding to determine the effectiveness of the programs, shall not spend more than 4 percent for administrative costs related to implementation, evaluation, and oversight of the programs, and shall award grants annually, beginning no later than January 1, 2020.
(e) The Controller shall next disburse the sum of two million dollars ($2,000,000) annually to the University of California San Diego Center for Medicinal Cannabis Research to further the objectives of the center, including the enhanced understanding of the efficacy and adverse effects of cannabis as a pharmacological agent.
(f) By July 15 of each fiscal year beginning in the 2018–19 fiscal year, the Controller shall, after disbursing funds pursuant to subdivisions (a), (b), (c), (d), and (e), disburse funds deposited in the tax fund during the prior fiscal year into sub-trust accounts, which are hereby created, as follows:
(1) Sixty percent shall be deposited in the Youth Education, Prevention, Early Intervention and Treatment Account, and disbursed by the Controller to the State Department of Health Care Services for programs for youth that are designed to educate about and to prevent substance use disorders and to prevent harm from substance use. The State Department of Health Care Services shall enter into interagency agreements with the State Department of Public Health and the State Department of Education to implement and administer these programs. The programs shall emphasize accurate education, effective prevention, early intervention, school retention, and timely treatment services for youth, their families, and caregivers. The programs may include, but are not limited to, the following components:
(A) Prevention and early intervention services including outreach, risk survey and education to youth, families, caregivers, schools, primary care health providers, behavioral health and substance use disorder service providers, community and faith-based organizations, fostercare providers, juvenile and family courts, and others to recognize and reduce risks related to substance use, and the early signs of problematic use and of substance use disorders.
(B) Grants to schools to develop and support student assistance programs, or other similar programs, designed to prevent and reduce substance use, and improve school retention and performance, by supporting students who are at risk of dropping out of school and promoting alternatives to suspension or expulsion that focus on school retention, remediation, and professional care. Schools with higher than average dropout rates should be prioritized for grants.
(C) Grants to programs for outreach, education, and treatment for homeless youth and out-of-school youth with substance use disorders.
(D) Access and linkage to care provided by county behavioral health programs for youth, and their families and caregivers, who have a substance use disorder or who are at risk for developing a substance use disorder.
(E) Youth-focused substance use disorder treatment programs that are culturally and gender competent, trauma informed, evidence based, and that provide a continuum of care that includes screening and assessment (substance use disorder as well as mental health), early intervention, active treatment, family involvement, case management, overdose prevention, prevention of communicable diseases related to substance use, relapse management for substance use and other cooccurring behavioral health disorders, vocational services, literacy services, parenting classes, family therapy and counseling services, medication-assisted treatments, psychiatric medication, and psychotherapy. When indicated, referrals must be made to other providers.
(F) To the extent permitted by law and where indicated, interventions shall utilize a two-generation approach to addressing substance use disorders with the capacity to treat youth and adults together. This would include supporting the development of family-based interventions that address substance use disorders and related problems within the context of families, including parents, foster parents, caregivers, and all their children.
(G) Programs to assist individuals, as well as families and friends of drug using young people, to reduce the stigma associated with substance use including being diagnosed with a substance use disorder or seeking substance use disorder services. This includes peer-run outreach and education to reduce stigma, anti-stigma campaigns, and community recovery networks.
(H) Workforce training and wage structures that increase the hiring pool of behavioral health staff with substance use disorder prevention and treatment expertise. Provide ongoing education and coaching that increases substance use treatment providers’ core competencies and trains providers on promising and evidenced-based practices.
(I) Construction of community-based youth treatment facilities.
(J) The departments may contract with each county behavioral health program for the provision of services.
(K) Funds shall be allocated to counties based on demonstrated need, including the number of youth in the county, the prevalence of substance use disorders among adults, and confirmed through statistical data, validated assessments, or submitted reports prepared by the applicable county to demonstrate and validate need.
(L) The departments shall periodically evaluate the programs they are funding to determine the effectiveness of the programs.
(M) The departments may use up to 4 percent of the moneys allocated to the Youth Education, Prevention, Early Intervention and Treatment Account for administrative costs related to implementation, evaluation, and oversight of the programs.
(N) If the Department of Finance ever determines that funding pursuant to cannabis taxation exceeds demand for youth prevention and treatment services in the state, the departments shall provide a plan to the Department of Finance to provide treatment services to adults as well as youth using these funds.
(O) The departments shall solicit input from volunteer health organizations, physicians who treat addiction, treatment researchers, family therapy and counseling providers, and professional education associations with relevant expertise as to the administration of any grants made pursuant to this paragraph.
(P) On or before July 10, 2023, the State Department of Health Care Services shall provide to the Legislature, pursuant to Section 9795 of the Government Code, a spending report of funds from the Youth Education, Prevention, Early Intervention and Treatment Account for the 2021–22 and 2022–23 fiscal years. On or before July 10, 2024, and annually thereafter, the State Department of Health Care Services shall provide to the Legislature, pursuant to Section 9795 of the Government Code, a spending report of funds from the Youth Education, Prevention, Early Intervention and Treatment Account for the prior fiscal year.
(2) Twenty percent shall be deposited in the Environmental Restoration and Protection Account, and disbursed by the Controller as follows:
(A) To the Department of Fish and Wildlife and the Department of Parks and Recreation for the cleanup, remediation, and restoration of environmental damage in watersheds affected by cannabis cultivation and related activities including, but not limited to, damage that occurred prior to enactment of this part, and to support local partnerships for this purpose. The Department of Fish and Wildlife and the Department of Parks and Recreation may distribute a portion of the funds they receive from the Environmental Restoration and Protection Account through grants for purposes specified in this paragraph.
(B) To the Department of Fish and Wildlife and the Department of Parks and Recreation for the stewardship and operation of state-owned wildlife habitat areas and state park units in a manner that discourages and prevents the illegal cultivation, production, sale, and use of cannabis and cannabis products on public lands, and to facilitate the investigation, enforcement, and prosecution of illegal cultivation, production, sale, and use of cannabis or cannabis products on public lands.
(C) To the Department of Fish and Wildlife to assist in funding the watershed enforcement program and multiagency taskforce established pursuant to subdivisions (b) and (c) of Section 12029 of the Fish and Game Code to facilitate the investigation, enforcement, and prosecution of these offenses and to ensure the reduction of adverse impacts of cannabis cultivation, production, sale, and use on fish and wildlife habitats throughout the state.
(D) For purposes of this paragraph, the Secretary of the Natural Resources Agency shall determine the allocation of revenues between the departments. During the first five years of implementation, first consideration should be given to funding purposes specified in subparagraph (A).
(E) Funds allocated pursuant to this paragraph shall be used to increase and enhance activities described in subparagraphs (A), (B), and (C), and not replace allocation of other funding for these purposes. Accordingly, annual General Fund appropriations to the Department of Fish and Wildlife and the Department of Parks and Recreation shall not be reduced below the levels provided in the Budget Act of 2014 (Chapter 25 of the Statutes of 2014).
(3) Twenty percent shall be deposited into the State and Local Government Law Enforcement Account and disbursed by the Controller as follows:
(A) To the Department of the California Highway Patrol for conducting training programs for detecting, testing, and enforcing laws against driving under the influence of alcohol and other drugs, including driving under the influence of cannabis. The department may hire personnel to conduct the training programs specified in this subparagraph.
(B) To the Department of the California Highway Patrol to fund internal California Highway Patrol programs and grants to qualified nonprofit organizations and local governments for education, prevention, and enforcement of laws related to driving under the influence of alcohol and other drugs, including cannabis; programs that help enforce traffic laws, educate the public in traffic safety, provide varied and effective means of reducing fatalities, injuries, and economic losses from collisions; and for the purchase of equipment related to enforcement of laws related to driving under the influence of alcohol and other drugs, including cannabis.
(C) To the Board of State and Community Corrections for making grants to local governments to assist with law enforcement, fire protection, or other local programs addressing public health and safety associated with the implementation of the Control, Regulate and Tax Adult Use of Marijuana Act. The board shall not make any grants to local governments that ban both indoor and outdoor commercial cannabis cultivation, or ban retail sale of cannabis or cannabis products pursuant to Section 26200 of the Business and Professions Code or as otherwise provided by law.
(D) For purposes of this paragraph, the Department of Finance shall determine the allocation of revenues between the agencies; provided, however, beginning in the 2022–23 fiscal year the amount allocated pursuant to subparagraph (A) shall not be less than ten million dollars ($10,000,000) annually and the amount allocated pursuant to subparagraph (B) shall not be less than forty million dollars ($40,000,000) annually. In determining the amount to be allocated before the 2022–23 fiscal year pursuant to this paragraph, the Department of Finance shall give initial priority to subparagraph (A).
(g) Funds allocated pursuant to subdivision (f) shall be used to increase the funding of programs and purposes identified and shall not be used to replace allocation of other funding for these purposes.
(h) Effective July 1, 2028, the Legislature may amend this section by majority vote to further the purposes of the Control, Regulate and Tax Adult Use of Marijuana Act, including allocating funds to programs other than those specified in subdivisions (d) and (f). Any revisions pursuant to this subdivision shall not result in a reduction of funds to accounts established pursuant to subdivisions (d) and (f) in any subsequent year from the amount allocated to each account in the 2027–28 fiscal year. Prior to July 1, 2028, the Legislature may not change the allocations to programs specified in subdivisions (d) and (f).

SEC. 213.

 Section 894 of the Streets and Highways Code is amended to read:

894.
 (a) The Department of the California Highway Patrol shall develop, on or before September 1, 2023, statewide safety and training programs based on evidence-based practices for users of electric bicycles, including, but not limited to, general electric bicycle riding safety, emergency maneuver skills, rules of the road, and laws pertaining to electric bicycles.
(b) The safety and training programs shall be developed in collaboration with relevant stakeholders.
(c) The safety and training programs shall be posted on the internet website of the Department of the California Highway Patrol on or before September 1, 2023.

SEC. 214.

 Section 22 of the Vehicle Code is amended to read:

22.
 Whenever notice is required to be given under this code by a department or any division, officer, employee, or agent, the notice shall be given either by personal delivery to the person to be notified, by certified mail, return receipt requested, by mailing the notice, postage prepaid, addressed to the person at their address as shown by the records of the department, or by electronic notification, as authorized pursuant to Section 1801.2.

SEC. 215.

 Section 5204 of the Vehicle Code is amended to read:

5204.
 (a) Except as provided by subdivisions (b) and (c), a tab shall indicate the year of expiration, and a tab shall indicate the month of expiration. Current month and year tabs shall be attached to the rear license plate assigned to the vehicle for the last preceding registration year in which license plates were issued, and, when so attached, the license plate with the tabs shall, for the purposes of this code, be deemed to be the license plate, except that truck tractors, and commercial motor vehicles having a declared gross vehicle weight of 10,001 pounds or more, shall display the current month and year tabs upon the front license plate assigned to the truck tractor or commercial motor vehicle. Vehicles that fail to display current month and year tabs or display expired tabs are in violation of this section.
(b) The requirement of subdivision (a) that the tabs indicate the year and the month of expiration does not apply to fleet vehicles subject to Article 9.5 (commencing with Section 5301) or vehicles defined in Section 468.
(c) Subdivision (a) does not apply when proper application for registration has been made pursuant to Section 4602 and the new indicia of current registration have not been received from the department.
(d) This section is enforceable against any motor vehicle that is driven, moved, or left standing upon a highway, or in an offstreet public parking facility, in the same manner as provided in subdivision (a) of Section 4000.
(e) Prior to issuing a citation for a violation of this section, a law enforcement officer shall verify, using available department records, that no current registration exists for that vehicle. A citation shall not be issued for failure to comply with this section against any vehicle that has a current registration on file with the department.

SEC. 216.

 Section 12811 of the Vehicle Code is amended to read:

12811.
 (a) (1) (A) When the department determines that the applicant is lawfully entitled to a license, it shall issue to the person a driver’s license as applied for. The license shall state the class of license for which the licensee has qualified and shall contain the distinguishing number assigned to the applicant, the date of expiration, the true full name, age, and mailing address or residence address of the licensee, a brief description and engraved picture or photograph of the licensee for the purpose of identification, and space for the signature of the licensee.
(B) Each license shall also contain a space for the endorsement of a record of each suspension or revocation of the license.
(C) The department shall use whatever process or processes, in the issuance of engraved or colored licenses, that prohibit, as near as possible, the ability to alter or reproduce the license or prohibit the ability to superimpose a picture or photograph on the license without ready detection.
(2) In addition to the requirements of paragraph (1), a license issued to a person under 18 years of age shall display the words “provisional until age 18.”
(b) (1) All applications for a driver’s license or identification card shall contain a space for an applicant to indicate whether they have served in the Armed Forces of the United States and to give their consent to be contacted regarding eligibility to receive state or federal veterans benefits. The application shall contain the following statement:

“By marking the veteran box on this application, I certify that I am a veteran of the United States Armed Forces and that I want to receive veterans benefits information from the California Department of Veterans Affairs. By marking the veteran box on this application, I also consent to DMV transmitting my name and mailing address to the California Department of Veterans Affairs for this purpose only, and I certify that I have been notified that this transmittal will occur.”

(2) The department shall collect the information obtained pursuant to paragraph (1).
(3) As mutually agreed between the department and the Department of Veterans Affairs, the department shall electronically transmit to the Department of Veterans Affairs the following information on each applicant who has identified that they have served in the Armed Forces of the United States since the last data transfer and has consented to be contacted about veterans benefits:
(A)  The applicant’s true full name.
(B)  The applicant’s mailing address.
(4) Information obtained by the Department of Veterans Affairs for the purposes of this subdivision shall be used for the purpose of assisting individuals to access veterans benefits and shall not be disseminated except as needed for this purpose.
(5) An application for a driver’s license or identification card shall allow an applicant to request the word “VETERAN” be printed on the face of the driver’s license or identification card. A verification form shall be developed by the Department of Veterans Affairs in consultation with the Department of Motor Vehicles and the California Association of County Veterans Service Officers to acknowledge verification of veteran status. A county veterans service office shall verify the veteran’s status as a veteran, sign the verification form, and return it to the veteran. The Department of Motor Vehicles shall accept the signed verification form as proof of veteran status. The word “VETERAN” shall be printed on the face of a driver’s license or identification card, in a location determined by the department, and issued to a person who makes this request and presents the verification form to the department.
(c) A contract shall not be awarded to a nongovernmental entity for the processing of driver’s licenses unless the contract conforms to all applicable state contracting laws and all applicable procedures set forth in the State Contracting Manual.

SEC. 217.

 Section 23301.5 of the Vehicle Code is amended to read:

23301.5.
 (a) An authorized emergency vehicle is exempt from any requirement to pay a toll or other charge on a vehicular crossing, toll highway, or high-occupancy toll (HOT) lane, including the requirements of Section 23301, if all of the following conditions are satisfied:
(1) The authorized emergency vehicle is properly displaying an exempt California license plate and is properly identified or marked as an authorized emergency vehicle, including, but not limited to, displaying an external surface-mounted red warning light, blue warning light, or both, and displaying public agency identification, including, but not limited to, “Fire Department,” “Sheriff,” or “Police.”
(2) (A) The vehicle is being driven while responding to or returning from an urgent or emergency call, engaged in an urgent or emergency response, or engaging in a fire station coverage assignment directly related to an emergency response.
(B) For purposes of this paragraph, an “urgent” response or call means an incident or circumstance that requires an immediate response to a public safety-related incident but does not warrant the use of emergency warning lights. “Urgent” does not include any personal use, commuting, training, or administrative uses.
(C) Notwithstanding subparagraph (A), an authorized emergency vehicle, when returning from an urgent or emergency call, from being engaged in an urgent or emergency response, or from engaging in a fire station coverage assignment directly related to an emergency response, shall not be exempt from any requirement to pay a toll or other charge imposed while traveling on a HOT lane.
(3) The driver of the vehicle determines that the use of the toll facility shall likely improve the availability or response and arrival time of the authorized emergency vehicle and its delivery of essential public safety services.
(b) If the operator of a toll facility elects to send a bill or invoice to the public agency for the use of the toll facility by an authorized emergency vehicle that is exempt pursuant to subdivision (a), the fire chief, police chief, county sheriff, or head of the public agency, or their designee, is authorized to certify in writing that the authorized emergency vehicle was responding to or returning from an emergency call or response and is exempt from the payment of the toll or other charge in accordance with this section. The letter shall be accepted by the toll operator in lieu of payment and is a public document.
(c) An authorized emergency vehicle that does not comply with this section is not exempt from the requirement to pay a toll or other charge on a toll highway, vehicular crossing, or HOT lane. Upon information and belief of the toll operator that an authorized emergency vehicle is not in compliance with this section, the fire chief, police chief, county sheriff, or head of the public agency, or their designee, upon the written request of the owner or operator of the toll facility, shall provide or otherwise make accessible to the toll operator the dispatch records or log books relevant to the time period when the vehicle was in use on the toll highway, vehicular crossing, or HOT lane.
(d) Upon the request of a local emergency service provider, an owner or operator of a toll facility shall enter into an agreement to establish mutually agreed upon terms for the use of the toll facility by the emergency service provider. This section shall not prohibit the owner or operator of a toll facility from having a policy that meets or exceeds this section. If at any time an emergency service provider or the owner or operator of a toll facility opts to terminate an agreement regarding the payment and processing of tolls or other charges, this section shall apply to the emergency service provider and the toll facility. An agreement between an emergency service provider and the owner or operator of a toll facility does not exempt other emergency service providers not named in the original agreement and the toll facility from the requirements of this section when those other emergency service providers use a toll facility in the jurisdiction of the owner or operator of the toll facility.
(e) Sections 23302 and 23302.5 do not apply to authorized emergency vehicles exempt pursuant to this section.
(f) As used in this section, “toll facility” includes a toll road, HOT lane, toll bridge, toll highway, a vehicular crossing for which payment of a toll or charge is required, or any other toll facility.

SEC. 218.

 Section 40000.11 of the Vehicle Code is amended to read:

40000.11.
 A violation of any of the following provisions is a misdemeanor, and not an infraction:
(a) Division 5 (commencing with Section 11100), relating to occupational licensing and business regulations.
(b) Section 12515, subdivision (b), relating to persons under 21 years of age driving, and the employment of those persons to drive, vehicles engaged in interstate commerce or transporting hazardous substances or wastes.
(c) Section 12517, relating to a special driver’s certificate to operate a schoolbus or school pupil activity bus.
(d) Section 12517.45, relating to a special driver’s certificate and vehicle inspection for the transportation of pupils to or from school-related activities by a passenger charter-party carrier as defined in subdivision (k) of Section 545.
(e) Section 12519, subdivision (a), relating to a special driver’s certificate to operate a farm labor vehicle.
(f) Section 12520, relating to a special driver’s certificate to operate a tow truck.
(g) Section 12951, subdivision (b), relating to refusal to display license.
(h) Section 13004, relating to unlawful use of an identification card.
(i) Section 13004.1, relating to identification documents.
(j) Sections 14601, 14601.1, 14601.2, and 14601.5, relating to driving with a suspended or revoked driver’s license.
(k) Section 14604, relating to unlawful use of a vehicle.
(l) Section 14610, relating to unlawful use of a driver’s license.
(m) Section 14610.1, relating to identification documents.
(n) Section 15501, relating to use of false or fraudulent license by a minor.

SEC. 219.

 Section 40225 of the Vehicle Code is amended to read:

40225.
 (a) An equipment violation entered on the notice of parking violation attached to the vehicle under Section 40203 shall be processed in accordance with this article. All of the violations entered on the notice of parking violation shall be noticed in the notice of delinquent parking violation delivered pursuant to Section 40206 together with the amount of civil penalty.
(b) Whether or not a vehicle is in violation of any regulation governing the standing or parking of a vehicle but is in violation of subdivision (a) of Section 5204, a person authorized to enforce parking laws and regulations shall verify, using available Department of Motor Vehicle records, that no current registration exists for that vehicle. A citation shall not be issued for failure to comply with subdivision (a) of Section 5204 against any vehicle that has a current registration on file with the department. If the person authorized to enforce parking laws and regulations does not have immediate access to those records, a citation shall not be issued for failure to comply with subdivision (a) of Section 5204. A person authorized to enforce parking laws and regulations shall issue a written notice of parking violation for a vehicle that does not have a tab or a verified current registration, setting forth the alleged violation. The violation shall be processed pursuant to this section.
(c) The civil penalty for each equipment violation, including failure to properly display a license plate, is the amount established for the violation in the Uniform Bail and Penalty Schedule, as adopted by the Judicial Council, except that upon proof of the correction to the processing agency, the penalty shall be reduced to ten dollars ($10). The reduction provided for in this subdivision involving failure to properly display license plates shall only apply if, at the time of the violation, valid license plates were issued for that vehicle in accordance with this code. The civil penalty for each violation of Section 5204 is the amount established for the violation in the Uniform Bail and Penalty Schedule, as adopted by the Judicial Council, except that upon proof of the correction to the processing agency, the penalty shall be reduced to ten dollars ($10).
(d) Fifty percent of any penalty collected pursuant to this section for registration or equipment violations by a processing agency shall be paid to the county for remittance to the State Treasurer, and the remaining 50 percent shall be retained by the issuing agency and processing agency subject to the terms of the contract described in Section 40200.5.
(e) Subdivisions (a) and (b) do not preclude the recording of a violation of subdivision (a) or (b) of Section 4000 on a notice of parking violation or the adjudication of that violation under the civil process set forth in this article.

SEC. 220.

 Section 12687.5 of the Water Code is amended to read:

12687.5.
 (a) Notwithstanding Section 12585.7, the state may provide subvention of funds, up to 100 percent of the costs, for the project for flood control on the Pajaro River in the Counties of Monterey and Santa Cruz, authorized by the federal Flood Control Act of 1966 (Public Law 89-789), that is substantially in accordance with the recommendations of the Chief of Engineers of the United States Army Corps of Engineers in House Document 491, 89th Congress, to the Counties of Monterey and Santa Cruz, or to local agencies in those counties, as follows:
(1) At an estimated cost to the state of the sum that may be appropriated for state cooperation by the Legislature upon the recommendations and advice of the department.
(2) Upon a specific written determination by the department that the project meets the requirements of Section 12582.7.
(b) The state assumes no liability for damages that may result from the project by either of the following:
(1) Authorizing the provision of subvention funds in accordance with this section.
(2) The appropriation by the Legislature of these subvention funds upon the recommendations and advice of the department.
(c) The County of Monterey or Santa Cruz, or a local agency in either of those counties, may receive the subvention funds only if it enters into an agreement with the department pursuant to which the county or local agency agrees to indemnify and hold and save harmless the state, its officers, agents, and employees for any and all liability for damages that may result from the project.
(d) State funding, upon appropriation by the Legislature, may be used for planning, engineering, designing, and constructing the project within authorized project boundaries as set forth in the recommendations of the Chief of Engineers of the United States Army Corps of Engineers in House Document 491, 89th Congress, as authorized by the federal Flood Control Act of 1966 (Public Law 89-789). The state, through the Flood Control Subventions Program, may advance funds for the planning, engineering, design, and construction of the authorized project, and the acquisition of required lands, easements, rights-of-way, utility relocations, disposal sites, and borrow areas for, and mitigation of, the authorized project, as specified in the Army Corps of Engineers report entitled Pajaro River Flood Risk Management General Reevaluation Report & Integrated Environmental Assessment. The state shall have the discretion to reduce retention withheld under any cost-share agreement to fund the Pajaro River Flood Risk Management Project to 0 percent and is authorized to advance funding in the absence, in whole or in part, of federal funding, in which case the funding shall not exceed the amount that would be the equivalent nonfederal share if there was federal project funding.
(e) Before any funds appropriated by the Legislature are provided to the flood control project, the Director of Water Resources shall find both of the following:
(1) The project qualifies for greater than a 100 percent state cost share based upon the gross calculation of the cumulative benefits the project provides as described in a nonfederal cost-share report submitted to the department for the project.
(2) The project spans more than one county, contains significant state assets, and widespread economic hardship exists throughout the benefit area of the project, as demonstrated in a nonfederal cost-share report submitted to the department for the project, and the project would aid in the restoration of a groundwater aquifer.
(f) For purposes of this section, “liability for damages” includes, but is not limited to, liability for damages relating to the construction or operation of the project or the failure of the project to operate as intended.

SEC. 221.

 Section 80710 of the Water Code is amended to read:

80710.
 (a) The department, in consultation with the commission, shall implement projects, purchases, and contracts to carry out the purposes of Chapter 8.9 (commencing with Section 25790) of Division 15 of the Public Resources Code, including, but not limited to, the Distributed Electricity Backup Assets Program and the Demand Side Grid Support Program.
(b) (1) In furtherance of subdivision (a) and notwithstanding any other law, the department may construct, own and operate, or contract for the construction and operation of, contract for the purchase of electricity from, or finance through loans, reimbursement agreements, or other contracts actions to secure resources for summer reliability or to preserve the option to extend the life of only the following facilities:
(A) Extension of the operating life of existing nonnuclear generating facilities planned for retirement.
(B) New emergency and temporary energy generators of five megawatts or more. If a generator is operated using diesel fuel, the department shall not operate it after July 31, 2023.
(C) New energy storage systems that are located outside of the coastal zone and the jurisdiction of the San Francisco Bay Conservation and Development Commission, of 20 megawatts or more, that are capable of discharging for at least two hours, and with an operational date no later than December 31, 2024.
(D) Generation facilities that are located outside of the coastal zone and the jurisdiction of the San Francisco Bay Conservation and Development Commission and use clean, zero-emission fuel technology of any size to produce electricity.
(E) Supporting the development of zero-emission generation capacity with a point of interconnection at a California balancing authority, with the majority of its capacity contracted for by a load-serving entity that has a service area primarily in California, with an operational date no later than December 31, 2024. For purposes of this subparagraph, only a facility with a net qualifying capacity of at least 50 percent of its nameplate capacity, as estimated at 8:00 p.m. on a date in September, shall be eligible.
(2) In furtherance of subdivision (a) of Section 80700, the department may reimburse electrical corporations, as defined in Section 218 of the Public Utilities Code, for the value of imported energy or import capacity products that was (A) delivered or capable of being delivered between July 1, 2022, and on or before September 30, 2022, and (B) was procured at above-market costs or in excess of procurement authorizations set by the Public Utilities Commission and above the requirements needed to serve its bundled customers in support of summer electric service reliability.
(c) Facilities constructed by the department or under a contract with the department pursuant to this division that use any form of fossil fuel shall only operate as necessary to respond to extreme events, as defined in subdivision (b) of Section 25790.5 of the Public Resources Code, and shall not operate at any other time.
(d) Facilities constructed by the department or under a contract with the department pursuant to this division shall not constitute State Water Resources Development System facilities under Chapter 8 (commencing with Section 12930) of Part 6 of Division 6.
(e) (1) The department shall consult with the commission, the Public Utilities Commission, the Independent System Operator or other applicable California balancing authorities, and the State Air Resources Board in carrying out the purposes of this division.
(2) Beginning October 1, 2022, and at least every three months thereafter, the department shall provide an update on the investments made and being considered into the strategic reliability reserve at a commission business meeting. The President of the Public Utilities Commission or the president’s designee and the President of the Independent System Operator or the president’s designee shall attend the presentation.
(3) The department shall prioritize investments that do not compete with generating facilities already planned for development and disclosed by load-serving entities or local publicly owned electric utilities.
(4) In fulfilling the requirements of this division to achieve electricity reliability, the department shall prioritize investments in feasible, cost-effective zero-emission resources, and then feasible, cost-effective conventional resources.
(f) The department shall develop, execute, and implement contracts covering energy generation, operation and maintenance, fuel management, site leases, energy settlements, invoice verification, billing, and other associated items. The department shall also enter into contracts for external services to provide specialized expertise.
(g) (1) Contracts entered into pursuant to this division, amendments to those contracts during their terms, or contracts for services reasonably related to those contracts, and entered on or before December 31, 2023, shall not be subject to competitive bidding or any other state contracting requirements, shall not require the review, consent, or approval of the Department of General Services or any other state department or agency, and are not subject to the requirements of the State Contracting Manual, the Public Contract Code, or the personal services contracting requirements of Article 4 (commencing with Section 19130) of Chapter 5 of Part 2 of Division 5 of Title 2 of the Government Code.
(2) This subdivision shall not apply to any contract, grant, or loan entered into for purposes of this chapter that does not directly contribute to electrical grid reliability by October 31, 2027.
(3) This subdivision is inoperative December 1, 2026.
(h) For contracts entered into pursuant to this division, amendments to those contracts during their terms, or contracts for services reasonably related to those contracts, and executed after December 31, 2023, Sections 10295, 10297, and 10340 of the Public Contact Code do not apply to a contract that meets the conditions established by the department for those contracts.
(i) For contracts entered into pursuant to this division by the department after October 31, 2022, the department shall notify the commission of the terms, costs, and scope at a commission business meeting and the commission shall consider the investment plan for approval in a meeting held consistent with the terms of Chapter 3 (commencing with Section 25200) of Division 15 of the Public Resources Code. No less than 10 days after the commission approves the contract, grant, investment, or loan, the executive director of the commission shall give written notice to the Joint Legislative Budget Committee of the action.
(j) A contract entered into, or an approval granted by the department pursuant to this division is not subject to the California Environmental Quality Act (Division 13 (commencing with Section 21000) of the Public Resources Code) and regulations adopted pursuant to that act.
(k) The department may adopt guidelines to implement this division. The Administrative Procedure Act (Chapter 3.5 (commencing with Section 11340) of Part 1 of Division 3 of Title 2 of the Government Code) does not apply to any regulation or guidelines adopted by the department pursuant to this division.

SEC. 222.

 Section 726 of the Welfare and Institutions Code is amended to read:

726.
 (a) In all cases in which a minor is adjudged a ward or dependent child of the court, the court may limit the control to be exercised over the ward or dependent child by any parent or guardian and shall, in its order, clearly and specifically set forth all those limitations, but no ward or dependent child shall be taken from the physical custody of a parent or guardian, unless upon the hearing the court finds one of the following facts:
(1) That the parent or guardian is incapable of providing or has failed or neglected to provide proper maintenance, training, and education for the minor.
(2) That the minor has been tried on probation while in custody and has failed to reform.
(3) That the welfare of the minor requires that custody be taken from the minor’s parent or guardian.
(b) Whenever the court specifically limits the right of the parent or guardian to make educational or developmental services decisions for the minor, the court shall at the same time appoint a responsible adult to make educational or developmental services decisions for the child until one of the following occurs:
(1) The minor reaches 18 years of age, unless the child chooses not to make educational or developmental services decisions for themselves, or is deemed by the court to be incompetent.
(2) Another responsible adult is appointed to make educational or developmental services decisions for the minor pursuant to this section.
(3) The right of the parent or guardian to make educational or developmental services decisions for the minor is fully restored.
(4) A successor guardian or conservator is appointed.
(5) The child is placed into a planned permanent living arrangement pursuant to paragraph (5) or (6) of subdivision (b) of Section 727.3, at which time, for educational decisionmaking, the foster parent, relative caretaker, or nonrelative extended family member, as defined in Section 362.7, has the right to represent the child in educational matters pursuant to Section 56055 of the Education Code, and for decisions relating to developmental services, unless the court specifies otherwise, the foster parent, relative caregiver, or nonrelative extended family member of the planned permanent living arrangement has the right to represent the child in matters related to developmental services.
(c) An individual who would have a conflict of interest in representing the child, as specified under federal regulations, may not be appointed to make educational decisions. The limitations applicable to conflicts of interest for educational rights holders shall also apply to authorized representatives for developmental services decisions pursuant to subdivision (b) of Section 4701.6. For purposes of this section, “an individual who would have a conflict of interest” means a person having any interests that might restrict or bias their ability to make educational or developmental services decisions, including, but not limited to, those conflicts of interest prohibited by Section 1126 of the Government Code, and the receipt of compensation or attorneys’ fees for the provision of services pursuant to this section. A foster parent may not be deemed to have a conflict of interest solely because the foster parent receives compensation for the provision of services pursuant to this section.
(1) If the court limits the parent’s educational rights pursuant to subdivision (a), the court shall determine whether there is a responsible adult who is a relative, nonrelative extended family member, or other adult known to the child and who is available and willing to serve as the child’s educational representative before appointing an educational representative or surrogate who is not known to the child.
If the court cannot identify a responsible adult who is known to the child and available to make educational decisions for the child and paragraphs (1) to (5), inclusive, of subdivision (b) do not apply, and the child has either been referred to the local educational agency for special education and related services or has a valid individualized education program, the court shall refer the child to the local educational agency for appointment of a surrogate parent pursuant to Section 7579.5 of the Government Code.
(2) All educational and school placement decisions shall seek to ensure that the child is in the least restrictive educational programs and has access to the academic resources, services, and extracurricular and enrichment activities that are available to all pupils. In all instances, educational and school placement decisions shall be based on the best interests of the child. If an educational representative or surrogate is appointed for the child, the representative or surrogate shall meet with the child, shall investigate the child’s educational needs and whether those needs are being met, and shall, before each review hearing held under Article 10 (commencing with Section 360), provide information and recommendations concerning the child’s educational needs to the child’s social worker, make written recommendations to the court, or attend the hearing and participate in those portions of the hearing that concern the child’s education.
(3) Nothing in this section in any way removes the obligation to appoint surrogate parents for students with disabilities who are without parental representation in special education procedures as required by state and federal law, including Section 1415(b)(2) of Title 20 of the United States Code, Section 56050 of the Education Code, Section 7579.5 of the Government Code, and Rule 5.650 of the California Rules of Court.
If the court appoints a developmental services decisionmaker pursuant to this section, they shall have the authority to access the child’s information and records pursuant to subdivision (u) of Section 4514 and paragraph (23) of subdivision (a) of Section 5328, and to act on the child’s behalf for the purposes of the individual program plan process pursuant to Sections 4646, 4646.5, and 4648 and the fair hearing process pursuant to Chapter 7 (commencing with Section 4700) of Division 4.5, and as set forth in the court order.
(d) (1) If the minor is removed from the physical custody of the minor’s parent or guardian as the result of an order of wardship made pursuant to Section 602, the order shall specify that the minor may not be held in physical confinement for a period in excess of the middle term of imprisonment which could be imposed upon an adult convicted of the offense or offenses which brought or continued the minor under the jurisdiction of the juvenile court.
(2) As used in this section and in Section 731, “maximum term of imprisonment” means the middle of the three time periods set forth in paragraph (3) of subdivision (a) of Section 1170 of the Penal Code, but without the need to follow the provisions of subdivision (b) of Section 1170 of the Penal Code or to consider time for good behavior or participation pursuant to Sections 2930, 2931, and 2932 of the Penal Code, plus enhancements which must be proven if pled.
(3) If the court elects to aggregate the period of physical confinement on multiple counts or multiple petitions, including previously sustained petitions adjudging the minor a ward within Section 602, the “maximum term of imprisonment” shall be the aggregate term of imprisonment specified in subdivision (a) of Section 1170.1 of the Penal Code, which includes any additional term imposed pursuant to Section 667, 667.5, 667.6, or 12022.1 of the Penal Code, and Section 11370.2 of the Health and Safety Code.
(4) If the charged offense is a misdemeanor or a felony not included within the scope of Section 1170 of the Penal Code, the “maximum term of imprisonment” is the middle term of imprisonment prescribed by law.
(5) “Physical confinement” means placement in a juvenile hall, ranch, camp, forestry camp or secure juvenile home pursuant to Section 730, or in a secure youth treatment facility pursuant to Section 875, or in any institution operated by the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation, Division of Juvenile Justice.
(6) This section does not limit the power of the court to retain jurisdiction over a minor and to make appropriate orders pursuant to Section 727 for the period permitted by Section 607.

SEC. 223.

 Section 1732.9 of the Welfare and Institutions Code is amended to read:

1732.9.
 (a) Notwithstanding any other law, immediately prior to closure of the Division of Juvenile Justice, a person 18 years of age or older who is subject to the custody, control, and discipline of the division and who has been sentenced to state prison pursuant to Section 1170 of the Penal Code for a felony committed while the person was in the custody of the division may voluntarily remain in an institution under the jurisdiction of the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation to complete the remaining juvenile court commitment, subject to the provisions of this section, or may be returned to the county of commitment.
(b) Notwithstanding any other law, immediately prior to closure of the division, a person 18 years of age or older in the custody of the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation pursuant to Section 1732.8 may voluntarily remain in an institution under the jurisdiction of the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation to complete the person’s juvenile court commitment, subject to the provisions of this section.
(c) As soon as possible, the director of the division shall notify the juvenile court of commitment, juvenile counsel of record, and the county probation agency of a person in the custody of the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation pursuant to Section 1732.8 of this code or Section 1170 of the Penal Code for a felony committed while in the custody of the division, that the person has remaining juvenile court commitment time that can be voluntarily served at an institution under the jurisdiction of the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation, subject to the provisions of the section. The division shall also notify the juvenile court of commitment of the youth’s most recent projected board hearing date for court consideration.
(d) Prior to deciding whether to serve the remaining commitment time in the state prison or be returned to the county of commitment, a person in the custody of the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation pursuant to Section 1732.8 who is scheduled to be returned to the county shall meet personally with a probation officer from the county of commitment and be advised by juvenile counsel of record. The probation officer shall explain, using language clearly understandable to the person, all of the following matters:
(1) What will be expected from the person when the person returns to county jurisdiction, in terms of cooperative daily living conduct and participation in applicable counseling, academic, vocational, work experience, or specialized programming.
(2) The conditions of probation applicable to the person, if set by the court, and how those conditions will be monitored and enforced.
(3) The person’s right, under this section, to voluntarily and irrevocably consent to continue to be housed in an institution under the jurisdiction of the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation instead of being returned to county custody.
(e) A person shall not be retained at the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation pursuant to this section until and unless the person voluntarily, intelligently, and knowingly executes a written consent to the placement, which shall be irrevocable. This consent shall be irrevocable unless the youth can demonstrate that they are in danger of suffering great bodily harm. A youth returned to the county under this subdivision shall not be subsequently returned to the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation.
(f) Notwithstanding any other law, a person who has been returned to the county after serving a sentence imposed pursuant to Section 1170 of the Penal Code for a felony committed while the person was in the custody of the division, may be transferred to the custody of the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation if the person consents to the transfer after having been provided with the explanations described in subdivision (d), and after consulting with the juvenile counsel of record.
(g) If a person consents to being housed in an institution under the jurisdiction of the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation pursuant to this section, the person shall be subject to the general rules and regulations of the department. The juvenile court of commitment shall continue to have jurisdiction over the juvenile case while the individual is in an institution under the jurisdiction of the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation. The county probation department shall, with the assistance of the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation, provide semiannual status reports to the court that summarize the person’s progress in the department’s care. However, the court shall not order or recommend any treatment, education, or other programming that is unavailable in the institution where the person is housed, and shall not deny release to a person housed in the institution based solely on the person’s failure to participate in programs that were unavailable to the person.
(h) A person housed in an institution under the jurisdiction of the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation pursuant to this section who has not attained a high school diploma or its equivalent shall participate in educational or vocational programs, to the extent the appropriate programs are available.
(i) Upon notification by the Secretary of the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation that the person has completed the juvenile court commitment and should no longer be housed in an institution under its jurisdiction, the court of commitment shall immediately send for, take, and receive the person back into the county’s jurisdiction.
(j) The county of commitment shall not be charged by the state for a person in custody of the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation pursuant to this section while serving the person’s juvenile court commitment.
(k) This section shall only apply to a person described in subdivision (a) or (b) who is in the custody of the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation when the division closes. Additional persons shall not be subject to this section.
(l) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2031, and as of that date is repealed.

SEC. 224.

 Section 3200 of the Welfare and Institutions Code is amended to read:

3200.
 (a) The California Health and Human Services Agency shall establish a grant program to reduce fentanyl overdoses and use throughout the state. Six one-time grants shall be made: two in northern California, two in the central valley, and two in southern California.
(b) Grant moneys may be used for any of the following purposes:
(1) Education programs in local schools.
(2) Increasing testing abilities for fentanyl.
(3) Overdose prevention and recovery programs, including making naloxone or other overdose recovery drugs more available in the community.
(4) Increasing social services and substance use recovery services to those addicted to fentanyl or other opioids.
(c) A local jurisdiction or agency, or a group comprised of local jurisdictions and agencies working in concert, shall submit an application and plan to the state agency in a form required by the state agency. The state agency shall award grants based on need, evidence-based likelihood of success, and the number of people proposed to be served.

SEC. 225.

 Section 5275 of the Welfare and Institutions Code is amended to read:

5275.
 Every person detained under this part shall have a right to a hearing by writ of habeas corpus for their release after they or any person acting on their behalf has made a request for release to either (a) the person delivering the copy of the notice of certification to the person certified at the time of the delivery, or (b) to any member of the treatment staff of the facility providing intensive treatment, at any time during treatment pursuant to this part.
Any person delivering a copy of the certification notice or any member of the treatment staff to whom a request for release is made shall promptly provide the person making the request for their signature or mark a copy of the form set forth below. The person delivering the copy of the certification notice or the member of the treatment staff, as the case may be, shall fill in their own name and the date, and, if the person signs by mark, shall fill in the person’s name, and shall then deliver the completed copy to the professional person in charge of the intensive treatment facility, or their designee, notifying them of the request. As soon as possible, the person notified shall inform the superior court for the county in which the facility is located of the request for release.
Any person who intentionally violates this section is guilty of a misdemeanor.
The form for a request for release shall be substantially as follows:
(Name of the facility)___ day of ____ 20__
I, ____ (member of the treatment staff, or person delivering the copy of the certification notice), have today received a request for the release of ____ (name of patient) from the undersigned patient on the patient’s own behalf or from the undersigned person on behalf of the patient.
_____
_____
Signature or mark of patient making request for
release
_____
_____
Signature or mark of person making request on
behalf of patient

SEC. 226.

 Section 5346 of the Welfare and Institutions Code is amended to read:

5346.
 (a) In any county or group of counties where services are available as provided in Section 5348, a court may order a person who is the subject of a petition filed pursuant to this section to obtain assisted outpatient treatment if the court finds, by clear and convincing evidence, that the facts stated in the verified petition filed in accordance with this section are true and establish that all of the requisite criteria set forth in this section are met, including, but not limited to, each of the following:
(1) The person is 18 years of age or older.
(2) The person is suffering from a mental illness as defined in paragraphs (2) and (3) of subdivision (b) of Section 5600.3.
(3) There has been a clinical determination that, in view of the person’s treatment history and current behavior, at least one of the following is true:
(A) The person is unlikely to survive safely in the community without supervision and the person’s condition is substantially deteriorating.
(B) The person is in need of assisted outpatient treatment in order to prevent a relapse or deterioration that would be likely to result in grave disability or serious harm to the person or to others, as defined in Section 5150.
(4) The person has a history of lack of compliance with treatment for the person’s mental illness, in that at least one of the following is true:
(A) The person’s mental illness has, at least twice within the last 36 months, been a substantial factor in necessitating hospitalization, or receipt of services in a forensic or other mental health unit of a state correctional facility or local correctional facility, not including any period during which the person was hospitalized or incarcerated immediately preceding the filing of the petition.
(B) The person’s mental illness has resulted in one or more acts of serious and violent behavior toward themselves or another, or threats, or attempts to cause serious physical harm to themselves or another within the last 48 months, not including any period in which the person was hospitalized or incarcerated immediately preceding the filing of the petition.
(5) The person has been offered an opportunity to participate in a treatment plan by the director of the local mental health department, or the director’s designee, provided the treatment plan includes all of the services described in Section 5348, and the person continues to fail to engage in treatment.
(6) Participation in the assisted outpatient treatment program would be the least restrictive placement necessary to ensure the person’s recovery and stability.
(7) It is likely that the person will benefit from assisted outpatient treatment.
(b) (1) A petition for an order authorizing assisted outpatient treatment may be filed by the county behavioral health director, or the director’s designee, in the superior court in the county in which the person who is the subject of the petition is present or reasonably believed to be present.
(2) A request may be made only by any of the following persons to the county mental health department for the filing of a petition to obtain an order authorizing assisted outpatient treatment:
(A) A person 18 years of age or older with whom the person who is the subject of the petition resides.
(B) A person who is the parent, spouse, or sibling or child 18 years of age or older of the person who is the subject of the petition.
(C) The director of a public or private agency, treatment facility, charitable organization, or licensed residential care facility providing mental health services to the person who is the subject of the petition in whose institution the subject of the petition resides.
(D) The director of a hospital in which the person who is the subject of the petition is hospitalized.
(E) A licensed mental health treatment provider who is either supervising the treatment of, or treating for a mental illness, the person who is the subject of the petition.
(F) A peace officer, parole officer, or probation officer assigned to supervise the person who is the subject of the petition.
(G) A judge of a superior court before whom the person who is the subject of the petition appears.
(3) Upon receiving a request pursuant to paragraph (2), the county behavioral health director shall conduct an investigation into the appropriateness of filing of the petition. The director shall file the petition only if the director determines that there is a reasonable likelihood that all the necessary elements to sustain the petition can be proven in a court of law by clear and convincing evidence.
(4) The petition shall state all of the following:
(A) Each of the criteria for assisted outpatient treatment as set forth in subdivision (a).
(B) Facts that support the petitioner’s belief that the person who is the subject of the petition meets each criterion, provided that the hearing on the petition shall be limited to the stated facts in the verified petition, and the petition contains all the grounds on which the petition is based, in order to ensure adequate notice to the person who is the subject of the petition and that person’s counsel.
(C) That the person who is the subject of the petition is present, or is reasonably believed to be present, within the county where the petition is filed.
(D) That the person who is the subject of the petition has the right to be represented by counsel in all stages of the proceeding under the petition, in accordance with subdivision (c).
(5) (A) The petition shall be accompanied by an affidavit of a licensed mental health treatment provider designated by the local mental health director who shall state, if applicable, either of the following:
(i) That the licensed mental health treatment provider has personally examined the person who is the subject of the petition no more than 10 days prior to the submission of the petition, the facts and reasons why the person who is the subject of the petition meets the criteria in subdivision (a), that the licensed mental health treatment provider recommends assisted outpatient treatment for the person who is the subject of the petition, and that the licensed mental health treatment provider is willing and able to testify at the hearing on the petition.
(ii) That, no more than 10 days prior to the filing of the petition, the licensed mental health treatment provider, or the provider’s designee, has made appropriate attempts to elicit the cooperation of the person who is the subject of the petition, but has not been successful in persuading that person to submit to an examination, that the licensed mental health treatment provider has reason to believe that the person who is the subject of the petition meets the criteria for assisted outpatient treatment, and that the licensed mental health treatment provider is willing and able to examine the person who is the subject of the petition and testify at the hearing on the petition.
(B) An examining mental health professional in their affidavit to the court shall address the issue of whether the defendant has capacity to give informed consent regarding psychotropic medication.
(c) The person who is the subject of the petition shall have the right to be represented by counsel at all stages of a proceeding commenced under this section. If the person so elects, the court shall immediately appoint the public defender or other attorney to assist the person in all stages of the proceedings. The person shall pay the cost of the legal services if able to do so.
(d) (1) Upon receipt by the court of a petition submitted pursuant to subdivision (b), the court shall fix the date for a hearing at a time not later than five days from the date the petition is received by the court, excluding Saturdays, Sundays, and holidays. The petitioner shall promptly cause service of a copy of the petition, together with written notice of the hearing date, to be made personally on the person who is the subject of the petition, and shall send a copy of the petition and notice to the county office of patient rights, and to the current health care provider appointed for the person who is the subject of the petition, if the provider is known to the petitioner. Continuances shall be permitted only for good cause shown. In granting continuances, the court shall consider the need for further examination by a physician or the potential need to provide expeditiously assisted outpatient treatment. Upon the hearing date, or upon any other date or dates to which the proceeding may be continued, the court shall hear testimony. If it is deemed advisable by the court, and if the person who is the subject of the petition is available and has received notice pursuant to this section, the court may examine in or out of court the person who is the subject of the petition who is alleged to be in need of assisted outpatient treatment. If the person who is the subject of the petition does not appear at the hearing, and appropriate attempts to elicit the attendance of the person have failed, the court may conduct the hearing in the person’s absence. If the hearing is conducted without the person present, the court shall set forth the factual basis for conducting the hearing without the person’s presence. The person who is the subject of the petition shall maintain the right to appear before the court in person, but may appear by videoconferencing means if they choose to do so.
(2) The court shall not order assisted outpatient treatment unless an examining licensed mental health treatment provider, who has personally examined, and has reviewed the available treatment history of, the person who is the subject of the petition within the time period commencing 10 days before the filing of the petition, testifies at the hearing. An examining mental health professional may appear before the court by videoconferencing means.
(3) If the person who is the subject of the petition has refused to be examined by a licensed mental health treatment provider, the court may request that the person consent to an examination by a licensed mental health treatment provider appointed by the court. If the person who is the subject of the petition does not consent and the court finds reasonable cause to believe that the allegations in the petition are true, the court may order any person designated under Section 5150 to take into custody the person who is the subject of the petition and transport the person, or cause the person to be transported, to a hospital for examination by a licensed mental health treatment provider as soon as is practicable. Detention of the person who is the subject of the petition under the order may not exceed 72 hours. If the examination is performed by another licensed mental health treatment provider, the examining licensed mental health treatment provider may consult with the licensed mental health treatment provider whose affirmation or affidavit accompanied the petition regarding the issues of whether the allegations in the petition are true and whether the person meets the criteria for assisted outpatient treatment.
(4) The person who is the subject of the petition shall have all of the following rights:
(A) To adequate notice of the hearings to the person who is the subject of the petition, as well as to parties designated by the person who is the subject of the petition.
(B) To receive a copy of the court-ordered evaluation.
(C) To counsel. If the person has not retained counsel, the court shall appoint a public defender.
(D) To be informed of the right to judicial review by habeas corpus.
(E) To be present at the hearing unless the person waives the right to be present.
(F) To present evidence.
(G) To call witnesses on the person’s behalf.
(H) To cross-examine witnesses.
(I) To appeal decisions, and to be informed of the right to appeal.
(5) (A) If, after hearing all relevant evidence, the court finds that the person who is the subject of the petition does not meet the criteria for assisted outpatient treatment, the court shall dismiss the petition.
(B) If, after hearing all relevant evidence, the court finds that the person who is the subject of the petition meets the criteria for assisted outpatient treatment, and there is no appropriate and feasible less restrictive alternative, the court may order the person who is the subject of the petition to receive assisted outpatient treatment for an initial period not to exceed six months. In fashioning the order, the court shall specify that the proposed treatment is the least restrictive treatment appropriate and feasible for the person who is the subject of the petition. The order shall state the categories of assisted outpatient treatment, as set forth in Section 5348, that the person who is the subject of the petition is to receive, and the court may not order treatment that has not been recommended by the examining licensed mental health treatment provider and included in the written treatment plan for assisted outpatient treatment as required by subdivision (e). If the person has executed an advance health care directive pursuant to Chapter 2 (commencing with Section 4650) of Part 1 of Division 4.7 of the Probate Code, any directions included in the advance health care directive shall be considered in formulating the written treatment plan.
(C) The court may conduct status hearings with the person and the treatment team to receive information regarding progress related to the categories of treatment listed in the treatment plan and may inquire about medication adherence.
(6) If the person who is the subject of a petition for an order for assisted outpatient treatment pursuant to subparagraph (B) of paragraph (5) refuses to participate in the assisted outpatient treatment program, the court may order the person to meet with the assisted outpatient treatment team designated by the director of the assisted outpatient treatment program. The treatment team shall attempt to gain the person’s cooperation with treatment ordered by the court. The person may be subject to a 72-hour hold pursuant to subdivision (f) only after the treatment team has attempted to gain the person’s cooperation with treatment ordered by the court, and has been unable to do so.
(e) Assisted outpatient treatment shall not be ordered unless the licensed mental health treatment provider recommending assisted outpatient treatment to the court has submitted to the court a written treatment plan that includes services as set forth in Section 5348, and the court finds, in consultation with the county behavioral health director, or the director’s designee, all of the following:
(1) That the services are available from the county, or a provider approved by the county, for the duration of the court order.
(2) That the services have been offered to the person by the local director of mental health, or the director’s designee, and the person has been given an opportunity to participate on a voluntary basis, and the person has failed to engage in, or has refused, treatment.
(3) That all of the elements of the petition required by this article have been met.
(4) That the treatment plan will be delivered to the county behavioral health director, or to the director’s appropriate designee.
(f) If, in the clinical judgment of a licensed mental health treatment provider, the person who is the subject of the petition has failed or has refused to comply with the treatment ordered by the court, and, in the clinical judgment of the licensed mental health treatment provider, efforts were made to solicit compliance, and, in the clinical judgment of the licensed mental health treatment provider, the person may be in need of involuntary admission to a hospital for evaluation, the provider may request that persons designated under Section 5150 take into custody the person who is the subject of the petition and transport the person, or cause the person to be transported, to a hospital, to be held up to 72 hours for examination by a licensed mental health treatment provider to determine if the person is in need of treatment pursuant to Section 5150. Any continued involuntary retention in a hospital beyond the initial 72-hour period shall be pursuant to Section 5150. If at any time during the 72-hour period the person is determined not to meet the criteria of Section 5150, and does not agree to stay in the hospital as a voluntary patient, the person shall be released and any subsequent involuntary detention in a hospital shall be pursuant to Section 5150. Failure to comply with an order of assisted outpatient treatment alone may not be grounds for involuntary civil commitment or a finding that the person who is the subject of the petition is in contempt of court.
(g) If the director of the assisted outpatient treatment program determines that the condition of the patient requires further assisted outpatient treatment, the director shall apply to the court, prior to the expiration of the period of the initial assisted outpatient treatment order, for an order authorizing continued assisted outpatient treatment for a period not to exceed 180 days from the date of the order. The procedures for obtaining an order pursuant to this subdivision shall be in accordance with subdivisions (a) to (f), inclusive. The period for further involuntary outpatient treatment authorized by a subsequent order under this subdivision may not exceed 180 days from the date of the order.
(h) (1) At intervals of not less than 60 days during an assisted outpatient treatment order, the director of the outpatient treatment program shall file an affidavit with the court that ordered the outpatient treatment affirming that the person who is the subject of the order continues to meet the criteria for assisted outpatient treatment. At these times, the person who is the subject of the order shall have the right to a hearing on whether or not the person still meets the criteria for assisted outpatient treatment if they disagree with the director’s affidavit. The burden of proof shall be on the director.
(2) When making the affidavit pursuant to paragraph (1), the director of the outpatient treatment program shall also report to the court on adherence to prescribed medication.
(i) During each 60-day period specified in subdivision (h), if the person who is the subject of the order believes that they are being wrongfully retained in the assisted outpatient treatment program against their wishes, the person may file a petition for a writ of habeas corpus, thus requiring the director of the assisted outpatient treatment program to prove that the person who is the subject of the order continues to meet the criteria for assisted outpatient treatment.
(j) A person ordered to undergo assisted outpatient treatment pursuant to this article, who was not present at the hearing at which the order was issued, may immediately petition the court for a writ of habeas corpus. Treatment under the order for assisted outpatient treatment may not commence until the resolution of that petition.
(k) This section shall become operative on July 1, 2021.

SEC. 227.

 Section 6609.1 of the Welfare and Institutions Code is amended to read:

6609.1.
 (a) (1) When the State Department of State Hospitals makes a recommendation to the court for community outpatient treatment for any person committed as a sexually violent predator, or when a person who is committed as a sexually violent predator pursuant to this article has petitioned a court pursuant to Section 6608 for conditional release under supervision and treatment in the community pursuant to a conditional release program, or has petitioned a court pursuant to Section 6608 for subsequent unconditional discharge, and the department is notified, or is aware, of the filing of the petition, and when a community placement location is recommended or proposed, the department shall notify the sheriff or chief of police, or both, the district attorney, or the county’s designated counsel, that have jurisdiction over the following locations:
(A) The community in which the person may be released for community outpatient treatment.
(B) The community in which the person maintained their last legal residence as defined by Section 3003 of the Penal Code.
(C) The county that filed for the person’s civil commitment pursuant to this article.
(2) The department shall also notify the Sexually Violent Predator Parole Coordinator of the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation, if the person is otherwise subject to parole pursuant to Article 1 (commencing with Section 3000) of Chapter 8 of Title 1 of Part 3 of the Penal Code. The department shall also notify the Department of Justice.
(3) The notice shall be given when the department or its designee makes a recommendation under subdivision (e) of Section 6608 or proposes a placement location without making a recommendation, or when any other person proposes a placement location to the court and the department or its designee is made aware of the proposal.
(4) The notice shall be given at least 30 days prior to the department’s submission of its recommendation to the court in those cases in which the department recommended community outpatient treatment under Section 6607, or in which the department or its designee is recommending or proposing a placement location, or in the case of a petition or placement proposal by someone other than the department or its designee, within 48 hours after becoming aware of the petition or placement proposal.
(5) The notice shall state that it is being made under this section and include all of the following information concerning each person committed as a sexually violent predator who is proposed or is petitioning to receive outpatient care in a conditional release program in that city or county:
(A) The name, proposed placement address, date of commitment, county from which committed, proposed date of placement in the conditional release program, fingerprints, and a glossy photograph no smaller than 31/8 by 31/8 inches in size, or clear copies of the fingerprints and photograph.
(B) The date, place, and time of the court hearing at which the location of placement is to be considered and a proof of service attesting to the notice’s mailing in accordance with this subdivision.
(C) A list of agencies that are being provided this notice and the addresses to which the notices are being sent.
(b) Those agencies receiving the notice referred to in paragraphs (1) and (2) of subdivision (a) may provide written comment to the department and the court regarding the impending release, placement, location, and conditions of release. All community agency comments shall be combined and consolidated. The written comment shall be filed with the court at the time that the comment is provided to the department. The written comment shall identify differences between the comment filed with the court and that provided to the department, if any. In addition, a single agency in the community of the specific proposed or recommended placement address may suggest appropriate, alternative locations for placement within that community. A copy of the suggested alternative placement location shall be filed with the court at the time that the suggested placement location is provided to the department. The State Department of State Hospitals shall issue a written statement to the commenting agencies and to the court within 10 days of receiving the written comments with a determination as to whether to adjust the release location or general terms and conditions, and explaining the basis for its decision. In lieu of responding to the individual community agencies or individuals, the department’s statement responding to the community comment shall be in the form of a public statement.
(c) The agencies’ comments and department’s statements shall be considered by the court which shall, based on those comments and statements, approve, modify, or reject the department’s recommendation or proposal regarding the community or specific address to which the person is scheduled to be released or the conditions that shall apply to the release if the court finds that the department’s recommendation or proposal is not appropriate.
(d) (1) When the State Department of State Hospitals makes a recommendation to pursue recommitment, makes a recommendation not to pursue recommitment, or seeks a judicial review of commitment status pursuant to subdivision (f) of Section 6605, of any person committed as a sexually violent predator, it shall provide written notice of that action to the sheriff or chief of police, or both, and to the district attorney, that have jurisdiction over the following locations:
(A) The community in which the person maintained their last legal residence as defined by Section 3003 of the Penal Code.
(B) The community in which the person will probably be released, if recommending not to pursue recommitment.
(C) The county that filed for the person’s civil commitment pursuant to this article.
(2) The State Department of State Hospitals shall also notify the Sexually Violent Predator Parole Coordinator of the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation, if the person is otherwise subject to parole pursuant to Article 1 (commencing with Section 3000) of Chapter 8 of Title 1 of Part 3 of the Penal Code. The State Department of State Hospitals shall also notify the Department of Justice. The notice shall be made at least 15 days prior to the department’s submission of its recommendation to the court.
(3) Those agencies receiving the notice referred to in this subdivision shall have 15 days from receipt of the notice to provide written comment to the department regarding the impending release. At the time that the written comment is made to the department, a copy of the written comment shall be filed with the court by the agency or agencies making the comment. Those comments shall be considered by the department, which may modify its decision regarding the community in which the person is scheduled to be released, based on those comments.
(e) (1) If the court orders the release of a sexually violent predator, the court shall notify the Sexually Violent Predator Parole Coordinator of the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation. The Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation shall notify the Department of Justice, the State Department of State Hospitals, the sheriff or chief of police or both, and the district attorney, that have jurisdiction over the following locations:
(A) The community in which the person is to be released.
(B) The community in which the person maintained their last legal residence as defined in Section 3003 of the Penal Code.
(2) The Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation shall make the notifications required by this subdivision regardless of whether the person released will be serving a term of parole after release by the court.
(f) If the person is otherwise subject to parole pursuant to Article 1 (commencing with Section 3000) of Chapter 8 of Title 1 of Part 3 of the Penal Code, to allow adequate time for the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation to make appropriate parole arrangements upon release of the person, the person shall remain in physical custody for a period not to exceed 72 hours or until parole arrangements are made by the Sexually Violent Predator Parole Coordinator of the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation, whichever is sooner. To facilitate timely parole arrangements, notification to the Sexually Violent Predator Parole Coordinator of the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation of the pending release shall be made by telephone or facsimile and, to the extent possible, notice of the possible release shall be made in advance of the proceeding or decision determining whether to release the person.
(g) The notice required by this section shall be made whether or not a request has been made pursuant to Section 6609.
(h) The time limits imposed by this section are not applicable when the release date of a sexually violent predator has been advanced by a judicial or administrative process or procedure that could not have reasonably been anticipated by the State Department of State Hospitals and where, as the result of the time adjustments, there is less than 30 days remaining on the commitment before the inmate’s release, but notice shall be given as soon as practicable.
(i) In the case of any subsequent community placement or change of community placement of a conditionally released sexually violent predator, notice required by this section shall be given under the same terms and standards as apply to the initial placement, except in the case of an emergency where the sexually violent predator must be moved to protect the public safety or the safety of the sexually violent predator. In the case of an emergency, the notice shall be given as soon as practicable, and the affected communities may comment on the placement as described in subdivision (b).
(j) The provisions of this section are severable. If any provision of this section or its application is held invalid, that invalidity shall not affect other provisions or applications that can be given effect without the invalid provision or application.

SEC. 228.

 Section 8257 of the Welfare and Institutions Code is amended to read:

8257.
 (a) The Governor shall create an Interagency Council on Homelessness.
(b) The council shall have all of the following goals:
(1) To oversee implementation of this chapter.
(2) To identify mainstream resources, benefits, and services that can be accessed to prevent and end homelessness in California.
(3) To create partnerships among state agencies and departments, local government agencies, participants in the United States Department of Housing and Urban Development’s Continuum of Care Program, federal agencies, the United States Interagency Council on Homelessness, nonprofit entities working to end homelessness, homeless services providers, and the private sector, for the purpose of arriving at specific strategies to end homelessness.
(4) To promote systems integration to increase efficiency and effectiveness while focusing on designing systems to address the needs of people experiencing homelessness, including unaccompanied youth under 25 years of age.
(5) To coordinate existing funding and applications for competitive funding. Any action taken pursuant to this paragraph shall not restructure or change any existing allocations or allocation formulas.
(6) To make policy and procedural recommendations to legislators and other governmental entities.
(7) To identify and seek funding opportunities for state entities that have programs to end homelessness, including, but not limited to, federal and philanthropic funding opportunities, and to facilitate and coordinate those state entities’ efforts to obtain that funding.
(8) To broker agreements between state agencies and departments and between state agencies and departments and local jurisdictions to align and coordinate resources, reduce administrative burdens of accessing existing resources, and foster common applications for services, operating, and capital funding.
(9) To serve as a statewide facilitator, coordinator, and policy development resource on ending homelessness in California.
(10) To report to the Governor, federal Cabinet members, and the Legislature on homelessness and work to reduce homelessness.
(11) To ensure accountability and results in meeting the strategies and goals of the council.
(12) To identify and implement strategies to fight homelessness in small communities and rural areas.
(13) To create a statewide data system or warehouse, which shall be known as the Homeless Data Integration System, that collects local data through Homeless Management Information Systems, with the ultimate goal of matching data on homelessness to programs impacting homeless recipients of state programs, such as the Medi-Cal program (Chapter 7 (commencing with Section 14000) of Part 3 of Division 9) and CalWORKs (Chapter 2 (commencing with Section 11200) of Part 3 of Division 9). Upon creation of the Homeless Data Integration System, all continuums of care, as defined in Section 578.3 of Title 24 of the Code of Federal Regulations, that are operating in California shall provide collected data elements, including, but not limited to, health information, in a manner consistent with federal law, to the Homeless Data Integration System.
(A) Council staff shall specify the form and substance of the required data elements.
(B) Council staff may, as required by operational necessity, and in accordance with paragraph (8) of subdivision (d) of Section 8256, amend or modify data elements, disclosure formats, or disclosure frequency.
(C) To further the efforts to improve the public health, safety, and welfare of people experiencing homelessness in the state, council staff may collect data from the continuums of care as provided in this paragraph.
(D) Any health information or personal identifying information provided to, or maintained within, the Homeless Data Integration System shall not be subject to public inspection or disclosure under the California Public Records Act (Division 10 (commencing with Section 7920.000) of Title 1 of the Government Code).
(E) For purposes of this paragraph, “health information” includes “protected health information,” as defined in Part 160.103 of Title 45 of the Code of Federal Regulations, and “medical information,” as defined in subdivision (j) of Section 56.05 of the Civil Code.
(14) To set goals to prevent and end homelessness among California’s youth.
(15) To improve the safety, health, and welfare of young people experiencing homelessness in the state.
(16) To increase system integration and coordinating efforts to prevent homelessness among youth who are currently or formerly involved in the child welfare system or the juvenile justice system.
(17) To lead efforts to coordinate a spectrum of funding, policy, and practice efforts related to young people experiencing homelessness.
(18) To identify best practices to ensure homeless minors who may have experienced maltreatment, as described in Section 300, are appropriately referred to, or have the ability to self-refer to, the child welfare system.
(19) To collect, compile, and make available to the public financial data provided to the council from all state-funded homelessness programs.
(c) (1) The council shall consist of the following members:
(A) The Secretary of Business, Consumer Services, and Housing and the Secretary of California Health and Human Services Agency, who both shall serve as cochairs of the council.
(B) The Director of Transportation.
(C) The Director of Housing and Community Development.
(D) The Director of Social Services.
(E) The Director of the California Housing Finance Agency.
(F) The Director or the State Medicaid Director of Health Care Services.
(G) The Secretary of Veterans Affairs.
(H) The Secretary of the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation.
(I) The Executive Director of the California Tax Credit Allocation Committee in the Treasurer’s office.
(J) The State Public Health Officer.
(K) The Director of the California Department of Aging.
(L) The Director of Rehabilitation.
(M) The Director of State Hospitals.
(N) The executive director of the California Workforce Development Board.
(O) The Director of the Office of Emergency Services.
(P) A representative from the State Department of Education, who shall be appointed by the Superintendent of Public Instruction.
(Q) A representative of the state public higher education system who shall be from one of the following:
(i) The California Community Colleges.
(ii) The University of California.
(iii) The California State University.
(2) The Senate Committee on Rules and the Speaker of the Assembly shall each appoint one member to the council from two different stakeholder organizations.
(3) The council may, at its discretion, invite stakeholders, individuals who have experienced homelessness, members of philanthropic communities, and experts to participate in meetings or provide information to the council.
(4) The council shall hold public meetings at least once every quarter.
(d) The council shall regularly seek guidance from and, at least twice a year, meet with an advisory committee. The cochairs of the council shall appoint members to this advisory committee that reflects racial and gender diversity, and shall include the following:
(1) A survivor of gender-based violence who formerly experienced homelessness.
(2) Representatives of local agencies or organizations that participate in the United States Department of Housing and Urban Development’s Continuum of Care Program.
(3) Stakeholders with expertise in solutions to homelessness and best practices from other states.
(4) Representatives of committees on African Americans, youth, and survivors of gender-based violence.
(5) A current or formerly homeless person who lives in California.
(6) A current or formerly homeless youth who lives in California.
(7) A current or formerly homeless person with a developmental disability.
(8) This advisory committee shall designate one of the above-described members to participate in every quarterly council meeting to provide a report to the council on advisory committee activities.
(e) Within existing funding, the council may establish working groups, task forces, or other structures from within its membership or with outside members to assist it in its work. Working groups, task forces, or other structures established by the council shall determine their own meeting schedules.
(f) Upon request of the council, a state agency or department that administers one or more state homelessness programs, including, but not limited to, an agency or department represented on the council pursuant to subdivision (c), the agency or department shall be required to do both of the following:
(1) Participate in council workgroups, task forces, or other similar administrative structures.
(2) Provide to the council any relevant information regarding those state homelessness programs.
(g) The members of the council shall serve without compensation, except that members of the council who are, or have been, homeless may receive reimbursement for travel, per diem, or other expenses. The members of the advisory committee and any council working group shall receive a per diem of one hundred dollars ($100) for each day spent in attendance at advisory committee meetings, and shall also be reimbursed for traveling and other expenses necessarily incurred in the performance of official duties.
(h) The appointed members of the council or committees, as described in this section, shall serve at the pleasure of their appointing authority.
(i) The Business, Consumer Services, and Housing Agency shall provide staff for the council.
(j) The members of the council may enter into memoranda of understanding with other members of the council to achieve the goals set forth in this chapter, as necessary, in order to facilitate communication and cooperation between the entities the members of the council represent.
(k) There shall be an executive officer of the council under the direction of the Secretary of Business, Consumer Services, and Housing.
(l) The council shall be under the direction of the executive officer and staffed by employees of the Business, Consumer Services, and Housing Agency.

SEC. 229.

 Section 10850 of the Welfare and Institutions Code is amended to read:

10850.
 (a) Except as otherwise provided in this section, all applications and records concerning any individual made or kept by a public officer or agency in connection with the administration of this code relating to any form of public social services, including protective services provided through public social services agencies, for which grants-in-aid are received by this state from the United States government shall be confidential, and shall not be open to examination for any purpose not directly connected with the administration of that program, or any investigation, prosecution, or criminal or civil proceeding conducted in connection with the administration of that program. The disclosure of information that identifies, by name or address, an applicant for, or recipient of, these grants-in-aid to any committee or legislative body is prohibited, except as provided in subdivision (b).
(b) Except as otherwise provided in this section, a person shall not publish or disclose or permit or cause to be published or disclosed a list of persons receiving public social services. Any county welfare department in this state may release lists of applicants for, or recipients of, public social services, to any other county welfare department or the State Department of Social Services, and these lists or any other records shall be released when requested by any county welfare department or the State Department of Social Services. These lists or other records shall only be used for purposes directly connected with the administration of public social services or to notify a public social service recipient of their potential eligibility for other benefits and services not administered by the State Department of Social Services, including, but not limited to, education and access to critical public health services and poverty-alleviating benefits, as determined by the State Department of Social Services. Except for those purposes, a person shall not publish, disclose, or use or permit or cause to be published, disclosed, or used any confidential information pertaining to an applicant or recipient.
(c) Any county welfare department and the State Department of Social Services shall provide any governmental entity that is authorized by law to conduct an audit or similar activity in connection with the administration of public social services, including any committee or legislative body so authorized, with access to any public social service applications and records described in subdivision (a) to the extent of the authorization. Those committees, legislative bodies, and other entities may only request or use these records for the purpose of investigating the administration of public social services, and shall not disclose the identity of any applicant or recipient except in the case of a criminal or civil proceeding conducted in connection with the administration of public social services.
(d) This section does not prohibit the furnishing of this information to other public agencies to the extent required for verifying eligibility or for other purposes directly connected with the administration of public social services, or to county superintendents of schools or superintendents of school districts only as necessary for the administration of federally assisted programs providing assistance in cash or in-kind or services directly to individuals on the basis of need. Any person knowingly and intentionally violating this subdivision is guilty of a misdemeanor.
(e) This section does not prohibit employees of a county’s adult protective services agency or a county’s child welfare agency from disclosing information with each other for the purpose of multidisciplinary teamwork in the prevention, intervention, management, or treatment of child abuse or neglect or abuse or neglect of an elder or dependent adult.
(f) In the context of a petition for the appointment of a conservator for a person who is receiving, or has received, aid from a public agency, as indicated above, or in the context of a criminal prosecution for a violation of Section 368 of the Penal Code both of the following shall apply:
(1) An adult protective services employee or ombudsperson may answer truthfully at any proceeding related to the petition or prosecution, when asked if the employee or ombudsperson is aware of information that they believe is related to the legal mental capacity of that aid recipient or the need for a conservatorship for that aid recipient. If the adult protective services employee or ombudsperson states that they are aware of such information, the court may order the adult protective services employee or ombudsperson to testify about personal observations and to disclose all relevant agency records.
(2) The court may order the adult protective services employee or ombudsperson to testify about personal observations and to disclose any relevant agency records if the court has other independent reason to believe that the adult protective services employee or ombudsperson has information that would facilitate the resolution of the matter.
(g) The State Department of Social Services may make rules and regulations governing the custody, use, and preservation of all records, papers, files, and communications pertaining to the administration of the laws relating to public social services under its jurisdiction. The rules and regulations shall be binding on all departments, officials, and employees of the state, or of any political subdivision of the state, and may provide for giving information to, or exchanging information with, agencies, public or political subdivisions of the state, and may provide for giving information to, or exchanging information with, agencies, public or private, that are engaged in planning, providing, or securing social services for, or on behalf of, recipients or applicants; and for making case records available for research purposes, provided that making these case records available will not result in the disclosure of the identity of applicants for, or recipients of, public social services and will not disclose any personal information in a manner that would link the information disclosed to the individual to whom it pertains, unless the department has complied with subdivision (t) of Section 1798.24 of the Civil Code.
(h) A person, including every public officer and employee, who knowingly secures or possesses, other than in the course of official duty, an official list or a list compiled from official sources, published or disclosed in violation of this section, of persons who have applied for, or who have been granted, any form of public social services for which state or federal funds are made available to the counties is guilty of a misdemeanor.
(i) This section does not prohibit an employee of a county welfare department from disclosing confidential information concerning a public social services applicant or recipient to a state or local law enforcement agency investigating or gathering information regarding a criminal act committed in a welfare department office, a criminal act against a county or state welfare worker, or a criminal act witnessed by a county or state welfare worker while involved in the administration of public social services at any location. Further, this section does not prohibit an employee of a county welfare department from disclosing confidential information concerning a public social services applicant or recipient to a state or local law enforcement agency investigating or gathering information regarding a criminal act intentionally committed by the applicant or recipient against an off-duty county or state welfare worker in retaliation for an act performed in the course of the welfare worker’s duty when the person committing the offense knows, or reasonably should know, that the victim is a state or county welfare worker. These criminal acts shall include only those that are in violation of state or local law. Disclosure of confidential information pursuant to this subdivision shall be limited to the applicant’s or recipient’s name, physical description, and address.
(j) The provisions of this section shall be operative only to the extent permitted by federal law and shall not apply to, but exclude, Chapter 7 (commencing with Section 14000) and Chapter 8 (commencing with Section 14200) of Part 3, and for which a grant-in-aid is received by this state from the United States government pursuant to Title XIX of the federal Social Security Act (42 U.S.C. Sec. 1396 et seq.).
(k) (1) Public social services, as defined in Section 10051, includes publicly funded health care services administered or supervised by the department or the State Department of Health Care Services, except that, as used in this section, it does not include the Medi-Cal program. This subdivision does not affect or alter the exclusions contained in subdivision (j) or the confidentiality provisions contained in Section 14100.2.
(2) This subdivision clarifies existing law.

SEC. 230.

 Section 11454.5 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, as added by Section 8 of Chapter 588 of the Statutes of 2022, is amended to read:

11454.5.
 (a) Any month in which the following conditions exist shall not be counted as a month of receipt of aid for the purposes of subdivision (a) of, and paragraph (1) of subdivision (b) of, Section 11454:
(1) The recipient is exempt from participation under Article 3.2 (commencing with Section 11320) due to disability, or advanced age in accordance with paragraph (3) of subdivision (b) of Section 11320.3, or due to caretaking responsibilities that impair the recipient’s ability to be regularly employed, in accordance with paragraph (5) of subdivision (b) of Section 11320.3.
(2) The recipient is eligible for, participating in, or exempt from, the Cal-Learn Program provided for pursuant to Article 3.5 (commencing with Section 11331), for any period during which the Cal-Learn Program is operative, is participating in another teen parent program approved by the department, or is a nonminor dependent under the supervision of the county welfare or probation department who is placed in an approved relative’s home and is eligible for aid under this section because the recipient satisfies the conditions described in Section 11403.
(3) The cost of the cash aid provided to the recipient for the month is fully reimbursed by child support, whether collected in that month or any subsequent month.
(4) The family is a former recipient of cash aid under this chapter and currently receives only childcare, case management, or supportive services pursuant to Section 11323.2 or Article 15.5 (commencing with Section 8350) of Chapter 2 of Part 6 of Title 1 of the Education Code.
(5) To the extent provided by federal law, the recipient lived in Indian country, as defined by federal law, or an Alaskan native village in which at least 50 percent of the adults living in the Indian country or in the village are not employed.
(6) The recipient received CalWORKs for any month between August 1, 2009, and January 1, 2015, and was either exempt from participation under paragraph (7) of subdivision (b) of Section 11320.3, or was exempt from participation and was not reengaged in accordance with subdivision (h) of Section 11320.3, as that section read on June 30, 2020.
(7) The recipient is exempt from participating in welfare-to-work activities because the recipient has primary responsibility for personally providing care to a child 24 months of age or younger, pursuant to clause (iv) of subparagraph (A) of paragraph (6) of subdivision (b) of Section 11320.3.
(8) The recipient is receiving Paid Family Leave benefits.
(b) In cases where a lump-sum diversion payment is provided in lieu of cash aid under Section 11266.5, the month in which the payment is made or the months calculated pursuant to subdivision (f) of Section 11266.5 shall count against the limits specified in Section 11454.
(c) This section shall become operative on October 1, 2024, unless the changes made by the act that added this section cannot be implemented without an update to the Statewide Automated Welfare System (SAWS), in which case, this section shall become operative on the date that the department notifies the Legislature that SAWS has been updated to perform the necessary automation to implement this section.

SEC. 231.

 Section 11495.15 of the Welfare and Institutions Code is amended to read:

11495.15.
 A county shall waive a program requirement for a recipient who has been identified as a past or present victim of abuse when it has been determined that good cause exists pursuant to paragraph (2) of subdivision (f) of Section 11320.3. Until implementation of the regulations required pursuant to subdivision (b) of Section 11495.1, a county may utilize standards, procedures, and protocols currently available and shall identify them in its county plan. Waivers shall be reevaluated in accordance with other routine periodic reevaluations by the county.

SEC. 232.

 Section 14197.45 of the Welfare and Institutions Code is amended to read:

14197.45.
 (a) Notwithstanding any other law, for covered benefits under its contract, as applicable, a Medi-Cal managed care plan shall comply with all of the following:
(1) Make a good faith effort to contract with at least one National Cancer Institute (NCI)-designated comprehensive cancer center, site affiliated with the NCI Community Oncology Research Program (NCORP), or qualifying academic cancer center, within its contracted provider network and its subcontracted provider network, if applicable, within each county in which the Medi-Cal managed care plan operates, for provision of services to any eligible enrollee diagnosed with a complex cancer diagnosis. For purposes of this paragraph, the NCI-designated comprehensive cancer center, NCORP-affiliated site, or qualifying academic cancer center shall enroll in the Medi-Cal program if there is a state-level enrollment pathway, or the Medi-Cal managed care plan shall vet the qualifications of the facility to ensure they can meet the standards of participation required to contract with a Medi-Cal managed care plan.
(2) (A) Allow any eligible enrollee diagnosed with a complex cancer diagnosis to request a referral to receive medically necessary services through any of the following in-network providers unless the enrollee chooses a different cancer treatment provider:
(i) An NCI-designated comprehensive cancer center.
(ii) An NCORP-affiliated site.
(iii) A qualifying academic cancer center.
(B) (i) If the Medi-Cal managed care plan is unsuccessful in its good faith contracting efforts pursuant to paragraph (1), the Medi-Cal managed care plan shall allow an enrollee to request a referral to receive medically necessary services through an out-of-network NCI-designated comprehensive cancer center, out-of-network NCORP-affiliated site, or out-of-network qualifying academic cancer center, unless the enrollee chooses a different cancer treatment provider.
(ii) Clause (i) shall only apply if the Medi-Cal managed care plan and the out-of-network NCI-designated comprehensive cancer center, out-of-network NCORP-affiliated site, or out-of-network qualifying academic cancer center come to agreement with respect to payment.
(3) (A) After approving a referral request pursuant to paragraph (2), allow an eligible enrollee diagnosed with a complex cancer diagnosis to access oncology, hematology, or other relevant specialists through a contracted NCI-designated comprehensive cancer center, a contracted NCORP-affiliated site, or a contracted qualifying academic cancer center, for the enrollee’s condition and identified needs as medically necessary.
(B) If the NCI-designated comprehensive cancer center, NCORP-affiliated site, or qualifying academic cancer center refers an enrollee with a complex cancer condition to an out-of-network specialist pursuant to subparagraph (B) of paragraph (2), this paragraph shall only apply if the Medi-Cal managed care plan and the out-of-network specialist come to an agreement with respect to payment.
(4) A denial of an enrollee’s referral request shall be based upon a determination by the treating provider that the request to receive services at an NCI–designated comprehensive cancer center, or an NCORP-affiliated site, or a qualifying academic cancer center is not medically necessary, the requested services are not available at, or not applicable to the enrollee’s cancer diagnosis at, the requested NCI-designated comprehensive cancer center, NCORP-affiliated site, or qualifying academic cancer center, or the NCI-designated comprehensive cancer center, NCORP-affiliated site, or qualifying academic cancer center is an out-of-network provider and the Medi-Cal managed care plan and the out-of-network NCI-designated comprehensive cancer center, NCORP-affiliated site, or qualifying academic cancer center are unable to come to agreement with the respect to payment.
(5) Ensure that the services of an NCI-designated comprehensive cancer center, NCORP-affiliated site, or qualifying academic cancer center available to an eligible enrollee are sufficient in amount, duration, and scope as medically necessary for the treatment of the enrollee’s condition.
(6) Refrain from arbitrarily denying or reducing the amount, duration, or scope of required services solely because of diagnosis, type of illness, or condition of the enrollee.
(b) A Medi-Cal managed care plan shall notify all enrollees of their right to request a referral to access care through an NCI-designated comprehensive cancer center, NCORP-affiliated site, or qualifying academic cancer center, if they are diagnosed with a complex cancer diagnosis.
(c) For the purposes of this section, the following definitions apply:
(1) (A) “Complex cancer diagnosis” means a diagnosis for which there is no standard FDA-approved treatment or for which known highly effective therapy for metastatic cancer has failed and any of the following diagnoses: hematological malignancies, acute leukemia, advanced, relapsed, refractory non-Hodgkin lymphoma and multiple myeloma, including BPDCN and T-cell leukemias and lymphomas, and advanced stage, relapsed solid tumors refractory to standard FDA-approved treatment options, advanced stage rare solid tumors for which there is no known effective standard treatment options, or any other condition as determined pursuant to paragraph (2) of subdivision (d). “Advanced stage” cancer means stage IV metastatic cancer.
(B) The department is authorized to periodically update and further define “complex cancer diagnosis” pursuant to the process outlined in subdivision (d).
(2) “Eligible enrollee” means an individual enrolled with a particular Medi-Cal managed care plan who receives a complex cancer diagnosis.
(3) “National Cancer Institute (NCI) Community Oncology Research Program (NCORP)-affiliated site” is a cancer center that has received an approved grant from NCI through NCORP that provides cancer clinical trials and care delivery studies.
(4) “NCI-designated comprehensive cancer center” is a cancer center that meets ongoing standards for cancer prevention, clinical services, and research, as determined by regular reviews and evaluations by NCI.
(5) “Qualifying academic cancer center” is a research and clinical cancer center that meets all the following criteria:
(A) It is an institution with a medical oncology or hematology subspecialty expertise in each of the diagnoses included in paragraph (1).
(B) It has a portfolio of phases 1, 2, and 3 clinical trials available for eligible enrollees.
(C) It provides fellowship programs in medical oncology, hematology or hematological oncology, radiation oncology, or a surgical oncology specialty.
(D) It provides inpatient and outpatient supportive care services.
(E) It covers clinical, anatomic, and molecular pathology with subspecialty expertise for each of the cancer types included in paragraph (1).
(F) It provides a program accredited by the American College of Surgeons (ACS) Commission on Cancer (CoC).
(G) It has accreditation for the main campus by the Foundation for the Accreditation of Cellular Therapy.
(d) (1) Notwithstanding Chapter 3.5 (commencing with Section 11340) of Part 1 of Division 3 of Title 2 of the Government Code, the department may implement, interpret, or make specific this section, in whole or in part, by means of all-county letters, plan letters, provider bulletins, information notices, or other similar guidance, without taking further regulatory action.
(2) The department, in consultation with stakeholders, shall develop a process for updating and further defining a “complex cancer diagnosis” on a periodic basis.
(e) The department shall seek any federal approvals it deems necessary to implement this section. This section shall be implemented only to the extent that any necessary federal approvals are obtained and federal financial participation is available and is not otherwise jeopardized.
(f) For purposes of implementing this section, the department may enter into an exclusive or nonexclusive contract, or amend existing contracts, on a bid or negotiated basis. Contracts entered into or amended pursuant to this section shall be exempt from Part 2 (commencing with Section 10100) of Division 2 of the Public Contract Code, and shall be exempt from the review or approval of any division of the Department of General Services.

SEC. 233.

 Section 16501.1 of the Welfare and Institutions Code is amended to read:

16501.1.
 (a) (1) The Legislature finds and declares that the foundation and central unifying tool in child welfare services is the case plan.
(2) The Legislature further finds and declares that a case plan ensures that the child receives protection and safe and proper care and case management, and that services are provided to the child and parents or other caretakers, as appropriate, in order to improve conditions in the parent’s home, to facilitate the safe return of the child to a safe home or the permanent placement of the child, and to address the needs of the child while in foster care.
(3) The agency shall consider and document the recommendations of the child and family team, as defined in Section 16501, if any are available. The agency shall document the rationale for any inconsistencies between the case plan and the child and family team recommendations.
(b) (1) A case plan shall be based upon the principles of this section and the input from the child and family team.
(2) The case plan shall document that a preplacement assessment of the service needs of the child and family, and preplacement preventive services, have been provided, and that reasonable efforts to prevent out-of-home placement have been made. Preplacement services may include intensive mental health services in the home or a community setting and the reasonable efforts made to prevent out-of-home placement.
(3) In determining the reasonable services to be offered or provided, the child’s health and safety shall be the paramount concerns.
(4) Upon a determination pursuant to paragraph (1) of subdivision (e) of Section 361.5 that reasonable services will be offered to a parent who is incarcerated in a county jail or state prison, detained by the United States Department of Homeland Security, or deported to their country of origin, the case plan shall include information, to the extent possible, about a parent’s incarceration in a county jail or the state prison, detention by the United States Department of Homeland Security, or deportation during the time that a minor child of that parent is involved in dependency care.
(5) Reasonable services shall be offered or provided to make it possible for a child to return to a safe home environment, unless, pursuant to subdivisions (b) and (e) of Section 361.5, the court determines that reunification services shall not be provided.
(6) If reasonable services are not ordered, or are terminated, reasonable efforts shall be made to place the child in a timely manner in accordance with the permanent plan and to complete all steps necessary to finalize the permanent placement of the child.
(c) If out-of-home placement is used to attain case plan goals, the case plan shall consider the recommendations of the child and family team.
(d) (1) The case plan shall include a description of the type of home or institution in which the child is to be placed, and the reasons for that placement decision. The decision regarding choice of placement shall be based upon selection of a safe setting that is the least restrictive family setting that promotes normal childhood experiences and the most appropriate setting that meets the child’s individual needs and is available, in proximity to the parent’s home, in proximity to the child’s school, and consistent with the selection of the environment best suited to meet the child’s special needs and best interests. The selection shall consider, in order of priority, placement with relatives, nonrelative extended family members, and tribal members; foster family homes, resource families, and approved or certified homes of foster family agencies; followed by intensive services for foster care homes; or multidimensional treatment foster care homes or therapeutic foster care homes; group care placements in the order of short-term residential therapeutic programs, group homes, community treatment facilities, and out-of-state residential treatment pursuant to Part 5 (commencing with Section 7900) of Division 12 of the Family Code.
(2) If a short-term residential therapeutic program placement is selected for a child or nonminor dependent, the case plan shall indicate the needs, including the needs as identified by the qualified individual pursuant to subdivision (g) of Section 4096, of the child or nonminor dependent that necessitate this placement, the plan for transitioning the child or nonminor dependent to a less restrictive environment, and the projected timeline by which the child or nonminor dependent will be transitioned to a less restrictive environment, and the plan for aftercare services for at least six months postdischarge to a family-based setting, as required by Section 4096.6. The six months postdischarge requirement is inapplicable to the Medi-Cal component of the aftercare services, which shall be provided for the length of time the child needs specialty mental health services based on medical necessity criteria and other state and federal requirements. This section of the case plan shall be reviewed and updated at least semiannually.
(A) The case plan for placements in a group home, or commencing January 1, 2017, in a short-term residential therapeutic program, shall indicate that the county has taken into consideration Section 16010.8.
(B) (i) After January 1, 2017, a child and family team meeting as described in Section 16501 shall be convened by the county placing agency for the purpose of identifying the supports and services needed to achieve permanency and enable the child or youth to be placed in the least restrictive family setting that promotes normal childhood experiences.
(ii) Child and family teams shall be provided written or electronic information developed by the department describing services and activities, including specialized permanency services, shown to be effective in achieving and sustaining permanency for all children, youth, and nonminor dependents.
(C) On and after October 1, 2021, within 30 days of placement in a short-term residential therapeutic program, and, on and after July 1, 2022, within 30 days of placement in a community treatment facility, the case plan shall document all of the following:
(i) The reasonable and good faith effort by the social worker to identify and include all required individuals in the child and family team.
(ii) All contact information for members of the child and family team, as well as contact information for other relatives and nonrelative extended family members who are not part of the child and family team.
(iii) Evidence that meetings of the child and family team, including the meetings related to the determination required under Section 4096, are held at a time and place convenient for the family.
(iv) If reunification is the goal, evidence that the parent from whom the child was removed provided input on the members of the child and family team.
(v) Evidence that the determination required under subdivision (g) of Section 4096 was conducted in conjunction with the child and family team.
(vi) The placement preferences of the child or nonminor dependent and the child and family team relative to the determination and, if the placement preferences of the child or nonminor dependent or the child and family team are not the placement setting recommended by the qualified individual conducting the determination, the reasons why the preferences of the team or the child or nonminor dependent were not recommended.
(D) Following the court review pursuant to Section 361.22, the case plan shall document the court’s approval or disapproval of the placement.
(E) When the child or nonminor dependent has been placed in a short-term residential therapeutic program or a community treatment facility, as applicable, for more than 12 consecutive months or 18 nonconsecutive months, or, in the case of a child who has not attained 13 years of age, for more than 6 consecutive or nonconsecutive months, the case plan shall include both of the following:
(i) Documentation of the information submitted to the court pursuant to subdivision (l) of Section 366.1, subdivision (k) of Section 366.3, or paragraph (4) of subdivision (b) of Section 366.31, as applicable.
(ii) Documentation that the deputy director or director of the county child welfare department has approved the continued placement of the child or nonminor dependent in the setting.
(F) On and after October 1, 2021, prior to discharge from a short-term residential therapeutic program, and, on and after July 1, 2022, prior to discharge from a community treatment facility, the case plan shall include both of the following:
(i) A description of the type of in-home or institution-based services to encourage the safety, stability, and appropriateness of the next placement, including the recommendations of the child and family team, if available.
(ii) A plan, developed in collaboration with the short-term residential therapeutic program or community treatment facility, as applicable, for the provision of discharge planning and family-based aftercare support pursuant to Section 4096.6.
(3) On or after January 1, 2012, for a nonminor dependent, as defined in subdivision (v) of Section 11400, who is receiving AFDC-FC benefits and who is up to 21 years of age pursuant to Section 11403, in addition to the above requirements, the selection of the placement, including a supervised independent living placement, as described in subdivision (w) of Section 11400, shall also be based upon the developmental needs of young adults by providing opportunities to have incremental responsibilities that prepare a nonminor dependent to transition to successful adulthood. If admission to, or continuation in, a group home or short-term residential therapeutic program placement is being considered for a nonminor dependent, the group home or short-term residential therapeutic program placement approval decision shall include a youth-driven, team-based case planning process, as defined by the department, in consultation with stakeholders. The case plan shall consider the full range of placement options, and shall specify why admission to, or continuation in, a group home or short-term residential therapeutic program placement is the best alternative available at the time to meet the special needs or well-being of the nonminor dependent, and how the placement will contribute to the nonminor dependent’s transition to successful adulthood. The case plan shall specify the treatment strategies that will be used to prepare the nonminor dependent for discharge to a less restrictive family setting that promotes normal childhood experiences, including a target date for discharge from the group home or short-term residential therapeutic program placement. The placement shall be reviewed and updated on a regular, periodic basis to ensure that continuation in the group home or short-term residential therapeutic program placement remains in the best interests of the nonminor dependent and that progress is being made in achieving case plan goals leading to successful adulthood. The group home or short-term residential therapeutic program placement planning process shall begin as soon as it becomes clear to the county welfare department or probation office that a foster child in group home or short-term residential therapeutic program placement is likely to remain in group home or short-term residential therapeutic program placement on their 18th birthday, in order to expedite the transition to a less restrictive family setting that promotes normal childhood experiences, if the child becomes a nonminor dependent. The case planning process shall include informing the youth of all of the options, including, but not limited to, admission to or continuation in a group home or short-term residential therapeutic program placement.
(4) Consideration for continuation of existing group home placement for a nonminor dependent under 19 years of age may include the need to stay in the same placement in order to complete high school. After a nonminor dependent either completes high school or attains their 19th birthday, whichever is earlier, continuation in or admission to a group home placement is prohibited unless the nonminor dependent satisfies the conditions of paragraph (5) of subdivision (b) of Section 11403, and group home placement functions as a short-term transition to the appropriate system of care. Treatment services provided by the group home placement to the nonminor dependent to alleviate or ameliorate the medical condition, as described in paragraph (5) of subdivision (b) of Section 11403, shall not constitute the sole basis to disqualify a nonminor dependent from the group home placement.
(5) In addition to the requirements of paragraphs (1) to (4), inclusive, and taking into account other statutory considerations regarding placement, the selection of the most appropriate home that will meet the child’s special needs and best interests shall also promote educational stability by taking into consideration proximity to the child’s school of origin, and school attendance area, the number of school transfers the child has previously experienced, and the child’s school matriculation schedule, in addition to other indicators of educational stability that the Legislature hereby encourages the State Department of Social Services and the State Department of Education to develop.
(e) A written case plan shall be completed within a maximum of 60 days of the initial removal of the child or of the in-person response required under subdivision (f) of Section 16501 if the child has not been removed from their home, or by the date of the dispositional hearing pursuant to Section 358, whichever occurs first. The case plan shall be updated, as the service needs of the child and family dictate. At a minimum, the case plan shall be updated in conjunction with each status review hearing conducted pursuant to Sections 364, 366, 366.3, and 366.31, and the hearing conducted pursuant to Section 366.26, but no less frequently than once every six months. Each updated case plan shall include a description of the services that have been provided to the child under the plan and an evaluation of the appropriateness and effectiveness of those services.
(1) It is the intent of the Legislature that extending the maximum time available for preparing a written case plan from 30 to 60 days will afford caseworkers time to actively engage families, and to solicit and integrate into the case plan the input of the child and the child’s family, as well as the input of relatives and other interested parties.
(2) The extension of the maximum time available for preparing a written case plan from 30 to 60 days shall be effective 90 days after the date that the department gives counties written notice that necessary changes have been made to the Child Welfare Services/Case Management System (CWS/CMS) to account for the 60-day timeframe for preparing a written case plan.
(f) The child welfare services case plan shall be comprehensive enough to meet the juvenile court dependency proceedings requirements pursuant to Article 6 (commencing with Section 300) of Chapter 2 of Part 1 of Division 2.
(g) The case plan shall be developed considering the recommendations of the child and family team, as follows:
(1) The case plan shall be based upon an assessment of the circumstances that required child welfare services intervention. The child shall be involved in developing the case plan as age and developmentally appropriate.
(2) The case plan shall identify specific goals and the appropriateness of the planned services in meeting those goals.
(3) The case plan shall identify the original allegations of abuse or neglect, as defined in Article 2.5 (commencing with Section 11164) of Chapter 2 of Title 1 of Part 4 of the Penal Code, or the conditions cited as the basis for declaring the child a dependent of the court pursuant to Section 300, or all of these, and the other precipitating incidents that led to child welfare services intervention.
(4) The case plan shall include a description of the schedule of the placement agency contacts with the child and the family or other caretakers. The frequency of these contacts shall be in accordance with regulations adopted by the State Department of Social Services. If the child has been placed in foster care out of state, the county social worker or probation officer, or a social worker or probation officer on the staff of the agency in the state in which the child has been placed, shall visit the child in a foster family home or the home of a relative, consistent with federal law and in accordance with the department’s approved state plan. If a child is placed in an out-of-state residential facility, as defined in paragraph (2) of subdivision (b) of Section 7910 of the Family Code, pursuant to Section 361.21 or 727.1, visits shall be conducted at least monthly, pursuant to Section 16516.5. At least once every six months, at the time of a regularly scheduled placement agency contact with the foster child, and at each placement change, the child’s social worker or probation officer shall inform the child, the care provider, and the child and family team, if applicable, of the child’s rights as a foster child, as specified in Section 16001.9, and shall provide a written copy of the rights to the child as part of the explanation. The social worker or probation officer shall provide the information to the child in a manner appropriate to the age or developmental level of the child. The social worker or probation officer shall document in the case plan that they have informed the child of, and have provided the child with a written copy of, the child’s rights.
(5) (A) When out-of-home services are used, the frequency of contact between the natural parents or legal guardians and the child shall be specified in the case plan. The frequency of those contacts shall reflect overall case goals, and consider other principles outlined in this section.
(B) Information regarding any court-ordered visitation between the child and the natural parents or legal guardians, and the terms and conditions needed to facilitate the visits while protecting the safety of the child, shall be provided to the child’s out-of-home caregiver as soon as possible after the court order is made.
(6) When out-of-home placement is made, the case plan shall include provisions for the development and maintenance of sibling relationships as specified in subdivisions (b), (c), and (d) of Section 16002. If appropriate, when siblings who are dependents of the juvenile court are not placed together, the social worker for each child, if different, shall communicate with each of the other social workers and ensure that the child’s siblings are informed of significant life events that occur within their extended family. Unless it has been determined that it is inappropriate in a particular case to keep siblings informed of significant life events that occur within the extended family, the social worker shall determine the appropriate means and setting for disclosure of this information to the child commensurate with the child’s age and emotional well-being. These significant life events shall include, but shall not be limited to, the following:
(A) The death of an immediate relative.
(B) The birth of a sibling.
(C) Significant changes regarding a dependent child, unless the child objects to the sharing of the information with their siblings, including changes in placement, major medical or mental health diagnoses, treatments, or hospitalizations, arrests, and changes in the permanent plan.
(7) If out-of-home placement is made in a foster family home, resource family home, group home, or other childcare institution that is either a substantial distance from the home of the child’s parent or out of state, the case plan shall specify the reasons why that placement is in the best interest of the child. When an out-of-state residential facility placement is recommended or made, the case plan shall, in addition, specify compliance with Section 16010.9 of this code and Section 7911.1 of the Family Code.
(8) A case plan shall ensure the educational stability of the child while in foster care and shall include both of the following:
(A) An assurance that the placement takes into account the appropriateness of the current educational setting and the proximity to the school in which the child is enrolled at the time of placement.
(B) An assurance that the placement agency has coordinated with the person holding the right to make educational decisions for the child and appropriate local educational agencies to ensure that the child remains in the school in which the child is enrolled at the time of placement or, if remaining in that school is not in the best interests of the child, assurances by the placement agency and the local educational agency to provide immediate and appropriate enrollment in a new school and to provide all of the child’s educational records to the new school.
(9) (A) If out-of-home services are used, or if parental rights have been terminated and the case plan is placement for adoption, the case plan shall include a recommendation regarding the appropriateness of unsupervised visitation between the child and any of the child’s siblings. This recommendation shall include a statement regarding the child’s and the siblings’ willingness to participate in unsupervised visitation. If the case plan includes a recommendation for unsupervised sibling visitation, the plan shall also note that information necessary to accomplish this visitation has been provided to the child or to the child’s siblings.
(B) Information regarding the schedule and frequency of the visits between the child and siblings, as well as any court-ordered terms and conditions needed to facilitate the visits while protecting the safety of the child, shall be provided to the child’s out-of-home caregiver as soon as possible after the court order is made.
(10) If out-of-home services are used and the goal is reunification, the case plan shall describe the services to be provided to assist in reunification and the services to be provided concurrently to achieve legal permanency if efforts to reunify fail. The plan shall also consider in-state and out-of-state placements, the importance of developing and maintaining sibling relationships pursuant to Section 16002, and the desire and willingness of the caregiver to provide legal permanency for the child if reunification is unsuccessful.
(11) If out-of-home services are used, the child has been in care for at least 12 months, and the goal is not adoptive placement, the case plan shall include documentation of the compelling reason or reasons why termination of parental rights is not in the child’s best interest. A determination completed or updated within the past 12 months by the department when it is acting as an adoption agency or by a licensed adoption agency that it is unlikely that the child will be adopted, or that one of the conditions described in paragraph (1) of subdivision (c) of Section 366.26 applies, shall be deemed a compelling reason.
(12) (A) Parents and legal guardians shall have an opportunity to review the case plan, and to sign it whenever possible, and then shall receive a copy of the plan. In a voluntary service or placement agreement, the parents or legal guardians shall be required to review and sign the case plan. Whenever possible, parents and legal guardians shall participate in the development of the case plan. Commencing January 1, 2012, for nonminor dependents, as defined in subdivision (v) of Section 11400, who are receiving AFDC-FC or CalWORKs assistance and who are up to 21 years of age pursuant to Section 11403, the transitional independent living case plan, as set forth in subdivision (y) of Section 11400, shall be developed with, and signed by, the nonminor.
(B) Parents and legal guardians shall be advised that, pursuant to Section 1228.1 of the Evidence Code, neither their signature on the child welfare services case plan nor their acceptance of any services prescribed in the child welfare services case plan shall constitute an admission of guilt or be used as evidence against the parent or legal guardian in a court of law. However, they shall also be advised that the parent’s or guardian’s failure to cooperate, except for good cause, in the provision of services specified in the child welfare services case plan may be used in any hearing held pursuant to Section 366.21, 366.22, or 366.25 of this code as evidence.
(13) (A) A child shall be given a meaningful opportunity to participate in the development of the case plan and state their preference for foster care placement. A child who is 12 years of age or older and in a permanent placement shall also be given the opportunity to review the case plan, sign the case plan, and receive a copy of the case plan.
(B) For a child who receives a copy of the case plan pursuant to subparagraph (A) and who speaks a primary language other than English, the case plan shall be translated and provided to the child in their primary language.
(14) The case plan shall be included in the court report, and shall be considered by the court at the initial hearing and each review hearing. Modifications to the case plan made during the period between review hearings need not be approved by the court if the casework supervisor for that case determines that the modifications further the goals of the plan. If out-of-home services are used with the goal of family reunification, the case plan shall consider and describe the application of subdivision (b) of Section 11203.
(15) (A) If the case plan has as its goal for the child a permanent plan of adoption, legal guardianship, or another planned permanent living arrangement, it shall include a statement of the child’s wishes regarding their permanent placement plan and an assessment of those stated wishes. The agency shall also include documentation of the steps the agency is taking to find an adoptive family or other permanent living arrangements for the child; to place the child with an adoptive family, an appropriate and willing relative, or a legal guardian, and to finalize the adoption or legal guardianship. At a minimum, the documentation shall include child-specific recruitment efforts, such as the use of state, regional, and national adoption exchanges, including electronic exchange systems, when the child has been freed for adoption. Regardless of whether the child has been freed for adoption, documentation shall include a description of any barriers to achieving legal permanence and the steps the agency will take to address those barriers. If a child has been in care for three years or more, the documentation shall include a description of the specialized permanency services used or, if specialized permanency services have not been used, a statement explaining why the agency chose not to provide these services. If the plan is for kinship guardianship, the case plan shall document how the child meets the kinship guardianship eligibility requirements.
(B) Specific elements of specialized permanency services may be included in the case plan as needed to meet the permanency needs of the individual child or nonminor dependent.
(C) When the child is 16 years of age or older and is in another planned permanent living arrangement, the case plan shall identify the intensive and ongoing efforts to return the child to the home of the parent, place the child for adoption, place the child for tribal customary adoption in the case of an Indian child, establish a legal guardianship, or place the child nonminor dependent with a fit and willing relative, as appropriate. Efforts shall include the use of technology, including social media, to find biological family members of the child.
(16) (A) (i) For a child who is 14 or 15 years of age, the case plan shall include a written description of the programs and services that will help the child, consistent with the child’s best interests, to prepare for the transition from foster care to successful adulthood. The description may be included in the document described in subparagraph (A) of paragraph (18).
(ii) When appropriate, for a child who is 16 years of age or older and, commencing January 1, 2012, for a nonminor dependent, the case plan shall include the transitional independent living plan (TILP), a written description of the programs and services that will help the child, consistent with the child’s best interests, to prepare for the transition from foster care to successful adulthood, and, in addition, whether the youth has an in-progress application pending for Title XVI Supplemental Security Income benefits or for special immigrant juvenile status or other applicable application for legal residency and an active dependency case is required for that application. For a child who speaks a primary language other than English, the TILP shall be translated into their primary language. When appropriate, for a nonminor dependent, the transitional independent living case plan, as described in subdivision (y) of Section 11400, shall include the TILP, a written description of the programs and services that will help the nonminor dependent, consistent with their best interests, to prepare for transition from foster care and assist the youth in meeting the eligibility criteria set forth in paragraphs (1) to (5), inclusive, of subdivision (b) of Section 11403. If applicable, the case plan shall describe the individualized supervision provided in the supervised independent living placement as defined in subdivision (w) of Section 11400. The case plan shall be developed with the child or nonminor dependent and individuals identified as important to the child or nonminor dependent, and shall include steps the agency is taking to ensure that the child or nonminor dependent achieves permanence, including maintaining or obtaining permanent connections to caring and committed adults.
(B) During the 90-day period prior to the participant attaining 18 years of age or older as the state may elect under Section 475(8)(B)(iii) of the federal Social Security Act (42 U.S.C. Sec. 675(8)(B)(iii)), whether during that period foster care maintenance payments are being made on the child’s behalf or the child is receiving benefits or services under Section 477 of the federal Social Security Act (42 U.S.C. Sec. 677), a caseworker or other appropriate agency staff or probation officer and other representatives of the participant, as appropriate, shall provide the youth or nonminor dependent with assistance and support in developing the written 90-day transition plan, that is personalized at the direction of the child, information as detailed as the participant elects that shall include, but not be limited to, options regarding housing, health insurance, education, local opportunities for mentors and continuing support services, and workforce supports and employment services, a power of attorney for health care, and information regarding the advance health care directive form. Information provided regarding health insurance options shall include verification that the eligible youth or nonminor dependent is enrolled in Medi-Cal and a description of the steps that have been or will be taken by the youth’s social worker or probation officer to ensure that the eligible youth or nonminor dependent is transitioned into the Medi-Cal program for former foster youth upon case closure with no interruption in coverage and with no new application being required, as provided in Section 14005.28.
(C) For youth 14 years of age or older, the case plan shall include documentation that a consumer credit report was requested annually from each of the three major credit reporting agencies at no charge to the youth and that any results were provided to the youth. For nonminor dependents, the case plan shall include documentation that the county assisted the nonminor dependent in obtaining their reports. The case plan shall include documentation of barriers, if any, to obtaining the credit reports. If the consumer credit report reveals any accounts, the case plan shall detail how the county ensured the youth received assistance with interpreting the credit report and resolving any inaccuracies, including any referrals made for the assistance.
(17) For youth 14 years of age or older and nonminor dependents, the case plan shall be developed in consultation with the youth. At the youth’s option, the consultation may include up to two members of the case planning team who are chosen by the youth and who are not foster parents of, or caseworkers for, the youth. The agency, at any time, may reject an individual selected by the youth to be a member of the case planning team if the agency has good cause to believe that the individual would not act in the youth’s best interest. One individual selected by the youth to be a member of the case planning team may be designated to be the youth’s adviser and advocate with respect to the application of the reasonable and prudent parent standard to the youth, as necessary.
(18) For youth in foster care 14 years of age or older and nonminor dependents, the case plan shall include both of the following:
(A) A document that describes the youth’s rights with respect to education, health, visitation, and court participation, the right to be annually provided with copies of their credit reports at no cost while in foster care pursuant to Section 10618.6, and the right to stay safe and avoid exploitation.
(B) A signed acknowledgment by the youth that they have been provided a copy of the document and that the rights described in the document have been explained to the youth in an age-appropriate manner.
(19) The case plan for a child or nonminor dependent who is, or who is at risk of becoming, the victim of commercial sexual exploitation, shall document the services provided to address that issue.
(20) For a youth in foster care 10 years of age or older who is in junior high, middle, or high school, or a nonminor dependent enrolled in high school, the case plan shall be reviewed annually, and updated as needed, to indicate that the case management worker has verified that the youth or nonminor dependent received comprehensive sexual health education that meets the requirements established in Chapter 5.6 (commencing with Section 51930) of Part 28 of Division 4 of Title 2 of the Education Code, through the school system. The case plan shall document either of the following:
(A) For a youth in junior high or middle school, either that the youth has already received this instruction during junior high or middle school, or how the county will ensure that the youth receives the instruction at least once before completing junior high or middle school if the youth remains under the jurisdiction of the dependency court during this timeframe.
(B) For a youth or nonminor dependent in high school, either that the youth or nonminor dependent already received this instruction during high school, or how the county will ensure that the youth or nonminor dependent receives the instruction at least once before completing high school if the youth or nonminor dependent remains under the jurisdiction of the dependency court during this timeframe.
(21) (A) For a youth in foster care 10 years of age or older or a nonminor dependent, the case plan shall be updated annually to indicate that the case management worker has done all of the following:
(i) Informed the youth or nonminor dependent that they may access age-appropriate, medically accurate information about reproductive and sexual health care, including, but not limited to, unplanned pregnancy prevention, abstinence, use of birth control, abortion, and the prevention and treatment of sexually transmitted infections.
(ii) Informed the youth or nonminor dependent, in an age- and developmentally appropriate manner, of their right to consent to sexual and reproductive health care services and their confidentiality rights regarding those services.
(iii) Informed the youth or nonminor dependent how to access reproductive and sexual health care services and facilitated access to that care, including by assisting with any identified barriers to care, as needed.
(B) This paragraph shall not be construed to affect any applicable confidentiality law.
(22) For a child who is 16 years of age or older and for a nonminor dependent, the case plan shall identify the person or persons, who may include the child’s high school counselor, Court-Appointed Special Advocate, guardian, or other adult, who shall be responsible for assisting the child or nonminor dependent with applications for postsecondary education and related financial aid, unless the child or nonminor dependent states that they do not want to pursue postsecondary education, including career or technical education. If, at any point in the future, the child or nonminor dependent expresses that they wish to pursue postsecondary education, the case plan shall be updated to identify an adult individual responsible for assisting the child or nonminor dependent with applications for postsecondary education and related financial aid.
(h) If the court finds, after considering the case plan, that unsupervised sibling visitation is appropriate and has been consented to, the court shall order that the child or the child’s siblings, the child’s current caregiver, and the child’s prospective adoptive parents, if applicable, be provided with information necessary to accomplish this visitation. This section does not require or prohibit the social worker’s facilitation, transportation, or supervision of visits between the child and their siblings.
(i) The case plan documentation on sibling placements required under this section shall not require modification of existing case plan forms until the Child Welfare Services/Case Management System (CWS/CMS) is implemented on a statewide basis.
(j) When a child is 10 years of age or older and has been in out-of-home placement for six months or longer, the case plan shall include an identification of individuals, other than the child’s siblings, who are important to the child and actions necessary to maintain the child’s relationships with those individuals, provided that those relationships are in the best interest of the child. The social worker or probation officer shall ask every child who is 10 years of age or older and who has been in out-of-home placement for six months or longer to identify individuals other than the child’s siblings who are important to the child, and may ask any other child to provide that information, or may seek that information from the child and family team, as appropriate. The social worker or probation officer shall make efforts to identify other individuals who are important to the child, consistent with the child’s best interests.
(k) The child’s caregiver shall be provided a copy of a plan outlining the child’s needs and services. The nonminor dependent’s caregiver shall be provided with a copy of the nonminor’s TILP.
(l) Each county shall ensure that the total number of visits made by caseworkers on a monthly basis to children in foster care during a federal fiscal year is not less than 95 percent of the total number of those visits that would occur if each child were visited once every month while in care and that the majority of the visits occur in the residence of the child. The county child welfare and probation departments shall comply with data reporting requirements that the department deems necessary to comply with the federal Child and Family Services Improvement Act of 2006 (Public Law 109-288) and the federal Child and Family Services Improvement and Innovation Act (Public Law 112-34).
(m) The implementation and operation of the amendments to subdivision (i) enacted at the 2005–06 Regular Session shall be subject to appropriation through the budget process and by phase, as provided in Section 366.35.

SEC. 234.

 Section 18929 of the Welfare and Institutions Code is amended to read:

18929.
 To the extent permitted by federal law, regulation, or a waiver of a federal law or regulation, a county shall determine that good cause exists for purposes of the work requirement specified in Section 273.7(a)(1)(vii) of Title 7 of the Code of Federal Regulations if an applicant or recipient has voluntarily quit a job or reduced work hours based on at least one of the reasons enumerated in subdivision (a) of Section 11320.31, or because the scheduled work hours were so unpredictable that they did not allow the applicant or recipient to anticipate the amount of monthly income from the job. If the applicant or recipient reports refusing any offer of employment, reducing hours, voluntarily quitting any employment, or being discharged from any employment, the county human services agency shall provide the applicant or recipient with information regarding workplace rights generally, including information about how to file complaints with the Division of Labor Standards Enforcement and the Civil Rights Department. This information shall be provided pursuant to the instructions developed by the workgroup specified in subdivision (d) of Section 11320.31.

SEC. 235.

 Any section of any act enacted by the Legislature during the 2023 calendar year that takes effect on or before January 1, 2024, and that amends, amends and renumbers, adds, repeals and adds, or repeals a section that is amended, amended and renumbered, added, repealed and added, or repealed by this act, shall prevail over this act, whether that act is enacted before, or subsequent to, the enactment of this act.